Term
What should you consider in a pt with profound lactic acidosis and dyspnea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Carbon Monoxide: uses % ________________ to identify toxicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you have rapid onset, severe dyspnea in the absence of other clinical features you should think of... |
|
Definition
pneumothorax
pulmonary embolism
inc LVEDP |
|
|
Term
Spontaneous pneumothorax is usually accompanied by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When should you suspect pulmonary embolism in a pt with dyspnea? |
|
Definition
when they report a recent Hx of prolonged immobilization
are on estrogen therapy
have other risk factors for DVT
or when the cause of dyspnea is not apparent |
|
|
Term
Periodic CP that proceeds the onset of dyspnea is suspicous for what 2 things? |
|
Definition
myocardial ischemia
pulmonary embolism |
|
|
Term
Most cases of dyspnea associated with wheezing are due to ________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When you have dyspnea with wheezing and acute bronchitis is unlikely consider... |
|
Definition
new onset asthma
foreign body
vocal cord dysfunction |
|
|
Term
What are some noncardiopulmonary causes of prominent dyspnea with mild to no accompanying features? |
|
Definition
anemia
methemoglobinemia
cyanide ingestion
CO
metabolic acidosis
panic attacks |
|
|
Term
Dyspnea: Main PE components |
|
Definition
Head and neck
Chest
Heart
Lower extremities
|
|
|
Term
What are some respiratory patterns suggestive of COPD? |
|
Definition
pursed-lip breathing
use of extrarespiratory mm
barrel-shape chest |
|
|
Term
What are some respiratory patterns suggestive of pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some respiratory patterns suggestive of metabolic acidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some respiratory patterns suggestive of impending upper airway obstruction (epiglottis or foreign body), or severe asthma exacerbation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pulse Ox values <94% almost always represent what?
What are the exceptions? |
|
Definition
clinically significant hypoxemia
CO toxicity and methemoglobinemia |
|
|
Term
There is a >90% probability of inc LVEDP when 2+ of the following are present... |
|
Definition
tachycardia
systolic hypotension
JVD
Hepatojugular reflux
crackles, esp bibasilar
3rd Heart sound
LE edema
radiographic pulm vascular redistribution or cardiomegaly |
|
|
Term
What are the life threatening causes of episodic dyspnea? |
|
Definition
recurrent PE
myocardial ischemia
RAD |
|
|
Term
Which causes of dyspnea can be Dx by CXR? |
|
Definition
Pneumonia
severe exacerbation of COPD req hospitalization
new-onset CHF
pneumothorax |
|
|
Term
High-resolution chest CT is useful in evaluating what causes of dyspnea? |
|
Definition
PE
interstitial lung disease |
|
|
Term
Elevated BNP levels are sensitive and specific for ____________ in symptomatic persons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patients with hypoxemia should be immediately provided supplemental oxygen unless significant ___________ is present |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Common causes of acute cough: |
|
Definition
Acute respiratory tract infection
asthma
AR
CHF |
|
|
Term
Cough due to acute respiratory tract infection resolve with ____ weeks in >90% of pts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Prevalance of ___________ approaches 20% when cough persists beyond 3 wks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What should you suspect when cough is accompanied by unexplained wt loss, fevers, and night sweats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a pt with a cough, when should you consider getting a CXR done? |
|
Definition
when the pt shows abnormal vital signs or
has a chest exam suggestive of pneumonia |
|
|
Term
What are some common causes of persistant cough? |
|
Definition
postnasal drip syndrome
asthma
GERD
Chr bronchitis
Bronchiectasis
TB or other chr infection
interstitial lung diseases
bronchiogenic carcinoma |
|
|
Term
In a pt with a persistant cough and excessive mucus secretions, you should suspect... |
|
Definition
chronic bronchitis in a smoker or
bronchiectasis in pt with Hx of recurrent or complicated pneumonia |
|
|
Term
__________ is not commonly reported among pts with persistant cough |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a pt with persistant cough, a CXR is indicated when what other causes are ruled out? |
|
Definition
ACE inhibitor therapy
post-infectious cough |
|
|
Term
Which tests confirm Pertussis? |
|
Definition
polymerase chain rxn tests and
Cx from a nasopharnygeal swab |
|
|
Term
Suspected Condition - Empiric Txt - Dx testing
Postnasal drip - __________________ - ENT referral/sinus scan |
|
Definition
therapy for allergy or chronic sinusitis |
|
|
Term
Suspected Condition - Empiric Txt - Dx testing
Asthma - B2 - _______________ |
|
Definition
spirometry, consider methacholine challenge if normal |
|
|
Term
Suspected Condition - Empiric Txt - Dx testing
GERD - PPI - __________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Suspect _________ when an acute cough is accompanied by vital sign abnormalities (tachycardia, tachypnea, fever) or findings suggestive of airspace consolidation (rales, dec breath sounds, fremitus, egophony) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
expectoration of blood that originates below the vocal cords |
|
|
Term
Massive hemoptysis is defined as... |
|
Definition
>200-600mL in 24 hrs or any amt that is hemodynamically significant or threatens ventilation |
|
|
Term
If hemoptysis is coming from the airways, it is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
chronic bronchitis
bronchiectasis
bronchogenic carcinoma |
|
|
Term
If hemoptysis is coming from the pulmonary vasculature, it is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
LVF
Mitral stenosis
pulmonary emboli
AV malformations |
|
|
Term
If hemoptysis is coming from the pulmonary parenchyma, it is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
Pneumonia
inhalation of crack cocaine
autoimmune dz (Goodpasture's dz, Wegner's granulomatosis) |
|
|
Term
If hemoptysis is from an iatrogenic hemorrhage, it is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
transbronchial lung biopsies
anticoagulation
pulmonary artery rupture due to distal placement of a balloon-tipped catheter |
|
|
Term
Which labs/tests should be performed when evaluating hemoptysis? |
|
Definition
CXR
CBC w/ plt ct
renal fxn tests
UA
coagulation studies
flexible bronchoscopy
high-res CT of chest |
|
|
Term
Flexible bronchoscopy reveals endobronchial cancer in ____% of pts with hemoptysis who have a non-laterizing CXR |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Uncontrollable hemoptysis hemorrhage warrants: |
|
Definition
rigid bronchoscopy and surgical consultation |
|
|
Term
Causes of acute bronchitis |
|
Definition
Influenza virus
Mycoplasma Pneumonia
Chlamydia Pneumonia
Bordetella pertussis |
|
|
Term
Early phase of asthma is ____ mediated
Late phase is associated with ____________ release |
|
Definition
IgE (assc with c histamine release from mast cells)
C cytokine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a severe obstruction lasting for several days |
|
|
Term
What breath sounds do you hear in mild, moderate and severe asthma? |
|
Definition
mild: expiratory wheezes
Moderate: expiratory and inspiratory wheezing
severe: diminished breath sounds and no wheezing |
|
|
Term
What are the DDx for asthma? |
|
Definition
CHF
COPD
upper airway obstruction from foreign body
tumor
laryngeal edema
carcinoid tumors (stridor) |
|
|
Term
Mild intermittent asthma: |
|
Definition
sxs 2 or less times a wk
asymptomatic and norm PEF btwn exacerbations
exacerbations are brief (hrs to days)
intensity may vary |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sxs >2 times/wk but < 1x/d
exacerbations may affect activity |
|
|
Term
Moderate persistent asthma: |
|
Definition
daily sxs
daily use of inhaled short acting B2 agonist
exacerbations affect activity
exacerbations 2+ times/wk
may last days |
|
|
Term
Severe persistent asthma: |
|
Definition
continual symptoms
limited physical activity
frequent exacerbations |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hx of cigarette smoking
Chr cough and sputum production (in chr bronchitis)
dyspnea (in emphysema)
rhonchi, dec intensity of breath sounds
prolonged expiration on physical examination
airflow limitation on PFTs that is not fully reversible and most often progressive |
|
|
Term
What two dz grouped together are the 4th leading cause of death in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Clinical Dx of chronic bronchitis is defined by... |
|
Definition
excessive secretion of bronchial mucus
daily productive cough for 3+ mths in at least 2 consecutive yrs |
|
|
Term
Clinical Dx of emphysema is defined by... |
|
Definition
abnormal permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, w/ destruction of their walls and w/o obvious fibrosis |
|
|
Term
____% of smokers will develop progressively disabling sxs in their 40s and 50s |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What % of COPD pts have significant exposure to tobacco smoke? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Distinctive features of bronchietasis are: |
|
Definition
recurrent pneumonia and hemoptysis
digital clubbing
radiographic abnormalities |
|
|
Term
COPD Survival is directly proportional to the # of hrs/day of ____________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most important pharmalogic agent for the management of pts with COPD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 most commonly prescribed bronchodilators for the txt of COPD? |
|
Definition
1. Iprotropium bromide (preferred)
2. SAB2 agonist (albuterol, metaproterenol)
work better together (at submaximal) then either alone |
|
|
Term
What are the requirements for lung transplantation? |
|
Definition
severe lung dz
limited ADLs
exhaustion of medical therapy
ambulatory status
potential for pulmonary rehab
limited life expectancy w/o transplant
adequate fxn of other organs
good social support system |
|
|
Term
Surgical procedures for advanced COPD: |
|
Definition
1. lung transplantation
2. Lung Volume Reduction surgery
3. Bullectomy |
|
|
Term
What is the median survival of pts with severe COPD
(FEV1 <1 L)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Radiographic finding of _________________ are: dilated, thickened airways and scattered, irregular opacities
"tram-tracks" or ring-like markings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_________________ causes 1/2 the cases of bronchiectasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which sxs occur in 75% of pts with bronchiectasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the diagnostic study of choice for bronchiectasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some complications of bronchiectasis? |
|
Definition
Hemoptysis
Cor pulmonale
amyloidosis
secondary visceral abscesses at distant sites |
|
|
Term
_______________ is a nonspecific inflammation of terminal bronchioles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In infants and children _________ is usually caused by RSV or adenovirus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the difference btwn bronchiolitis in adults and children? |
|
Definition
in children its usually severe and acute
in adults its usually chronic and frequently progressive |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 pathological variants of bronchiolitis? |
|
Definition
1. constructive (hypertrophy causing obstruction)
2. proliferative (polyps partially or completely obstruct bronchioles) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cryptogenic organizing pneumonitis |
|
|
Term
How does BOOP usually present? |
|
Definition
Dry cough, dyspnea and flu-like sxs from days to mths
fever and wt loss
crackles in most, wheezing in 1/3
|
|
|
Term
CXR w/ patchy, bilateral, ground glass or alveolar infiltrates is indicative of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What may be necessary to Dx COP/BOOP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to treat COP/BOOP? |
|
Definition
corticosteroids (in 2/3rds of cases) |
|
|
Term
What is the most common etiologic agent in pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In _____% of cases of pneumonia the specific cause is unknown. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which forms of pneumonia are assc with a higher mortality risk? |
|
Definition
aspiration
post obstructive
gram neg
staph aureus |
|
|
Term
Which Abx are used for community acquired pneumonia? |
|
Definition
clarithromycin
doxycyline
levofloxacin |
|
|
Term
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Viruses and Coxiella Burnetii cause ____________ pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
S. Pnemo, H. Flu, S. Aureus, Klebisiella, other gram neg bacilli and anaerobes cause ___________ pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What will you notice on physical exam in a pt with pleural effusions? |
|
Definition
chest is dull to percussion and breath sounds are decreased |
|
|
Term
What will you notice on physical exam in a pt with interstitial infiltrates? |
|
Definition
crackles on auscultations |
|
|
Term
What will you notice on physical exam in a pt with evidence of consolidation? |
|
Definition
dull to percussion
egophony |
|
|
Term
What are some extrapulmonary findings of pneumonia? |
|
Definition
Altered mental status
altered consciousness
recent seizures (suggest aspiration pneumonia)
periodontal dz (anaerobic inf)
absent gag reflex (bacteriodes species)
encephalitis (legionella) |
|
|
Term
What is the GOLD STANDARD for Dx of pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which meds may cause pneumonia-like sxs? |
|
Definition
Nitrofurantoin
amiodarone |
|
|
Term
Criteria for Hosp Admission for Pneumonia |
|
Definition
- Inability to take oral meds
-Multilobar involvement
-Severe vital sign abnormality(pulse>125/min, stolic BP <90, resp >30min)
-Acute mental status changes
-Arterial hypoxemia (room air O2 <60)
-Severe acute electrolyte, metabolic, or hematologic abns (Na <130, Hct <30%, Neutrophils <1000, BUN>50, SrCreat>2.5)
-Acute comorbidities |
|
|
Term
Abx for strep pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
PCN or Amoxicillin
unless it has PCN-resistance then, Vanc or ceftriaxone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
2nd or 3rd gen Cephalosporins or doxy |
|
|
Term
Abx for Moraxella catarrhalis? |
|
Definition
2nd or 3rd gen cephalosporins or bactrim
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Abx for Enterobacteriacease (E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterobacter)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
macrolides w/ or w/o Rifampin |
|
|
Term
Abx for Mycoplasma or Chlamydia pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
Doxycycline, macrolides, FQs |
|
|
Term
Abx for Chlamydia psittaci? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Systemic manifestations of pulmonary TB |
|
Definition
fever (50-80%)
malaise
wt loss
night sweats |
|
|
Term
Which symptom, if present, in TB is an ominous feature seen with widespread advanced disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fatalies from TB occur from what? |
|
Definition
wasting
hemorrhage
respiratory failure |
|
|
Term
For Dx of TB, when should sputum be collected? |
|
Definition
in the morning
preferrably 3 consecutive mornings |
|
|
Term
What is the characteristic lesion in TB? |
|
Definition
granulomatoma - aggregations of inflammatory cells, principally macrophages |
|
|
Term
Caseation necrosis is a prominent feature of what disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A Mantoux test is used to check for what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Combinations of isoniazid, rifampin and pyridoxine are often given to treat ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
mycobacterium tuberculosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
BCG (not in this country) |
|
|
Term
What are some lab abnormalities seen with TB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment regimens for TB infection? TB disease? |
|
Definition
TB infection - INH qd for 9 mos
TB disease - INH, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide and ethambutol or streptomycin, one pill of each, qd, for 6 mos |
|
|
Term
what percentage of solitary pulmonary nodules, "coin lesions" carry a significant risk of malignancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Four major cell types of Lung CA |
|
Definition
NSCLC
squamous cell carcinoma, assc w/ cigarettes
adenocarcinoma, most common
large-cell carcinoma
SCLC
small-cell lung carcinoma, worst, assc with cigarettes |
|
|
Term
Lung CA type -- cell of origination |
|
Definition
squamous cell -- epithelium of proximal airway
Adenocarcinoma -- goblet cells in major bronchi
small cell -- oat cell, intermediate and combined cell types |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
NSCLC - surgery, possible radiation
SCLC - chemo |
|
|
Term
Definitions of sarcoidosis |
|
Definition
1. a noncaseous or nonnecrotizing granuloma
2. cause is unknown
3. systemic disease
4. should have clinical consistency |
|
|
Term
Where can sarcoidosis manifest? |
|
Definition
lymph nodes, lungs, liver, spleen, eyes, bones, salivary and lacrimal glands, CNS, skin and heart |
|
|
Term
Most pts with PE present with a combo of what sxs? |
|
Definition
dysnpea
pleuritic CP
tachypnea |
|
|
Term
What is the most common EKG finding in pts with PE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What comprises Virchow's triad? |
|
Definition
hypercoagulable state
endothelial injury
local stasis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a lung disease caused by inhalation of inorganic dust. Toxic fumes, gases and heavy metals may also cause inhalation lung injury. |
|
|
Term
The four major causes of pneumoconiosis are: |
|
Definition
Asbestos
coal dust
silica
beryllium |
|
|
Term
A reticulonodular pattern seen on CXR is indicative of what? |
|
Definition
coal worker's pneumonconiosis w/ concurrent cigarette smoking |
|
|
Term
Ferrunginous bodies are associated with... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In young, otherwise healthy individuals, pleuritis is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
viral resp infections or pneumonia |
|
|
Term
pleural effusions: 5 possible pathophysiologic processes |
|
Definition
1. inc production of fluid in the setting of normal caps due to inc hydrostatic or dec oncotic pressure (transudates)
2. inc production of fluid to abn cap permeability (exudates)
3. dec lymphatic clearance of fluid from pleural space (exudates)
4. infection in the pleural space (empyema)
5. bleeding into the pleural space (hemothorax) |
|
|
Term
A pleural friction rub indicates ______________ or _______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the 2 most common causes of the exudative effusion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A pH below ______ suggests the need for drainage of the pleural effusions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
round or oval fluid collections in fissures that resemble intraparenchymal masses |
|
|
Term
Between ___% and ___% of exudative pleural effusions are malignant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common underlying disease responsible for secondary pneumothorax is... |
|
Definition
obstructive airway disease |
|
|
Term
What is catamenial pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
a pneumothorax that recurs at menstrual periods |
|
|
Term
which type of pneumothorax is life threatening? |
|
Definition
tension
usually a complication of mechanical ventilation or other secondary pneumothoraces |
|
|
Term
Physical signs of pneumothorax: |
|
Definition
hyperresonance on percussion
diminished or absent tactile fremitus and breath sounds |
|
|
Term
Chest tube drainage is preferred for which types of pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
tension
hydropneumothorax
hemopneumothorax
and pneumothorax with underlying pulmonary dz |
|
|
Term
Where do you insert needles or catheter for pneumothorax correction? |
|
Definition
the second anterior intercostal space in the midclavicular line |
|
|
Term
Pts with a pneumothorax usually present with which 3 sxs? |
|
Definition
pleuritic CP
tachypnea
tachycardia |
|
|
Term
What is the triad of sxs seen in tension pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
dec breath sounds
hypotension
JVD
(you may also see tracheal deviation) |
|
|
Term
What is the best way to Dx a pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hemothorax is usually due to what? |
|
Definition
injury to the chest wall, great vessels or lung |
|
|
Term
What is recommended for a massive hemothorax? |
|
Definition
Immediate tube thoracostomy |
|
|
Term
What is Mendelson syndrome? |
|
Definition
acute aspiration of gastric contents |
|
|
Term
Acute aspiration of gastric contents can cause... |
|
Definition
significant lung injury by acid corrosion, bronchial obstruction or bacterial pneumonia from chemical pneumonitis |
|
|
Term
Doppler echocardiography is an effective way to estimate pulmonary artery pressure if ___________________is suspected |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Apnea is defined as the complete cessation of airflow for ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a significant decrease in airflow |
|
|
Term
Apneas and hypopneas can be increased in frequency and duration to the degree that they fragment sleep and produce clinically significant ____________ and _____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Central Sleep apnea is caused by... |
|
Definition
decreased central respiratory drive |
|
|
Term
What are some of the consequences of sleep apnea? |
|
Definition
daytime somnolence
increased risk for MVA
Irritability
HA
HTN
increase in sudden death, probably from arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
What are some abnormal upper airway anatomy that can contribute to obstructive sleep apnea? |
|
Definition
enlarged tonsils
macroglossia
a long soft palate and uvula
micrognathia |
|
|
Term
During airway occlusion in sleep apnea, there is an increase in sympathetic tone producing __________ and __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Periods of hypoxia, caused by sleep apnea, can lead to _____________ and __________________. |
|
Definition
bradycardia and cardiac arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
There is an increased incidence of __________ and ________ in pts with obstructive sleep apnea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you establish a Dx of sleep apnea? |
|
Definition
overnight polysomnography
airflow, O2 sat, and respiratory, eye, chin and limb mvt are recorded |
|
|
Term
Which meds should sleep apnea pts be counseled against? |
|
Definition
sedatives, bc they depress ventilatory drive to some degree |
|
|
Term
Which rare causes of sleep apnea need to be ruled out? |
|
Definition
Hypothyroidism
acromegaly
amyloidosis |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 major functions of respiration? |
|
Definition
add O2 and remove CO2 from the blood |
|
|
Term
What is acute respiratory failure? |
|
Definition
the relatively sudden decline in either or both of the functions of respiration |
|
|
Term
1. Ventilation/perfusion mismatch
2. Alveolar hypoventilation
3. right to left shunt
4. decreased inspired O2 tension
These are the 4 causes of ______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___________________ is required to correct Hypoxemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When mechanical ventilation is used on hypercapnic pts, the goal is to keep the pH between... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What kind of CP does angina pectoris normally cause? |
|
Definition
episodic CP or discomfort during exertion or stress |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
when a pt clenches their fist over their chest while describing chest discomfort |
|
|
Term
Anginal discomfort or CP is classically located where? |
|
Definition
substernally or over the left chest |
|
|
Term
Anginal discomfort or CP frequently radiates where? |
|
Definition
to the epigastrium, neck, jaw or back and down the ulnar aspect of the left arm |
|
|
Term
Angina ususally lasts ______ and is relieved by ______ or _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When does angina more frequently occur? |
|
Definition
in the AM
in cold weather
after a large meal
or after exposure to environmental factors |
|
|
Term
Anginal pain is frequently accompanied by... |
|
Definition
dyspnea, diaphoresis, nausea, palpitations or lightheadness |
|
|
Term
When does unstable angina occur? |
|
Definition
when a pt reports a significant increase in the frequency or severity of angina or when angina occurs with progressively decreasing exertion or at rest |
|
|
Term
When anginal pain occurs mainly at rest and results from coronary spasm we call it.... |
|
Definition
Prinzmetal's or Variant angina |
|
|
Term
Since the pain of angina and acute MI may be similar, what features distinguish the two? |
|
Definition
the pain is usually more severe and prolonged, >30 mins, with MI -- and NTG does not relieve it |
|
|
Term
Dyspnea frequently occurs on exertion, however, in pts with _____________________, it may be present at rest |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In pts with cardiac disease, what causes dyspnea? |
|
Definition
vascular congestion caused by dec LV function
(the vascular congestion impairs gas exchange and results in exudation of fluid into the alveolar space) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
an increase in dyspnea upon laying down
(augmented venous return that occurs assuming the recumbent position) |
|
|
Term
What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea? |
|
Definition
when a pt wakes up 2-4 hrs after the onset of sleep with dyspnea |
|
|
Term
What is the likely cause of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea? |
|
Definition
the central redistribution of peripheral edema in the supine position |
|
|
Term
True paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is more specific to ___________ disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the major causes of aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
bicuspid aortic valve
rheumatic fever
degenerative stenosis |
|
|
Term
The most common congenital cardiac abnormality affects the... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Over the years, aortic stenosis can cause... |
|
Definition
left ventricular hypertrophy |
|
|
Term
What are the cardinal symptoms of aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
angina
syncope
dyspnea
CHF |
|
|
Term
The mean survival rate, in pts with aortic stenosis, after the onset of symptoms is ____ for those pts with CHF |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The mean survival rate, in pts with aortic stenosis, after the onset of symptoms is ____ for those pts with syncope |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The mean survival rate, in pts with aortic stenosis, after the onset of symptoms is ____ for those pts with angina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A harsh, crescendo-decrescendo murmur is associated with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard where? |
|
Definition
over the right upper sternal border and often radiates to the neck |
|
|
Term
What is pulsus parvus et tardus? |
|
Definition
when the carotid pulse is diminished in intensity and delayed because of aortic stenosis |
|
|
Term
What is the most important diagnostic test to determine the cause of aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What valve area defines critical aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A normal aortic valve are measures ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the major causes of aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
bicuspid aortic valve
aortic dissection
endocarditis
rheumatic fever
aortic root dilation |
|
|
Term
Aortic regurgitation is commonly a consequence of degenerative and ____________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does the left ventricle dilate and hypertrophy because of aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
bc its trying to maintain normal effective forward flow and minimize wall stress |
|
|
Term
What symptoms are associated with aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
dyspnea on exertion
orthopnea
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
chest or head pounding
fatigue or weakness |
|
|
Term
Why does the pulse pressure widen with aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
bc of the runoff of blood back into the left ventricle |
|
|
Term
What is Corrigan's disease or water-hammer pulse? |
|
Definition
bounding arterial pulse with a rapid upstroke and quick collapse |
|
|
Term
The murmur of ________________ is a high pitched, decrescendo diastolic murmur best heart at the lower left sternal border with the pt sitting up and leaning forward. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an Austin Flint murmur? |
|
Definition
a low pitched, diastolic murmur |
|
|
Term
________________ is the primary tool to monitor the progression of aortic regurgitation and optimize the timing of surgery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For moderate to severe aortic regurgitation what medications are recommended? |
|
Definition
Vasodilators, like nifedipine and ACEIs, bc these agents unload the Left ventricle |
|
|
Term
Acute aortic regurgitation is a ______________ that often requires immediate surgical intervention. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
infective endocarditis,
traumatic rupture of the aortic leaflets,
aortic root dissection and
acute dysfunction of a prosthetic valve
can all cause which type of heart valve dysfunction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does acute aortic regurgitation occur? |
|
Definition
bc the left ventricle is unable to dilate anymore to accommodate the increased diastolic volume |
|
|
Term
Pts with acute aortic regurgitation exhibit the symptoms of _______________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The murmur of ___________________ is low pitched and short, and an S3 gallop is often present. |
|
Definition
acute aortic regurgitation |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment of choice for acute aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the major cause of mitral stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If mitral stenosis is not corrected, then irreversible changes in the pulmonary vasculature may occur and signs and symptoms of ________ may develop. |
|
Definition
Right ventricular heart failure |
|
|
Term
At what age do pts with mitral stenosis caused by rheumatic fever usually start to exhibit symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the most common symptoms of mitral stenosis caused by rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Ortner's syndrome? |
|
Definition
when the left recurrent laryngeal nerve gets compressed from a severely dilated left atrium (from mitral stenosis) and hoarseness results |
|
|
Term
The characteristic low pitched rumbling murmur of ___________ is best heard at the left ventricular apex with the pt in the left lateral decubitus position. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_________________ is the most useful tool for the pathologic assessment of mitral stenosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A hockey stick deformity, or doming, refers to what heart deformity? |
|
Definition
rheumatic deformity of the anterior mitral valve leaflet |
|
|
Term
Normal mitral valve area is _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Critical mitral stenosis is defined as a valve area... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____________ control is imperative in the treatment of mitral stenosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the major causes of chronic mitral regurgitation? |
|
Definition
mitral valve prolapse
left ventricular dilation
posterior wall MI
rheumatic fever
endocarditis |
|
|
Term
What are the major causes of acute mitral regurgitation? |
|
Definition
posterior wall or papillary mm ischemia
papillary mm or chordal rupture
endocarditis
prosthetic valve dysfunction |
|
|
Term
Mitral regurgitation can result from abnormalities in what aspects of the valve? |
|
Definition
the leaflets
the annulus
the chordae
or the papillary mm |
|
|
Term
What is the most common leaflet abnormality resulting in chronic mitral regurgitation? |
|
Definition
myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valves
which progresses as the chordae become elongated and rupture |
|
|
Term
_______________ characteristically produces a holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex and radiates to the axilla and back |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If mitral regurgitation is secondary to MVP, the a ______________ may also be heard during the murmur |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pts with known mitral regurg should be followed with yearly studies to monitor LV function and size so that surgery can be performed before irreversible ___________ damage and __________________ occur. |
|
Definition
myocyte damage and LV remodeling |
|
|
Term
If a patient with mitral regurg develops A fib or pulm HTN it may indicated a need for earlier __________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
its a prosthetic ring that can be sewn into annulus of a heart valve to reduce the size of the orifice |
|
|
Term
What is the procedure of choice to repair mitral regurgitation? |
|
Definition
mitral valve repair in all pts in whom it technically feasible. |
|
|
Term
What are the major causes of tricuspid regurgitation? |
|
Definition
functional annular dilation
tricuspid valve prolapse
endocarditis |
|
|
Term
In the absence of _____________, tricuspid regurgitation is usually well tolerated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
JVD and a prominent V wave are usually present in which valve disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A high pitched, pansystolic murmur best heard along the sternal border is associated with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What percentage of the population has mitral valve prolapse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which murmur is a midsystolic click, followed by a late systolic murmur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dx of mitral valve prolapse is confirmed by ___________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tricuspid stenosis is most often __________ in origin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pts with tricuspid stenosis generally exhibit symptoms of right ventricular heart failure such as... |
|
Definition
fatigue
abd bloating
peripheral edema |
|
|
Term
pulmonic stenosis is often ___________ in origin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pulmonic regurgitation is often secondary to ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The murmur of ____________________ is a high pitched, blowing murmur best heard at the 2nd left intercostal space.
Its also called a _______________ murmur. |
|
Definition
pulmonic regurgitation
Graham Steel |
|
|
Term
prophylaxis for rheumatic fever should be continued for __________ after the primary illness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Multivalvular disease is common in which type of pts? |
|
Definition
pts with rheumatic heart disease and in the elderly |
|
|
Term
Acute rheumatic fever is a sequela of __________________________ |
|
Definition
group A B-hemolytic strep |
|
|
Term
In which age group does acute rheumatic fever occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acute rheumatic fever usually presents as an... |
|
Definition
acute febrile illness 2-4 wks after a strep pharyngitis |
|
|
Term
What are the major criteria for acute rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
carditis
polyarthritis
chorea
erythema marginatum
subcutaneous nodules |
|
|
Term
What are the minor criteria for acute rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
fever
arthralgia
previous rheumatic fever
or known rheumatic heart disease |
|
|
Term
Dx of acute rheumatic fever can be made if ____ major criteria are met OR ____ major and ____ minor are present after a recent, documented strep pharyngitis |
|
Definition
2 major
OR
1 major and 2 minor |
|
|
Term
What can you use for rheumatic fever prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
1.2 million U of benzathine PCN monthly
OR
oral PCN or erythromycin |
|
|
Term
What do you need to control to prevent further progression of arteriosclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do statins help hypercholesterolemia? |
|
Definition
they lower LDL with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
How does niacin help hypercholesterolemia? |
|
Definition
increases HDL, decreases hepatic LDL and VLDL, decreases hepatic TG esterification |
|
|
Term
Three of the processes that contribute to the initiation and progression of atherosclerosis are... |
|
Definition
accumulation of lipoproteins
endothelial injury and
inflammation |
|
|
Term
If the atherosclerotic plaque is covered with a __________________ rupture is less likely, but the plaque can inc in size. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Temporary myocardial ischemia, "angina", is usually secondary to _______________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a pt with angina, the ECG is normal in what percentage of people? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acute coronary syndrome includes: _________, __________ and __________. |
|
Definition
unstable angina
NSTEMI
STEMI |
|
|
Term
The distinction btwn unstable angina, and NSTEMI can only be made after the results of the _______________ are available |
|
Definition
serum cardiac enzyme analyses |
|
|
Term
AMI usually begins at _______, worsens __________ and persists for _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CK-MB levels elevate within _____ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CK-MB peaks within _____ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CK-MB returns to baseline in _____ days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Troponin sr levels elevate within ______ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Troponin sr levels peak at _____ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Troponin sr levels return to baseline ____ days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Myoglobin elevates in ____ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Myoglobin levels peak within ____ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Myoglobin levels return to normal in ______ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The 2 most current methods for therapy for AMI are: |
|
Definition
thrombolytics and
coronary intervention (stenting is the procedure of choice) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
CBC
SrCr, BUN
electrolyte panel
PT, PTT, INR
blood typing, cardiac enzymes
ABG, CRP, homocysteine
fasting lipid panel |
|
|
Term
What are 3 ways a coronary artery can become obstructed? |
|
Definition
1. artherosclerosis
2. thrombus
3. spasm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
dysnpea
weakness
diaphoresis
NVD
confusion
feeling of impending doom |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
angina, MVP, dissecting AA
cocaine induced CP, musculoskeletal factors
rib fracture, nerve root compression
bacterial PE, anxiety disorder, esophagitis
spontaneous pneumothorax
cholocystitis, cholelithiasis |
|
|
Term
How soon after arrival does a pt with AMI have to receive a thrombolytic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When O2 demands increase in the setting of limited myocardial O2 supply, ____________ results. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Prolonged ischemia may produce
_______________,
_______________, or even ______. |
|
Definition
myocardial stunning
hibernation or even MI |
|
|
Term
What percentage of patients with acute MI have no symptoms or atypical symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The initial ECG in a pt with suspected MI is nondiagnostic in what percentage of pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Besides AMI, why else might CKMB be elevated? |
|
Definition
extensive skeletal mm injury or disease
chronic renal disease
hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
Which cardiac enzyme is the most sensitive and specific for myocyte necrosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cardiac arrhythmias result from disorders of what 2 things? |
|
Definition
impulse formation
and/or
impulse conduction |
|
|
Term
Cardiac arrhythmias: Disorders of impulse formation include... |
|
Definition
enhanced or abnormal automaticity and triggered activity |
|
|
Term
Cardiac arrhythmias: Disorders of impulse conduction include... |
|
Definition
block with or without re-entry |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 cateogries that cardiac arrhythmias can be divided into? |
|
Definition
1. premature beats
2. bradyarrhythmias
3. tachyarrhythmias |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 different types of premature beats? |
|
Definition
atrial premature complexes
junctional premature complexes
ventricular premature complexes |
|
|
Term
Bradyarrhythmias are usually the result of either ____________________ or ____________________ |
|
Definition
sinus node dysfunction or AV block |
|
|
Term
Tachyarrhythmias are divided into what 3 groups? |
|
Definition
supraventricular
ventricular
pre-excited tachycardias |
|
|
Term
What are the most common complaints in a person with an arrhythmia? |
|
Definition
palpitations
presyncope, syncope
dizziness
CP
sxs of HF |
|
|
Term
Skipped beats are likely to be the result of: |
|
Definition
a premature atrial or ventricular beat |
|
|
Term
Periods of rapid, irregular heart beats may be reflective of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pts with valvular heart disease or HTN will frequently develop what type of arrhythmia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The S2 may become widely or paradoxically split if a __________ develops during an arrhythmia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some diagnostic tests used for arrhythmias? |
|
Definition
Echocardiogram
Recording devices
Head-up tilt table testing
electrophysiologic study |
|
|
Term
Ventricular Fib occurring in the absence of acute ischemia is likely to ______ and requires _______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which prescriptions have been known to cause arrhythmias? |
|
Definition
digoxin
theophylline
anti-arrhythmic agents
certain Abx |
|
|
Term
Which nonprescription drugs have been known to cause arrhythmias? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which metabolic abnormalities have been known to cause arrhythmias? (4 Hs) |
|
Definition
hypokalemia
hypomagnesemia
hypoxia
hyperthyroidism |
|
|
Term
What are some nonpharmalogical forms of treatment for arrhythmias? |
|
Definition
pacemakers
direct current cardioversion and defibrillation
radiofrequency catheter ablation and automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillators |
|
|
Term
Long QT syndrome is defined as a QT >_____ms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do genetic mutations cause congenital forms of Long QT syndrome? |
|
Definition
by altering the K and Na channels |
|
|
Term
Congenital forms of Long QT syndrome may also be associated with ________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Long QT syndrome is associated with the development of a type of VT called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you treat torsades de pointes? |
|
Definition
with IV magnesium (2-3mg) |
|
|
Term
Why don't you use typical anti-arrhythmic meds to treat torsades de pointes? |
|
Definition
bc they have a tendency to prolong the QT interval which would exacerbate the arrhythmia |
|
|
Term
Short QT syndrome is associated with a high incidence of ______________________ and/or _________. |
|
Definition
sudden cardiac death and/or A Fib |
|
|
Term
How do you Dx short QT syndrome? |
|
Definition
when the pt exhibits syncope and a corrected QT interval <320ms |
|
|
Term
What is brugada syndrome? |
|
Definition
the presence of ST segment elevation in V1-3 that is unrelated to ischemia, structural heart disease or electrolyte abnormalities. |
|
|
Term
What are often the first symptoms in a pt with Brugada syndrome? |
|
Definition
syncope and sudden cardiac death |
|
|
Term
When does the polymorphic VT arrhythmia tend to occur in pts with Brugada syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Transient loss of consciousness and postural tone due to inadequate cerebral blood flow with prompt recovery without resuscitative measures is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Syncope is more likely to occur in pts with: |
|
Definition
known heart disease
Older men
younger women who are prone to vasovagal episodes |
|
|
Term
Vasomotor Syncope may be due to what 2 things? |
|
Definition
excessive vagal tone
or
impaired control of peripheral circulation |
|
|
Term
Orthostatic hypotension is common in which types of pts? |
|
Definition
the elderly
diabetics, or other pts with autonomic neuropathy
pts with blood loss or hypovolemia
or pts taking vasodilators, diuretics or adrenergic blockers |
|
|
Term
How much does a pt's BP have to decrease when going from a supine to standing position in order for it to be considered orthostatic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some mechanical causes of cardiogenic syncope? |
|
Definition
aortic stenosis
pulmonary stenosis
hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
congenital lesions assc with pulm HTN or L to R shunting
LA myxoma obstructing the mitral valve |
|
|
Term
What are some arrhythmic causes of cardiogenic syncope? |
|
Definition
disorders of automaticity like sick sinus syndrome
disorders of conduction like an AV block
tachyarrhythmias (esp VT, SVT)
|
|
|
Term
What 4 things govern systolic function? |
|
Definition
1. contractile state of the myocardium
2. preload of ventricle
3. afterload applied to the ventricles
4. heart rate |
|
|
Term
What can cause high output failure? |
|
Definition
thyrotoxicosis
severe anemia
AV shunting
Pagets
Thiamin deficiency |
|
|
Term
What is the primary feature of Left heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Left sided heart failure leads to _____________ as the blood backs up into the lungs. |
|
Definition
pulmonary venous congestions |
|
|
Term
Left sided heart failure leads to pulmonary venous congestion which leads to pulmonary HTN which leads to what? |
|
Definition
Right sided heart failure |
|
|
Term
Right sided heart failure leads to what? |
|
Definition
lower extremity edema, tender hepatomegaly and pleural effusions |
|
|
Term
Diastolic cardiac dysfunction is more frequently caused by... |
|
Definition
Left ventricular hypertrophy |
|
|
Term
Left ventricular hypertrophy usually results from what? |
|
Definition
HTN
DM2
cardiomyopathies
pericardial dz |
|
|
Term
What forms of heart failure are there? |
|
Definition
systolic/diastolic
high/low output
L/R sided
acute/chronic |
|
|
Term
Systolic heart failure refers to the inability of the heart to __________ strongly enough to provide adequate blood flow to the periphery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary abnormality in idiopathic cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Diastolic heart dysfunction occurs when there is abnormal ________________ of the myocardium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Diastolic heart dysfunction is associated with what diseases? |
|
Definition
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
cardiac amyloidosis
sarcoidosis |
|
|
Term
High output heart failure occurs when the heart is unable to meet abnormally _____________ metabolic demands of the peripheral tissues |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Low output heart failure is characterized by insufficient ____________________, both at rest and at times of increased metabolic demand |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
NY heart association classifications of heart failure: |
|
Definition
1. asymptomatic
2. symptomatic with moderate activity
3. symptomatic with slight activity
4. symptomatic at rest |
|
|
Term
What is the most common heart failure symptom? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a pt with heart failure when does their cough worsen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which symptoms can occur with right sided heart failure? |
|
Definition
RUQ pain
loss of appetite
N
pulmonary edema |
|
|
Term
A parasternal lift is indicative of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A diminished first heart sound is indicative of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What tests are good for diagnosing heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which meds are known to worsen heart failure? |
|
Definition
CCBs
NSAIDs
Anti-arrhythmic agents |
|
|
Term
What doses of Lasix are indicated in severe HF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which meds are used to treat HF? |
|
Definition
Lasix, Spironolactone
ACEI or ARBs
BB
Digitalis glycosides
Vasodilators (nitrates, nesiritide, hydralazine)
CCBs
Anticoagulation
|
|
|
Term
What is Acute CHF caused by? |
|
Definition
extensive MI or severe ischemia
volume overload
arrhythmias
mitral stenosis
ventricular septal rupture |
|
|
Term
What can cause acute CHF secondary to chronic CHF? |
|
Definition
d/c of meds
excessive salt intake
tachyarrhythmias
myocardial ischemia |
|
|
Term
Myocarditis is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
a viral infection
coxsackievirus B and echovirus being the more common |
|
|
Term
What may provide the most convient and thorough eval for myocarditis? |
|
Definition
ECHO and serum viral titers |
|
|
Term
What is the gold standard for Dx myocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pericardial friction rub may be heard if what is present? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 main lipids in the blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is familial hypercholestermia? |
|
Definition
a condition in which the body is unable to remove LDL cholesterol from the blood, resulting in unregulated synthesis of LDL |
|
|
Term
What occurs in pts with a Trig level >1000? |
|
Definition
formation of eruptive xanthomas |
|
|
Term
Very high LDL levels can result in xanthomas. Where are they located? |
|
Definition
on tendons like the achilles, patellar or back of hand |
|
|
Term
lipemia retinalis are seen with trig levels great than what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug is good at lowering LDL levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Soluble fiber, garlic, soy protein, vit C, pecans and plant sterols are all said to lower what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Intensity of drug therapy for high cholesterol should be to lower LDL by what percentage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What was the first lipid lowering drug to be assc with a dec in total mortality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does niacin effect cholesterol levels? |
|
Definition
dec in VLDL production
secondary dec in LDL and inc in HDL
dec TGs by 1/2 |
|
|
Term
What is the main reason pts can't tolerated niacin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Niacin can exacerbate what other conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bile acid binding resins decrease LDL levels by what percentage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which antihyperlipidemic agent can increase TGs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is the only antilipid that can be used in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Fibric acid derivatives decrease TG by what percentage? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
pts with very high sr TG levels are at risk for what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
At what level of TGs is medication indicated? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Hypoglycemia can cause what symptoms? |
|
Definition
hypothermia HA
confusion bizarre behavior
visual distrubances seizures
lethargy syncope
coma |
|
|
Term
At what sr glucose level can brain function become impaired? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
at what sr glucose level do symptoms begin to occur? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Fasting hypoglycemia occurs in what pts? |
|
Definition
those with hypopituitarism, Addison's dz, myxedema
acute alcoholism, liver failure
renal failure |
|
|
Term
When fasting hypoglycemia occurs in a pt w/o apparent endocrine or metabolic dz, what are the 2 Dx possibilities? |
|
Definition
1. hyperinsulinism
2. non-insulin-producing extrapancreatic tumor |
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|
Term
Early postprandial hypoglycemia is seen after what type of procedure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which drugs can cause hypoglycemia? |
|
Definition
sulfonylureas
insulins
quinine, quinidine
disopyramide
salicylates
ACEIs
gatifloxacin, pentamidine |
|
|
Term
What blood pH level will a pt with lactic acidosis have? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Accumulation of excess lactic acid in the blood can lead to ________. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The main feature of lactic acidosis is marked _________________ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A serum bicarb level in a pt with lactic acidosis is below what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Low bicarb and pH indicate the presence of severe metabolic ____________ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Dx of lactic acidosis is confirmed by a plasma lactic acid concentration of what? |
|
Definition
greater than or equal to 5 |
|
|
Term
What are the levels of the following in a pt with DKA?
glucose
sr bicarb
blood pH
|
|
Definition
glucose >250
bicarb <15
pH <7.3
|
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Term
DKA is the production of ketones during fat metabolism due to a lack of ____________ needed for glucose uptake |
|
Definition
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|
Term
DKA can occur during times of increased insulin requirements. What are some examples? |
|
Definition
infection
surgery
trauma
MI |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1+ dys of polydipsia/polyuria
marked fatigue
NV
mental stupor progressing to coma |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 categories of cardiomyopathies? |
|
Definition
dilated
hypertrophic
restrictive |
|
|
Term
What is dilated cardiomyopathy characterized by? |
|
Definition
chamber enlargement and impaired systolic function (contractile) of one or both ventricles
etiology is unknown |
|
|
Term
what is the most common type of cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is autosomal dominant in ____% of pts. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by __________ hypertrophy, involving the Left ________________________. |
|
Definition
ventricular
ventricular septum |
|
|
Term
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy results in... |
|
Definition
elevated diastolic pressures |
|
|
Term
Arrhythmias are an important problem that can lead to sudden cardiac death in what type of cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
____________ cardiomyopathy may progress to ______________ cardiomyopathy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some possible causes of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
HTN
familial
renal disease |
|
|
Term
Pts with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy often present with... |
|
Definition
dyspnea, CP, syncope and increased outflow obstruction |
|
|
Term
A loud S4 is seen in which cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
|
|
Term
Which drug improves diastolic function and reduce outflow obstruction by vasodilation? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
________________ cardiomyopathy is characterized by impaired diastolic filling but distinct in that early diastolic filling is accentuated rather than impaired. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
With restrictive cardiomyopathy which sided heart failure dominates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is contractility increased or decreased in dilated cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Pulmonary HTN is present with which type of cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the most common cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which cardiomyopathy has a large ventricular cavity and which has a small one? |
|
Definition
Dilated -- large
hypertrophic, restrictive -- small |
|
|
Term
How much serous fluid is normally btwn the inner visceral layer attached to teh epicardium and the parietal layer? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Pericarditis CP may radiate where? |
|
Definition
to the tip of the shoulder and to the neck |
|
|
Term
What positions decrease CP caused by pericarditis? |
|
Definition
sitting or leaning forward |
|
|
Term
What are some of the assc symptoms of pericarditis? |
|
Definition
fever, tachycardia, pulsus paradoxus, tamponade, ESR, leukocytosis, elevated ST, PR depression |
|
|
Term
What drugs can increase the risk for pericarditis? |
|
Definition
procainamide
hydralazine
isoniazid |
|
|
Term
What are the most common viral causes of pericarditis? |
|
Definition
HIV
Hepatitis
mumps
influenza
EBV
Echoviruses
coxsackie |
|
|
Term
How does tuberculous pericarditis occur? |
|
Definition
from direct lymphatic or hematogenous spread |
|
|
Term
Name some forms of non-infectious pericarditis. |
|
Definition
uremic in RF w/ dialysis
Neoplastic - due to spread of lung CA
Post-MI
Radiation
RA, lupus, and drug-induced
myxedema |
|
|
Term
Which areas of the body inc or dec catecholamines to produce vasodilation or vasoconstriction? |
|
Definition
baroreceptors and adrenal glands |
|
|
Term
When is it appropriate to treat HTN based on just one BP reading? |
|
Definition
if there is evidence of acute target-organ damage (hypertensive crisis) |
|
|
Term
what is pseudohypertension? |
|
Definition
elderly pts with stiff, noncompliant, atheromatous arteries who appear to have HTN |
|
|
Term
What percentage wt loss can decrease BP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what position is BP the lowest? highest? |
|
Definition
lowest - lateral decubitus
highest - standing |
|
|
Term
Pregnancy induced HTN has a ______% incidence in multiple gestations and a ____% in pregnancies that proceed beyond the first trimester. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
HTN in pregnancy is assc with... |
|
Definition
abruptio placentae, hepatic rupture and preeclampsia,eclampsia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the dev of HTN w/ proteinuria and/or edema induced by pregnancy |
|
|
Term
Eclampsia is preeclampsia with the presence of ___________ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What do you give pts with worsening preeclampsia or severe preeclampsia or eclampsia? |
|
Definition
Mg Sulfate (to prevent convulsions)
Hydralazine first choice antihypertensive
Delivery |
|
|
Term
For pregnant pts with chronic HTN, when do you give antiHTN therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antihypertensive medication is a good choice during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Hyponatremia is defined as < _____ meq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common electrolyte abnormality in hospitalized pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which 2 diseases can cause pseudohyponatremia? |
|
Definition
hyperlipidemia
hyperproteinemia |
|
|
Term
What are some extra renal causes of salt loss? |
|
Definition
dehydration
diarrhea
vomiting |
|
|
Term
Hypernatremia is a sr Na > ____ meq/L |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Over how long a period of time you should admin fluids in a pt with hypernatremia? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Hypokalemia is a sr K < ___ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the total content of K in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of hypokalemia? |
|
Definition
GI loss due to infectious Diarrhea |
|
|
Term
What is the most important regulator of body K content? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
______________ is an important cofactor for K uptake and for maintenance of intracellular K levels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some signs and symptoms of hypokalemia? |
|
Definition
mm weakness
fatigue
mm cramps
constipation
ileus |
|
|
Term
What are some signs and symptoms of hypokalemia? |
|
Definition
flaccid paralysis
hyporeflexia
hypercapnia
tetany
rhabdomyolysis |
|
|
Term
When you give IV K you are not to exceed ____ mEq/L an hour. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In a pt with severe hypokalemia you need to check serum levels how often? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Hyperkalemia - a serum K > ____ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Severe hyperkalemia is defined as > ____ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which drugs inhibit K excretion? |
|
Definition
spironolactone
ACEIs
ARBs
NSAIDs
Trimethoprim
Cyclosporine |
|
|
Term
Burns, rhabdomyolysis, hemolysis, severe infection, internal bleeding and vigorous exercise can cause an increase in which electrolyte? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Serum K conc rises ___ mEq/L for every decrease of 0.1 pH during acidosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What meds can you use to distribute K into cells? |
|
Definition
IV Sodium Bicarb, insulin, albuterol |
|
|
Term
Hypocalcemia is defined as ionized sr Ca <___ mg/dL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
mm cramps, tetany, laryngospasm w/ stridor, convulsions, parasthesia, abd pain
Chvostek's sign
Trousseau's sign
Vent arrhythmias
cataracts |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
contraction of facial mm when you tap on facial nn anterior to the ear |
|
|
Term
What is Trousseau's sign? |
|
Definition
Carpal spasm occurring after occlusion of brachial artery with BP cuff for 3 mins |
|
|
Term
Hypomagnesia leads to low PTH which leads to low ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you use to treat severe hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
Calcium gluconate 10%
infusion of 10-15 Ca2
|
|
|
Term
Mild hypercalcemia is defined as ___ - ___ mg/dL
Severe hypercalcemia >___ mg/dL |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Hypercalcemia usually becomes symptomatic when sr Ca levels reach what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia |
|
Definition
Constipation, polyuria
N, V
anorexia, PUD
renal colic, hematuria
mild drowsiness, weakness
depression, lethargy, stupor, coma |
|
|
Term
hypercalcemia can cause nephrogenic __________ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
hypophosphatemia is defined as < ___ mg/dL for severe, and ___ to ___ mg/dL for moderate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do you want to make sure that you measure serum or plasma phosphorus? |
|
Definition
plasma
bc imbalances can occur with low, normal or high concentrations of phosphorus in serum |
|
|
Term
Parental admin of phosphate can cause _________ so oral replacement is better |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In DKA hypophosphatemia is usually correct with normal __________ _________ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
______________ deficiency often coexists with hypophosphatemia |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Phosphate salts can not be used in pts with what illnesses? |
|
Definition
hypoparathyroidism
renal insufficiency
tissue damage/necrosis
hypercalcemia |
|
|
Term
Hyperphosphatemia is defined by a sr phosphorus level > _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the main cause of hyperphosphatemia? |
|
Definition
Chronic renal insufficiency |
|
|
Term
What are some exogenous phosphate sources? |
|
Definition
excessive Vit D
laxatives or enemas containing phosphate
IV phosphate |
|
|
Term
What are some endogenous sources of excessive phosphate? |
|
Definition
rhabdomyolysis
cell destruction by chemo
metabolic acidosis (lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis)
respiratory acidosis |
|
|
Term
What conditions can cause pseudohyperphosphatemia? |
|
Definition
multiple myeloma
high Trigs
cell lysis |
|
|
Term
Hypomagnesemia is defined as < ____ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The excretion of magnesium is related by what organ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Magnesium has physiologic effects on the ___________ resembling those of Calcium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Severe and prolonged Mg depletion impairs PTH secretion with consequent hypo___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are symptoms that hypokalemia, hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia have in common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What change can you see on an EKG in a pt with hypomagnesemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a pt has normal _______ function they shouldn't develop hypermagnesemia bc the __________ will dump the excess |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hypermagnesemia is defined as > ____ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the characteristic S/Sx of hypermagnesemia? |
|
Definition
mm weakness, dec DTRs, mental obtundation, confusion |
|
|
Term
What is a EKG finding seen in a pt with hypermagnesemia? |
|
Definition
inc PR interval, broad QRS complex, peaked T wave |
|
|
Term
Respiratory acid base disorders affect blood pH causing changes in _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Metabolic acid-base disorders affect blood pH by causing changes in ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Metabolic acidosis has an arterial pH < ____
and an arterial HCO3 < ___ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hyperkalemia is associated with which type of acid-base disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Alcoholic ketoacidosis, Salicylate intox and methanol intoxication can cause which acid-base disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Metabolic acidosis has an arterial pH > ____ and a serum HCO3 > _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Severe metabolic acidosis requires _____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Respiratory acidosis is also known as _______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Respiratory acidosis has an arterial pH < ____
a sr PCO2 > _____ and
a sr HCO3 > _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can cause respiratory acidosis? |
|
Definition
opiod-induce CNS depression
acute respiratory failure
underying lung disease - COPD |
|
|
Term
Respiratory alkalosis is also called _____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Respiratory alkalosis is a pH > ___, and a sr pCO2 < ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of respiratory alkalosis? |
|
Definition
hyperventilation syndrome |
|
|
Term
what is the best indicator of water balance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the two types of gynecomastia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how does fatty gynecomastia differ from glandular gynecomastia? |
|
Definition
fatty is typically diffuse and nontender
glandular is lumpy and may be tender |
|
|
Term
You need to make sure you distinguish gynecomastia from what 2 other conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gynecomastia can be the first sign of which serious disorder? |
|
Definition
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome -- prone to dev gynecomastia secondary to testicular tumors |
|
|
Term
Why would you order a CXR in a pt with gynecomastia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long does it usually take pubertal gynecomastia to resolve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you treat persistent or painful gynecomastia with? |
|
Definition
estrogen receptor modulators -- raloxifene or tamoxifen |
|
|
Term
Adults with a deficiency in GH experience what? |
|
Definition
asthenia
obesity and
Inc cardiac mortality |
|
|
Term
Deficiency in LH and FSH causes... |
|
Definition
hypogonadism and infertility in men and women |
|
|
Term
About ___% of survivors of Subarachnoid hemorrhage develop at least 1 pituitary hormone deficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Kallmann's syndrome is the most common cause of congenital isolated ___________ deficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
hypo________ often occurs after the removal of pituitary tumors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ADH deficiency or resistance causes central ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment of choice for diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Diabetes incs risk of heart disease by ____times and that of stroke by ____ times |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DM2 goes undiagnosed on average for ______ yrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
______________, a complication of DM, is the leading cause of blindness in middle-aged adults |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the leading cause of ESRD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the leading cause of non-traumatic amputation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 2 subtypes of DM2? |
|
Definition
Gestational DM
Maturity Onset Diabetes of Youth |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 main characteristics of MODY? |
|
Definition
1. diabetes usually presents at a young age, <25
2. autosomal dominant inheritance
3. do not always need insulin
4. do not produce enough insulin |
|
|
Term
What are the microvascular complication of diabetes? |
|
Definition
retinopathy
nephropathy
neuropathy
DKA |
|
|
Term
What are the macrovascular complications of diabetes? |
|
Definition
cardiovascular disease
coronary artery disease
dyslipidemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
fast plasma glucose >126 on two separate occasions |
|
|
Term
Which drugs mask hypoglycemia sxs? |
|
Definition
|
|