Term
| What is the difference between Iowa Green and Gold tags? |
|
Definition
Green tag indicates that the animal has received one vaccine
Gold tag - 2 vaccines, with the second being at least 14 days after the 1st vax, and at least 14 days before sale |
|
|
Term
| What are the required vaccines for cattle? |
|
Definition
Clostridial 7 way
Histophilus
IBR
PI-3
BVD type 1 & 2
BRSV |
|
|
Term
| How long before selling should a bovine be dehorned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the requirements for selling cattle (dehorning, vax status, weaning, ownership, etc) ? |
|
Definition
Dehorning: 21 days before selling
Vax: clostridial 7 way, histophilus, IBR PI3, BVS 1&2, BRSV
Weaned: for at least 45 days
Owned for at least 60 days |
|
|
Term
| When should you vaccinate cattle if they are going to be shipped to best prevent respiratory disease? |
|
Definition
Bacterins: vaccinate 2-4 weeks before and booster again at the time of shipping
MLVs: use at arrival
bacterins need a 2nd dose to provide adequate protection |
|
|
Term
| What type of vaccine would you use in an outbreak of respiratory disease? |
|
Definition
MLV - may lessen or prevent further spread of the disease
do NOT use bacterins during an outbreak |
|
|
Term
| What antibiotics are approved for metaphylaxis to prevent respiratory disease in cattle? |
|
Definition
Tilmicosin
florfenicol
oxytetracycline
Ceftiofur
Tulathromycin |
|
|
Term
| When would you start to see signs of disease contraction after a new shipment of cattle arrives? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most important bacterial agent that causes respiratory disease in cattle in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What serotype of mannheimia hemolytica is most disease outbreak caused by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is mannheimia hemolytica most likely to be transmitted to other cattle? |
|
Definition
- to newborn shortly after birth
- after shipping (isolates of nasasl swabs will increase throughout a herd after shipping) |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of a bovine mannheimia hemolytica infection? |
|
Definition
- stress or virus predisposes
- m. hemolytica moves to lungs:
small amounts cleared by Macrophages and neutrophils
large organisms overwhelm pulmonary defenses = production of leukotoxin (RTX) which inhibits/lyses phagocytic cells
*** lysis of phagcytic cells === hydrolytic enzyme release == LUNG DAMAGE |
|
|
Term
| How would you prevent an outbreak of Mannheimia hemolytica in a herd of cattle? |
|
Definition
- minimize stress (shipping, diet changes, etc)
- vaccinate: Toxoid (against leukotoxin)
- Medication: Tilmicosin, tetracyclines
(give on arival post shipping) |
|
|
Term
| There are at least 7 medications to treat m. hemolytica. What are they and the pro/cons of their use? |
|
Definition
1)Tilmicosin
2)Tulathromycin - both are long acting macrolides, single dose, expensive but low labor, **extended pulmonary tissue levels***
3) Florfenicol - good efficacy
4) ceftiofur - good efficacy, short withdrawal time
5) Tetracyclines - resistance, tissue irritation, mutli-dose
6) Oxytetracycline+flunixin - less resistance
7) Sulfa-TriM - good efficacy, some resistance, expensive, multi-dose |
|
|
Term
What is the role of Pasteurella multocida in respiratory disease of bovine?
What strain causes it and how do you prevent? |
|
Definition
Secondary role - furthers resp damage by other diseases
Strain- A3
Prevention: precondition and vaccinate, but not solid immunity ** dont give the vaccine to stressed animals**
Tx: |
|
|
Term
| What organism is most similar to mannheimia hemolytica? How is it similar? |
|
Definition
Bibersteinia trehalosi
- same leukotoxin as m.hemolytica
- similar resp disease |
|
|
Term
| What is the disease presentation of Histophilus somni in cattle? |
|
Definition
Respiratory disease
+/- septicemia:
- TME
- suppurative arthritis
- polyserositis
- pericarditis
- myocarditis |
|
|
Term
| What type of disease would be seen in cattle with a co-infection of BRSV and Histophilus somni? |
|
Definition
| Rapidly fatal pneumonia with a tye 1 hypersensitivity |
|
|
Term
| How would you prevent Histophilus somni infections of cattle? |
|
Definition
| VACCINATE: - bacterins will produce a T cell response that only produces IgM. This protects against TME and septicemia only. - vaccine required for Iowa Gold Tag Tetracyclines in fed may help |
|
|
Term
| A farmer calls you and claims that his cattle have "Red Nose". What the hell is he talking about? |
|
Definition
IBR (bovine herpes)
the virus causes destruction of ciliated respiratory epithelium in response to immunosuppression (like shipping)
This causes the respiratory tract to become inflammed, which leads to erosions, causing the hyperemia of the muzzle that is referred to as "red nose" |
|
|
Term
| How would IBR present differently in neonates vs adult cattle? |
|
Definition
Neonates = meningioencephalitis
Adults: respiratory disease, abortions, kertoconjunctivitis, red nose |
|
|
Term
| What about IBR complicates controlling it as it as an outbreak occurs? |
|
Definition
Can transmit by contact or inhalation
infected cattle shed the organism for weeks (may not have clinical signs)
- virus can remain latent in trigeminal ganglia and induced by stress |
|
|
Term
| IBR can remain latent for extended periods of time in the bovine. Where would you find the organism in latency? |
|
Definition
Neural tissue =
TRIGEMINAL GANGLIA |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of IBR? |
|
Definition
Cattle are predisposed by immunosuppression (like the stress of shipping)
- decreased Th cell activity, defective neutrophils and alveolar macrophages
- invasion of ciliated respiratory epithelium
- pustules, erosions, and inflammation |
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose IBR? |
|
Definition
- clinical presentation (red nose)
- intranuclear inclusions of lesions by FA or IHC |
|
|
Term
| How would you prevent infections of IBR? |
|
Definition
- Vaccinate: MLV initally, then can booster with killed. Vaccine is good quality and provides adequate immunity. Intranasal not as good, but protection achieved in only 3-4 days
- colostrum: maternal protection from vaccine passed **dont vaccine pregnant cows though** |
|
|
Term
| Immunization against H. somni provides what type of immunoglobulin to be produced? What is the role in prevention of disease? |
|
Definition
Will stimulate T cells only to produce
IgM ***
this will only protect against the thromboembolic and septicemic forms |
|
|
Term
| What type of disease does BRSV produce? |
|
Definition
LOWER respiratory disease
(not upper or systemic)
sudden onset of high fever
respiratory distress and nasal discharge
**peracute form = type 1 hypersensitivity |
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose an infection of BRSV? |
|
Definition
IHC
Histopath
(Viral isolation is difficult) |
|
|
Term
| Why is the BRSV vaccine a low titer vaccine? |
|
Definition
| It is hard to isolate the virus on culture - and hard to grow for vaccine purposes |
|
|
Term
| What are some adverse reactions associated with the BRSV vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What clinical disease presentation would accompany an infection of Mycoplasma bovis? |
|
Definition
- mastitis
- polyarthritis
- Focal coagulative necrosis causing abscesses of:
lungs, otitis media, kidney, liver
lymphohistiocytic response |
|
|
Term
Mycoplasma bovis has been associated with feeding dairy calves un-pasteurized waste milk.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary treatment for infections of Mycoplasm bovis is beta-lactams like penicillin.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
Macrolides are the antibiotic of choice
- dont forget most of the lesions are abscesses that need to be penetrated ! |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between the African and American forms of Malignant catarrhal fever? |
|
Definition
African= Wildebeasts are carriers, cattle dead end non shedders
American= sheep associated outbreaks, deer possible carriers |
|
|
Term
Malignant Catarrhal fever is a herpesvirus.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What species is the primary carrier of American malignant catarrhal fever? |
|
Definition
SHEEP
(deer may be carriers too) |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical signs associated with malignant catarrhal fever? |
|
Definition
ALL mucosal surfaces and vascular endothelium!!
- oral erosions
- diarrhea
- keratinoconjunctivitis
- mucopurulent nasal discharge
- encephalitis
- lymphadenopathy (HUGE)
- high fever
lamness & loughing of hooves (ew!) |
|
|
Term
| Bovine Malignant catarrhal fever can look like what other disease? How would you differentiate them? |
|
Definition
Malignant catarrhal fever can look like FMDV & rhinderpest.
rhinderpest - eradicated
FMDV - will be effecting the whole herd
DX of MCF= histopath, cELISA, PCR |
|
|
Term
| Malignant Catarrhal fever virus has tropism for what type of cells in the bovine?? |
|
Definition
| All mucosal surfaces and vascular endothelium |
|
|
Term
Malignant Catarrhal Fever vaccine is part of the requirements for the Iowa Gold Tag program.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
there is NO vaccine for MCF
Required vaccines include: clostridial 7 way, histophilus, IBR, PI3, BVD 1&2, BRSV |
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose Malignant Catarrhal fever? |
|
Definition
Clinical signs (oral erosions, HUGE LN, high fever+ limited spread)
Histopath (intranuclear inclusions)
cELISA
PCR |
|
|
Term
| How would you prevent Malignant catarrhal fever? |
|
Definition
- Keep away from sheep and africian wildlife (get all the wildebeasts out off your farm)
separate/isolate/cull infected cattle
NO VAX |
|
|
Term
| What are the different serotypes of Pasteurella causing hemorrhagic septicemia? Where would you find the different serotypes? |
|
Definition
B2 - asia, southern europe, middle east, yellowstone
E2 - Africa |
|
|
Term
| Which specific organism is the cause of hemorrhagic septicemia in the Bison of Yellowstone? |
|
Definition
| Pasteurella Multocida serotype B2 |
|
|
Term
Water buffalo are more susceptible to hemorrhagic septicemia than cattle are.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical signs of Hemorrhagic septicemia? |
|
Definition
Endotoxemia
animals found dead on pasture
excessive salivation
fever
nasal discharge> respiratory distress
edema of pharyngeal and cervical lymph nodes |
|
|
Term
| What lymph nodes would be most likely edema from the organism that causes malignant catarrhal fever? |
|
Definition
| pharyngeal and cervical lymph nodes |
|
|
Term
| Which season would you most likely have an outbreak of hemorrhagic septicemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What species have disease from hemorrhagic septicemia been reported? |
|
Definition
bison
horses
pigs
camels
yaks
elephants
water buffalo
cattle |
|
|
Term
| How would you treat and prevent hemorrhagic septicemia? |
|
Definition
Vaccinate in endemic areas (oil aduvant best)
- treat with penicillin EARLY |
|
|
Term
What organism causes Contagious Bovine pleuropneumonia?
Where would you most likely find this disease? |
|
Definition
Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides SC
Found in: Africa, Iberian peninsula, China, India
ERADICATED from US |
|
|
Term
How is Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia spread?
How would you control an outbreak? |
|
Definition
- spread aerosol or transplacental
Control: slaughter infected and exposed animals. vaccinate in edemic areas
***treated and vaccinated animals remain carriers*** |
|
|
Term
| You arrive to a farm where a bovine was found dead after having episodes of air hunger and respiratory distress. On necropsy you find the lungs marbled thick white lines. What is your primary diagnosis? |
|
Definition
Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia
** pathognomic lesion ** |
|
|
Term
Which one of the following managment practices will have the biggest NEGATIVE effect on preventing enteric disease?
A) Cold calf hutches
B) failure of passive transfer
C) Dry environments |
|
Definition
B) no colostrum significantly hinders the chance of the calf surviving
Dry environments are favorable in prevention and calves dont need very warm temps, and the fact that a hutch is provided at all is a benefit |
|
|
Term
| Colostrum intake is vital to maintaining calf immunity. What is a good intake target of colostrum for a calf? |
|
Definition
| 4 quarts within 1 hour of birth |
|
|
Term
What are the different ways to evaluate passive transfer of colostrum?
Which is the most common way? |
|
Definition
MOST COMMON: refractometry, indicates total plasma protein
ELISA- quick but only semiquantitative
Precipitation test (Na sulfite turbidity test)- rapid
Gelatin tests- rapid
Radial immunodiffusion- least commonly used. Most accurate but expensive and takes 24 hours to get back from lab! |
|
|
Term
| When preforming radial immunodiffusion test to evaluate colostrum transfer, what do the rings around the sample indicate? |
|
Definition
The diameter of the ring indicates the amount of IgG contained in the sample.
The smaller the ring, the less likely the calf is going to survive :( |
|
|
Term
| Refractometry can be used to see if failure of passive transfer has occurred. What does a refractometer measure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A two day old calf has some type of enteric disease. Based on your infinite knowledge of infectious diseases you can narrow down your differentials to not include which of the following:
A) E. Coli
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Salmonella |
|
Definition
C) SALMONELLA
this will not infect neonates until 2 weeks of age most commonly |
|
|
Term
| Most enteric pathogens of calves are seen in normally in the GI tract. Which organism might be an exception to this rule? |
|
Definition
Salmonella
there are some non pathogenic strains that may be found naturally occurring but pathogenic salmonella shouldnt be there! |
|
|
Term
| E. coli F5 (K99) fimbrial types most commonly affect calves of what age? |
|
Definition
LESS THAN 4 DAYS
F41 can be found in older calves |
|
|
Term
O antigen types of E.coli are most commonly associated with septicemia in calves.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical signs of e.coli enteritis in calves? |
|
Definition
Watery-pasty diarrhea
On necropsy: fluid filled intestines
(malabsorptive diarrhea) |
|
|
Term
| When should you test total protein via refractometry to confirm passage of colostral immunity? |
|
Definition
18-24 hours
this is when Ig levels are highest |
|
|
Term
| When would you vaccinate cows to prevent E.coli enteritis in calves? |
|
Definition
vaccinate for e.coli at 6 and 2 weeks prior to calving
- then assure passage of colostral immunity!! |
|
|
Term
| How does the clinical disease of AEEC differ from E.coli? |
|
Definition
AEEC = attaching effacing E.coli
^ causing hemorrhagic enteritis that primarily affects large intestine
can also infect calves later (3-30days
where e.coli is mostly before 4 days old.)
AEEC doesnt make enterotoxins and isnt F5 or F41 |
|
|
Term
The best time to give cows the F5 fimbrial vaccine for e.coli to prevent neonatal enteritis would be at their pregnancy check.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
the immunity of the vaccine will not last long enough
**vaccinate at 6 and 2 weeks prior to calving |
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose a salmonellosis in cattle? |
|
Definition
Culture intestinal content/tissues
lesions: Lnn enlarged to size of intestinal diameter or more |
|
|
Term
| How would you prevent salmonellosis in cattle? |
|
Definition
Pasteurize milk/colostrum (shed in milk)
Sanitation -
- esp of feeding equipment for dairy calves
VAX: SRP vax, not MLV or bacterins |
|
|
Term
| How would you treat salmonellosis in a bovine? |
|
Definition
Fluids & electrolytes
NSAIDS
(Antimicrobials may help, but not a long term solution) |
|
|
Term
| What is the occurrence of Clostridial enteritis in bovine? What types? |
|
Definition
NOT COMMON
- perfringens types B and C most common,
A, D, E less common
will cause enterotoxemia in older calves |
|
|
Term
Hemorrhagic enteritis is a pathognomic lesion of neonatal Clostridial enteric disease.
True or False? |
|
Definition
TRUE
can diagnose based on the presence of these lesions |
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose Clostridial enteritis in a bovine? |
|
Definition
Presence of path lesions: hemorrhagic enteritis in neonates
- lots of organisms will be present in intestinal sites on histopath
** if you see lots of gram positive rods in the small intestine you can pretty conclusively say you have a clostridial enteritis |
|
|
Term
Rotavirus is one of the most common causes of neonatal diarrhea in calves.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Colostral antibodies protect calves from rotavirus.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
most calves become infected within 2-3 days following parturition despite the presence of colostral antibodies |
|
|
Term
| On a strictly immunologic bass, what are the major reasons that it is unwise to give the first dose of a killed bacterin to feeder calves on arrival at a feeder or within a few days of arrival? |
|
Definition
- not sufficient time to develop a good immune response before the most susceptible period for development of respiratory disease occurs. Needs booster vaccine to get sufficient immunity.
- Some killed bacterins may be immunosuppressive, have other adverse effects, or just plain may not be any good at providing protection. |
|
|
Term
| How long does colostral immunity against IBR virus last in a calf, assuming it has received a good quality colostrum from a cow vaccinated with MLV IBR virus? |
|
Definition
| At least 4 months, but could be as long at 7 months. |
|
|
Term
| Disease caused by bovine respiratory syncytial virus used to be known as "silage disease" by some cattlemen. What is/was the role of silage in BRSV infection? |
|
Definition
| Too much silage too early in the starter ration caused rumen acidosis which would result in metabolic acidosis that caused immunosuppression. |
|
|
Term
| Vaccines against BRSV have a hgh rate of complaints for adverse reactions. What is thought to be the basis for most of these adverse reactions? |
|
Definition
| Type 1 immediate hypersensitivity |
|
|
Term
| List 4 differentials for a very sick 14-month-old steer. there are 180 other steer, none of which are ill. This steer is dyspnic, has diarrhea, nasal & ocular discharge, ropy saliva, is off feed, reluctant to move, fetid breath, ulcerations of the oral cavity. Temp = 99.5F. |
|
Definition
1) MCF (more likely)
2) BVD-MD (mroe likely)
3) Rinderpest - eradicated, and more animals would be sick
4) FMD - more animals would be sick |
|
|
Term
| Vaccination against contagiou bovine pleuropneumonia is practiced in areas where the organism is endemic. Treatment is also commonly used. Why are vaccination and treatment not very wise practices to use against this disease? |
|
Definition
Vaccinated and treated animals will remain carriers of contagious bovine pleuropneumonia for life.
BEST TO CULL |
|
|
Term
| What are the major problems associated with the efficacy and use of the modified live oral rotavirus-coronavirus vaccine? List two. |
|
Definition
1) It has to be given within 24 hours of birth, best if before nursing and this is often difficult (especially with beef calves that are on pasture)
2) there are numerous rotavirus serological variants that make vaccination with a commercial product less likely to be efficacious. |
|
|
Term
| Outline the major clinical signs of rabies in cattle? |
|
Definition
Often see the dumb form of rabies, dysphgia (swallowed an apple syndrome), abnormal vocalization, ataxia, paralysis, straining to urinate or deficate with air drawn into the rectum, aggression, excessive salivation.
often mimics indigestion, esophageal foreign bodies (choke) or milk fever
** dont stick your hands down the throat of a neurologic bovine!** |
|
|
Term
| List three common agents involved in middle ear infections in cattle and discuss how to prevent middle ear infections caused by all three. |
|
Definition
1) pasteurella multocida
2) Mannheimia Haemolytica
3) Mycoplasma bovis
Prev: prevent resp disease or treat it effectively (as middle ear is often secondary to resp dz)
prevent mycoplasma by pasteurizing milk |
|
|
Term
| Why has bovine anaplasmosis traditionally been a more severe problem in southern areas of the US and tropical or semitropical areas of the world in general? |
|
Definition
| anaplasma is spread hematogenously by the biting fly and many types of ticks. These insects are much more common in the more tropical/southern regions. They can also overwinter and therefore do not need transovarial trasmission. |
|
|
Term
| Lepospirosis seems to be recognized as being more of a problem in dairy cattle than it is in beef cows. Why would dairy cattle be more likely to be affected? |
|
Definition
| Since urine is major transmission route there is a much greater chance of contaminated feed and water in the crowded housing conditions of dairy cattle. Beef cattle are on pasture and there is less crowding and a decreased chance of urine contamination. |
|
|
Term
| Modified live BVD virus vaccines have been used in young dairy calves (especially bull calves) despite the presence of protective maternal antibody titers. What is the immunologic basis for the protection these vaccines provide in the face of colostral immunity? |
|
Definition
| They stimulate a CMI responsethat can be used in addition to the antibody present in colostrum |
|
|
Term
| Briefly outline an effective program to decrease the ecomomic impact of Johne's disease on a dairy herd. |
|
Definition
- test all adult cattle in teh herd on a routine basis using the available ELISA test or other suitable test
- test all adult cattle showing clinical signs
- cull immediately all positives and any of their offspring
- if high prevalence: vaccinate calves at 1 month, use replacement heifers
- prevent cross contamination by raising replacement heifers separately
- dont spread manure on hay or pasture ground |
|
|
Term
| Outline the procedure one should use to establish a herd that is negative for bovine lymphosarcoma (leukosis). Why would one want to establish a negative herd in this country? |
|
Definition
- Test and Cull Positives
- establish a negative herd to allow export of cattle, semen, or embryos to a country requiring a negative herd. |
|
|
Term
| Neonatal vaccination with IBR and BVD modified live viruses has been proven to provide a measurable protective response despite presence of protective colostral antibody. What is the immunologic basis for the protective response and how is it measured? |
|
Definition
| The response from the vaccines is cell mediated immunity (not humoral). Measured in labs via lymphocyte blastogenesis or gamma-interferon assays *he has asked this in several past exams ! |
|
|
Term
| What is the essential requirement before one can vaccinate a pregnant cow with a modified live BVD vaccine that is licensed for such use? |
|
Definition
| Pregnant cow essentially has to have been vaccinated with the identical vaccine prior to being bred. In essense she has to be immune to the vaccine virus |
|
|
Term
Match the clinical diseases below wih the stage of gestation at which each is most likely to occur with a BVD infection in cattle:
____0-125 days
____120-175 days
____150 to term
A) persistant infection
B) increased stillbirths or premature births
C) abortion
D) Congenital anomalies
E) Fetal death |
|
Definition
0-125 days: Persistant infection, Abortion, fetal death
120-170 days: Congenital anomalies
150 days to term: increased stillbirths or premature births
*persistent infection occurs after about 125 days |
|
|
Term
| Vaccination during an outbreak of bovine shipping fever has been demonstrated to work reasonably well to help control the outbreak and in some cases has led to a rapid decrease in morbidity. What is the immunological basis for the success of vaccination in the face of an outbreak? |
|
Definition
Some of the viral agents such as IBR go through a herd relatively slowly and vaccination can head them off in naive population. Also, one might just be boostering a previous vaccination or exposure such that the levels of immunity in the herd rise dramatically.
- also most likely stimulates interferon response |
|
|
Term
| Why would a Johne's infected herd not be allow to be vaccinated? In what situation is vaccination permitted? |
|
Definition
Vaccination would interfere with teh ability to test ad removed infected animals.
If a control program is underway, it might not be in the best interests of the producer to vaccinate unless he/she is willing to ignore positives in the vaccinated group. Vaccination is restricted to infected herds. |
|
|
Term
| The 7 way Clostridial vaccines are used to immunize feeder cattle against which main disease problem? |
|
Definition
BLACKLEG
The clostridial 7 way vaccine protects against blackleg primarily, but also enterotoxemia. They also prevent against enteritis but this is relatively uncommon in cattle. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two major problems with the killed Anaplasma marginale vaccine? |
|
Definition
- not highly protective and animals can be readily infected - neonatal isoerythrolysis has been a problem due to the fact that the vaccines contain cattle RBC antigens.
~MLV vaccines can be used to create a controlled infection in calves in endemic areas only when vectors are not active, but this makes the calves infected for life and will act as a reservoir! these calves shouldn't be sold or moved around between farms ! |
|
|
Term
| List the two most important components of a good program to prevent coccidiosis in feeder cattle. |
|
Definition
Feeding a coccidiostat such as Rumensin or Bovatec
SANITATION |
|
|
Term
| List three methods for preventing metabolic acidosis when starting beef cattle on feed int eh feedlot? Why does one need to avoid metabolic acidosis? |
|
Definition
- restrict silage feeding, especially if the calves are not used to it
- be careful with feeding concentrates to avoid rumen acidosis
- feeding an ionophore will help smooth out any ration transitions
~~Metabolic acidosis can lead to immunosuppression and the development of more severe shipping fever pneumonia. Shift of rumen microbes when acidiosis occurs also |
|
|
Term
| Explain on an immunologic basis why vaccination against Histophilus somni is included as part of many preconditioning programs despite the fact that the available bacterin products do not protect well against shipping fever pneumonias. |
|
Definition
| The killed bacterins can stimulate an IgM and an IgG response that protects against thrombotic meningoencephalitis, but which is not especially protective against respiratory disease because of the lack of efficacy of those immunoglobulins in the lung. |
|
|
Term
| Briefly list the main clinical signs of rinderpest in cattle. |
|
Definition
Explosive outbreak
- high fevers initially
- rumenal atony
- reddened oral mucosa
- fetid breath from oral lesions
high mortality (esp European cattle)
- feces goes from dry and covered with mucous to later being fluid |
|
|
Term
| The J5 vaccine was originally developed to help prevent salmonellosis in dairy cattle. However it never gained wide acceptance for that purpose. Based on your knowledge of salmonellosis in dairy calves and the immune response of the J5 vax, list two reasons why the vaccine is not commonly used in calves. |
|
Definition
- J5 vax= rough core mutant. Core antigen stimulates IgM response. Serum IgM cannot protect well against enteric infections because it doesnt leave the intravascular space and it has a short half life.
- vax would need to be given to calves almost at the time of birth in order to stimulate an immune response in time to cover the period when salmonellosis is most likely to cause problems.
**remember salmonella causes enteric dz in calves at 14 days typically
~~Siderophore Receptor Protein vaccines (SRP) are most commonly used and are said to give protection against multiple serotypes |
|
|
Term
| What is an SRP vaccine and why is it supposed to be better at protecting against salmonellosis? |
|
Definition
SRP = Siderophore Receptor Protein
relatively conserved between salmonelosis serovars and immunity against this protein has been demonstrated to provide protection against MULTIPLE serotypes |
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Term
States are accredited bovine tuberculosis free when no evidence of tuberculosis is found for 5 consecutive years
True or False? |
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Definition
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Term
Tuberculosis reactor cattle must either be slaughtered at an approved plant or be destroyed
True or False? |
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Definition
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Term
The single cervical test for cattle tuberculosis diagnosis is more sensitive than the caudal fold test and that is the reason it is preferred for testing infected herds.
True or False? |
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Definition
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Term
Most tuberculosis reactor cattle have extensive gross pulmonary lesions.
True or False? |
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Definition
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Term
Infections with Coxiella burnetti in cattle are almost always clinically severe and require rapid diagnosis and treatment.
True or False? |
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Definition
False
cattle are most often subclinical - its the human disease that is clinically significant (Q fever)
- this is why milk still needs to be pasteurized |
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Term
Vaccination against infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis usually provides solid immunity against clinical disease.
True or False? |
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Definition
False
IBK is caused by Mycoplasma bovis
the vaccine for this does not provide solid immunity |
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Term
Otitis media in cattle can be caused by a number of organisms but Pasteurella multocida and mycoplasma bovis are two of the most common ones.
True or False? |
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Definition
TRUE
- pretty much anything that causes respiratory disease can cause otitis media, but Pasteurella and Mycoplasma bovis are the top ones. |
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Term
Treatment of otitis media needs to be long term.
True or False? |
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Definition
TRUE
marcolides for extended time |
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Term
Unlike other enteric diseases, the link between sanitation and salmonellosis is not as strong.
True or False? |
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Definition
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Term
Rift Valley Fever:
A) is readily spread by contact with nasal discharges of infected cattle
B) Is limited in host range to cattle and other ruminants
C) Affects most species with the exception of sheep and goats
D) Characteristically produces acute hepatitis, fever, vomiting and abortions in sheep in goats
E) as a relatively low mortality rate for young ruminants but kills almost 100% of adult animals |
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Definition
Answer: D) acute hepatitis, fever, vomiting, abortions - - this is the same disease seen in humans
A) spread via mosquitoes
B) not limited in range because it affects humans
C) does affect sheep and goats
E) Mortality rate is almost 100% in young, and 20% in adults |
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Term
Heartwater disease:
A) Was eradicated from the US in the late 1800's
B) Is largely confined to Africa
C) Could easily be brought to the US with infected ticks
D) Is transovarially transmitted in ticks
E) None of the above |
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Definition
Answer: C) heartwater could easily be brought to US by ticks from the south, esp if my migrating birds.
A) it wasnt eradicated, because it hasn't entered the US yet
B) heartwater is a Foreign animal disease, but not just endemic in africa |
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Term
Which of the following is not a clinical sign of rabies in cattle?
A) Abnormal vocalization
B) Aburpt cessation of eating and drinking
C) Straining to defecate or urinate
D) Knuckling over the hind fetlock
E) Abnormal swelling in the esophagus |
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Definition
Answer: E) abnormal swelling of esophagus
Although it mimics esophageal obstruction - its a neurological issue, not from swelling |
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Term
Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in dairy cattle has been most closely associated with:
A) Lack of long-stemmed roughage in the diet
B) Overgrowth of Clostridium botulinum in the intestinal tract
C) The presence of low levels of mycotoxins in the feed
D) All of the above
E) Only A and B above |
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Definition
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Term
Winter dysentery:
A) is caused by infection with Brachyspira hyodysentery
B) is usually a relatively mild disease
C) is usually more clinically obvious in younger cows
D) frequently occurs simultaneously in clusters of several farms
E) All of the above
F) Only b through d above |
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Definition
Answer: F) which denotes all but A are correct
Winter dysentery is caused by a corona virus, not brachyspira |
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Term
Malignant Catarrhal fever virus:
A) most commonly causes explosive outbreaks of severe disease
B) most commonly affects only one or a few animals at a time
C) is readily isolated from lambs
D) is a foreign animal disease
E) Transmits slowly from animal to animal in a group of cattle, thus giving time to vaccinate in the face of an outbreak |
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Definition
| Answer: B) most commonly affects one or a few animals at a time |
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Term
Vaccination against which of the following has been most commonly associated with reported adverse reactions?
A) Mannheimia haemolytica
B) Pasteurella multocida
C) Mycoplasma bovis
D) Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus
E) Clostridium tetani |
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Definition
Answer: D) BRSV
This can cause a type 1 hypersensitivity |
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Term
| What are the three most important elements of any preconditioniing program for feeder cattle? |
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Definition
1) weaning well ahead of sale or shipment (30-45 days)
2) adequate vaccination (at least 2 weeks prior - and 2-3 weeks in between boosters)
3) Started on feed |
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Term
| List three major program responsibilities of a Johne's Certified veterinarian. |
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Definition
1) Producer education
2) Risk assessment for each herd
3) Develop a management plan for each herd |
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Term
| List three of the most important problems that are adversely affecting the Texas Cattle Fever Tick Eradication Proram. |
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Definition
1) the ticks!! Esp R.microplus, they are becoming rapidly resistant to the coumaphos dips
2) Ranchers are financially unwilling to invest the money per cow to dip their herd every 2 weeks for 6-9 months
3) When ranchers abandon pastures, white tailed deer graze and can carry infected ticks to outside of the quarantine zone, spreading the disease |
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Term
| Why is bacteriologic culture of small intestine not very rewarding as a diagnostic tool for identification of neonatal calves? |
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Definition
| Because E.coli is in the small intestine anyways and one really needs to identify whether the F5 antigen is present on the organisms to determine pathogenicity |
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Term
| What is the most obvious, non-acute, clinical sign of adult lypmhosarcoma (leukosis) in cattle? |
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Definition
Markedly swollen lymph nodes are the classic sign
they can be distributed anywhere on the body |
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Term
| List the three most effective methods for prevention of salmonellosis in calves. |
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Definition
SANITATION (feeding equiptment, bottles, calf hutches, creep feeders)
VACCINATION (SRP vaccine better than J5)
VENTILATION (improvement of environment, low stress = comfort, well bedded, not crowded) |
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Term
| What are the two most effective methods for prevention of coccidiosis in cattle? |
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Definition
1) Feed a coccidiostat like Rumensin or Bovatec
2) Improve sanitation, decrease crowding |
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Term
| Briefly describe the two most salient clinical signs of winter dysentery in cattle. |
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Definition
1) Blood in the feces
2) Animals off feed, lowered milk production, depressed
* this occurs more commonly in heifers |
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Term
| The AVMA Compendium on Rabies lists what two reasons for vaccinating livestock in the US? |
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Definition
1) If the animals have a high dollar value
2) required for interstate shipment of some animals
3) If the animals are going to be around people a lot (fairs, shows, petting zoos, racetracks, kids riding ponies, etc) |
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Term
| Calves infected with BVD virus between approximately 120 and 180 days of gestation may be born with congenital anomalies - What are two of the most obvious congenital anomalies of these calves? |
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Definition
1) Cerebellar hypoplasia
2) Hydrocephaly |
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Term
| Name and briefly describe the test most commonly used to identify persistantly BVD calves. |
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Definition
IHC on an ear notch
- full thickness notch or plug external ear is removed and sent to the lab. they prepare a thin sample an use an immunohitochemistry stain to visualize and quantitate the amount of BVD viral antigen present. |
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Term
Which of the following is not routinely observed in Heartwater (Ehrlichia ruminantium) infection?
A) Pneumonia
B) Hemoglobinuria
C) Hydropericardium
D) Hydrothorax
E) High case fatality rate |
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Definition
| Answer: B) hemoglobinuria is not commonly seen with heartwater infection |
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Term
The clinical picture of tritrichomonas foetus infection in a cattle herd is due to:
A) the fact that the breeding season in many of these herds is extended because bulls are allowed to run with the cow herd for much of the year
B) the females can remain infected for 3-20 weeks before clearing the organism and finally allowing an embryo to implant
C) Occasional cases of pyometra and late-term abortions throw off the calving and breeding schedule
D) all of the above
E) none of the above |
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Definition
| Answer: D) all of the above |
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Term
Rapid diagnosis of anaplasmosis by practicing veterinarians can be accomplished by using:
A) Rapid Slide agglutination
B) Complement fixation
C) Agar gel immunodiffusion
D) demonstration of the organisms in stained blood smears
E) only a and d above
F) only b and d above |
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Definition
Answer: E) only b and d
(complement fixation and demonstration of organisms in stained blood smear) |
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Term
Which of the following is true of the Iowa Gold Tag Preconditioniing Program:
A) All calves must be at least 4 months of age before the first required immunizations
B) the secnd immunizations must be preformed at least 14 days following initial immunization
C) second immunization must be preformed at least 14 days before the calves are sold
D) The name of the vaccine must be listed on the form
E) all of the above
F) none of the above |
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Definition
| Answer: E) all of the above |
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Term
Which of the following is true if abscesses are observed in the lungs of a feeder calf that died of shipping fever pneumonia 3 days after arriving on the lot?
A) The calf must have been infectd with Mycoplasma bovis
B) The calf was peracutely infected with BRSV
C) the calf was "stale" (had been in transit, sale barns, trader cattle pens, etc for 9-11 days before purchase by the present owner)
D) this is probably the second bout of respiatory disease for this calf
E) only b and c above
F) only c and d above |
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Definition
| Answer: D) this must not be the first time the calf has respiratory disease |
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Term
Immunization against Histophilus somni:
A) is generally regarded as giving reasonably good protection against thrombotic meningoencephalitis
B) tends to stimulate an IgM response due to the oligosaccharide outer surface antigens
C) Has been linked to possible type 1 hypersensitivity responses due to the presence of histamine in the killed bacterins
D) is required for the Iowa Green tag and Gold Tag preconditioning program
E) All of the above
F) only A and C above are correct |
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Definition
| Answer: E) all of the above |
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Term
Immunization with killed bacterins in the face of an outbreak of shipping fever pneumonia is contraindicated because:
A) killed bacterin products usually take 10-14days + to stimulate strong immune response and this is too late to do much good
B) Killed bacterins are highly specific for the parent organism and do not stimulate broad spectrum protection against other bacteria and viruses
C) Killed bacterin products frequently stimulate IgG or sometimes only IgM response which is not very protective on the respiratory mucosae
D) all of the above
E) only A and B above are correct |
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Definition
| Answer: D) all of the above are correct |
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Term
Ehrlichia ruminantium is transmitted by:
A) Respiratory route
B) Rhiphicephalus sp ticks
C) Any species of Amblyomma ticks
D) Mosquitoes
E) All of the above |
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Definition
Answer: C) any species of ambylomma ticks
(this is heartwater disease and the Gulf coast tick is the most common in the US, so Texas watch out!) |
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Term
Which of the following induces the fusion of epithelial cells to form multinucleate giant cells?
A) IBR virus
B) BVD virus
C) PI3 virus
D) BRSV
E) Attaching -Effacing E.coli |
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Definition
Answer: D) BRSV
Bovine Respiratory Syncytial virus
- these multinucleate cells are called "syncytial cells"
- causes LOWER respiratory disease, extensive damage to lungs and it often found with secondary bacterial infections |
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Term
Which of the following is least likely to be associated with Mycoplasma bovis infection in cattle?
A) Diarrhea
B) Lameness
C) Pulmonary Abscesses
D) Otitis Media (ear droop)
E) Mastitis |
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Definition
Answer: A) diarrhea will not be often found with Mycoplamsa bovis infections
~lesions of mycoplasma are from focal coagulative necrosis and the lymphohistiocytic response
***think ABSCESSES ...everywhere...ew |
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Term
The single Radial Immunodiffusion Test (SRID) is used for the diagnosis of:
A) BVD infection
B) Rotavirus infection
C) Failure of passive transfer
D) Neonatal isoerythrolysis
E) None of the above |
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Definition
Answer: C) failure of passive transfer.
The diameter of the diffusion ring indicates the amount of IgG from colostrum
- this is not the most common way to measure FPT (expensive and takes 24 hours to get back from lab) but it is considered the MOST ACCURATE
- more commonly used is the refractometer that measures total serum protein (easy to do pen-side and cheap) |
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Term
The modified live oral rotavirus-coronavirus vaccine:
A) Must only be given to adult cow that are not pregnant
B) Needs to be given to calves shortly after birth, preferably before colostrum intake
C) Needs to be given to calves between 3-5 days of age in order to occupy mucosal epithelium attachment sites and thereby block infection with virulent virus
D) None of the above |
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Definition
Answer: B) the MLV vax for rota-coronavirus needs to be given before colostrum for best results.
- this makes it VERY DIFFICULT to give to beef calves who are on the pasture!
- the vaccine is used commonly, and there is antigenic diversity so the vaccine has to be herd specific
*Rotavirus is one of the most common causes of neonatal diarrhea & mostly serotype A
*corona causes neonatal diarrhea in 5-15 day old calves, but bigger problem is Winter Dysentery |
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Term
Lumpy Skin Disease is occasionally seen as large epidemics in southern and eastern Africa and occasionally in the Middle East.
True or False? |
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Definition
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Term
Once tuberculosis is found in a herd of cattle, deer, elk, or bison in the US the only option is to depopulate the herd.
True or False? |
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Definition
FALSE
The herd must be quarantined
test all animals and cull the positive
two consecutive negative tests at 60-90 days and another negative 6 months out |
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Term
The single cervical test for tuberculosis may lack specificity but it still is used as the sole test for identifying reactors in a herd that has been quarantined
True or False? |
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Definition
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Term
Most preconditioning programs specify that the use of modified live virus vaccines rather than killed products.
True or False? |
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Definition
FALSE
MLV of BVD and IBR provides better immunity, and Im sure thats the case with several others.
- Esp to get to Gold tag, the recommendation is MLV and then you can BOOSTER with killed vaccine |
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Term
| Bibersteinia trEhalosi produces the same leukotoxin as Mannheimia haemolytica and causes similar pulmonary lesions True or False ? |
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Definition
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Term
IBR and BVD modified live vaccines are safe to use in pregnant cows only if the cows are already relatively immune to the vaccine virus.
True or False? |
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Definition
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Term
Intranasal IBR vaccines generally give a longer lasting immune response compared to subcutaneous MLV vaccines.
True or False? |
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Definition
FALSE !!
They provide an immunity FASTER but it is MUCH SHORTER in duration. |
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Term
BRSV is one of the easier viruses to grow in tissue culture and was one of the first viral immunizing products developed against bovine respiratory disease.
True or False? |
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Definition
FALSE
Viral isolation of BRSV is much harder than with other viruses
- its hard for them to grow it for the vax = LOW TITER VAX |
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Term
Ceftiofur is preferred for treatment of mycoplasma bovis infection in cattle because the organism has never developed resistance to it.
True or False? |
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Definition
FALSE
the primary lesions that are seen with mycoplasma bovis are abscesses and you need a macrolide to get in there and take care of things
~~DRAXXIN
~~TILMICOSIN |
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Term
BVD-MD, Rinderpest, and Malignant Catarrhal Fever all produce similar lesions on the mucosa of the alimentary tract.
True or False? |
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Definition
TRUE - they all cause alimentary erosions
Differentiating characteristics
BVD-MD
MCF: tends to affect the whole herd, keratinoconjunctivitis
Rinderpest: Zebra stripes on intestines
another ddx would be FMDV, which only tends to affect a few animals of the herd |
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Term
Malignant Catarrhal Fever virus attacks the vascular endothelium and can result in sloughing of hooves.
True or False? |
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Definition
TRUE
- this could look like FMDV, but with MCF the whole herd will be affected.
Another sign is keratoconjunctivitis |
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Term
Bison in Yellowstone National Park are known carriers of Pasteurella multocida Type B and occasionally develop hemorrhagic septicemia.
True or False? |
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Definition
FALSE
those bison in Yellowstone, I'd be more worried about Brucella abortus!!
Although it IS true that hemorrhagic septicemia is caused by Pasteurella multocida types B and E (B is in US too, but limited by climate - more important in Africa and Southern Asia)
- BISON CAN GET THIS (but not really in the US) disease can also affect horses, pigs, camels, yak and elephants |
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Term
Rotavirus infection in calves results in a marked thickening of mucosa of the small intestine.
True or False? |
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Definition
FALSE
there is a THINNING of small intestinal mucosa!! !
Virus invades small intestinal epithelium > cells destroyed > mucosal thinning |
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Term
Gradual increases in the incidence of Neospora Caninum infections in cattle herds are best explained by continual exposure to feces of infected canines.
True or False? |
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Definition
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Term
Early embryonic death and infertility occur with both Tritrichomonas foetus and Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis infections but the former increases in incidence over 2-5 years in an infected cow herd.
True or False? |
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Definition
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Term
Match the organism with the common ages at which clinical disease is observed.
___F5 E.coli
___Clostridial perfringens
___Rotavirus
___Cryptospordium
___Salmonellosis
A) >14days
B) 3-30 days
C) >35 days
D) 5-35 days
E) 1-3 days
F) <3-5 days
G) None of the above |
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Definition
Answers:
F5 E.coli = <3-5 days
Clostridium perfringens = 1-3 days
Rotavirus = 5-15 days (None of those)
Cryptosporidium = 5-35 days
Salmonellosis = >14 days |
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Term
| What is the effect of vaccinating heifers with modified live BVD vaccine within one month of breeding? |
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Definition
| MLV BVD vaccine can reduce fertility if given within one month of breeding. |
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Term
| The state-federal brucellosis program monitors cattle for brucellosis using what two methods? |
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Definition
1) milk ring test on bulk tanks
2) Market cattle test program using card test at sale barns |
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Term
Malignant Catarrhal fever:
A) can be confused clinically with severe acute BVD or single case of rinderpest
B) Has two "forms" African/wildebeasts and American/sheep
C) Can be prevented with routine vaccination
D) Has a high case fatality rate
E) only B and D above
F) only A, B and D above |
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Definition
Answer: G) A, B and D are correct
because Malignant Catarrhal fever cannot be prevented with routine vaccination |
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Term
Cattle diagnosed with tuberculosis:
A) Can still transmit the organism even if they do not have gross lung lesions
B) Can be kept under quarantine for up to 6 months
C) Can be re-tested if the primary means of diagnosis was a comparative cervical test
D) Can be treated
E) None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Conditional licensensure of a vaccine:
A) indicates that it is efficacious
B) indicates that it is safe to use as indicated
C) Is used in situations where no fully licensed product is available
D) all of the above
E) only A and B above
F) only B and C above |
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Definition
| Answer: F) Does not indicate that the vaccine is efficacious |
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Term
If you are able to get your local sheep-shearer to disinfect his shearing blades at least between different flocks of sheep to help control the spread of caseous lymphadenitis, which of the following would be most efficacious?
A) Amphyl or substantial cresylics
B) Iodine based disinfectants
C) Chlorine bleach
D) Nolvasan |
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Definition
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