Cable modem

A) have widely variable data rates, from under 2Mbps to over 6Mbps.
B) should not be used without firewalls.
C) utilize Ethernet on the customer side.
D) cannot be used in conjunction with Cable TV.

In the telephone network hierarchy a Class 4 office (toll center) is in

A) the second layer.

B) the first layer.

C) the fourth layer.

D) the third layer.

Conversion from analog to digital is accomplished by

A) POP.

B) PCM.

C) TDM.

D) LEC.

Typically dynamic allocation is done by a

A) T-1.

B) T-3.

C) CPE.

D) PBX.

All subscribers are connected to

A) LATAs.

B) IXCs.

C) POPs.

D) LECs.

The technology originally developed by Bellcore and utilized to avoid installing costly repeaters was

A) Asymmetric DSL.

B) Symmetric DSL.

C) high bit-rate DSL.

D) very high bit-rate DSL.

The Telecommunications ACT of 1996 was aimed at

A) separating mobile telephony from wired telephony.
B) breaking up AT&T.
C) increasing competition in telephone service.
D) insuring that a fiber-optic infrastructure would be created.

When time slots are taken from a customer using call waiting service, this function is called

A) in-band signaling.

B) discrete multitone.

C) bit-robbing.

D) out-of-band signaling.

ISDN was replaced by

A) LEC.

B) SONET.

C) PBX.

D) DSL.

Typical local loop telephone service is known as

A) RBOC.

B) BOC.

C) LATA.

D) POTS.

The public switched telephone network

A) carries local phone service.

B) facilitates interconnection of LECs with IXCs.

C) is a hierarchical structure.

D) is not readily available to most customers.

C) is a hierarchical structure.

(all a,b and c are correct)

A standard for the provision of ADSL was

A) CAP.

B) carrier amplitude/phase modulation.

C) DSLAM.

D) indiscrete multitone.

When a T-1 circuit is leased, the telco requires the customer to connect via of a

A) CSU.

B) DSU.

C) CPE.

D) PBX.

The device that sits between the T-1 and the customer equipment is a

A) CPE.

B) CSU.

C) DSU.

D) B8ZS.

The primary center can be owned by

A) an IXC.

B) an LEC or an IXC.

C) an LEC.

D) a BOC.

Nodes that provide access to the WAN are called

A) edge routers.

B) access devices.

C) end system devices.

D) intermediate devices.

The X.25 interface is based on

A) datagrams.

B) public data networks.

C) virtual circuits.

D) port numbers.

A guaranteed minimum level of network capacity is provided by

A) VBR.

B) ABR.

C) UBR.

D) CBR.

The network designers streamlined the operation of X.25 by introducing the

A) packet assembler.

B) dumb terminal.

C) link access procedure.

D) frame relay.

A temporary virtual circuit is a

A) POP.

B) call termination.

C) SVC.

D) PVC.

The routing function in an ATM network uses a connection oriented service called

A) best-effort service.

B) datagram service.

C) virtual circuit service.

D) forwarding link.

In an X.25 network, variable size frames are permitted by

A) data links.

B) file transfer protocols.

C) frame relay.

D) Internet protocols.

A device which is required to connect a node to a packet switched network is a

A) DCE.

B) PAD.

C) BERT.

D) BER.

A mechanism which helps the network from being overwhelmed by heavy demand is a

A) forward explicit congestion notification.

B) frame relay assembler.

C) frame relay disassembler.

D) packet assembler.

Which of the following is not a basic WAN component?

A) Link.

B) Switch.

C) Node.

D) Port.

On the Internet, the transport layer protocol is

A) TCP.

B) FTP.

C) IP.

D) dedicated route.

To create a 12 bit identifier X.25 combines a Logical group number with a

A) packet number.

B) virtual circuit number.

C) port number.

D) logical channel number.

With an ATM network, the best effort attempt to transmit the user's data is regulated by

A) UBR.

B) CBR.

C) VBR.

D) ABR.

When a virtual circuit is established, the network assigns a separate and unique

A) resequencing number.

B) port number.

C) virtual circuit number.

D) packet number.

The typical connection to the frame relay network is via of a

A) frame relay assembler.

B) leased line.260.

C) packet assembler.

D) virtual circuit.

Configuration management

A) pertains to upgrading or updating software in attached devices.
B) is able to predict when the next failure might occur.
C) can be used as a lookup reference to see how to see how to resolve faults that recur.
D) is able to discern patterns that show areas that need attention.

Simple network management protocol (SNMP)

A) is not a product of IETF.

B) is an OSI layer 7 protocol.
C) is more difficult to understand than CMIP.

D) is a TCP/IP layer 5 protocol.

The network administrator

A) is the person in sole charge of the corporate database.
B) is responsible for firewall configuration.
C) monitors backup and recovery routines.
D) is someone who manages the network.

The systems administrator

A) is responsible for software licensing and acquisition.
B) is someone who is hands-on in the running of the network.
C) is responsible for performance tuning.
D) is responsible for network design and configuration.

Remote monitoring (RMON)

A) is required by devices on other attached networks.
B) is a protocol that is an extension of CMIP.
C) does not define statistics that can be passed between managers and remote devices.
D) have functions that can be deactivated for control purposes.

Fault management

A) does not take proactive measures to prevent failure or at least to keep the network running at a reduced capacity.
B) cannot be linked to a call from the Help desk.
C) is not functional when an NMS is not used.
D) aims at discovering, locating correcting, and logging failures and conditions that are likely to lead to failures.

Alarms

A) are not predefined in the MIB.
B) allow agent information to be requested on managed devices on all networks.
C) cannot determine when a fault is about to occur.
D) are fault alert messages sent periodically at preset intervals.

Network management

A) need to configure unused ports to reduce intrusion risk.
B) must unbalance connectivity needs with options for providing for those needs.
C) needs to keep networks trim and fit and avoid unneeded interconnections.
D) must consider merging LANs as traffic patterns emerge.

Managed objects (MO)

A) is another name for managed-addressable and manageable network equipment running management modules utilizing MIBs.
B) are the information types that managed devices collect and respond to.
C) issues commands to NEs and perform diagnostics.
D) manages one or more types of NEs.

FCAPS

A) is an acronym that comes from the five management areas on which it focuses: fault, consistency, accounting, performance, and security.
B) is a commonly used model for network management.
C) are compatible with RMON.
D) employ MIB modules.

Network hardware and software

A) are more likely homogeneous.
B) are more likely heterogeneous.
C) are usually based on the same standard or same version of the same standard.
D) are normally purchased from the same manufacturers.

Logs

A) is not part of the resolution process.
B) cannot be used as a lookup reference to see how to resolve faults that recur.
C) are an important part of fault management.
D) cannot discern patterns that show areas that need attention.

Network management modules (NMMs)

A) are installed in its unmanaged devices - the computer, hubs, switches, routers, and the like.
B) can determine the degree to which a network or intranet can be managed.
C) provide hardware options that monitor their devices.
D) are unable to collect information about their device states.

Management information bases (MIBs)

A) was published in 1991 as MIB3.
B) are not defined in SMI.
C) are a collection of information types called objects.
D) are not provided by device manufacturers.

Intermittent failures

A) are not as serious to deal with as "catastrophic" failures.
B) cannot be isolated by NMSs.
C) are one of the more frustrating and time-consuming situations to discover the source and causes.
D) are rarely the cause of dropped connections or login rejections.