Term
1. Which of these describes the type of immunity that protects newborns for the first 3 months of life as aresult of maternal transmission of immunoglobulin G?
A) Active natural immunity B) passive natural immunity C) passive artificial immunity D) Active artificial immunity |
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Definition
B) passive natural immunity BN253 |
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Term
2. Which of these factors provides passive immunity?
A) Administration of a toxoid B) Administration of a vaccine C) Administration of immunoglobulin D) Having an attack of the disease |
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Definition
C) Administration of immunoglobulin BN253 |
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Term
3. The nurse is caring for a patient who needs passive immunity and understands that a patient requires passive immunity for which of these situations?
A) As a booster dose to stimulate the production of specific antibodies B) For permanent immunity against a disease C) To overcome an allergic reaction that is relatively mild D) For ready-made antibodies after an exposure to pathogens |
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Definition
D) For ready-made antibodies after an exposure to pathogens BN253 |
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Term
4. Which of these parts of the immune system provides for long-term immunity?
A) immunoglobulin G B) Plasma cells C) Immunoglobulin E D) Mast cells |
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Definition
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Term
5. Which type of cell involved in cell-mediated immunity as a cytotoxic action on tumor cells?
A) Lysosomes B) Histocompatability cells C) memory cells D) Natural killer cells |
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Definition
D) Natural killer cells BN251 |
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Term
6. Which of these types of immunity results from receiving a tetanus injection?
A) Artificial passive immunity B) Humoral immunity C) Artificial active immunity D) Cell-mediated immunity |
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Definition
A and C: Passive or Active aritificial immunity (depending on injection type) BN253 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Passive_immunity |
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Term
7. Which of these tests does the nurse recognize would be performed to confirm a diagnosis, determine a prognosis, or evaluate the effectiveness of treatment?
A) Western blod B) sedimentation rate C) Skin tests D) Biopsy |
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Definition
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Term
For which of these conditions would the nurse review a patient's laboratory values for increased eosinophils?
A) Allergic reactions B) Acute viral infections C) Cancer D) Autoimmune diseases |
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Definition
A) Allergic reactions BN237-238 |
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Term
9. Which of these medications suppresses C-reactive protein levels?
A) Antibiotics and diuretics B) Epinephrine and antihistamines C) Antihypertensives andf antineoplastic agents D) Aspirin and steroids |
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Definition
D) Aspirin and steroids CRP is a protein produced by the liver during inflammation. |
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Term
10. Of these tests used to diagnose HIV, which actually tests for the virus?
A) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) B) Polymerase chain reaction testing C) Western blot D) P24 antigen testing |
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Definition
B) Polymerase chain reaction testing |
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Term
11. Which of these does the nurse understand is true about the classes of antibodies?
A) Immunoglobulin A is not found in breast milk. B) Immunoglobulin G provides short-term immunity C) Immunoglobulin M crosses the placenta. D) Immunoglobulin E is not involved in allergy reactions. |
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Definition
B) Immunoglobulin G provides short-term immunity. process of elimination |
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Term
12. Which of tehse diagnostic lab tests is used to confirm the diagnosis of HIV?
A) Antinuclear antibodies B) Immunoglobulin assay C) Rheumaoid factor D) Western blot |
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Definition
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Term
13. The body's ability to destroy specific pathogens and to prevent infectious disease is called a(n)
A) Immunity B) Vaccine C) Lymphocyte D) Macrophage |
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Definition
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Term
14. A foreigh substance ithat enters the body and causes the body to produce an immune response is called a(n)
A) Lumphocyte B) Antigen C) Antibody D) Leukocyte |
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Definition
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Term
15. The cells responsible for the "memory" that provides us with permanent immunity are the
A) B lymphocytes B) T lymphocytes C) Erythrocytes D) Thrombocytes |
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Definition
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Term
16. What does the body produce in response to an antigen?
A) Allergy B) Antibody C) Immunodeficiency D) Leukocytes |
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Definition
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Term
17. The thymus is responsible for A) Maturation of T lymphocytes B) Filtratoin of lymph fluid C) regulation of antigen production D) Active, aturally acquired immunity |
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Definition
A) Maturation of T lymphocytes BN250 |
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Term
18. Which of the following is not true regarding T lymphocytes? A) T cells make up approximately 80-90% of the total lymphocytes. B) T cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity (they combine with antigens). C) T cells are responsible for fighting cancer cells and viruses, and are responsible for tissue rejection after organ transplantation. D) T cells are responsible for humoral immunity. |
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Definition
D) T cells are responsible for humoral immunity. BN249, 253 |
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Term
19. If Johnny is exposed to and develops chicken pox, he will develop a permanent immunity. This type of imunity is a(n)
A) Active natorally acquired immunity B) Active artificially acquired immunity C) passive naturally acquired immunity D) Passive artificially acquired immunity |
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Definition
A) Active natorally acquired immunity BN253 |
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Term
20. Johnny visits his pediatrician who administers a vaccine to him. This immunity is a(n)
A) Active naturally acquired immunity B C) passive naturally acquired immunity D) Passive artificially acquired immunity |
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Definition
B) Active artificially acquired immunity BN253 |
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Term
21. During pregnancy, the fetus is protected from disease by a(n)
A) Active natorally acquired immunity B) Active artificially acquired immunity C) passive naturally acquired immunity D) Passive artificially acquired immunity |
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Definition
C) passive naturally acquired immunity BN253 |
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Term
22. The group of gamma globulins that are responsible for allergic responses are
A) A) IgG B) IgM C) IgD D) IgE |
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Definition
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Term
23. The group of gamma globulins that are responsible for protecting the fetus after birth are
A) IgG B) IgM C) IgD D) IgE |
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Definition
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Term
24. The elderly are more prone to infection because they have
A) Thinner skin B) A decreased number of functioning neurons C) A decreased number of T and B cells D) Delirium |
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Definition
C) A decreased number of T and B cells BN254 |
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Term
25. You, the nurse, would suspect an allergic reaction if which of the following signs or symptoms were present?
A) Hives and asthma B) Nausea and vomiting C) heat and fatigue D) Petechia and tachycardia |
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Definition
A) Hives and asthma BN1279 |
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Term
26. Children with spina bifida are a special concern with regard to the immune system because
A) These children have reduced growth and development; therefore, their immune systems remain immature until adulthood B) These children are at risk ofr latex allergies and the results may be life-threatening C) These children are at risk for skin breakdown as a result of lack of mobility D) These children have less oral intake and less urine output as a result of spina bifida, and this puts them at risk for pneumonia. |
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Definition
B) These children are at risk ofr latex allergies and the results may be life-threatening BN250 |
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Term
27. Which of the following would be an example of nonspecific immunity?
A) Cilia in the respiratory tract B) Neutrophils ingesting and destroying bacteria C) Hydrochloric acid in the stomach D) All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
The function of bone marrow is
A) Production of B and T luymphocytes B) Development of thrombocytes C) Development of erythrocytes D) All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
29. The type of immunity that is described as a "lock-and-key" mechanism that causes an antigen to become harmless to the body is called
A) Antibody-mediated immunity B) Phagocytotic immunity C) Nonspecific immunity D) Cell-mediated immunity |
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Definition
A) Antibody-mediated immunity BN253 |
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Term
30. Antibodies destroy antigens by which of the following mechanisms? A) Neutralizing toxins B) Complement fixation C) facilitating phagocytosis D) All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
31. The elderly have an increased susceptibility to infection. Which of the following is true with regard to the elderly person's immune system?
A) A change in temperature is often more significant than the actual temperature. B) Delirium is always a sign of an infectious process in the elderly. C) the baseline body temperature in an older adult is usually higher than in a younger adult because of an increased metabolic rate in the elderly. D) The cerebral hypoxia that occurs in the elderly is a result of the imcreased number of T and B lymphocytes in the body that are fighting bacteria. |
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Definition
A) A change in temperature is often more significant than the actual temperature. BN254 |
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Term
32. The cornerstone of the immune system is
A) erythrocytes B) Thrombocytes C) Lymphocytes D) Leukocytes |
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Definition
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Term
33. If an initial ELISA test returns positive, which of these testing protocols is recommended for HIV testing?
A) RThe ELISA test is repeated B) A rheumatoid factor test is done. C) The western blot test is done. D) Viral load studies are done. |
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Definition
A) RThe ELISA test is repeated |
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Term
34. Which of the following types of immunity involve T-helper and B lymphocytes?
A) Humoral immunity B) passive immunity C) Cell-mediated immunity D) Acquired immunity |
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Definition
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Term
35. Which of these types of immunity involve only T lymphocytes? A) Humoral immunity B) Passive immunity C) Cell-mediated immunity D) Acquired immunity |
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Definition
C) Cell-mediated immunity BN250 |
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Term
36. Which of these is the older adult patient more prone to than a young adult?
A) High fevers B) Autoimmune disorders C) Antigen recognition D) Antibody production |
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Definition
B) Autoimmune disorders BN254 |
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Term
Which of these occurs initially in Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
A) Thyroid production decreases. B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) production decreases C) Thyroid production increases D) TSH production increases |
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Definition
C) Thyroid production increases MS1005 |
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Term
38. Which of these immune cells is the defective cell in the disease hypogammaglobulinemia?
A) T cells B) B cells C) Mast cells D) Plasma cells |
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Definition
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Term
39. Serum sickness occurs after the administration of which of the following?
A) Penicillins and sulfonamides B) Cryoprecipitate and factor IX C) Whole blood and packed red blood cells D) Steroids and immunosuppressants |
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Definition
A) Penicillins and sulfonamides MS309 |
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Term
40. Which of these would the nurse recognize as a complication of allergic rhinitis?
A) Nasal septal defect B) Nasal polyps C) Headaches D) Rhinorrhea |
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Definition
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Term
41. Which of these nursing actions would be appropriate for a patient diagnosed with idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A) No intramuscular injections B) Good handwashing techniques C) Assistance with ambulation D) manual blood pressures |
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Definition
C) Assistance with ambulation |
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Term
42. A patient has had a portion of his stomach removed and without vitamin B12 injections may begin to experience which of these manifestations?
A) Numbness and tingling, weakness, and glossitis B) Fever, malaise, muscle soreness, and diarrhea C) Urticaria,angioedema, anorexia, pruritus, and blistered lesions D) Frequent infections, fever, malaise, vertigo, and lymphadenopathy |
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Definition
A) Numbness and tingling, weakness, and glossitis MS1034 |
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Term
Replacement therapy cannot be given for which of these types of immunoglobulins?
A) IgM B) IgE C) IgA D) IgG |
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Definition
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Term
44. A patient is stung by a wasp. Which of these manifestations would the nurse expect to see if an allergic reaction develops?
A) Pallor around the sting sites B) Hives C) Jugular vein distention D) retinal hemorrhage |
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Definition
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Term
45. Which of these medications would the nurse anticipate being administered immediately to a patient having a severe allergic reaction?
A) Oral Benadryl B) Oral epinephrine C) IV Benadryl D) IV epinephrine |
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Definition
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Term
46. Which of these medications would the nurse anticipate being administered secondarily to a patient having a severe allergic reaction to control itching?
A) Benadryl B) Epinephrine C) Immunosuppressives D) Solu-Cortef |
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Definition
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Term
47. A patient is stabilized after having an allergic reaction. Which of these preventative instructions should be reinforced at this time?
A) She should stay indoors as much as possible. B)She should wear insect repellent when she is outdoors. C) She should wear Medic-Alert identification D) She should take corticosteroids prior to going outdoors. |
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Definition
C) She should wear Medic-Alert identification |
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Term
48. A patient has a long-standing history of allergies to pollen. Which of these actions, if performed by the patient, would indicate understanding of how to control his disease?
A) gardening outdoors on dry, windy days B) Driving her car with the windows open during high pollen counts C) Taking frequent walks outside in spring when the weather is warm D) Wearing a mask when mowing the lawn |
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Definition
D) Wearing a mask when mowing the lawn BN1281 |
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Term
Which of these environmental modifications for a patient who is allergic to dust would be the most helpful in controlling symptoms?
A) Installing a hot air heater B) Covering the floors with wall-to-wall carpeting C) Using heavy draperies on sunny windows D) Encasing mattresses in plastic |
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Definition
D) Encasing mattresses in plastic BN1281 |
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Term
50. A patient is experiencing an episode of urticaria. Which of these interventions may assist the patient in controlling the symptoms of this disease?
A) Using relaxation techniques B) Avoiding tub baths C) taking one aspirin daily D) Drinking decaffinated coffee |
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Definition
A) Using relaxation techniques |
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Term
A patient has developed hemolytic anemia related to the administration of penicillin. How can the nurse best explain this disease process to the patient?
A) "An allergy to penicillin is destroying platelets for unknown reasons." B) "An antigen-antibody reaction is causing destruction of red blood cells." C) "Allergens are invading the bone marrow and interfering with red blood cell production." D) "The red blood cells are being consumed inappropriately." |
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Definition
B) "An antigen-antibody reaction is causing destruction of red blood cells." BN1253 |
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Term
A patient is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Ten minutes after the infusion begins the patient complains of low back pain and a headache. Which of these nursing actions is essential now?
A) massage her back and elevate the head of the bed. B) Change her position. C) Turn off the blood infusion. D) Administer aspirin as prescribed. |
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Definition
C) Turn off the blood infusion. BN1251 |
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Term
A patient is receiveing a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Before administering the transfusion, which of these nursing checks is essential?
A) Very patient's admitting medical diagnosis. B) Verify blood type of paient and donor C) Verify patient's hematocrit level. D) Verify patients hemoglobin level. |
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Definition
B) Verify blood type of paient and donor |
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Term
The nurse is teaching a atient with allergic rhinitis what may rgger it. Which of these may trigger allergic rhinitis?
A) Dust B) Topical ointments C) Oral medications D) Food |
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Definition
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Term
Urticaria is classified as which of these types of hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV |
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Definition
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Term
In which of these ways does the nurse understand urticaria differs from angioedema?
A) It is less pruritic. B) It has more widespread skin lesions. C) It has mucous membrane edema. D) It lasts a shorter period of time. |
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Definition
D) It lasts a shorter period of time. MS1001 |
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Term
Which of these nursing actions would take priority when caring for a patient with a severe case of angioedema?
A) Maintenance of a patent airway B) Strict use of infection control procedures C) Maintenanc of fluid balance D) Education regarding immunotherapy |
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Definition
A) Maintenance of a patent airway MS1001 |
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Term
Which of these nursing actions would be appropraite for a patient with serum sickness? A) Discussing with the patient and significant other the need for genetic counselling B) Administration of immunosuppression medications C) Closely monitoring patient during the transfusion of blood products D) Assessing for a decrease in urine output and pale extremities |
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Definition
D) Assessing for a decrease in urine output and pale extremities MS1002 |
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Term
Which of these is the most irritant causing contact dermatities? A) Fire ants B) Poison ivy C) Rubber D) Bleach |
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Definition
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Term
A patient had a kidney transplant 5 days ago. She had been a very outgoing and jovial. This morning she is very quiet, refusing breakfast. She also is refusing AM care and ambulation. Which of these would be the most appropriate nursing action at this time? A) Notify the physician for lab orders. B) Inform the family that the patient is beginning to have signs of a rejection C) Spend extra time with the patient, allowing her to verbalize her feelings. D) notify the social worker for discharge follow-up care. |
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Definition
C) Spend extra time with the patient, allowing her to verbalize her feelings. |
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Term
Which of these nursing actions would be most appropriate for a patient with severe ankylosing spondylities? A) Administer narcotic analgesics B) Provide activity every 2 hours C) Encourage a high fiber diet D) Provide tepid tub soaks |
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Definition
B) Provide activity every 2 hours |
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Term
Which of these types of immunity is most affected in hypogammaglobulinemia? A) passive natural immunity B) Cell-mediated immunity C) passive active immunity D) Humoral immunity |
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Definition
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Term
Which of these outcomes when caring for a patient who has acquired immunodefficiency syndrome(AIDS) should recieve priority? A) Remain free of infection B) Maintain baseline weight C) Report high self-esteem D) Remain socially active |
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Definition
A) Remain free of infection |
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Term
64. A patient who has human immunodeficiency virus(HIV) asks the nurse if thinking about dying frequently is common with HIV. Which ofthese ia an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) HIV is a serious disease that results in death B) HIV has a very high mortality rate,so it is realistic to plan for death. C) HIV is now considered a chronic disease with treatment D) Thinking about death will not change the prognosis. |
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Definition
C) HIV is now considered a chronic disease with treatment MS1008 |
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Term
65. Which of these is a relatively common opportunistic infection that a patient with HIV may develop?
A) Toxoplasmosis B) Kaposi sarcoma C) Crytosporidiosis D) Cryptococcosis |
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Definition
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Term
66. When caring for a patient with AIDS,which of these nursing actions would be most appropraite for infection control A) Wear sterile gloves for any patient contact B) Wear clean gloves for body fluid contact C) Wear waterproof gown at all times D) Wear a mask for any patient contact. |
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Definition
B) Wear clean gloves for body fluid contact BN1292 |
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Term
67. Which of these explanations would be appropriate for the nurse to tell the family of a patient diagnosed with HIV about the trasmission of the HIV virus?
A) HIV enters the body through breaks i the skin or mucous membranes B) HIV can be spread by causual contact C) HIV lives for long periods outside the body D) HIV is most commonly transmitted via tears and saliva. |
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Definition
A) HIV enters the body through breaks i the skin or mucous membranes MS1012 |
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Term
68. When assessing a patient who has AIDS, which manifestations would the nurse expect to identify? A) chest pain B) Hypertension C) Pustular skin lesions D) Diarrhea |
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Definition
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Term
69. Which of these explanations about the transmission of HIV virus should the nurse include in the teaching plan for the family of a patient who has HIV?
A) HIV spreads by contact with infected blood. B) HIV can be spread by sharing eating utensils. c) HIV is spread by casual contact with others D) HIV is commonly transmitted by tears or saliva. |
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Definition
A) HIV spreads by contact with infected blood. MS1012 |
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Term
When a patient who has AIDS expresses concern about telling others, which of these responses would be appropriate by the nurse?
A) "You should tell those who have a reason to know" B) "It would be best to tell everyone you know." C) "Your diagnosis will be discovered anyway by those you know." D) "Secrecy is a poor idea since it eill erode your self-esteem." |
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Definition
A) "You should tell those who have a reason to know" |
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Term
71. When caring for a patient who has had diagnosic testing for HIV, which of these tests should the nurse review to determine the presence of the virus?
A) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay B) Polymerase chain reaction testing C) Western blot D) P24 antigen testing. |
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Definition
B) Polymerase chain reaction testing |
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Term
72. Which of these actions would appropriate for the nurse to use in following standard precautions for protection from HIV exposure?
A) Wash your open skin lesion after providing care. B) Put on gloves before touching body fluids. C Recap intramuscular needles following injections. D) Remove one finger of the gloves during venipuncture. |
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Definition
B) Put on gloves before touching body fluids. |
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Term
73. Which specific cell of the immune system is monitored to determine the progression of AIDS?
A) Neutrophils B) Phagocytes C) lymphocytes D) CD4+ lymphocytes |
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Definition
D) CD4+ lymphocytes BN1287 |
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Term
74. In educating patients, the nurse should recognize that which of these is the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection?
A) Premarital serological screening B) Prophylactic exposure treatment C) HIV screening for pregnant women D) Education about preventive behaviors |
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Definition
D) Education about preventive behaviors |
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Term
When a patient is exposed to HIV, initial symptoms would most likely include which of these?
A) Ureticeria, sneezing, pruritus. B) Fever, rash,joint pain C) weight loss,night sweats D) Tremors, edema, coughing |
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Definition
B) Fever, rash,joint pain |
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Term
If the initial enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test returns positive, which of these testing protocols is recommended for HIV testing?
A) The ELISA test is repeated. B) A rheumatoid factor test is done. C) The Western blot test is done. D) Viral load studies are done. |
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Definition
A) The ELISA test is repeated. |
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Term
Which of these is used to describe when enough antibodies to HIV are circulating to produce positive test results to standard HIV testing?
A) Contagous phase B) Seroconversion C) Recovery Phase D) Infection |
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Definition
B) Seroconversion http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Seroconversion |
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Term
78. A patient asks, "What is the main purpose of these medications I take for my HIV." Which response by the nurse would be appropriate? A) "They mark the virus for natural killer cekks to then destroy." B) "They enacapsulate the virus-infected cells." C) "They attract macrophages to the cells making the virus." D) "They inhibit enzymes, which interferes with viral production." |
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Definition
D) "They inhibit enzymes, which interferes with viral production." http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reverse_transcriptase_inhibitor |
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Term
Which of these actions does the nurse recognize is the treatment goal for HIV?
A) Treating opportunistic infections B) Killing the HIV virus with medication C) Stimulating the immune system D) Keeping the HIV virus from replicaing |
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Definition
D) Keeping the HIV virus from replicaing |
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Term
When a patient is taking navirapine (Viramune), which of these instructions should be included in the teaching plan?
A) Monitor for flu-like symptoms B) Monitor for rash C) Observe urine color. D) Report extremity pain. |
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Definition
B) Monitor for rash http://www.rxlist.com/viramune-drug.htm |
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Term
Which of these manifestations should the family of a patient with AIDS, be instructed to report to the health practitioner immediately? A) Dry mouth B) Night sweats C) Fever D)Constipation |
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Definition
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Term
When teaching a patient how to prevent HIV transmission with condom use, which of these instructions should be include in the teaching plan?
A) Apply adequate oil-based lubricant. B) Apply condom before penile erection occurs C) Withfraw from partner while the penis is erect. D) Use a nonlatex condom. |
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Definition
C) Withdraw from partner while the penis is erect. MS1013 |
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Term
83. A patient with AIDS has been taught about foods to eat to reduce the risk of infection. Which of these foods should the patient select to demonstrate correct understanding?
A) Soft egg yolks B) Pasteurized milk C) Raw vegetables D) Raw fruits |
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Definition
B) Pasteurized milk MS1021 |
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