Term
| What is the predominant cell in infection of mastitis ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the predominant cell type in a "normal" mammary gland? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How would the majority of mastitis cases be classified?
A) Peracute
B) Acute
C) Chronic
D) Subclinical |
|
Definition
Answer: D) Subclinical
still any disruption to the mammary gland will eventually cause a decrease in milk production |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important defense mechanism to preventing mastitis? |
|
Definition
NON Specific Defense mechanisms
== Especially ANATOMICAL
maintaining the anatomical integrity of the teat is the key to preventing mastitis |
|
|
Term
| When does a keratin plug form in a teat duct? |
|
Definition
| About 16 days after dry period starts |
|
|
Term
| How long is the average lactation |
|
Definition
305 days
then 60 days of dry period (to make a full year) |
|
|
Term
| Why do dairy cattle need a dry period? |
|
Definition
| To allow for regeneration of mammary epithelium |
|
|
Term
| What would happen to blood calcium concentration if DCAD was decreased? |
|
Definition
INCREASES blood calcium concentration
this reduces the incidence of milk fever |
|
|
Term
| where does Chromium have its biggest effect in prevention of mastitis? |
|
Definition
| On the level of gene expression |
|
|
Term
| Can colostrum be put in the milk tank? |
|
Definition
| NO - you need to wait 72 hours (3 days) |
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for the cow to stop producing colostrum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary immunoglobulin in regular milk? How does this compare to colostrum? |
|
Definition
| IgG1 - is the primary immunoglobulin in both types of milk |
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of IgG in milk? |
|
Definition
Opsonic
can have IgA function
prevent adherence to mammary epithelium
neutralize toxins
aggulinate bacteria
prevent bacterial multiplication |
|
|
Term
Which type of cell does IgG1 opsonize?
Which type of cell does IgG2 opsonize? |
|
Definition
IgG1 = opsonizes macrophages
IgG2 = opsonizes neutrophils |
|
|
Term
| Why is vaccination only minimally effective in preventing mastitis? |
|
Definition
| because it doesnt produce a CMI and it becomes dilute in the mammary gland |
|
|
Term
| Mastitis is from an Ascending or Descending infection? |
|
Definition
ASCENDING
bacteria enters the teat canal from environment, bedding, hands, milk equipment, etc |
|
|
Term
| What are the major contagious pathogens of mastitis? |
|
Definition
Staph aureus
strep agalactiae
lancefield group G strep
Mycoplasma bovis
(the control of these are different from the environmental contagions) |
|
|
Term
Coagulase negative staphylococci are commonly found in "normal and healthy" teat canals.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most significant environmental contaminants that can causes mastitis? |
|
Definition
Escherichia coli
klebsiella pneumoniae/enterobacter sp
Enterococcus/fecal strep
Coagulase nge staph
strep dysgalactiae
strep uberis
pseudomonas
yeasts
prototheca
pasteurella multocida
mannheimia haemolytica |
|
|
Term
| How is mastitis detected? |
|
Definition
Clinical Signs
Somatic cell counts
culture |
|
|
Term
When somatic cell counts are preformed, the primary things to identify are bacteria and neurtophils, which define mastitis.
True or false? |
|
Definition
FALSE
Somatic cell counts ONLY MEASURE SOMATIC CELLS, not bacteria.
Neutrophils are the cell type that are predominant in mastitis though |
|
|
Term
| When a sample is taken from a bulk milk tank, what is measured and how does this effect the sale of the milk? |
|
Definition
Somatic cell count - the higher the somatic cell count the lower the payment for the milk
antibiotic use/contaminants - may not use the milk at all then |
|
|
Term
| What are the methods for determining Somatic Cell count? |
|
Definition
DNA coagulation test
(california or wisconsin mastitis test)
Coulter or Fossomatic counters
Measurement of salinity or conductivity |
|
|
Term
| What values would be considered negative on a California Mastitis test? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the benefits of using a California mastitis test? |
|
Definition
Can be preformed Cowside
Fast
Cheap
Easy and not prone to errors
Quantitative |
|
|
Term
| What factors can affect Somatic cell count? |
|
Definition
**Infection Status**
Age of cow (older cows will have a higher somatic cell count)
type of milk sampled
-foremilk (will be higher SCC)
-middle milk (THIS IS WHAT YOU WANT)
-stripping milk (will have a higher somatic cell count, most places leave this in)
Diurnal variation
season
day to day variation
milk volume
stage of lactation (as she starts producing less milk, high SCC)
stress
pathogens
displaced abomasum, lame, etc - higher somatic cell count |
|
|
Term
| At what Somatic Cell Count does the DHIA consider as the minimum indication of infection? |
|
Definition
200,000
anything above this is considered to have an infection
anything over 500,000 is considered to have mastitis |
|
|
Term
Composite Cow Somatic Cell Counts are often used to determine which cows to treat for infections of Staph Aureus.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
Composite cow SCC are not used for determining which cows needed to be treated EXCEPT for in herds experiencing S. agalactiae outbreaks. |
|
|
Term
If Somatic cell counts are too high milk may not be purchased and so it is recommended to dump milk of high somatic cell count.
True or False? |
|
Definition
TRUE
it is not worth the monetary loss that can be encountered with a potential shut off. Also if they were shut down then they would lose customers. It is easier to THROW OUT THE HIGH SCC MILK |
|
|
Term
The youngest, first calving heifers should have the lowest somatic cell counts.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Older cows in the 300,000 somatic cell count range should be culled to prevent increasing tank cell counts.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
an older cow may have somatic cell counts of 300K and still be in the normal range. |
|
|
Term
| How many NEW cases of mastitis of each month is normal on a dairy farm? |
|
Definition
| Less than 1% of the herd per month |
|
|
Term
| According to the article in Hoard's Dairymen "Here's a top 10 list for mastitis control", What is the TOP way to control mastitis outbreaks? |
|
Definition
| Properly maintaining and proper use of milking equipment |
|
|
Term
| According to the article in Hoard's Dairyman, what are the most common types of milking machine failure and how often should a milking machine undergo a complete analysis to prevent mastitis? |
|
Definition
- Poorly functioning regulators and sticky pulsators are the most common milking machine failures
- milking machines should undergo a complete analysis at least once a year |
|
|
Term
| Which is the most efficient way to apply pre-dip: Spraying or dipping? |
|
Definition
| DIPPING, spraying doesnt get the far end of the back teats well |
|
|
Term
| What are some important considerations in applying and removing milkers? Why? |
|
Definition
-attach with minimal air leak to prevent bacteria being driven into the teat canal with air blast
-allow the unit to fall off into hand (instead of removing it from the teat under vacuum) to prevent damage to the teat |
|
|
Term
What feed supplements can be added to dry cow diets to potentially improve immune function?
(according to Hoard's Dairyman article) |
|
Definition
| adequate levels of vitamin E and selenium |
|
|
Term
Using alcohol on teats before dry treating is an open invitation to disaster and can be noted in farms with severe dry cow mastitis.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the opinion of the author of the article from Hoard's Dairyman, how many times should a cow be treated with antibiotics for mastitis per lactation?
What are the potential consequences of exceeding this? |
|
Definition
ONCE per cow per lactation
- by treating a second time you are likely wasting you efforts because the cow didnt respond the first time (so why would it respond now?)
-or she might be prone to new infection and will get another type soon |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important step in developing a treatment strategy for mastitis? |
|
Definition
Culture and sensitivity!
---Use the proper antibiotics!! |
|
|
Term
According to the article in Hoard's Dairyman, which of the following is NOT a top technique for controlling mastitis:
A)cull cows with chronic mastitis
B)maintain good records
C)use of free stall in lactating cows
D)only treat mastitis once per cow per lactation
E) dry treat every quarter at dryoff time |
|
Definition
Answer: C)
it is not recommended to use free stalls, they tend to allow the teats to be dirtier in between milkings and increases the risk of mastitis |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the use of sand bedding on lactating cows?
A) decreased incidence of mastitis
B) decreased incidence of swollen hocks
C) management fails if sand is of poor quality
D) sand can wear away concrete gutters
E) Cheap and easy to maintain |
|
Definition
Answer: E)
it is not cheap and easy to maintain
- you need to make sure the sand is of good quality |
|
|
Term
| What non-antibiotic treatment strategy proved effective in controlling mastitis in the article "Haven't lost a cow or quarter in four years"? |
|
Definition
Frequent milking (4-6 times a day)
concurrent oxytocin injections (at time of milking)
Supportive therapy (fluids, NSAIDS) |
|
|
Term
Water heater failure is a common cause of spiking Standard Plate Counts (SPC).
True or False? |
|
Definition
TRUE
Tank milk may have a sudden spike in bacterial growths when there is inadequate water from water heater failure |
|
|
Term
| What is the significance of using post-milking teat dipping? |
|
Definition
| Can reduce infections by up to 50% |
|
|
Term
| Why does maintaining quality of teat skin help reduce mastitis? |
|
Definition
| dry, cracked skin of teats provide an ideal place for bacteria to hide and multiply |
|
|
Term
Latex gloves should be changed when milking between cows to prevent cross-contamination.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
this will not do any good and is not practical
the real purpose of the latex gloves are to protect the hands of the handler from all of the harsh disinfectants |
|
|
Term
| What % of cows cultured for mastitis come back with no growth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Euthanasia is an effective treatment in some cases of mastitis.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the average amount of milk that is produced by a cow in a given day? |
|
Definition
70 lbs
(this makes about $14/cow/day) |
|
|
Term
What is another term for "grass staggers"?
What is the actual condition that it causes? |
|
Definition
"grass tetany"
HYPOMAGNESEMIA
- low magnesium in CSF = spasms, convulsions, resp distress, collapse, death |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical signs of rabies in sheep? |
|
Definition
Drooling, abnormal swallowing, abnormal vocalization
depression, weakness, rear paralysis |
|
|
Term
| What is the organism that causes contagious foot rot in sheep and goats? |
|
Definition
Dichelobacter nodosus **
(most likely the initial cause)
Fusobacterium necrophorum
Arcanobacterium pyogenes |
|
|
Term
| What is the progression of contagious foot rot in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
-Initial infection with Dichelobacter
- starts lesions in interdigital space
- spreads to hoof wall
- secondary bacterial infections from walking in contaminated pasture |
|
|
Term
How long does Dichelobacter nodosus last on the pasture?
How would you isolate an incident? |
|
Definition
It lasts for about 4 days on pasture (when light present)
- obligate parasite of the hoof - so keep the pasture clear for 2 weeks and the it will die off
- you dont prevent foot rot with vaccination (no phagocytic cells in foot) |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat/prevent ovine foot rot? |
|
Definition
Routine hoof trimming
vaccination (doesnt prevent because of the minimal phagocytic cells at the hoof)
footbaths - 1hr/3 days of Zinc Sulfate
parental antibiotics
-clear pasture for 2 weeks for organism to die off
-cull infected sheep (most economic sometimes) |
|
|
Term
| What does the Australian Eradication program (of foot rot) entail? |
|
Definition
Control of disease transmission (for uninfected sheep)
-vax, footbathing, parental abx, cull infected
-do not treat during dry season (no transmission)
-inspect hooves after 10-12 wks
-cull infected
- repeat inspection and culling as needed |
|
|
Term
Both the Modified live and Live virus vaccines for Contagious Pustular dermatitis are infectious for humans.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A feeder lamb (nice big one) is considered to have died from WHAT until proven otherwise? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common agent in Upper Respiratory infections of sheep and goats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of lesions would be seen on a small ruminant with Mannheimia haemolytica? |
|
Definition
-Patchy, consolidated area in the lungs
-hemorrhages on serosal surfaces
- necrotic patches on liver and kidneys
*fibrino-hemorrhagic pneumonia, pleurisy, pericarditis
***Anterior and ventral consolidation of lungs |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary factor that increases risk of a small ruminant coming down with an infection from mannheimia haemolytica? |
|
Definition
POOR VENTILATION/ poor air quality
- the tendency is lambs born in the winter, the barn is closed up against the cold. Thus moisture goes up in the barn, and air quality goes down. |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical signs associated with mannheimia haemolytica infections? |
|
Definition
Often acute
- high fever
- rapid respiartion
- shipping fever-like disease |
|
|
Term
| What type of vaccination would you use against Mannheimia haemolytica? |
|
Definition
NONE
there are too many serotypes of M. haemolytica to develop a commercial vaccine. |
|
|
Term
Tilmicosin can be used to treat sheep and goats with infections from Mannheimia Haemolytica.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
Tilmicosin will kill goats
Instead try you could try Draxxin (tulathromycin) in combinations with NSAIDs
** decreasing stress, crowding, dust and increasing the quality of air will reduce the rest of infection |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between the disease presentation of infections of Bibersteinia trehalosi in goats and sheep? |
|
Definition
SHEEP: feeder lamb septicemia
GOATS: respiratory disease |
|
|
Term
| What is the problem with the vaccine for mycoplasma ovipneumoniae? |
|
Definition
Can cause a severe type 1 hypersensitivity in some small ruminants
that causes the animals to be significantly worse |
|
|
Term
| What clinical signs are associated with Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
Chronic pneumonia/cough
- Coughing syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia? |
|
Definition
| Mycoplasma capricolum subsp capripneumoniae |
|
|
Term
What is Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia?
Where would it be seen? |
|
Definition
- common in asia and africa
- VERY AGGRESSIVE resp disease
rapidly transmitted
severe pleuropneumonia - thoracic cavity only
= sudden death, high mortality rates |
|
|
Term
| What are the difference in clinical disease of Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides LC in goats with Peracute and Acute-subacute infections? |
|
Definition
PERACUTE:
young kids
high fever, opisthotonus (hyperentension and spasms of rear legs)
-polysynovitis and CNS signs
====death in 1-3 days
ACUTE-SUBACUTE:
-polysynovitis, polyserositis
-fibrinous interstitial, broncho/pleuro-pneumonia
may cause mastitis
Differential Diagnoses:
Peracute - CAEV
Acute-subacute - CCPP |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary viral agents that affect the respiratory tract of small ruminants? |
|
Definition
Ovine adenovirus (mild)
Parainfluenza 3 (acute resp dz)
Respiratory syncytial virus
Reovirus |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between parainfluenza 3 in cows and sheep? |
|
Definition
they are slightly antigenically different
- both cause acute respiratory disease (similar disease production) |
|
|
Term
| What body systems are affected when small ruminants are infected with Chlamyophila? |
|
Definition
respiratory disease
Conjunctivitis
Polyarthritis
Reproductive - abortion |
|
|
Term
| What are the major subspecies of Chlamydophila that affect small ruminants? |
|
Definition
| Chlamydophila pecorum, C. psittaci, C. abortus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Would it be a good or bad thing to add cat feces to sheep feed prior to breeding? |
|
Definition
GOOD THING
this will give them protective immunity
against toxoplasma, which would cause abortion if contracted after breeding.
And although the suggestion posed was to keep cats away from the sheep feed, this is unrealistic. |
|
|
Term
Monensin/Rumensin can be used to prevent toxoplasma by adding it to the feed of sheep and goats.
True or False?? |
|
Definition
FALSE
- it is not approved to add monensin/rumensin to sheep or goat feed.
it IS APPROVED to mix it into CATTLE feed, which can then be given to goats, but not to sheep because of the potential for copper intoxication.
~Bottom line is it is generally not recommended anyway because of the limited efficacy |
|
|
Term
| Why is salmonella rarely the sole cause for abortion in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
Most adult animals will not get salmonellosis unless there is another cocurrent disease process weakening their immune system.
These animals will present sick and will have septicemia |
|
|
Term
| What type of clinical presentation would be expected with Salmonela abortions? |
|
Definition
Autolysed fetus causing a dark red vaginal discharge
- will be hard to isolate on culture, usually mixed colonies. |
|
|
Term
| How would you treat a ewe that had a Salmonella abortion? |
|
Definition
Ampicillin
- decrease the crowding and increase the sanitation of the pens |
|
|
Term
| At what days during gestation does a sheep fetus develop immunocompetence? |
|
Definition
70-90 days
if infection of border disease virus occurs during this time, the fetus will be persistantly infected |
|
|
Term
| What is wrong with assuming that all cows with a SCC of over 200,000 have an infection? |
|
Definition
SCC stays high for several weeks after infection has cleared
-this was an old exam question and that was the answer from they key |
|
|
Term
| A producer has an SCC of over 500,000. What 3 things could he do to lower the SCC for his next shipment of milk? |
|
Definition
1. preform CMT on individual cows
2. Dump milk from high SCC cows (do not add to the bulk tank)
3. cull or segregate and treat high SCC cows |
|
|
Term
| Recent studies indicate that robotic milking systems can be very effective alternatives to conventional milking systems. However, the overall labor costs involved in maintaining a high quality milking program are about the same for robotic and conventional milking. Explain. |
|
Definition
| The time saved in milking the cows needs to be used to maintain their environment, ie., bedding, overall sanitation, mastitis control, interpreting SCC and other data, and other factors. If the cows do not stay clean and are not carefully observed for problems, the robotic systems seem to have problems |
|
|
Term
| Explain how a backflushing system works and the effect it has on both environmental and contagious mastitis pathogens. |
|
Definition
How does it work? When the cluster is removed from the cow=s udder, it naturally inverts and the vacuum is shut off. With backflushing, the teat cups are connected to a source of water containing a mild disinfectant that flows through the liners (inflations) and drains through the opening. In some cases, compressed air is blown through at the same time to decrease the amount of disinfectant solution left in the liners.
Effect on environmental mastitis: Lttle to no effect if the cows are going through a pre-milking dip that is effective in reducing pathogens on the teat skin.
Effect on contagious mastitis Could have a large effect since there is no other method to reduce the numbers of organisms on the inside of the inflations when those organisms are coming from the milk of the previously milked cows. |
|
|
Term
| Increasing the photoperiod by providing artificial lighting to cows during early to mid-lactation has the effect of increasing milk yield. According to one of your assigned readings, what is the effect on SCC, mastitis and milk production of having a short ( 8 hr or so) photoperiod during the dry period? |
|
Definition
| The short photoperiod for dry cows reduced the SCC and numbers of cows freshening with mastitis. It also led to a statistically significant increase in milk production. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two biggest problems in using blitz antimicrobial therapy as the sole method of eradicating Streptococcus agalactiae from a dairy herd? |
|
Definition
a. By far the biggest problem is that chronic, incurable cows will remain in the herd to serve as a source of the organism for the rest of the cows.
b. Milk from the whole herd has to be dumped for the appropriate withdrawal time
** NO antimicrobial resistance has developed to S.agalactiae |
|
|
Term
| List two reasons why there are usually no limitations on the disposition of scrapie positive sheep. |
|
Definition
a. _There is no evidence that scrapie has ever been transmitted to humans so there is apparently no danger in sending sheep to slaughter from a scrapie positive flock depopulation.
b._Sheep showing neurologic signs of scrapie or any other disease for that matter are not going to be passed for food anyway.
c. Randomly tested, clinically normal but scrapie positive sheep enter the food chain long before the test results come back. |
|
|
Term
Outline a good program for control and prevention of caprine arthritis-encephalitis in goats.
List two other common goat diseases can be controlled using the same program strategy? |
|
Definition
a. _Test and cull all serologically and/or PCR positive does. Maintain exact breeding dates for all remaining does. Securely tape teat orifices 2 to 3 days before does are scheduled to kid so that kids cannot nurse. Wean kids immediately after birth and before they have a chance to ingest colostrum. Raise kids at a separate site. Feed heat-treated colostrum, colostrum substitute or bovine colostrum. Maintain kids separate from doe herd until after first parturition. Continue testing/culling-segregation process on a routine basis.
b._Johne=s
c. _Mycoplasma |
|
|
Term
| Outline the clinical signs one would expect to see in various ages of sheep infected with Bluetongue virus. |
|
Definition
a. Suckling lambs: Protected by colostral immunity. No clinical signs.
b. Weaned lambs/feeder lambs: High fever, profound depression, anorexia, weight loss; Mucous membranes of the mouth and face become hyperemic or cyanotic (bluetongue); Erosions of the corners of the mouth, lips, tongue, dental pad and gums; Edema of the brisket, lips, tongue and throat; Thick nasal discharge; Occasional diarrhea; Stiffness or lameness due to hemorrhage and damage to muscles and laminitis.
c. Adults: Ewes infected between 4-8 weeks of gestation may abort or lambs may have hydranencephaly or other congenital deformities. Wool break can occur. |
|
|
Term
| Briefly outline an effective control program for enterotoxemia in sheep. |
|
Definition
-Immunize all lambs 2X before starting on full feed.
-Restrict concentrate feeding if possible
-Good feedbunk management: No sudden dietary changes (CREEP FEED!!)
-Can feed chlortetracycline in outbreaks until lambs are fully immunized (do not do this preventatively or if no clinical signs present)
-Repeat immunizations if there are breaks in protection |
|
|
Term
| Immunization with fimbrial bacterins is not very protective against contagious foot rot of sheep, yet it is included as an important part of the Australian program for eradication of the disease. If it doesn=t prevent the disease and makes it a little more difficult to identify infected animals, what is the reason for immunizing ewes and rams? |
|
Definition
| The vaccine may help to lessen the severe clinical signs of footrot and enable the owner to cull affected sheep and have a decent market for them. It allows them to walk to slaughter. A few students suggested it prevented systemic infection and many thought it was mostly used to prevent shedding. The other practices (footbathing, etc.) decrease the shedding. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is unlikely to be a practical recommendation that would help control pseudotuberculosis in a commercial ewe flock?
a. Disinfect shears between each ewe.
b. Immunize replacement ewe lambs with one of the commercial killed products.
c. Immunize replacement ewe lambs with an autogenous bacterin of C. pseudotuberculosis.
d. Test for OPP virus and cull all positives.
e. Disinfect shearing wounds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What class of antibiotics best penetrates the udder when administered via a systemic route?
a. Cephalosporins
b. Tetracyclines
c. Penicillins
d. Macrolides
e. Sulfonamides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What class of antibiotics would be illegal to use in the treatment of a dairy cow with mastitis via the systemic route?
a. cephalosporins
b. tetracyclines
c. penicillins
d. macrolides
e. sulfonamides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which mastitis tube has the broadest gram negative spectrum?
a. Cefa-Lak
b. Spectramast
c. Masticlear
d. Pirsue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common mastitis pathogen isolated from heifers prior to calving?
a. Strep agalactiae
b. Yeast
c. Strep uberis
d. Coagulase negative Staph |
|
Definition
| Answer: D) Coagulase negative staph |
|
|
Term
Methicillin resistance is not an emerging problem with bovine mastitis pathogens.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common clinical severity score of cows with clinical mastitis caused by E coli would be:
a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Shearing ewes prior to lambing helps to prevent respiratory disease and enteric disease in the lambs.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Many owners of hobby flocks of sheep or goats tend to overfeed their ewes or does leading to pregnancy toxemia.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If pregnancy toxemia is a problem in a group of ewes, shearing them will help decrease new cases.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The causative agent of club lamb fungus is usually not easily transmitted to humans.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
club lamb fungus is caused by trichophyton verrucosum which can be spread to people. |
|
|
Term
Peste des Petite Ruminant virus is endemic in the Middle East.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
it is endemic in Western africa and Chad
It has occurred in Africa, middle east and Asia, but is not endemic there. |
|
|
Term
Peste des Petite Ruminant virus causes an enteric disease that can easily be confused with severe Johne=s.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
It causes:
high fever
mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge
-Erosions of oral and pharyngeal cavity
-ZEBRA STRIPE LESIONS OF LARGE INTESTINES (pathognomonic)
~~~Johnes dz in small ruminants:
WASTING
diarrhea (rarely intestinal thickening)
-complicated granulomatous enteritis |
|
|
Term
The treatment of choice for dermatophilosis is systemic penicillin.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It is a sound practice to increase the rations fed to ewes at the time of weaning their lambs so as to improve both the systemic immune response of the ewes and flushing action of the milk to help prevent new cases of mastitis.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Increasing the amount of concentrate and protein two weeks prior to breeding has been shown to increase prolificacy in ewes.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Show lambs with healing lesions on their lips that look like those seen in contagious pustular dermatitis should be sent back home and not allowed into the show barns.
True or False? |
|
Definition
TRUE
they wont even be allowed out of the trailer! |
|
|
Term
| A ewe is infected with Border disease at 80 days, resulting in a PI fetus. Does this fetus have antibody? |
|
Definition
NO
not until after that point would antibody develop |
|
|
Term
| What clinical diseases are casued by Brucella ovis in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
Primarily Epididymitis
--resulting in fertility issues
But can also cause late term abortion, still borns, weak lambs
--necrotic and supportive placentitis |
|
|
Term
| Coxiella burnetti can cause abortion in small ruminants, although this is not the biggest concern with this agent. What is? |
|
Definition
-Organism can be shed in the milk
-Organism can cause latent or subclinical infections that continue the shed of the organism. This is because Coxiella is an obligate intracellular parasite that stays around in the hosts cells for a long time.
-also it is spread via resp route |
|
|
Term
| What clinical presentations would you except in a small ruminant that had an abortion as a result of a Bluetongue infection? |
|
Definition
- fetal mummification, resorption or abortion
- SYSTEMICALLY ILL ANIMALS |
|
|
Term
| Will coxiella burnetii cause disease in humans? |
|
Definition
Can cause human health problems
(Q fever) |
|
|
Term
| What lesions would be seen with abortions from coxiella burnetii? |
|
Definition
- gray/brown exudate covering placenta
- ***intercodyledonary inflammation***, which is not seen in many other causes of abortion.
~~If infected with cache valley fever virus in early gestation, can cause ARTHROGRYPOSIS-HYDROENCEPHALY |
|
|
Term
When checking on a abortion problem with some ewes at a farm, you pathology on placentas and find inflammation of the intercondyleton areas. What would be your top differential?
How would you confirm your diagnosis? |
|
Definition
Coxiella Burnetii
- this is one of the few agents that causes this
- placenta will also most likely be covered in a gray/brown exudate
~~DX confirmation: GIMENEZ stain of placenta for intracellular parasite.
~There is a serologic test for this (may not be available in US) but bot used |
|
|
Term
| What is the state bird of Minnesota? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What circumstances would need to occur for one to see Arthrogryposis-hydraencephaly condition in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
- infection with Coxiella burnetii
- co-infection during early gestation with mosquito-borne Cache Valley Fever Virus.
~~ This results in a condition where muscles are weakened in the fetus
they may have twisted or bent backs, shortened jaws
~May cause dystocia in ewes |
|
|
Term
| How would you prevent arthrogryposis-hydraencepahly condition in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
Caused by Coxiella Burnetii + Cache Valley fever
- NO VAX for coxiella
- avoid lambing during mosquito season (cache valley is mosquito spread) |
|
|
Term
What are Spider Lambs?
How do you prevent them from occurring? |
|
Definition
Spider lambs = hereditary chondrodysplasia that cause lateral deviation of carpus and hock
=== these lambs cannot walk
- genetic condition (must be homozygous)
- prevent by genetic testing and eliminate carriers |
|
|
Term
| What are some general measures to prevent abortions in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
- vaccinate when possible (like Campylobacter and Chlamydophila)
- Don't feed ewes on the ground
(prevents fecal-oral route like Campylobacter, Salmonella, and Listeria)
-----This can be done by adding a step to further prevent fecal contamination
-maintain feral cat population !!!
- house first time lambing ewes separate
- don't mix groups of pregnant ewes (dont buy new animals either)
- Avoid stress and crowding |
|
|
Term
Which of the following would not be effectively treated to prevent late term abortions in sheep by feeding tetracycline 6 weeks prior to lambing:
A) Campylobacter
B) Chlamydophila
C) Listeria
D) Coxiella |
|
Definition
A) Campylobacter
~this is because it will readily develop resistance |
|
|
Term
| How would you "flush" ewes? |
|
Definition
2 weeks before turning rams in -
up the energy level and protein level (better nutrition) to EWES 2 weeks before being bred
--- this results in more twins and triplets
- this avoids big singles that get their heads stuck (easier to deliver)
- also results in healthier lambs |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if you have a ewe give birth to a big headed lamb? |
|
Definition
Give it Dexamethasone on the first day
= significantly increases survivability!
Lambs will seem fine on the 1st day but will be dead the next
(and dex is cheap, so why not?) |
|
|
Term
When should you shear ewes to increase reproductivity?
Why? |
|
Definition
Shear them before lambing season
- less width to the sheep = less crowding/more room in the barn
- less moisture= increased air quality
- fat ewes at risk for pregnancy toxemia will increase their metabolic rate and reduce that risk
- prevent wool tags from lanolin and feces around udders, which lambs may try to suck on instead of teats. You can also better evaluate milk ducts better (patentcy)
-caution: be gentle, late term pregnancy shearing may cause abortion. |
|
|
Term
| What should be done for lambs born in the cold weather? |
|
Definition
Need more milk in them,
but sanitation is better |
|
|
Term
Vaginal prolapse is most often not from an infectious cause.
True or False? |
|
Definition
TRUE
it is most often from too much roughage late in gestation and vagina prolapses.
You should return these, use pursestring, but cull these ewes out because it will occur again next lambing. |
|
|
Term
| Which is more common problem in small ruminants: Pizzle rot or Urolithiasis? |
|
Definition
Urolithiasis
Cause: high phosphorus in diet (high grain) |
|
|
Term
What is the major cause of urolithiasis in small ruminants?
How would you treat it? |
|
Definition
Increased phosphorus in the diet (forage content) - mostly from high grain
TX: free choice salt, clean free choice water, or feed ammonium chloride |
|
|
Term
What is pizzle rot (clinical signs)?
What causes it?
What type of treatment plan would you recommend ? |
|
Definition
Pizzle rot = Ulcerative prosthitis
- can cause water belly like blockage
- mostly ulcerative lesions
caused by Corynebacterium renale + feeding excessive protein in diet
- breaks urea down to ammonia and this irritates the urinary tract
TX: reduce protein, clip and clean area (wool and mohair), surgical drainage if blocked,
testosterone proprionate (not in US) |
|
|
Term
| What major body systems will display clinical signs when small ruminants are infected with Bluetongue virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would be important to remember if developing a vaccine for bluetongue? |
|
Definition
| There are many serotypes and they provide minimal if any cross-protection. Need to include several strains or herd specific strain into vaccine. |
|
|
Term
| How is bluetongue virus transmitted? |
|
Definition
Primarily through Culicoides (late summer )
Also some through semen, placenta |
|
|
Term
| Several ewes have aborted fetuses on a particular farm. Others have had lambs with arthrogryposis and hydraencephaly. What are your top differentials? |
|
Definition
-Bluetongue
-Coxiella burnetii + Cache Valley Fever Virus co-infection |
|
|
Term
Which age group of sheep would have the most clinically significant disease when infected with Bluetongue?
A) Suckling lambs
B) Adult Sheep
C) Feeder lambs
D) Ewes |
|
Definition
C) Feeder lambs
- severe vascular disease
hyperemic and cyanotic mucous membranes
high fever for 6-10 initial days
Depression anorexia
lameness, muscle lesions (from hemorrhage)
Oral erosions
Ewes may have abortion if pregnant, Adults only occasionally have disease, and suckling lambs are protected by colostral immunity |
|
|
Term
| You are called to a sheep farm that is experiencing oral erosions and lameness. What are your top differentials? |
|
Definition
Foot and Mouth Disease
Bluetongue |
|
|
Term
What are some considerations for the Bluetongue vaccine?
When would you give the vaccine?
What kind of vaccine is used? |
|
Definition
Bluetongue vaccine:
-there are many serotypes
-only use in at risk areas
-Do NOT give to Pregnant ewes = can cause abortion
- MLV vaccine is used
- give after shearing |
|
|
Term
| What is Circling Disease and what would cause it? |
|
Definition
Circling Disease:
- unilateral facial paralysis
- roughage hanging out of side of mouth
- returns to position when moved
Caused by: Listeria |
|
|
Term
| At what stage would Listeria cause abortion in a ewe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what stage would you see abortion with Bluetongue infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The more of a disease a vaccine produces, the better immune response it will produce.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you prevent listeriosis in sheep? |
|
Definition
Feed HIGH quality silage
Prevent forage from spoiling!! |
|
|
Term
| How would you treat an outbreak of Listeria abortions in sheep? |
|
Definition
Add chlortetracycline to the feed - if you do this make sure you continue this until they have all finished lambing
(lambs will probably get yellow teeth)
- inject ewes that havent lambed
- get rid of spoiled food |
|
|
Term
| What would be the most likely agent to cause focal symmetrical encephalomalacia? |
|
Definition
from enterotoxemia (over eating dz)
from Clostridium perfringens type D |
|
|
Term
A ewe with neurological signs is presented for necropsy. She is found to have necrotic gray matter that fluoresces under a Wood's lamp. What is your top differential?
How would you treat it? |
|
Definition
Polioencephalomalacia
- from high grain diets (thiaminase producing diets)
- high sulfur content diets
TX: injectable thiamine |
|
|
Term
How would you prevent tetanus in sheep?
What causes it? |
|
Definition
VACCINATE
clostridial agents should be vaccinated at least twice (2 weeks prepartem)
(clostridium perfringens type C, D and C. tetani = CDT vaccine)
Have some colostral immunity
use antiserum in lambs that are being banding or open castrations (or tail dockings) as a preventative measure |
|
|
Term
Use of an elastrator may increase the risk of tetanus in sheep.
True or False? |
|
Definition
TRUE
the prolonged healing of the wound increases the risk of contracting tetanus ( he prefers electric tail docking) |
|
|
Term
| What are some consequences of docking a lamb's tail too short? |
|
Definition
Damage to peudendal nerve - can cause rectal prolapse
(go to distal end of caudal tail fold) |
|
|
Term
| What is the correct age to castrate lambs? |
|
Definition
newborn to 2 months max
elastrator = about 2 weeks |
|
|
Term
| What are the differentials for tetanus? |
|
Definition
grass tetany/grass staggers/hypomagnesemia (most often from lush grass)
- Strychnine poisoning (uncommon, and spasms dont last as long)
- Rabies |
|
|
Term
Why would you not try to treat a case of caseous lymphadenitis with antibiotics?
What would you do? |
|
Definition
Cannot treat systemically with abx because the abscess has walled off the infection to the lymph node and it will not get reached there. They have even tried injected abx into the abscess and that doesn't work.
Surgical removal is an option, but messy
the best bet it to cull them out before the abscesses open up |
|
|
Term
| What is rule #1 of endotoxemia? |
|
Definition
| If a feeder lamb is found dead it is considered to have died from enterotoxemia until proven otherwise |
|
|
Term
| What organ is most susceptible to edema in cases of enterotoxemia? |
|
Definition
BRAIN
this is why CNS signs develop
"star gazing" |
|
|
Term
| How would you prevent Enterotoxemia? |
|
Definition
VACCINATE before moving to full feed
- CREEP FEED
Start at 1 month, then 3 weeks later (2 doses of vaccines for clostridium) |
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose Johnne's disease? |
|
Definition
- clinical signs
- DTH testing
- **AGID Serology** Like coggins test
- Histopath (most sensitive)
- culture
- PCR only 50% |
|
|
Term
| On the AGID serologic test, what would indicate a result of positive Johnne's? |
|
Definition
| the formation of a precipitate line - this would mean that there is antibody to johnnes present in the tested serum. |
|
|
Term
| What causes hemorrhagic enteritis? |
|
Definition
Clostridium perfringens type C
- occurs in neonatal lambs
GIVE VACCINE TO PREVENT |
|
|
Term
| What is yellow lamb disease and what causes it? |
|
Definition
- massive intravascular hemolysis of best doing lambs
- alpha toxin => anemia, icterus, jaundice, hemoglobinuria
- caused by Clostridium perfringins A
= VACCINATE TO PREVENT |
|
|
Term
What is the barber pole worm?
What type of disease would it produce? |
|
Definition
Haemonchus contortus
- causes severe anemia
- hypoproteinemia = bottle jaw |
|
|
Term
| What time of the year would acute problems with haemonchus contortus be most likely? |
|
Definition
| 2 weeks after a summer rain where pasture greens up significantly |
|
|
Term
| Using the FAMACHA scale, what is a score of 5? |
|
Definition
| Severe Anemia - death's doorstep |
|
|
Term
| When you see black feces in a small ruminant what is your top differential? |
|
Definition
Coccidia
- also scouring, depression, anorexia |
|
|
Term
| How do prevent coccidiosis in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
- maintain dry, well bedded lambing and nursing areas, prevent overcrowding
- lasalocid approved in sheep (coccidiostat - start before 3 weeks)
- colostral immunity protects until 3 weeks of age
- |
|
|
Term
| What can you use to treat coccidiosis in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
Neonate: amprolium or trimethprim sulfa
feeders: amrpolium +/- sulfamethazine
- - need to inidividually treat sick ones, hard to do, esp if off feed |
|
|
Term
| What are the components of Blacks Disease? |
|
Definition
Clostridium novyi
+ Fasicola hepatica (liver fluke)
+ snails
+ wet, swampy pastures
= infectious necrotic hepatitis
(from alpha toxin and hemolysis) |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for dermatophilius? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would be see on histological samples of dermatophilius? |
|
Definition
| Hyperkeratsis and epidermal hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
Pestes de petite ruminant is an explosive disease that spreads fast and effects all mucosal surfaces.
true or false? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If zebra stripes are seen in the intestines of a sheep, what would be your top differential? |
|
Definition
| Pestes de peitite ruminant |
|
|
Term
| What is more important in determining susceptibility to Scrapie: Arginine or Valine? |
|
Definition
Valine
AV & VV are susceptible to scrapie |
|
|
Term
| What are the important codons in scrapies? |
|
Definition
| codon 171 (more important) and 136 |
|
|
Term
| Why is research of scrapies limited? |
|
Definition
| Because with introduction of the prion, there is several years that it takes to contract disease |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical signs of scrapie in sheep? |
|
Definition
**Rubbing of wool
ataxia
wasting |
|
|
Term
| What criteria would require that a sheep have a scrapie tag? |
|
Definition
- if leaving a farm
- if sheep is over 18 months (male or female, even if being given as gift)
- all ewe lambs not directly sold to slaughter (regardless of age)
- All breeding stock |
|
|
Term
If a goat will be in contact with a sheep, it needs a scrapie tag.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose scrapies? |
|
Definition
Histopath: of brain stem, spinal cord
RECTAL BIOPSY: can be done on viable breeding stock
Eyelid biopsy
- immunohistochemistry stain for biopsies
serum competitive immunoassay |
|
|
Term
| What are the three most common reproductive diseases of small ruminants? |
|
Definition
Campylobacter (fetus fetus and jejuni)
toxoplasma gondii
Chlamydophila abortus |
|
|
Term
| How is campylobacter spread ? |
|
Definition
Fecal oral
- if you mix herds, you can mix strains |
|
|
Term
| Campylobacter abortion occurs during what stage of pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most definitive lesion found with Campylobacter abortions? |
|
Definition
Necrotic foci on liver
may also have yellow foci on cotelydons |
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose Campylobacter as the cause of abortion in a small ruminant? |
|
Definition
*** necrotic foci on liver
darkfield of phase contrast of cotyledons, fetal stomach contents, or vag discharge
culture
FA or IHC |
|
|
Term
| What are some considerations in vaccinating for campylobacter to prevent reproductive dz? |
|
Definition
- need btoh C. fetus fetus and Jejuni
- use correct serotype involved
- fast fading immunity
- vax 30 post breeding (during pregnancy ) to boost protection |
|
|
Term
Chlamydophila and campylobacter can cause late term abortions.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a ewe is infected with chamylodphila from an aborted fetus, when will she show signs? |
|
Definition
| Next pregnancy she will abort |
|
|
Term
| What causes the most severe placental lesions of the most common causes of abortion in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose chlamydophila? |
|
Definition
Placental lesions
exfoliate cytology
FA or IMC
serodiagnosis
culture is difficult - use path/histology |
|
|
Term
| How would you treat/prevent Chlamydophila? |
|
Definition
Tetracycline for the last trimester to prevent
- Vaccination: killed vax (MLV in Europe, but infectious to humans) |
|
|
Term
Toxoplasma gondii is harbored in cats, and the highest numbers are shed in kittens.
true or false? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical signs of toxoplasma gondii in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
Depends on time of infection in gestation
0-2 month = resobed
mid gestation = abortion
late trimester = mummies, still borns |
|
|
Term
| What is the preferred method to diagnose toxoplasma gondii? |
|
Definition
***Antibody in pre-suckling blood or fetal fluids ****
placental lesions: calcifications of cotyledons |
|
|
Term
| What lesions are seen in the lungs with OPP? |
|
Definition
| Massive lymphocytic infiltrate |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference in clinical outcome of the two types of OPP: Visna and Maedi ? |
|
Definition
VISNA: Wasting
MAEDI: Respiratory distress |
|
|
Term
| What is hardbag and when is it seen in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
Hardbag occurs when there is a mononuclear cell invasion this looks like the ewe is carrying a lot of milk, but it is much more firm
===this occurs with OPP |
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose OPP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which major diseases of sheep can be diagnosed using AGID? |
|
Definition
OPP
Johnne's disease
CAEV |
|
|
Term
| What is the different clinical developments of CAEV? |
|
Definition
Encephalitis: young kids 1-4 mo, necrotizing leukoencephalititis (mononuclear cells around nerves). Stunted growth and interstitial pneumonia
Arthritis: Adults yr+
proliferative synovitis (esp carpus) |
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose CAEV? |
|
Definition
-lymphocytic infiltrates and demyelination of nerves
-AGID
- PCR
- IHC (of virus in lesions) |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat and prevent CAEV? |
|
Definition
CULL
Prevent suckling (tape teats)
- milk replacer |
|
|
