Term
T/F
Advances in data storage have made routine violation of individual privacy more difficult. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
T/F
The last step in analyzing an ethical issue should be to identify the stakeholders-people who have a vested interest in the outcome of the decision. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
T/F
Privacy is the right to be left alone when you want to be, without surveillance or interference from other individuals or organizations.
|
|
Definition
|
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Term
T/F
Spyware is software that comes hidden in downloaded applications and can track your online movements. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
T/F
Trade secret law does not protect the actual ideas in a work product.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Copyright is the legal protection afforded intellectual property, such as a song, book, or video game.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The drawback to copyright protection is that the underlying ideas behind the work are not protected, only their reproduction in a product.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
According to the courts, the creation of software, unique concepts, general functional features, and even colors are protectable by copyright law.
|
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Definition
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Term
T/F
The key concepts in patent law are originality, novelty, and value.
|
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Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Despite the passage of several laws defining and addressing computer crime, accessing a computer system without authorization is not yet a federal crime.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Any unsolicited email is legally considered spam.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The most common type of computer-related RSI is carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Technostress is computer-related malady whose symptoms include fatigue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following best describes how new information systems result in legal grey areas?
A. They work with networked, electronic data, which are more difficult to control than information stored manually.
B. They result in new situations that are not covered by old laws.
C. They are implemented by technicians rather than managers.
D. They are created from sets of logical and technological rules rather than social or organizational mores. |
|
Definition
B. They result in new situations that are not covered by old laws. |
|
|
Term
The introduction of new information technology has a:
A. Dampening effect on the discourse of business ethics.
B. Ripple effect, raising new ethical, social, and political issues.
C. Beneficial effect for society as a whole, while raising dilemmas for consumers.
D. Waterfall effect in raising ever more complex ethical issues. |
|
Definition
B. Ripple effect, raising new ethical, social, and political issues. |
|
|
Term
In the information age, the obligations that individuals and organizations have concerning rights to intellectual property fall within the moral dimension of:
A. property rights and obligations
B. system quality
C. accountability and control
D. information rights and obligations |
|
Definition
A. property rights and obligations |
|
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Term
In the information age, the obligations that individuals and organizations have regarding the preservation of existing values and institutions fall within the moral dimension of:
A. family and home
B. property rights and obligations
C. system quality
D. quality of life
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the five moral dimensions of the information age do the central business activities of ChoicePoint raise?
A. property rights and obligations
B. system quality
C. accountability and control
D. information rights and obligations
|
|
Definition
D. information rights and obligations |
|
|
Term
NORA is a:
A. profiling technology used by the EU.
B. federal privacy law protecting networked data.
C. new data analysis technology that finds hidden connections between data in disparate sources.
D. sentencing guideline adopted in 1987 mandating stiff sentences on business executives.
|
|
Definition
C. new data analysis technology that finds hidden connections between data in disparate sources. |
|
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Term
Which of the following is NOT one of the five steps discussed in Chapter 4 as a process for analyzing an ethical issue?
A. assign responsibility
B. identify stakeholders
C. identify the options you can reasonably take
D. identify and clearly describe the facts |
|
Definition
|
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Term
A colleague of yours frequently takes for his own personal use small amounts of office supplies noting that the loss to the company is minimal. You counter that if everyone were to take office supplies the loss would no longer be minimal. Your rationale expresses which historical ethical principle?
A. Kant's Categorical Imperative
B. The Golden Rule
C. The Risk Aversion Principle
D. The 'no free lunch' rule |
|
Definition
A. Kant's Categorical Imperative |
|
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Term
A classic ethical dilemma is the hypothetical case of a man stealing from a grocery store in order to feed his straving family. If you used the utilitarian principle to evaluate this situation, you might agree that stealing the food is:
A. acceptable because the grocer suffers the least harm
B. acceptable because the higher value is the survival of the family
C. wrong because the man wouldn't want the grocer to steal from him
D. wrong because if everyone were to do this, the concept of personal property is defeated |
|
Definition
B. acceptable because the higher value is the survival of the family |
|
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Term
Immanuel Kant's Categorical Imperative states that:
A. if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, then it is not right to be taken at all.
B. one should take the action that produces the least harm or incurs the least cost.
C. one can put values in rank order and understand the consequences of various course of action.
D. if an action is not right for everyone to take, it is not right for anyone to take. |
|
Definition
D. if an action is not right for everyone to take, it is not right for anyone to take. |
|
|
Term
The ethical 'no free lunch' rule states that:
A. if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, then it is not right to be taken at any time.
B. one should take the action that produces the least harm or incurs the least cost.
C. one can put values in rank order and understand the consequences of various course of action.
D. everything is owned by someone else, and that the creator wants compensation for this work. |
|
Definition
D. everything is owned by someone else, and that the creator wants compensation for this work. |
|
|
Term
According to _____, you should take the action that produces the least harm.
A. Categorical Imperative
B. Risk Aversion Principle
C. Utilitarian Principle
D. Golden Rule |
|
Definition
B. Risk Aversion Principle |
|
|
Term
Which U.S. act restrics the information the federal government can collect and regulates what they can do with the information?
A. Privacy Act of 1974
B. Gamm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999
C. Freedom of Information Act
D. HIPAA of 1996 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
FIP Principles are based on the notion of the:
A. accountability of the record holder
B. responsibility of the record holder
C. mutuality of interest between the record holder and the individual
D. privacy of the individual
|
|
Definition
C. mutuality of interest between the record holder and the individual |
|
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Term
The Federal Trade Commission FIP principle of Notice/Awareness states that:
A. customers must be allowed to choose how their information will be used for secondary purposes other than the supporting transaction.
B. data collectors must take responsible steps to assure that consumer information is accurate and secure from unauthorized use.
C. there is a mechanism in place to enforce FIP principles.
D. Web sites must disclose their information practices before collecting data. |
|
Definition
D. Web sites must disclose their information practices before collecting data.
|
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Term
Which of the following U.S. laws gives patients access to personal medical records and the right to authorize how this information can be used or disclosed?
A. HIPAA
B. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act
C. Privacy Protection Act
D. Freedom of Information Act |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
European privacy protection is _____ than in the United States.
A. less far reaching
B. less liable to laws
C. much less stringent
D. much more stringent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
U.S. businesses are allowed to use personal data from EU countries if they:
A. have informed consent
B. create a safe harbor
C. develop equivalent privacy protection policies
D. make their privacy protection policies publicly available |
|
Definition
C. develop equivalent privacy protection policies |
|
|
Term
When a cookie is created during a Web site visit, it is stored:
A. on the web site computer
B. on the visitor's computer
C. on the ISP's computer
D. in a web directory |
|
Definition
B. on the visitor's computer |
|
|
Term
The Online Privacy Alliance:
A. encourages self regulation to develop a set of privacy guidelines for its members.
B. protects user privacy during interactions with Web sites.
C. has established technical guidelines for ensuring privacy.
D. is a government agency regulating the use of customer information |
|
Definition
A. encourages self regulation to develop a set of privacy guidelines for its members. |
|
|
Term
A(n) ______ model of informed consent permits the collection of personal information until the consumer specifically requests that the data not be collected.
A. opt-in
B. opt-out
C. P3P
D. PGP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The limitation of trade secret protection for software is that it is difficult to prevent the ideas in the work from falling into the public domain when:
A. the courts become involved
B. hackers are able to break into the source
C. the software is widely distributed
D. a new version of the software is released |
|
Definition
C. the software is widely distributed |
|
|
Term
Intellectual property can best be described as:
A. intangible property created by individuals or corporations.
B. unique creative work or ideas.
C. tangible or intangible property created from a unique idea.
D. the expression of an intangible idea. |
|
Definition
A. intangible property created by individuals or corporations. |
|
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Term
What legal mechanism protects the owners of intellectual property from having their work copied by others?
A. Patent protection
B. Intellectual property law
C. Copyright law
D. Fair Use Doctrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
'Look and feel' copyright infringement lawsuits are concerned with:
A. the distinction between tangible and intangible ideas
B. the distintcion between an idea and its expression
C. using the graphical elements of another product
D. using the creative elements of another product |
|
Definition
B. the distinction between an idea and its expression |
|
|
Term
The strength of patent protection is that it:
A. puts the strength of the law behind copyright
B. allow protection from Internet theft of ideas put forth publicly
C. is easy to define
D. grants a monopoly of underlying concepts and ideas |
|
Definition
D. grants a monopoly of underlying concepts and ideas |
|
|
Term
One of the drawbacks of patent protections is:
A. that only the underlying ideas are protected
B. digital media cannot be patented
C. preventing the ideas from falling into public domain
D. the years of waiting to receive it |
|
Definition
D. the years of waiting to receive it |
|
|
Term
Which of the following adjusts copyright laws to the Internet age by making it illegal to circumvent technology-based protections of copyrighted materials?
A. Digital Millennium Copyright Act
B. Privacy Act
C. Freedom of Information Act
D. Electronic Communications Privacy Act |
|
Definition
A. Digital Millennium Copyright Act |
|
|
Term
_______ are not held liable for the messages they transmit.
A. Regulated common carriers
B. Private individuals
C. Organizations and businesses
D. Elected officials |
|
Definition
A. Regulated common carriers |
|
|
Term
It is not feasible for companies to produce error-free software because:
A. any programming code is susceptible to error
B. it is too expensive to create perfect software
C. errors can be introduced in the maintenance stage of development
D. any software of any complexity will have errors |
|
Definition
B. it is too expensive to create perfect software |
|
|
Term
The most common source of business system failure is:
A. software bugs
B. software erros
C. hardware or facilities failures
D. data quality
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Flash cookies are different from ordinary cookies in that they:
A. are installed only at the user's request
B. are not stored on the user's computer
C. cannot be easily detected or deleted
D. monitor the user's behavior at a web site |
|
Definition
C. cannot be easily detected or deleted |
|
|
Term
The 'do anything anywhere' computing environment can:
A. make work environments much more pleasant
B. create economies of efficiency
C. centralize power at corporate headquarters
D. blur the traditional boundaries between work and family time |
|
Definition
D. blur the traditional boundaries between work and family time |
|
|
Term
The practice of spamming has been growing because:
A. telephone solicitation is no longer legal
B. it is good advertising practice and brings in many new customers
C. it helps pay for the internet
D. it is so inexpensive and can reach so many people |
|
Definition
D. it is so inexpensive and can reach so many people |
|
|
Term
The U.S. CAN-SPAM Act of 2003:
A) makes spamming illegal.
B) requires spammers to identify themselves.
C) has dramatically cut down spamming.
D) does not override state anti-spamming laws. |
|
Definition
B. requires spammers to identify themselves |
|
|
Term
Which of the five moral dimensions of the information age does spamming raise?
A) Quality of life
B) System quality
C) Accountability and control
D) Information rights and obligations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Re-designing and automating business processes can be seen as a double-edged sword because:
A) increases in efficiency may be accompanied by job losses.
B) increases in efficiency may be accompanied by poor data quality.
C) support for middle-management decision making may be offset by poor data quality.
D) reliance on technology results in the loss of hands-on knowledge.
|
|
Definition
A. increases in efficiency may be accompanied by job losses |
|
|
Term
The term "________ divide" refers to large disparities in access to computers and the Internet among different social groups and different locations.
A) computer
B) technology
C) digital
D) electronic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CVS refers to:
A) eyestrain related to computer display screen use.
B) carpal vision syndrome.
C) wrist injuries brought about by incorrect hand position when using a keyboard.
D) stress induced by technology. |
|
Definition
A. eyestrain related to computer display screen use |
|
|
Term
________ can be induced by tens of thousands of repetitions under low-impact loads.
A) CTS
B) CVS
C) RSI
D) Technostress |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The principles of right and wrong that can be used by individuals to make choices to guide their behavior are called morals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Advertisers use ________ in order to display more relevant ads based on user's search and browsing history.
A) behavioral targeting
B) web bugs
C) NORA
D) intelligent agents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Descartes' rule of change, that if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, it is not right to take at all, is also known as:
A) the slippery-slope rule.
B) the lemming rule.
C) high-failure cost rule.
D) the utilitarian principle. |
|
Definition
A. the slippery-slope rule |
|
|
Term
T/F
Liability refers to the existence of laws that permit individuals to recover damages done to them by other actors, systems, or organizations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The Utilitarian Principle asks you to put yourself in the place of others, and think of yourselef as the object of the decision. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Safe harbor is informal permission to reuse data given with the knowledge of all the facts needed to make a rational decision.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A web beacon is a tiny object embedded in email messages and web pages that is designed to monitor online Internet user behavior.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ model prohibits an organization from collecting any personal information unless the individual specifically takes action to approve information collection and use.
A) safe harbor
B) opt-in
C) FIP
D) P3P |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A(n) ________ grants the owner an exclusive monopoly on the ideas behind an invention for 20 years.
A) copyright
B) trademark
C) patent
D) trade secret |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The commission of acts involving the computer that may not be illegal but are considered unethical is called computer abuse.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
IT infrastructure is the set of physical devices required to operate the entire enterprise. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Today, most system and application software is custom built by in-house programmers.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
One aspect of systems integration refers to ensuring that legacy systems work with new elements of the infrastructure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Client/server computing is the most widely used form of centralized processing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Application server software is responsible for locating and managing stored Web pages. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
In cloud computing, rapid elasticity refers to the ability of computing resources to be quickly altered to meet demand. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A computer language translation program is an example of system software. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Hypertext markup language (HTML) specifies how text, graphics, video, and sound are placed on a document. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Web services can exchange information between two different systems regardless of the operating system of programming languages on which the systems are based. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The collection of Web services that are used to build a firm's software system constitutes what is known as a service-oriented architecture. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
SaaS providers deliver and provide Web-based, remote access to storage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Allowing departments to make their own software and hardware purchases increases efficiency and minimizes the need for centralized support. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Total cost of ownership components includes cost for downtime, training, and support. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Software localization refers to the entire process of converting software to operate in a second language. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a(n) ________ computing model, companies use their own infrastructure for essential computing tasks and adopt public cloud computing for less critical operations or additional processing during peak business periods.
A) scalable
B) quantum
C) autonomic
D) hybrid cloud |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Software that manages the resources of the computer is called:
A) system software.
B) application software.
C) data management software.
D) network software. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Software used to apply the computer to a specific task for an end user is called:
A) system software.
B) application software.
C) data management software.
D) network software |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Software that organizes, manages, and processes business data, such as data concerned with inventory, customers, and vendors, is called:
A) system software.
B) application software.
C) data management software.
D) network software. |
|
Definition
C. data management software |
|
|
Term
Legacy systems are still in use today because:
A) they can only be run on the older mainframe computers.
B) they are too expensive to redesign.
C) many integrate well using new Web services technologies.
D) they contain valuable data that would be lost during redesign. |
|
Definition
B. they are too expensive to redesign |
|
|
Term
) Which of the following types of computer is used for weather forecasting?
A) Mainframe
B) Server
C) Minicomputer
D) Supercomputer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Connecting geographically remote computers in a single network to create a "virtual supercomputer" is called:
A) co-location.
B) cloud computing.
C) grid computing.
D) autonomic computing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In client/server computing, the client is:
A) the computer that acts as the user point of entry.
B) the location of the bulk of the processing.
C) software program used for logging on to the network.
D) the computer that firsts asks for services. |
|
Definition
A. the computer that acts as the user point of entry |
|
|
Term
Which of the following storage technology stores data sequentially?
A. CD-ROM
B. RAID
C. Magnetic disks
D. Magnetic tape
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A high speed network dedicated to storage that connects different kinds of storage devices, such as tape libraries and disk arrays so they can be shared by multiple servers, best describes:
A. SSN
B. ASP
C. LAN (local area network)
D. SAN (storage area network) |
|
Definition
D. SAN (storage area network) |
|
|
Term
What type of device gathers data and converts them into electronic form for use by the computer?
A. output device
B. input device
C. optical storage
D. magnetic storage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following devices collects data directly from the environment for input into a computer system?
A. sensor
B. touch screen
C. audio input
D. trackball |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a type of output device?
A. speakers
B. cathode ray tube
C. ink jet printer
D. keyboard |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Virtualization:
A) allows one operating system to manage several physical machines. (allows one physical machine to run more than one operating system)
B) has enabled microprocessor manufacturers to reduce the size of transistors to the width of an atom.
C) can boost server utilization rates to 70% or higher.
D) allows smartphones to run full-fledged operating systems. |
|
Definition
C. can boost server utilization rates to 70% or higher |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is not true about cloud computing?
A) It consists of three types of services: cloud infrastructure, cloud platform, and cloud software.
B) It removes the concern about data and systems security for businesses.
C) It allows smaller firms to use resources previously unaffordable.
D) It relies on the Internet as the platform for delivering services to users. |
|
Definition
B. It removes the concern about data and systems security for businesses. |
|
|
Term
Purchasing computing power from a central computing service and paying only for the amount of computing power used is commonly referred to as:
A. grid computing
B. utility computing
C. client/server computing
D. autonomic computing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ describes the practices and technologies used minimize the environmental effects of manufacturing and managing computing devices.
A) Capacity planning
B) Cloud computing
C) Green computing
D) Autonomic computing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An example of autonomic computing is:
A) virus protection software that runs and updates itself automatically.
B) software programmed to run on any hardware platform.
C) cell phones taking on the functions of handheld computers.
D) programming languages that allow non-programmers to create custom applications. |
|
Definition
A. virus protection software that runs and updates itself automatically. |
|
|
Term
An industry-wide effort to develop systems that can configure, optimize, tune, and heal themselves when broken, and protect themselves from outside intruders and self-destruction is called:
A) grid computing.
B) utility computing.
C) cloud computing.
D) autonomic computing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The interactive, multiuser operating system developed by Bell Laboratories in 1969 to be highly supportive of communications and networking is:
A) UNIX.
B) Linux.
C) Mac OS.
D) COBOL. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Linux is:
A) primarily concerned with the tasks of end users.
B) designed for specific machines and specific microprocessors.
C) an example of open-source software.
D) especially useful for processing numeric data. |
|
Definition
C. an example of open-source software |
|
|
Term
The toy manufacturer you work for wants to exchange data with a chain of toy stores in order to improve their distribution and speed to market. The toy stores use different software than your firm. Which of the following tools or technologies presents the best solution?
A) Mashups
B) Extranet
C) Web services
D) Cloud computing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Apps:
A) lower the cost of switching mobile platforms.
B) are an example of open-source software.
C) tie the user to a particular hardware platform.
D) require the user to have an online connection. |
|
Definition
D. require the user to have an online connection |
|
|
Term
Linux:
A) is a Windows-like operating system.
B) plays a major role in running Web servers and local area networks.
C) is the primary OS used in quantum computing.
D) is designed to support only UNIX computers. |
|
Definition
A. is a Windows-like operating system |
|
|
Term
ChicagoCrime.org, which combines Google Maps with crime data for the city of Chicago, is an example of:
A) cloud computing.
B) SOA.
C) a widget.
D) a mashup. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Software applications that combine different components of online software applications are referred to as:
A) integrated software.
B) widgets.
C) mashups.
D) grid computing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following place strain on system capacity, except for:
A) increased number of users.
B) reduced response time for transaction processing. (if increased (faster) response time is required, it will stress the system.)
C) increased business volume.
D) large numbers of interactive Web pages. |
|
Definition
B. reduced respone time for transaction processing |
|
|
Term
Which of the following refers to the ability of a computer, product, or system to expand to serve a larger number of users without breaking down?
A) Modifiability
B) Scalability
C) Expandability
D) Disintermediation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To analyze the direct and indirect costs and determine the actual cost of specific technology implementations, you would use a:
A) total cost of ownership model.
B) return on investment model.
C) break-even point.
D) cost benefit analysis. |
|
Definition
A. total cost of ownership model |
|
|
Term
Translating software to different languages is commonly referred to as:
A) software localization
B) scaling
C) service-oriented architecture
D) outsourcing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Nanotechnology uses individual atoms and molecules to create computer chips and other devices that are thousands of times smaller than current technologies permit. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A(n) ________ allows users to interact with a computer by using several fingers to perform gestures without using a mouse or keyboard.
A) GUI
B) multitouch interface
C) touch screen
D) interface |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A software package for a maintenance usually requires an IT professional to install it. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Web browsers are the primary interface for accessing the Internet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
XML provides a standard format for data exchange, enabling Web services to pass data from one process to another. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ is free software created and updated by a worldwide community of programmers.
A) An app
B) Open-source software
C) Cloud-based software
D) A Web service |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You use ________ to predict when a computer hardware system becomes saturated.
A) capacity planning
B) virtualization
C) localization
D) measured service |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
An SaaS provider maintains a large Web server, or series of servers, and provides fee-paying subscribers with space to maintain their Web sites. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Web mining is the discovery of useful patterns on the Web.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A grouping of characters into a word, a group of words, or a complete number is called a record. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Every record in a file should contain at least one key field. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Both Oracle and Microsoft Access use SQL to retrieve information from the database.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
DBMS simplify how end users work with databases by separating the logical and physical views of the data. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Most back-end databases are able to interpret HTML commands. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Hadoop can process large quantities of any type of data, including video and Twitter feeds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A data warehouse may include information from legacy systems. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A data warehouse is typically comprised of several smaller data marts.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
OLAP is used to find hidden patterns and relationships in large databases, and infer rules from these to infer future behavior. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A foreign key in a table of the database is a field that links to the primary key of another table. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
In-memory computing relies on a computer's main memory (RAM) for storing data. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A firm's information policy lays out who is responsible for updating and maintaining the information in a database system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The use of different terms for identifying data in a firm's various information systems is an example of redundant data.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Data cleansing is the same process as data scrubbing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the first step you should take in managing data for a firm?
A) Identify the data needed to run the business
B) Cleanse the data before importing it to any database
C) Normalize the data before importing to a database
D) Audit your data quality |
|
Definition
A) Identify the data needed to run the business. |
|
|
Term
The type of logical database model that treats data as if they were stored in two-dimensional tables is the:
A) two-tiered DBMS
B) pre-digital DBMS
C) relational DBMS
D) hierarchical DBMS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a table for customers, the information about a single customer would reside in a single:
A) field
B) row
C) column
D) table |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A field identified in a table as holding the unique identifier of the table's records is called the:
A) primary key.
B) key field.
C) primary field.
D) foreign key |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A field identified in a table as holding the unique identifier for that record is called the:
A) primary key.
B) key field.
C) primary field
D) foreign key |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The process of streamlining data to minimize redundancy and awkward many-to-many relationships is called:
A) normalization.
B) data scrubbing.
C) data cleansing.
D) data administration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A DBMS makes the:
A) physical database available for different logical views.
B) logical database available for different analytical views.
C) physical database available for different relational views.
D) relational database available for different physical views. |
|
Definition
A. physical database availlable for different logical views. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a typical feature of DBMS?
A) Data manipulation language
B) Report generation tools
C) Data dictionary
D) Query wizard tool |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In clustering, a data mining tool will:
A) find new groupings within data.
B) find related predictions from existing values.
C) find several events grouped by time.
D) find new associations. |
|
Definition
A. find new grouping within data |
|
|
Term
MySQL is a:
A) DBMS for small handheld computing devices.
B) popular open-source DBMS.
C) mainframe relational DBMS.
D) DBMS for desktop systems. |
|
Definition
B. popular open-source DBMS |
|
|
Term
Data mining is more ________ than OLAP.
A) data focused
B) multidimensional
C) query oriented
D) discovery driven |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are tools or technologies for extracting information from unstructured data sets except:
A) sentiment analysis software.
B) SQL queries.
C) Hadoop.
D) Non-relational DBMS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most prominent data manipulation language today is:
A) Access
B) DB2
C) SQL
D) Crystal Reports |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about data warehouses is not true?
A) They store supply data to be used across the enterprise for management analysis and decision making.
B) Data warehouse systems provide a range of ad hoc and standardized query tools, analytical tools, and graphical reporting facilities.
C) They may include data from Web site transactions.
D) Data warehouse systems provide easy-to-use tools for managers to easily update data.
|
|
Definition
D. Data warehouse systems provide easy-to-use tools for managers to easily update data. |
|
|
Term
A data mart usually can be constructed more rapidly and at lower cost than a data warehouse because:
A) it typically focuses on a single subject area or line of business.
B) all the information is historical.
C) it uses a Web interface.
D) all of the information belongs to a single company. |
|
Definition
A. it typically focuses on a single subject area or line of business. |
|
|
Term
Tools for consolidating, analyzing, and providing access to vast amounts of data to help users make better business decisions are known as:
A) DSS
B) business intelligence tools.
C) OLAP
D) data mining tools |
|
Definition
B. business intelligence tools |
|
|
Term
The tool that enables users to view the same data in different ways using multiple dimensions is:
A) Hadoop.
B) SQL.
C) OLAP.
D) data mining. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
OLAP is a tool for enabling:
A) users to obtain online answers to ad hoc questions rapidly.
B) users to view both logical and physical views of data.
C) programmers to quickly diagram data relationships.
D) programmers to normalize data. |
|
Definition
A. users to obtain online answers to ad hoc questions rapidly |
|
|
Term
Data mining is a tool for allowing users to:
A) quickly compare transaction data gathered over many years.
B) find hidden relationships in data.
C) obtain online answers to ad hoc questions in a rapid amount of time.
D) summarize massive amounts of data into much smaller, traditional reports.
|
|
Definition
B. find hidden relationships in data |
|
|
Term
In terms of the data relationships found by data mining, sequences refers to:
A) events linked over time.
B) patterns that describe a group to which an item belongs.
C) occurrences linked to a single event.
D) undiscovered groupings. |
|
Definition
A. events linked over time |
|
|
Term
Which of the following would you use to find patterns in user interaction data recorded by Web servers?
A) Web usage mining
B) Web server mining
C) Web structure mining
D) Web content mining |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would you use to find out which Web sites with content related to database design were the most often linked to by other Web sites?
A) Web usage mining
B) Web server mining
C) Web structure mining
D) Web content mining |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Within a corporate information services department, the task of creating the physical database and its logical relations are responsibilities of the ________ function.
A) database administration
B) data administration
C) server administration
D) data modeling |
|
Definition
A. database administration |
|
|
Term
Businesses use ________ tools to search and analyze unstructured data sets, such as e-mails and memos.
A) Hadoop
B) Web mining
C) text mining
D) OLAP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Detecting and correcting data in a database or file that are incorrect, incomplete, improperly formatted, or redundant is called:
A) data auditing.
B) defragmentation.
C) data scrubbing.
D) data optimization. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A DBMS is special software for creating, storing, organizing, and accessing data from a database. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A physical view shows data as it is organized on the storage media. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
End users use a data manipulation language to add, edit, delete data in the database. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hadoop is a(n):
A) NoSQL database technology that stores both data and procedures acting on the data as objects.
B) data mining platform designed for storing and analyzing big data produced by Web communications and transactions.
C) open-source software framework designed for distributing data-processing over inexpensive computers.
D) pre-configured hardware-software system designed for analyzing big data. |
|
Definition
C. open-source software framework designed for distributing data-processing over inexpensive computers. |
|
|
Term
A data ________ stores current and historical data of potential interest to decision makers throughout the company.
A) warehouse
B) mart
C) archive
D) mine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A(n) ________ is a dedicated computer in a client/server environment that hosts a DBMS.
A) web server
B) application server
C) database server
D) client server |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
An information policy specifies the procedures and rules for defining the structure and content of corporate databases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Data administration is a special organizational function that manages the policies and procedures through which data can be managed as an organizational resource. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A(n) ________ is a structured survey of the accuracy and level of completeness of the data in an information system.
A) data quality audit
B) systems analysis
C) systems audit
D) data analysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Increasinly, voice, video, and data communications are all mostly based on Internet technology. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A network operating system (NOS) must reside on a dedicated server computer in order to manage a network. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A hub is a networking device that connects network components and is used to filter and forward data to specified destinations on the network. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
In a client/server network, a network server provides every connected client with an address so it can be found on the network. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Central large mainframe computing has largely replaced client/server computing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Circuit switching makes much more efficient use of the communications capacity of a network than does packet switching. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Two computers using TCP/IP can communicate even if they are based on different hardware and software platforms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Coaxical cable is similar to that used for cable television and consists of thickly insulated copper wire. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The number of cycles per second that can be sent through any telecommunications medium is measured in kilobytes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The domain name system (DNS) converts domain names to IP addresses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The domain name system (DNS) converts domain names to IP addresses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
VoIP technology delivers voice information in digital form using packet switching. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
In a large company today, you will often find an infrastructire that includes hundreds of small LANs linked to each other as well as to corporate-wide networks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology is being gradually replaced by less costly technologies such as Wireless Sensor Networks (WSNs). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The device that acts as a connection point between computers and can filter and forward data to a specified destination is called a(n):
A) hub
B) switch
C) router
D) NIC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The method of slicing digital messages into parcels, transmitting them along different communication paths, and reassembling them at their destinations is called:
A) multiplexing.
B) packet switching.
C) packet routing.
D) ATM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The telephone system is an example of a ________ network.
A) peer-to-peer
B) wireless
C) packet-switched
D) circuit-switched |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a characteristic of packet switching?
A) Packets travel independently of each other.
B) Packets are routed through many different paths.
C) Packet switching requires point-to-point circuits.
D) Packets include data for checking transmission errors. |
|
Definition
C. packet switching requires point-to-point circuits. |
|
|
Term
In TCP/IP, IP is responsible for:
A) disassembling and reassembling of packets during transmission.
B) establishing an Internet connection between two computers.
C) moving packets over the network.
D) sequencing the transfer of packets. |
|
Definition
A. disassembling and reassembling of packets during transmission. |
|
|
Term
In a telecommunications network architecture, a protocol is:
A) a device that handles the switching of voice and data in a local area network.
B) a standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network.
C) a communications service for microcomputer users.
D) the main computer in a telecommunications network. |
|
Definition
B. a standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network |
|
|
Term
To use the analog telephone system for sending digital data, you must also use:
A) a modem.
B) a router.
C) DSL.
D) twisted wire. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The "Internet of Things" refers to:
A) the increasing focus on shopping as the major user activity on the Internet.
B) the microblogging trend, in which users exchange short text and pictures rather than longer and more in-depth content and text.
C) a vision of a pervasive Web, in which common objects are connected to and controlled over the Internet.
D) the trend away from platform-independent Web applications to mobile-device specific apps. |
|
Definition
C. a vision of a pervasive Web, in which common objects are connected to and controlled over the Internet. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a challenge faced by Wi-Fi networks?
A) Lack of broadband support
B) Connectivity issues with wired LANs
C) Susceptibility to interference from nearby wireless systems
D) High cost of infrastructure technology |
|
Definition
C. susceptibility to interference from nearby wireless systems |
|
|
Term
Bandwidth is the:
A) number of frequencies that can be broadcast through a medium.
B) number of cycles per second that can be sent through a medium.
C) difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accommodated on a single channel.
D) total number of bytes that can be sent through a medium per second. |
|
Definition
C. difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accomodated on a single channel |
|
|
Term
Digital subscriber lines:
A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.
B) operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access.
C) are very-high-speed data lines typically leased from long-distance telephone companies.
D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels. |
|
Definition
A. operate over existing lines to carry voice, data, and video |
|
|
Term
T lines:
A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.
B) operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access.
C) are high-speed, leased data lines providing guaranteed service levels.
D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels. |
|
Definition
C. are high speed, leased data lines providing guaranteed service levels |
|
|
Term
Which protocol is the Internet based on?
A) TCP/IP
B) FTP
C) packet-switching
D) HTTP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What service converts IP addresses into more recognizable alphanumeric names?
A) HTML
B) DNS
C) IP
D) HTTP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The child domain of the root is the:
A) top-level domain.
B) second-level domain.
C) host name.
D) domain extension. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the domain name "http://myspace.blogging.com", what are the root, top-level, second-level, and third-level domains, respectively?
A) "http://", myspace, blogging, com
B) "http://", com, blogging, myspace
C) ".", com, blogging, myspace
D) ".", myspace, blogging, com |
|
Definition
C. ".", com, blogging, myspace |
|
|
Term
IPv6 is being developed in order to:
A) update the packet transmission protocols for higher bandwidth.
B) create more IP addresses.
C) allow for different levels of service.
D) support Internet2. |
|
Definition
B. create more IP addresses |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about RFID is not true?
A) RFIDs transmit only over a short range.
B) RFIDs use an antenna to transmit data.
C) Microchips embedded in RFIDs are used to store data.
D) RFIDs require line-of-sight contact to be read. |
|
Definition
D. RFIDs require line-of-sight contact to be read |
|
|
Term
A VPN:
A) is an encrypted private network configured within a public network.
B) is more expensive than a dedicated network.
C) provides secure, encrypted communications using Telnet.
D) is an Internet-based service for delivering voice communications. |
|
Definition
A. is an encrypted private network configured within a public network. |
|
|
Term
Web browser software requests Web pages from the Internet using which protocol?
A) URL
B) HTTP
C) DNS
D) HTML |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Together, a protocol prefix, a domain name, a directory path, and a document name, are called a(n):
A) uniform resource locator (URL).
B) IP address.
C) third level domain.
D) root domain. |
|
Definition
A. Uniform resource locator (URL) |
|
|
Term
The process of employing techniques to help a Web site achieve a higher ranking with the major search engines is called:
A) virtual private network (VPN)
B) Internet Architecture Board (IAB).
C) Search Engine Marketing (SEM.)
D) Search Engine Optimization (SEO.) |
|
Definition
D. Search Engine Optimization (SEO) |
|
|
Term
The most appropriate wireless networking standard for creating PANs is:
A) I-mode.
B) IEEE 802.11b
C) WiFi
D) Bluetooth. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bluetooth can be used to link up to ________ devices within a 10-meter area using low-power, radio-based communication.
A) four
B) six
C) eight
D) ten |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
One or more access points positioned on a ceiling, wall, or other strategic spot in a public place to provide maximum wireless coverage for a specific area are referred to as:
A) touch points.
B) hotspots.
C) hot points.
D) wireless hubs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The 802.11 set of standards is known as:
A) WLAN.
B) WSN.
C) Wi-Fi.
D) WiMax. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The WiMax standard can transmit up to a distance of approximately:
A) 30 meters. (WiFi is 30-50 meters)
B) 500 meters.
C) 30 miles.
D) 5 miles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary difference between 3G and 4G cellular systems?
A) 4G systems are digital.
B) 4G systems have greater transmission speeds.
C) 3G systems are unable to handle Web browsing.
D) 3G systems have poor security. |
|
Definition
B. 4G systems have greater transmission speeds |
|
|
Term
A ________ is special software that routes and manages communications on the network and coordinates networks resources.
A) switch
B) firewall
C) server
D) network operating system/NOS |
|
Definition
D. network operating system (NOS) |
|
|
Term
T/F
A router is a device that forwards packets of data through different networks, ensuring the data gets to the right address. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Prior to the development of ________, computer networks used leased, dedicated telephone circuits to communicate with other computers in remote locations.
A) packet switching
B) routers
C) servers
D) coaxial cable |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
An analog signal is a discrete, binary waveform that transmits data coded into two discrete states such as 1-bits and 0-bits |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
An ISP is a commercial organization that owns a region of transcontinental high-speed backbone networks carrying the bulk of Internet traffic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The trunk lines of the Internet are typically owned by network service providers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Smartphones have the same security flaws as other Internet-connected devices. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Viruses can be spread through email. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
To secure mobile devices, a company will need to implement special mobile device management software. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Wireless networks are vulnerable to penetration because radio frequency bands are easy to scan. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
One form of spoofing involves forging the return address on an e-mail so that the e-mail message appears to come from someone other than the sender. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Sniffers enable hackers to steal proprietary informaiton from anywhere on a network, including email messages, company files, and confidential reports. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Denial of Service (DoS) attacks are used to destroy information and access restricted areas of a company's information system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The distributed nature of cloud computing makes it somewhat easier to track unauthorized access. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Zero defects cannot be achieved in larger software programs because fully testing programs that contain thousands of choices and millions of paths would require thousands of years. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
An acceptable use policy defines the acceptable level of access to information assets for different users. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Biometric authentication is the use of physical characteristics such as retinal images to provide identification. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Packet filtering catches most types of network attacks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
NAT conceals the IP addresses of the organization's internal host computers to deter sniffer programs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
SSL is a protocol used to establish a secure connection between two computers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Public key encryption uses two keys. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Smartphones typically feature state-of-the-art encryption and security features, making them highly secure tools for businesses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_______ refers to policies, procedures, and technical meausures used to prevent unauthorized access, alteration, theft, or physical damage to information systems. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_________ refers to al of the methods, policies, and organizational procedures that ensure the safety of the organization's assets, the accuracy and reliability of its accounting records, and operational adherence to management standards. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Large amounts of data stored in electronic form are _________ than the same data in manual form. |
|
Definition
Vulnerable to many more kinds of threats |
|
|
Term
Electronic data are more susceptible to destruction, fraud, error, and misuse because information systems concentrate data in computer files that: |
|
Definition
May be accessible by anyone who has access to the same network |
|
|
Term
Specific security challenges that threaten the communications lines in a client/server environment include: |
|
Definition
tapping, sniffing, message alteration, radiation |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about the Internet security is not true?
A) The use of P2P networks can expose a corporate computer to outsiders.
B) A corporate network without access to the Internet is more secure than one that provides access.
C) VoIP is more secure than the switched voice network.
D) Instant messaging can provide hackers access to an otherwise secure network.
Answer: C |
|
Definition
C. VoIP is more secure than the switched voice network |
|
|
Term
An independent computer program that copies itself from one computer to another over a network is called a: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A salesperson clicks repeatedly on the online ads of a competitor in order to drive the competitor's advertising costs up. This is an example of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In 2004, ICQ users were enticed by a sales message from a supposed anti-virus vendor. On the vendor's site, a small program called Mitglieder was downloaded to the user's machine. The program enabled outsiders to infiltrate the user's machine. What type of malware is this an example of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Redirecting a wed link to a different address is a form of:
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A keylogger is a type of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Using numerous computers to inundate and overwhelm the network from numerous launch points is called a(n) ________ attack. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An example of phishing is:
A) setting up a bogus Wi-Fi hot spot.
B) setting up a fake medical Web site that asks users for confidential information.
C) pretending to be a utility company's employee in order to garner information from that company about their security system.
D) sending bulk e-mail that asks for financial aid under a false pretext. |
|
Definition
B. setting up a fake medical web site that asks users for confidential information. |
|
|
Term
Evil twins are:
A) Trojan horses that appears to the user to be a legitimate commercial software application.
B) e-mail messages that mimic the e-mail messages of a legitimate business.
C) fraudulent Web sites that mimic a legitimate business's Web site.
D) bogus wireless network access points that look legitimate to users. |
|
Definition
D. bogus wireless network access points that look legitimate to users. |
|
|
Term
Pharming involves:
A) redirecting users to a fraudulent Web site even when the user has typed in the correct address in the Web browser.
B) pretending to be a legitimate business's representative in order to garner information about a security system.
C) setting up fake Web sites to ask users for confidential information.
D) using e-mails for threats or harassment. |
|
Definition
A. redirecting users to a fraudulent web site even when the user has typed in the correct address in the web browser. |
|
|
Term
You have been hired as a security consultant for a law firm. Which of the following constitues the greatest source of security threats to the firm?
A. wireless network
B. employees
C. authentication procedures
D. lack of data encryption |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tricking employees to reveal their passwords by pretending to be a legitimate member of a company is called:
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do software vendors correct flaws in their software after it has been distributed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The HIPAA Act of 1996:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules. |
|
Definition
D. outlines medical security and privacy rules. |
|
|
Term
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules. |
|
Definition
A. requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data. |
|
|
Term
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules. |
|
Definition
C. imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information. |
|
|
Term
Application controls:
A) can be classified as input controls, processing controls, and output controls.
B) govern the design, security, and use of computer programs and the security of data files in general throughout the organization.
C) apply to all computerized applications and consist of a combination of hardware, software, and manual procedures that create an overall control environment.
D) include software controls, computer operations controls, and implementation controls. |
|
Definition
A. can be classified as input controls, processing controls, and output controls. |
|
|
Term
________ controls ensure that valuable business data files on either disk or tape are not subject to unauthorized access, change, or destruction while they are in use or in storage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Analysis of an information system that rates the likelihood of a security incident occurring and its cost is included in a(n):
A) security policy.
B) acceptable use policy (AUP)
C) risk assessment.
D) business impact analysis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Statements ranking information risks and identifying security goals are included in a(n):
A) security policy.
B) AUP.
C) risk assessment.
D) business impact analysis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
) Rigorous password systems:
A) are one of the most effective security tools.
B) may hinder employee productivity.
C) are costly to implement.
D) are often disregarded by employees |
|
Definition
B. may hinder employee productivity |
|
|
Term
Biometric authentication:
A) is inexpensive.
B) is used widely in Europe for security applications.
C) can use a person's voice as a unique, measurable trait.
D) only uses physical measurements for identification. |
|
Definition
C. can use a person's voice as a unique, measurable trait. |
|
|
Term
A firewall allows the organization to:
A) enforce a security policy on data exchanged between its network and the Internet.
B) check the accuracy of all transactions between its network and the Internet.
C) create an enterprise system on the Internet.
D) check the content of all incoming and outgoing e-mail messages. |
|
Definition
A. enforce a security policy on data exchanged between its network and the Internet |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a type of ambient data?
A) Computer log containing recent system errors
B) A file deleted from a hard disk
C) A file that contains an application's user settings
D) A set of raw data from an environmental sensor |
|
Definition
B. a file deleted from a hard disk |
|
|
Term
________ use scanning software to look for known problems such as bad passwords, the removal of important files, security attacks in progress, and system administration errors.
A) Stateful inspections
B) Intrusion detection systems
C) Application proxy filtering technologies
D) Packet filtering technologies |
|
Definition
B. intrusion detection systems |
|
|
Term
Currently, the protocols used for secure information transfer over the Internet are:
A) TCP/IP and SSL.
B) S-HTTP and CA.
C) HTTP and TCP/IP.
D) SSL, TLS, and S-HTTP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most antivirus software is effective against:
A) only those viruses active on the Internet and through e-mail.
B) any virus.
C) any virus except those in wireless communications applications.
D) only those viruses already known when the software is written. |
|
Definition
D. only those viruses already known when the software is written |
|
|
Term
In which method of encryption is a single encryption key sent to the receiver so both sender and receiver share the same key?
A) SSL
B) Symmetric key encryption
C) Public key encryption
D) Private key encryption |
|
Definition
B. symmetric key encryption |
|
|
Term
A digital certificate system:
A) uses third-party certificate authorities (CAs) to validate a user's identity.
B) uses digital signatures to validate a user's identity.
C) uses tokens to validate a user's identity.
D) is used primarily by individuals for personal correspondence. |
|
Definition
A. uses third-party certificate authorities (CAs) to validate a user's identity |
|
|
Term
For 100 percent availability, online transaction processing requires:
A) high-capacity storage.
B) a multi-tier server network.
C) fault-tolerant computer systems.
D) dedicated phone lines. |
|
Definition
C. Fault-tolerant computer systems |
|
|
Term
In controlling network traffic to minimize slow-downs, a technology called ________ is used to examine data files and sort low-priority data from high-priority data.
A) high availability computing
B) deep-packet inspection
C) application proxy filtering
D) stateful inspection |
|
Definition
B. deep-packet inspection |
|
|
Term
The development and use of methods to make computer systems resume their activities more quickly after mishaps is called:
A) high-availability computing.
B) recovery-oriented computing.
C) fault-tolerant computing.
D) disaster-recovery planning. |
|
Definition
B. recovery-oriented computing |
|
|
Term
Smaller firms may outsource some or many security functions to:
A) ISPs.
B) MISs.
C) MSSPs.
D) CAs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A practice in which eavesdroppers drive by buildings or park outside and try to intercept wireless network traffic is referred to as:
A) war driving.
B) sniffing.
C) cybervandalism.
D) driveby tapping. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Malicious software programs referred to as spyware include a variety of threats such as computer viruses, worms, and trojan horses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ is a crime in which an imposter obtains key pieces of personal information to impersonate someone else.
A) Identity theft
B) Spoofing
C) Social engineering
D) Evil twins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Computer forensics tasks include all of the following except:
A) presenting collected evidence in a court of law.
B) securely storing recovered electronic data.
C) collecting physical evidence on the computer.
D) finding significant information in a large volume of electronic data.
|
|
Definition
C. collecting physical evidence on the computer |
|
|
Term
) ________ identify the access points in a Wi-Fi network.
A) NICs
B) Mac addresses
C) URLs
D) SSIDs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A foreign country attempting to access government networks in order to disable a national power grid would be an example of:
A) phishing.
B) denial-of-service attacks.
C) cyberwarfare.
D) cyberterrorism. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Authorization refers to the ability to know that a person is who they say they are. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Comprehensive security management products, with tools for firewalls, VPNs, intrusion detection systems, and more, are called ________ systems.
A) DPI
B) MSSP
C) NSP
D) UTM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
A walkthrough is a type of software testing used before software is even written. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
When errors are discovered in software programs, the sources of the errors are eliminated through a process called debugging. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Supply chain inefficiencies can amount to as much as 25% of a company's operating costs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Safety stock acts as an inexpensive buffer for the lack of flexibility in the supply chain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
The bullwhip effect is the distortion of information about the demand for a product as it passes from one entity to the next across the supply chain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Supply chain executing systems enable the firm to generate demand forecasts for a product and to develop sourcing and manufacturing plans for that product. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
In the pre-Internet environment, supply chain coordination was hampered by the difficulties of making information flow smoothly amound different internal supply chain processes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
It can cost 6x more to sell a product to a new customer than to an existing customer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
In a pull-based model of SCM systems, production master schedules are based on forecasts of demand for products. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Dell Inc., which produces many personalized computers as they are ordered, is an example of a pull-based supply-chain model. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Total supply chain costs in some industries approach 75 percent of the total operating budget. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Major CRM application software vendors include Oracle and SAP.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Cross-selling markets complentary products to customers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
CRM software can help organizations identify high-value customer for preferential treatments. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Analytical CRM uses a customer data warehouse to analyze customer data collected from the firm's customer touch points and from other sources.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F
Enterprise systems require fundamental changes in the way business operates. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A suite of integrated software modules for finance and accounting, human resources, manufacturing and production, and sales and marketing that allows data to be used by multiple functions and business processes best describes:
A) process management software.
B) ERP systems.
C) groupware.
D) application software. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Enterprise software is built around thousands of predefined business processes that reflect:
A) the firm's organization.
B) industry goals.
C) best practices.
D) cutting edge workflow analyses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not true about enterprise systems?
A) Enterprise systems help firms respond rapidly to customer requests for information or products.
B) Enterprise system data have standardized definitions and formats that are accepted by the entire organization.
C) Enterprise software is expressly built to allow companies to mimic their unique business practices.
D) Enterprise software includes analytical tools to evaluate overall organizational performance. |
|
Definition
C. Enterprise software is expressly built to allow companies to mimic their unique business practices. |
|
|
Term
When tailoring a particular aspect of a system to the way a company does business, enterprise software can provide the company with:
A) configuration tables.
B) Web services.
C) data dictionaries.
D) middleware. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In order to achieve maximum benefit from an enterprise software package, a business:
A) customizes the software to match all of its business processes.
B) uses only the processes in the software that match its own processes.
C) changes the way it works to match the software's business processes.
D) selects only the software that best matches its existing business processes. |
|
Definition
C. changes the way it works to match the software's business processes. |
|
|
Term
Supply chain complexity and scale increases when firms:
A) move to globalization.
B) manage the procurement, manufacturing, and distribution functions themselves.
C) produce products and services that coordinate with hundreds or more firms and suppliers.
D) modify their existing workflows to comply with supply-chain management systems. |
|
Definition
C. produce products and services that coordinate with hundreds or more firms and suppliers. |
|
|
Term
A network of organizations and business processes for procuring raw materials, transforming these materials into intermediate and finished products, and distributing the finished products to customers is called a:
A) distribution channel.
B) supply chain.
C) value chain.
D) marketing channel. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Components or parts of finished products are referred to as:
A) upstream materials.
B) raw materials.
C) secondary products.
D) intermediate products. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is overstocking warehouses not an effective solution for a problem of low availability?
A) It does not speed product time to market.
B) It is an inefficient use of raw materials.
C) It increases sales costs.
D) It increases inventory costs. |
|
Definition
D. it increases inventory costs |
|
|
Term
Which of the following traditional solutions enables manufacturers to deal with uncertainties in the supply chain?
A) Safety stock
B) Continuous replenishment
C) Just-in-time strategies
D) Demand planning |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A scheduling system for minimizing inventory by having components arrive exactly at the moment they are needed and finished goods shipped as soon as they leave the assembly line best describes a ________ strategy.
A) just-in-time
B) frictionless
C) bullwhip
D) safety-stock |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A distortion of information about the demand for a product as it passes from one entity to the next across the supply chain is called the ________ effect.
A) network
B) bullwhip
C) ripple
D) whirlpool |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Supply chain software can be classified as either supply chain ________ systems or supply chain ________ systems.
A) push; pull
B) demand; continual
C) upstream; downstream
D) planning; execution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Systems that enable a firm to generate demand forecasts for a product, and to develop sourcing and manufacturing plans for that product, best describes supply chain ________ systems.
A) demand
B) delivery
C) planning
D) execution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Supply chain ________ systems manage the flow of products through distribution centers and warehouses to ensure that products are delivered to the right locations in the most efficient manner.
A) demand
B) delivery
C) planning
D) execution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A supply chain driven by actual customer orders or purchases follows a ________ model.
A) pull-based model
B) build-to-stock
C) push-based
D) replenishment-driven |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A build-to-order supply-chain model is also called a ________ model.
A) supply-based
B) demand-driven
C) replenishment-driven
D) push-based |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The business value of an effective supply-chain management system includes all of the following except:
A) faster time to market.
B) cost reduction.
C) supply matched to demand.
D) increased inventory levels. |
|
Definition
D. increased inventory levels |
|
|
Term
A ________ is a method of interaction with a customer, such as telephone or customer service desk.
A) point of presence
B) touch point
C) sales point
D) client channel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would not be considered a contact point?
A) E-mail
B) Web site
C) Intranet
D) Retail store |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
) ________ modules use many of the same data, tools, and systems as CRM to enhance collaboration between a company and its selling partners.
A) SCM
B) SFA
C) ERM
D) PRM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ modules deal with issues such as setting objectives, employee performance management, and performance-based compensation.
A) SCM
B) SFA
C) ERM
D) PRM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Customer relationship management systems typically provide software and online tools for sales, customer service, and:
A) marketing.
B) account management.
C) advertising.
D) public relations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
SFA modules in CRM systems would provide tools for:
A) assigning and managing customer service requests.
B) capturing prospect and customer data.
C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers.
D) managing sales prospect and contact information. |
|
Definition
D. managing sales prospect and contact information |
|
|
Term
CRM systems help businesses obtain which business objective?
A) Customer and supplier intimacy
B) Operational excellence
C) New products and services
D) Improved decision making |
|
Definition
A. customer and supplier intimacy |
|
|
Term
Customer service modules in CRM systems provide tools for:
A) assigning and managing customer service requests.
B) capturing prospect and customer data.
C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers.
D) managing sales prospect and contact information |
|
Definition
A. assigning and managing customer service requests |
|
|
Term
Marketing modules in CRM systems would provide tools for:
A) assigning and managing customer service requests.
B) capturing prospect and customer data.
C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers.
D) managing sales prospect and contact information. |
|
Definition
C. identifying profitable and unprofitable customers |
|
|
Term
Selling a customer with a checking account a home improvement loan is an example of:
A) operational CRM.
B) direct marketing.
C) cross-selling.
D) cross-channel promotions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Customer relationship management applications dealing with the analysis of customer data to provide information for improving business performance best describes ________ applications.
A) operational CRM
B) analytical CRM
C) operational SCM
D) analytical SFA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Operational CRM applications include tools for:
A) identifying buying patterns.
B) calculating CLTV.
C) salesforce automation.
D) pinpointing unprofitable customers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which metric is based on the relationship between the revenue produced by a specific customer, the expenses incurred in acquiring and servicing that customer, and the expected life of the relationship between the customer and the company?
A) Churn rate
B) CLTV (Customer Life Time Value)
C) Cost per lead
D) Cost per sale |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The measurement of the number of customers who stop using or purchasing products or services from a company is called:
A) switching costs.
B) churn rate.
C) CLTV.
D) switch rate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not an example of next-generation enterprise applications?
A) Open-source solutions
B) Social CRM
C) Stand-alone suites
D) Solutions incorporating SOA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following features is the main reason an enterprise system helps a business improve decision-making?
A) Standardized business processes
B) Up-to-the-minute data sharing
C) Reducing redundant business processes
D) Analytical tools |
|
Definition
B. up-to-the-minute data sharing |
|
|
Term
________ CRM includes customer-facing applications such as tools for sales force automation, call center and customer service support, and marketing automation.
A) Operational
B) Social
C) Web-based
D) Sales force |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
E-Commerce refers to the use of any networking technologies to transact business. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Internet reduces information asymmetry. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All previous mass media in modern history, including the printing press, use a broadcast model where content is created in a central location by experts.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Disintermediation provides major benefits to the distributor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In general, for digital goods, the marginal cost of producing another unit is about zero. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An example of the content providor business model is barnesandnoble.com, a retailer of printed books.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Web personalization is used primarily as a major marketing tool. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Podcasting allows subscribers to listen to live, streaming radio and other audio content. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Behavioral targeting occurs at two levels: individual Web sites and through ISPs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) standards that take advantage of network communications have yet to be fully implemented at the industry level.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Net marketplaces may either support contractual purchasing based on long-term relationships with designated suppliers, or short-term spot purchasing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Exchanges have become one of the most popular types of Net marketplace because they encourage competitive bidding that drives prices down. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Advertising networks track a user's behavior at thousands of Web sites. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the free/freemium revenue model, firms offer basic services for free and charge a fee for special features. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The effort required to locate a suitable product is called:
A) price discrimination.
B) search costs.
C) menu costs.
D) shopping costs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Selling the same goods to different targeted groups at different prices is called:
A) cost customization.
B) cost optimization.
C) price gouging.
D) price discrimination. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Information ________ exists when one party in a transaction has more information that is important for the transaction than the other party.
A) transparency
B) asymmetry
C) complexity
D) discrimination |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Varying a product's price according to the supply situation of the seller is called ________ pricing.
A) menu
B) flexible
C) dynamic
D) asymmetric |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Reducing the business process layers in a distribution channel is called:
A) disintermediation.
B) BPR.
C) market segmentation.
D) network effects. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Compared to digital markets, traditional markets have:
A) lower search costs.
B) stronger network effects.
C) higher delayed gratification effects.
D) higher transaction costs. |
|
Definition
D. higher transaction costs |
|
|
Term
Compared to traditional goods, digital goods have:
A) greater pricing flexibility.
B) lower marketing costs.
C) higher production costs.
D) higher inventory costs. |
|
Definition
A. greater pricing flexibility |
|
|
Term
Compared to traditional goods, digital goods incur:
A) lower distribution costs.
B) higher marginal costs per unit.
C) equivalent copying costs.
D) similar inventory costs. |
|
Definition
A. lower distribution costs |
|
|
Term
Which of the following Internet business models does Amazon.com use primarily?
A) Content provider
B) Portal
C) Market creator
D) E-tailer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
eBay is an example of:
A) C2C e-commerce.
B) B2B e-commerce.
C) B2C e-commerce.
D) M-commerce. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Selling products and services directly to individual consumers via the Internet best describes:
A) B2B e-commerce.
B) C2C e-commerce.
C) M-commerce.
D) B2C e-commerce. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which of the following Internet business models does a merchant create an online digital environment that enables people with like interests to share information?
A) Community provider
B) Service provider
C) Market creator
D) Transaction broker |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Market creators:
A) save users money and time by processing online sales transactions.
B) provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products.
C) create revenue by providing digital content over the Web.
D) sell physical products directly to consumers or individual businesses. |
|
Definition
B.provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products.
|
|
|
Term
Which of the following best illustrates the sales revenue model?
A) eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.
B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase.
C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services.
D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads. |
|
Definition
D. Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following best illustrates the affiliate revenue model?
A) eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.
B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase.
C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services.
D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads. |
|
Definition
B.Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase.
|
|
|
Term
Which of the following best illustrates the transaction fee revenue model?
A) eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.
B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase.
C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services.
D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads. |
|
Definition
A. eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item. |
|
|
Term
In which of the following revenue models does a Web site charge a fee for access to some or all of its offerings on a continual, regular basis?
A) Subscription
B) Free/freemium
C) Transaction fee
D) Sales |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ describes the concept that a large group of people is better at making good decisions than a single person.
A) The wisdom of crowds
B) Outsourcing
C) Crowdsourcing
D) Social graphing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Netflix's public announcement of a reward for a technology solution to its movie recommendation system is an example of:
A) prediction markets.
B) behavioral targeting.
C) long-tail marketing.
D) crowdsourcing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Exposing an individual to ads that are chosen and based on the recorded and analyzed online behavior of the individual is referred to as:
A) clickstream advertising.
B) behavioral targeting.
C) online profiling.
D) long tail marketing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
EDI is:
A) the use of Internet technologies for electronic data transactions.
B) the exchange between two organizations of standard transactions through a network.
C) electronic data invoicing.
D) electronic delivery infrastructure |
|
Definition
B.the exchange between two organizations of standard transactions through a network. |
|
|
Term
Switching costs are the merchants' costs of changing prices. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Content providers use ________ systems to process large amounts of very small monetary transactions cost-effectively.
A) subscription
B) mobile payment
C) transaction fee
D) micropayment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Viral marketing is like traditional word-of-mouth marketing except that it is spread via online communities. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Internet enables ________ marketing by leveraging the fact that there is always some demand, however small, for a product.
A) long-tail
B) behavioral
C) crowdsource
D) prediction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Geoadvertising sends ads to users based on their:
A) GPS locations.
B) user addresses.
C) shopping preferences.
D) web site behaviors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DSS primarily address structured problems. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Expert systems capture the knowledge of skilled employees in the form of a set of rules in a software system that can be used by others in the organization. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Shopping bots are a form of intelligent agent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Knowledge can reside in e-mail, voice mail, graphics, and unstructured documents as well as structured documents. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Knowledge network systems seek to turn unstructured knowledge of some employees into explicit knowledge that can be stored or accessed by other individuals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a key problem in managing knowledge?
A) Classifying knowledge
B) Storing knowledge
C) Distributing knowledge
D) Locating knowledge |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where there is no well-understood or agreed-on procedure for making a decision, it is said to be:
A) undocumented.
B) unstructured.
C) documented.
D) semistructured. |
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Definition
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Term
The type of decision that can be made by following a definite procedure is called a(n) ________ decision.
A) structured
B) unstructured
C) semistructured
D) procedural |
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Definition
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Term
Deciding whether to introduce a new product line is an example of a(n):
A) unstructured decision.
B) semistructured decision.
C) procedural decision.
D) nonprocedural decision. |
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Definition
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Term
Estimating the number of direct goods to reorder falls into which category of decision making?
A) Structured
B) Documented
C) Unstructured
D) Procedural |
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Definition
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Term
Which phase of decision making finds or recognizes a problem?
A) Design
B) Intelligence
C) Choice
D) Implementation |
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Definition
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Term
Simon's four different stages in decision making are, in order from first to last:
A) identification, choice, design, and implementation.
B) identification, design, choice, and finalization.
C) intelligence, choice, design, and implementation.
D) intelligence, design, choice, and implementation. |
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Definition
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Term
All of the following are analytic functionalities that BI systems deliver except:
A) user interface.
B) ad hoc queries.
C) dashboards.
D) production reports. |
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Definition
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Term
All of the following are dimensions of firm performance that are measured in the balanced scorecard method except:
A) resources.
B) business process.
C) customer.
D) learning and growth. |
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Definition
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Term
Why is the balanced scorecard method said to be "balanced"?
A) It uses measurable dimensions for assessing performance.
B) It measures performance of more than just financial systems.
C) It assesses both the internally focused and externally focused business processes.
D) It measures performance along all major divisions of a firm, from production and manufacturing to human resources. |
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Definition
B. it measures performance of more than just financial systems. |
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Term
What type of model asks what-if questions repeatedly to determine the impact on outcomes of changes in one or more factors?
A) Mathematical
B) Sensitivity analysis
C) Goal seeking
D) Forecasting |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of information system uses data visualization technology to analyze and display data for planning and decision making in the form of digitized maps?
A) Geographical Information Systems - GIS
B) Decision Support Systems - DSS
C) Group Support Systems - GSS
D) Transaction Processing Systems - TPS |
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Definition
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Term
A key performance indicator (KPI) is:
A) an industry standard for measuring performance along a given dimension.
B) a measure proposed by senior management.
C) an alternative to the balanced scorecard method.
D) an analytic technique for measuring financial performance. |
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Definition
B. measure proposed by senior management |
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Term
Expert systems:
A) solve problems too difficult for human experts.
B) are based on DO WHILE rules.
C) work in very limited domains.
D) share characteristics with mainframe computing. |
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Definition
C. work in very limited domains |
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Term
Expert systems model human knowledge as a set of rules that collectively are called the:
A) knowledge base.
B) knowledge database.
C) inference engine.
D) inference base. |
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Definition
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Term
An inference engine is:
A) a data mining strategy used by intelligent agents.
B) the programming environment of an expert system.
C) a method of organizing expert system knowledge into chunks.
D) a computer program used to search through the rule base in an expert system. |
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Definition
D. a computer program used to search through the rule base in an expert system. |
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Term
________ are designed to have a generalized capability to learn.
A) Knowledge-based systems
B) Neural networks
C) Fuzzy logic systems
D) Expert systems |
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Definition
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Term
________ are intelligent techniques that parallel some aspects of the processing patterns of the biological brain.
A) Neural networks
B) Genetic algorithms
C) CBR systems
D) Fuzzy logic systems |
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Definition
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Term
Expertise and experience of organizational members that has not been formally documented best describes:
A) wisdom.
B) information.
C) data.
D) tacit knowledge. |
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Definition
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Term
________ systems help organizations manage both structured and semistructured knowledge.
A) Digital asset management
B) Knowledge network
C) Enterprise content management
D) Knowledge work |
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Definition
C. Enterprise content management |
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Term
________ help media firms store and manage unstructured digital data such as photographs, images, videos, and audio files.
A) Digital asset management systems
B) Knowledge networks
C) LMS
D) CAD |
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Definition
A. digital asset management systems |
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Term
Virtual reality systems:
A) provide design engineers with precise, three-dimensional representations of their models.
B) provide an important source of expertise for organizations.
C) allow groups to work together on documents.
D) provide simulations of walking through or manipulating a three-dimensional model or programmed real-world environment. |
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Definition
D. provide simulations of walking through or manipulating a three-dimensional model or programmed real-world environment. |
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Term
Dashboards and scorecards are visual interfaces used to make firm information easier to review quickly. |
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Definition
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Term
A(n) ________ capability allows users to view more detailed views of data.
A) ad hoc
B) drill-down
C) query and reporting
D) metrics |
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Definition
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Term
________ intelligence technology consists of computer-based systems that attempt to emulate human behavior and thought patterns.
A) Neural
B) Genetic
C) Fuzzy
D) Artificial |
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Definition
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Term
In ________, descriptions of past experiences of human specialists, represented as cases, are stored in a database for later retrieval when the user encounters a new case with similar parameters.
A) expert systems
B) Decision Support Systems (DSS)
C) Case based reasoning (CBR)
D) intelligence networks |
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Definition
C. Case based reasoning (CBR) |
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Term
A native app is one that is designed to run on a specific platform. |
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Definition
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Term
Documentation revelas how well the system has met its original objectives. |
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Definition
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Term
A new information system is not considered in production until conversion is complete. |
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Definition
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Term
Failure to address properly the organizational changes surrounding the introduction of a new system can cause the demise of an otherwise good system. |
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Definition
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Term
Gantt and PERT charts are two common formal planning tools for project management |
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Definition
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Term
Protoyping is more iterative than the conventional lifecycle. |
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Definition
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Term
One problem with prototyping is that the systems constructed thereby may not be able to handle large quantities of data in a production environment. |
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Definition
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Term
End-user-developed systems can be completed more rapidly than those developed through the conventional programming tools. |
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Definition
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Term
Intangible benefits of an information system are those that cannot be easily quantified. |
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Definition
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Term
Object-oriented development is more iterative and incremental than traditional structured development. |
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Definition
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Term
Businesses can use component-based development to create their e-commerce applications. |
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Definition
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Term
CASE tools facilitate the creation of clear documentation and the coordination of team development efforts. |
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Definition
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Term
An information systems plan shows how specific information systems fit into a company's overall business plan and business strategy. |
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Definition
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Term
User concerns and designer concerns are usually the same at the beginning of the project. |
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Definition
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Term
Scope describes the full length of time required to complete a project. |
|
Definition
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Term
Successful implementation of an information system requires the participation of end users in the project.
|
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Definition
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Term
Order the following steps in the systems development lifecycle in the correct sequence.
A) Systems analysis, systems design, programming, testing, conversion, production and maintenance
B) Systems analysis, systems design, programming, conversion, testing, production and maintenance
C) Systems design, systems analysis, programming, conversion, production and maintenance, and testing
D) Systems design, systems analysis, programming, testing, conversion, production and maintenance |
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Definition
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Term
Which process develops a detailed description of the functions that a new information system must perform?
A) Feasibility study
B) Requirements analysis
C) Systems design
D) Test plan development |
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Definition
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Term
The entire system-building effort should be driven by:
A) organizational change.
B) feasibility studies.
C) data.
D) user information requirements. |
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Definition
D. user information requirements |
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Term
Systems design:
A) identifies the system's information requirements.
B) specifies how the new system will fulfill the information requirements.
C) identifies alternate solutions for solving the problem.
D) defines the problem and specifies its causes. |
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Definition
B. specifies how the new system will fulfill the information requirements |
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Term
Transferring data from a legacy system to the new system would be defined by which system design specification category?
A) Input
B) Database
C) Manual procedures
D) Conversion |
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Definition
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Term
Unit testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole.
C) tests each individual program separately.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting. |
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Definition
C. tests each individual program separately |
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Term
System testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole.
C) tests each program separately.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting. |
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Definition
B. tests the functioning system as a whole |
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Term
Acceptance testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the trials.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole.
C) tests each program separately.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting. |
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Definition
D. provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting |
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Term
In a parallel conversion strategy, the new system:
A) is tested by an outsourced company.
B) replaces the old one at an appointed time.
C) and the old are run together.
D) is introduced in stages. |
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Definition
C. and the old are run together |
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Term
In a direct cutover conversion strategy, the new system:
A) is tested by an outsourced company.
B) replaces the old one at an appointed time.
C) and the old are run together.
D) is introduced in stages. |
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Definition
B. replaces the old one at an appointed time |
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Term
Changes in hardware, software, documentation, or production to a production system to correct errors, meet new requirements, or improve processing efficiencies are termed:
A) compliance.
B) production.
C) maintenance.
D) acceptance. |
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Definition
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Term
The oldest method for building information systems is:
A) component-based development.
B) prototyping.
C) object-oriented development.
D) the systems development lifecycle. |
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Definition
D. the systems development lifecycle |
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Term
In the traditional systems development lifecycle, end users:
A) are important and ongoing members of the team from the original analysis phase through maintenance.
B) are important only in the testing phases.
C) have no input.
D) are limited to providing information requirements and reviewing the technical staff's work. |
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Definition
D. are limited to providing information requirements and reviewing the technical staff's work |
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Term
As a technical project manager you have decided to propose implementing a prototyping methodology for a small Web-based design project. What is the order of steps you will follow in this project?
A) Develop the prototype, use the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.
B) Identify user requirements, develop the prototype, use the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.
C) Define the requirements, develop solutions, select the best prototype, and implement the prototype.
D) Define the requirements, develop the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype. |
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Definition
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Term
When systems are created rapidly, without a formal development methodology:
A) end users can take over the work of IT specialists.
B) the organization quickly outgrows the new system.
C) hardware, software, and quality standards are less important.
D) testing and documentation may be inadequate. |
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Definition
D. testing and documentation may be inadequate |
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Term
Of the following, which is the most important reason for creating a mobile version of a business's Web site?
A) Mobile devices provide access from anywhere.
B) Mobile devices use touch interfaces.
C) Mobile devices use lower bandwidth.
D) Mobile devices use different platforms. |
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Definition
A. mobile devices provide access from anywhere |
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Term
If an organization's requirements conflict with the software package chosen and the package cannot be customized, the organization should:
A) change its procedures.
B) outsource the development of the system.
C) redesign the RFP.
D) change the evaluation process. |
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Definition
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Term
"Hidden costs," such as ________ costs, can easily undercut anticipated benefits from outsourcing.
A) vendor selection
B) hardware
C) software
D) employee salary |
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Definition
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Term
The process of creating workable information systems in a very short period of time is called:
A) RAD.
B) JAD.
C) prototyping.
D) end-user development. |
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Definition
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Term
) This type of systems development is characterized by significantly speeding the generation of information requirements and involving users at an intense level in the systems design.
A) RAD
B) JAD
C) Prototyping
D) End-user development |
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Definition
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Term
The term structured, when discussing structured development methodologies, refers to the fact that:
A) the finished software is highly documented.
B) the development process is highly documented.
C) the techniques are step by step, with each step building on the previous one.
D) a defined hierarchy of objects and classes are used to structure the programming. |
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Definition
C. the techniques are step by step, with each step building on the previous one |
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Term
The primary tool for representing a system's component processes and the flow of data between them is the:
A) data dictionary.
B) process specifications diagram.
C) user documentation.
D) data flow diagram. |
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Definition
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Term
You are an IT project manager for an advertising firm. The firm wishes to create an online survey tool that will be used to survey focus group reactions to products in development. The most important consideration for the firm is being able to offer the tool as soon as possible as a new corporate service. However, you know that many of the senior managers that are business owners of this project have difficulty in understanding technical or software development issues, and are likely to change their requirements during the course of development. What development method would be most successful for this project?
A) RAD
B) JAD
C) End-user development
D) Prototyping |
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Definition
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Term
An entire information system is broken down into its main subsystems by using:
A) high-level data flow diagrams.
B) low-level data flow diagrams.
C) process specifications.
D) structured diagrams. |
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Definition
A. high-level data flow diagrams |
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Term
Object-oriented development could potentially reduce the time and cost of writing software because:
A) object-oriented programming requires less training.
B) iterative prototyping is not required.
C) objects are reusable.
D) a single user interface object can be used for the entire application. |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is a technique used to create Web sites that will conform to the screen resolution of the user?
A) Native design
B) Responsive design
C) End-user design
D) Multi-platform design |
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Definition
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Term
________ provides software tools to automate development methodologies and reduce the amount of repetitive work in systems development.
A) CASE
B) CAD
C) JAD
D) RAD |
|
Definition
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Term
________ refers to the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to achieve specific targets within specified budget and time constraints.
A) Systems analysis
B) Systems design
C) Project management
D) Project implementation |
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Definition
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Term
A PERT chart:
A) portrays a project as a network diagram consisting of numbered nodes that represent tasks.
B) is used to evaluate project risk and time.
C) displays a horizontal bar for each project task.
D) tracks progress of, and modifications to, project tasks. |
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Definition
A. portrays a project network as a network diagram consisting of numbered nodes that represent tasks. |
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Term
You have been hired by a pharmaceutical company to evaluate its portfolio of systems and IT projects. Which types of projects would be best avoided?
A) Any high-risk projects
B) Any low-benefit projects
C) High-risk, low-benefit projects
D) None - any project might be beneficial |
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Definition
C. high-risk, low-benefit projects |
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Term
) The project risk will rise if the project team and the IS staff lack:
A) RAD experience.
B) web services.
C) the required technical expertise.
D) CASE tools. |
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Definition
C. the required technical expertise |
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Term
Users prefer systems that:
A) are oriented to facilitating organizational tasks and solving business problems.
B) work with existing DBMS.
C) are able to provide optimum hardware and software efficiency.
D) are capable of storing much more data than they need. |
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Definition
A. are oriented to facilitating organizational tasks and solving business problems. |
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Term
A test plan includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system. |
|
Definition
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Term
A prototype is the final working version of an information system. |
|
Definition
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Term
A(n) ________ is a detailed list of questions submitted to external vendors to determine how well they meet the organization's specific requirements.
A) RFP (Request for proposals)
B) RFQ (request for quotations)
C) RAD (rapid application development)
D) JAD (Joint application development) |
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Definition
A. RFP (request for proposals) |
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