Term
Pharmacology:
What is the transfer of a drug from its site of administration to the blood stream? |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
Absorption will depend on the r_____ and e_______ of the route of administation. |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
The i____ route delivers complete absorption; other routes may result in only p_____ absorption. |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
D_______ states or certain f______ may also affect absorption. |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
Other factors affecting absorption include type of t_____ from the GI tract, p__, b______ f______ to absorption site, total s_____ a_____, and amount of c____ t_____ with absorption surface. |
|
Definition
transport; pH; blood flow; surface area; contact time |
|
|
Term
Pharmacology:
What is the fraction of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation and therefore the targer organ or system? |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
Bioavailability is determined by comparing p____ levels of a drug after a particular route of administration and with plasma drug levels achieved after I__ i_____. |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
Factors affecting bioavailability include f____-p____ h______ metabolism, s____ of the drug, chemical i_____, and the nature of the drug f_______. |
|
Definition
first-pass hepatic; solubility; instability; formulation |
|
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Term
Pharmacology:
What is the property wherein two drugs with identical active ingredients (as a brand-name drug and its generic equivalent) or two different dosage forms (as tablet and oral suspension) of the same drug possess similar bioavailability and produce the same effect at the site of physiological activity? |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
What is a drug that has essentially the same effect in the treatment of a disease or condition as one or more other drugs? |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
A drug that is a therapeutic equivalent may or may not be c________ equivalent, b_________, or g__________ equivalent. |
|
Definition
chemically; bioequivalent; generically |
|
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Term
Pharmacology:
What is the process by which a drug reversibly leaves the blood stream and enters the interstitium and/or cells of the tissues? |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
Distribution is affected by b___ f___, c____ permeability, and binding of drugs to p______. |
|
Definition
blood flow; capillary; proteins |
|
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Term
Pharmacology:
Once a drug enters the body, it is distributed to the p____, e____ f_____, total b______ w_____, and other sites like f___ reserves. |
|
Definition
plasma; extracellular fluid; body water; fat |
|
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Term
Pharmacology:
What plasma proteins do drugs bind to? |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
True or False-
Drugs that are bound to plasma proteins can still be active. |
|
Definition
False-
bound drugs are pharmacologically inactive; only the free, unbound drug can act on target sites in the tissues and elicit a biological response |
|
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Term
Pharmacology:
True or False-
The ability/quantity of a drug molecule able to bind to one or more albumin molecule will vary by drug. |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
True or False-
Each drug has an equal opportunity to bind to albumin molecules. |
|
Definition
False-
There is competition between drugs for binding to albumin molecules |
|
|
Term
Pharmacology:
What is a specialized target macromolecule that is present on the surface of a cell that binds a drug and mediates its pharmacologic actions? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Pharmacology:
What are 3 types of drug receptors? |
|
Definition
1. competitive
2. noncompetitive
3. partial agonist |
|
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Term
Pharmacology:
What is another term for metabolism? |
|
Definition
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Term
Pharmacology:
The l____ is the major site for drug metabolism, which is called the 1st-pass effect. However, some drugs undergo metabolism in other tissues, such as the l_____, s______, and i_____. |
|
Definition
liver; lungs; skin; intestines |
|
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Term
Pharmacology:
True or False-
All drugs are administered in their active form and the therapeutic effect is then activated during distribution. |
|
Definition
False-
Some drugs are administered in their inactive form and the therapeutic effect is then activated during metabolism |
|
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Term
Pharmacology:
Drugs are most often e____ by biotransformation and/or e_____ into the urine or bile. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Pharmacology:
What is the ratio of the dose that produces toxicity to the dose that produces a clinically desired or effective response in a population of individuals? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Pharmacology:
True or False-
It is better to have a drug with a narrow therapeutic index because that means that the drug is more effective and works more quickly than others. |
|
Definition
False-
A drug is determined to generally be safer if the therapeutic index is larger; the more narrow the therapeutic index, the more caution must be used with the drug |
|
|
Term
Pharmacology:
What is the most common route of elimination? |
|
Definition
through the kidneys in the urine |
|
|
Term
Pharmacology:
Other sites of elimination include: b____, i_____, l_____, b_____ m______, and/or d_____. |
|
Definition
bile; intestines; lungs; breast milk; dialysis |
|
|
Term
Pharmacology:
How might medications be dosed in pts. with decr. renal function? |
|
Definition
They may be dosed based upon creatinine clearance rates or glomerular filtration rate (GFR) |
|
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Term
Pharmacology:
What is the amount of time that it takes for 50% of the drug to be metabolized or eliminated? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Pharmacology:
Factors affecting t 1/2 include: decr. renal b___ f___; the introduction of a s_____ drug; decr. e______ ratio; and decr. m_____. |
|
Definition
blood flow; second; extraction; metabolism |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are the components of the upper resp. tract? |
|
Definition
the nose, sinuses, pharynx (throat), and larynx (voice box) |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are the components of the lower resp. tract? |
|
Definition
the trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli |
|
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Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the point at which the 2 mainstem bronchi emerge from the trachea? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
True or False-
The left bronchus is slightly wider, shorter, and more vertical than the right bronchus. |
|
Definition
False-
The right bronchus is slightly wider, shorter, and more vertical than the right bronchus |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are the 2 main potential problems associated with the R bronchus being wider, shorter, and more vertical than the L bronchus? |
|
Definition
1. accidental intubation when an endotracheal tube is passed
2. aspiration is more likely to occur on the R side when a foreign object enters the throat |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are the accessory muscles used for breathing (which you don't really want a pt. to be using!)? |
|
Definition
sternocleidomastoid and scalene muscles |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
With aging, a pt.'s a_____ surface area decr., d____ capacity decr., elastic r____ decr., bronchioles and alveolar ducts d____, and the ability to c____ decr. |
|
Definition
alveolar; diffusion; recoil; dilate; cough |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
With aging, a pt.'s lung r____ volume incr., v____ capacity decr., efficiency of e_____ decr., and e____ decr. |
|
Definition
residual; vital; exchange; elasticity |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
With aging, muscles of the p____ and l_____ atrophy, v____ c____ become slack, laryngeal muscles lose e_____, and airways lose c______. |
|
Definition
pharynx; layrnx; vocal cords; elasticity; cartilage |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
With aging, pulmonary v____ r_____ incr., pulmonary capillary b____ v______ decr., and the risk of h____ incr. |
|
Definition
vascular resistance; blood volume; hypoxia |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
With aging, a pt. may experience exercise i_____, which is the body's response to hypoxia and h______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
With aging, resp. muscle s____, especially the diaphragm and the i_______ muscles, decr. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
With aging, effectiveness of c___ decr., I_____ A decr., and alveolar m______ are altered, leaving the pt. more susceptible to i______. |
|
Definition
cilia; Immunoglobulin; macrophages; infection |
|
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Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
With aging, the a_____ diameter incr., the thorax becomes s____, progressive k_______ occurs, chest wall c_____ decr., m____ may decr., and o____ is possible. |
|
Definition
anterioposterior; shorter; kyphoscoliosis; compliance; mobility; osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are the 3 organs/tissues working with the resp. system that are responsible for meeting the needs of oxygenation and tissue perfusion? |
|
Definition
1. lungs
2. heart
3. blood vessels/RBCs |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the role of the lungs in the oxygenation and tissue perfusion of the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the role of the heart and the blood vessels/RBCs in the oxygenation and tissue perfusion of the body? |
|
Definition
oxygen delivery (heart first, blood vessels/RBCs second) |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
When completing a pt. hx for a resp. issue, what are some important pieces of information that an RN should obtain?
|
|
Definition
family/personal data, smoking (pack yrs), drug use, allergies, travel/geographical area of residence, nutritional status, cough, sputum prod., chest pain, dyspnea, PND, or orthopnea |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Where are the frontal sinuses? |
|
Definition
in the forehead above the eyebrows |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Where are the ethmoid sinuses? |
|
Definition
surrounding the eyes (in between the eyes and on either side of the lateral canthus) |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Where are the maxillary sinuses? |
|
Definition
on either side of the nose |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Where are the sphenoid sinuses? |
|
Definition
in the temporal area, just above the TMJ |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What does a typical assessment of the pharynx, trachea, and larynx include? |
|
Definition
inspection of the mouth, posterior pharynx (throat), neck, and palpation of the trachea |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What does a typical assessment of the lungs and thorax include? |
|
Definition
Inspect thorax with patient sitting up, observe chest for symmetry, work from the apex downward and from side-to-side, observe resp. rate/rhythm/depth of inspiration, examine AP diameter w/ lateral diameter, palpate —distance between ribs, palpate to assess respiratory movement, symmetry, palpate for crepitus, observe diaphragmatic excursion (norm = 3-5 cm), and auscultate for adventitious breath sounds
|
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are adventitious breath sounds that are discontinuous, explosive, "popping" sounds (either fine or coarse, soft or loud) that are the result of air moving through fluid, consolidation, or fibrosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are adventitious breath sounds that are continuous muscial tones most commonly heard upon inspiration and early expiration that are the result of air moving through narrowed airways?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are adventitious breath sounds that are rattling sounds which mimic the sound of snoring that are the result of air moving through secretions in the large airways?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are adventitious breath sounds that are the result of the pleural linings rubbing together, which can ONLY be heard with a stethoscope?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
When auscultating the lungs, the RN should listen to ___ points bilaterally on the posterior thorax, ___ points bilaterally on the anterior thorax, ___ points on the right side, and ___ points on the left side.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
When auscultating the lungs, why should you listen to 4 points on the right side but 5 points on the left side?
|
|
Definition
b/c the left lung is slightly longer than the right lung, which means the left lower lobe extends down further than the right lower lobe |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Of the following types, which type of sputum is the most concerning for an RN, which should be addressed immediately?
a. thin, clear sputum
b. thick, green-yellow sputum
c. thick yellow-brown sputum
d. pink, frothy sputum
|
|
Definition
Answer: d
'd' is quite common with pulmonary edema and should be addressed immediately |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the term used for blood in the sputum?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Rust-colored, foul-smelling sputum is often associated with which condition?
a. pulmonary edema
b. pneumococcal pneumonia
c. chronic bronchitis or lung cancer
d. TB/pulmonary infarction/bronchial adenoma
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Hemoptysis is most often associated with which condition?
a. pulmonary edema
b. pneumococcal pneumonia
c. chronic bronchitis or lung cancer
d. TB/pulmonary infarction/bronchial adenoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Grossly bloody sputum is often associated with which condition?
a. pulmonary edema
b. pneumococcal pneumonia
c. chronic bronchitis or lung cancer
d. TB/pulmonary infarction/bronchial adenoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
How much sputum production in one day would be considered WNL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
C____, s_____ and m_____ membrane changes, and p____ may indicate immediate oxygenation problems. |
|
Definition
cyanosis; skin; mucous; pallor |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What can be indicators of both immediate and long-term oxygenation problems? |
|
Definition
decr. endurance and use of accessory muscles/nasal flaring |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
C____, w____ loss, unevenly developed m_____, and "b____ chest" indicate long-term oxygenation problems. |
|
Definition
cyanosis; weight; muscles; barrel |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
A normal range for RBCs for females is __.2-__.4 million/mm3 and __.7-__.1 for males. |
|
Definition
4.2-5.4 for females
4.7-6.1 for males |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
A normal range for Hgb for females is 1__-1__ mg/dL and 1__-1__ for males. |
|
Definition
12-16 mg/dL for females
14-18 mg/dL for males |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
A normal range for Ht for females is __7-__7% and __2-__2% for males. |
|
Definition
37-47% for females
42-52% for males |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
A normal range for WBCs is __,000-__,000/mm3. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Polycythemia may result from C___ or high a_____; while decr. levels of RBCs may indicate a_____, h_____, or h_____. |
|
Definition
COPD; altitudes; anemia; hemorrhage; hemolysis |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
True or False-
High and low levels of Hgb and Ht can indicate the same conditions as polycythemia and decr. levels of RBCs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Leukocytosis may indicate acute i___ or i____, p_____, m_____, t_____, or e_____; while leukopenia may indicate an overwhelming i____, an a_____ disorder, or evidence of i_____ therapy. |
|
Definition
infection; inflammation; pneumonia; meningitis; tonsilitis; emphysema;
infection; autoimmune; immunosuppressant |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
In a differential WBC count, a normal range for neutrophils is __5-__0% of total WBCs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
In a differential WBC count, a normal range for eosinophils is __-__% of total WBCs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
In a differential WBC count, a normal range for basophils is __-__% of total WBCs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
In a differential WBC count, a normal range for lymphocytes is __0-__0% of total WBCs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
In a differential WBC count, a normal range for monocytes is __-__% of total WBCs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, or monocytes?-
Elevation = possible acute bacterial pneumonia, COPD, or inflammatory conditions; Decr. = possible viral dz (influenza) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, or monocytes?-
Elevation = possible viral infection, pertussis, infectious mononucleosis, and active TB; Decr. = may be seen during corticosteroid therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, or monocytes?-
Elevation = possible viral infection, pertussis, infectious mononucleosis; Decr. = may be seen during corticosteroid therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, or monocytes?-
Elevation = possible inflammation seen in chronic sinusitis and hypersensitivity reactions; Decr. = may be seen in an acute infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, or monocytes?-
Elevation = possible COPD, asthma, or allergies; Decr. = may indicate pyogenic infections (infections producing pus) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
In ABGs, a normal range for Pao2 is __0-__00 mmHg and may be ____ in older adults. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
In ABGs, a normal range for Paco2 is __5-__5 mmHg. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
In ABGs, a normal range for pH is 7.__-7.__ until the age of 60; 7.__-7.__ for 60-90 year olds; and 7.__-7.__ for >90 yrs old. |
|
Definition
7.35-7.45 for =/< 60 yrs old
7.31-7.42 for 60-90 yrs old
7.26-7.43 for > 90 yrs old |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
In ABGs, a normal range for HCO3 is 2__-2__ mEq/L. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
In ABGs, a normal range for Spo2 is 9__-__00% and may be ____ in older adults. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Elevations in Pao2 may indicate possible excessive o____ administration; decr. may indicate possible C___, asthma, chronic b____, lung/bronchi c_____, cystic f_____, R___, anemia, or a______. |
|
Definition
oxygen
COPD; bronchitis; cancer; fibrosis; RDS; atelectasis |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Elevations in Paco2 may indicate possible C____, asthma, p_____, a_____ effects, or use of o____ (respiratory acidosis); decr. indicate h________/respiratory a_______. |
|
Definition
COPD; pneumonia; anesthesia; opioids
hyperventilation; alkalosis |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Elevations in pH may indicate possible metabolic or respiratory a_______; decr. may indicate possible metabolic or respiratory a_________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Elevations in HCO3 may indicate respiratory a_____ as compensation for primary metabolic _____; decr. indicate possible respiratory a_____ as compensation for primary metabolic a______. |
|
Definition
acidosis; alkalosis
alkalosis; acidosis |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Decr. in Spo2 may indicate possible impaired ability of H____ to release oxygen to tissues. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Besides blood tests, what other laboratory tests can be run to dx resp. conditions? |
|
Definition
—Sputum
Standard chest x-rays
digital chest radiography
CT
—Ventilation and perfusion scan
Pulse ox (non invasive)
|
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the purpose of a PFT? |
|
Definition
A PFT is a noninvasive test that
—evaluates lung volumes and capacities, flow rates, diffusion capacity, gas exchange, airway resistance, and distribution of ventilation; PFTs provide baseline studies for chronic dz (like COPD & asthma) to help measure exacerbation
—
|
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the purpose of capnometry and capnography?
|
|
Definition
Noninvasive test that measure the amount of carbon dioxide present in exhaled air |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is a third noninvasive resp. test?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the purpose of a bronchoscopy?
|
|
Definition
An invasive procedure where a tube is inserted into the airways, usually to the secondary bronchi, for the purpose of viewing airway structures and/or obtaining tissue samples for biopsy/culture |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the difference between a flexible bronchoscopy and a rigid bronchoscopy?
|
|
Definition
flexible- can be performed in the ICU with low-dose sedation; mostly used for airway evaluation
rigid- usually requires general anesthesia and performed in the OR; mostly used for cancer staging/removal of secretions |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the purpose of a thoracentesis?
|
|
Definition
An invasive procedure where pleural fluid or air is aspirated from pleural space for the purpose of dx, tx, or relieving of blood vessel/lung compression during resp. distress (caused by cancer, empyema, pleurisy, or TB) |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
How is a thoracentesis performed?
|
|
Definition
With the pt. sitting on the edge of the bed, leaning over the bedside table with arms outstretched on the table to allow for widening of the posterior intercostal space for easier insertion of the needle |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the pt. preparation for a PFT?
|
|
Definition
1. pt. should not smoke 6-8 hrs before test
2. bronchodilator Rx may be w/held for 4-6 hrs before test
3. explain that it's a non-invasive test |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the pt. preparation for a bronchoscopy?
|
|
Definition
1. explain that it is an invasive procedure
2. id pt. allergies
3. use 2 pt. identifiers before procedure
4. review lab tests for abnormalities
5. NPO for 4-8 hrs before procedure
6. premedicate w/ benzos and/or opioids |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What condition can result from the use of benzocaine as a topical anesthetic to numb the throat prior to a bronchoscopy?
|
|
Definition
methemoglobinemia- the conversion of normal Hgb to methemoglobin, which does not carry oxygen and will result in tissue hypoxia |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the normal methemoglobin level in the body and at what level can this condition become fatal?
|
|
Definition
the normal level is <1%; this condition can become fatal when levels reach 50-70% |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the priority nursing intervention for a pt. w/ methemoglobinemia?
|
|
Definition
supplemental oxygen
(if this does not work and their blood is characteristic chocolate-brown color, call the Rapid Response Team) |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the follow-up care after a bronchoscopy?
|
|
Definition
1. NPO until gag reflex has returned (often dimished due to anesthesia)
2. monitor V/S q15min for first 2 hrs
3. assess for complications (i.e. bleeding, infection, or hypoxemia)
4. assess for pneumothorax and methemoglobinemia |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the pt. preparation for a thoracentesis?
|
|
Definition
1. inform pt. it is an invasive procedure
2. tell them to expect a "stinging sensation" from the local anesthetic
3. tell them to expect a "feeling of pressure" from the insertion of the needle
4. stress importance of remaining completely still during procedure
5. ensure allergies, id, and informed consent has been obtained |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the follow-up care after a thoracentesis?
|
|
Definition
1. CXR to assess for pneumothorax and mediastinal shift (shift of thoracic structures to one side)
2. monitor V/S incl. ausculatation of breath sounds
3. check puncture dressing
4. assess for complications
5. urge pt. to breath deeply to promote expansion |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the purpose of a lung biopsy?
|
|
Definition
An invasive procedure for the purpose of obtaining tissue for histologic analysis, culture, or cytologic examination; used to make a definitive dx regarding the type of lung CA, infection, inflammation, or lung dz present |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Where is a lung biopsy performed?
|
|
Definition
It can be performed in a pt.'s room via bronchoscopy or percutaneously via a needle; an open lung biopsy must be performed in the OR |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the pt preparation for a lung biopsy?
|
|
Definition
1. address anxiety about procedure (i.e. biopsy does not automatically = CA, which is the fear of many pts.)
2. Admin. analgesic or sedative PRN
3. pt. may feel "sting" of local anesthetic
4. pt. may feel "pressure" if needle is used
5. pt. will need to be sedated under general anesthesia if open lung biopsy is necessary |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the follow-up care after a lung biopsy?
|
|
Definition
1. assess V/S w/ auscultation of breath sounds q4h for first 24 hrs
2. assess for S/S of resp. distress
3. report dimished/absent breath sounds immediately
4. monitor for hemoptysis |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Which is not a clinical manifestation of resp. distress?
a. dyspnea
b. nasal flaring/use of accessory muscles
c. erythema
d. decr. endurance
e. pursed-lip/diaphragmatic breathing
|
|
Definition
Answer: c
w/ resp. distress, a pt. will usually present with pallor (palenss) and/or cyanosis (bluish-tint) of their skin and mucous membranes, not erythema (redness) |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the difference between hypoxemia and hypoxia?
|
|
Definition
hypoxemia- low levels of oxygen in the blood
hypoxia- decr. tissue oxygenation |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the priority tx for both hypoxemia and hypoxia?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the goal of oxygen therapy to tx hypoxemia and hypoxia?
|
|
Definition
use lowest fraction of inspired oxygen for acceptable blood oxygen level without causing harmful side effects
|
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
The type of oxygen delivery system used for oxygen therapy depends on what 5 factors?
|
|
Definition
1. Oxygen concentration required/achieved
2. Importance of accuracy and control of oxygen concentration
3. Patient comfort
4. Importance of humidity
5. Patient mobility
|
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What type of oxygen delivery system does not provide enough flow to meet total oxygen and air volume and is delivered via nasal cannula or facemask?
|
|
Definition
low-flow oxygen delivery system |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Which low flow oxygen delivery system has flow rates of 1-6 L/min and O2 concentration of 24%-44% (1-6 L/min)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
When using a nasal cannula, which 2 things should you be assessing for frequently? |
|
Definition
1. patency of nostrils
2. changes in resp. rate and depth |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Which low flow oxygen delivery system delivers O2 up to 40%-60% as a minimum of 5 L/min through a mask that fits securely over the nose and mouth?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
When using a simple facemask, what is the most important thing to assess the pt. for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Which low flow oxygen delivery system
provides 60%-75% with flow rate of 6-11 L/min, one-third exhaled tidal volume with each breath, and adjusts the flow rate to keep reservoir bag inflated?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Which low flow oxygen delivery system
provides the highest level of oxygen (>90%) and is used for unstable patients requiring intubation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the most important thing to assess when using a non-rebreather mask? |
|
Definition
assess for patent and functional valves |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are the hazards and complications of oxygen therapy?
|
|
Definition
—Combustion, oxygen-induced hypoventilation, hypercarbia (retention of CO2), CO2 narcosis (loss of sensitivity to high levels of CO2), oxygen toxicity, absorption atelectasis (new onset of crackles/decreased breath sounds), drying of mucous membranes, and infection |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What oxygen delivery system can deliver 24-100% oxygen at 8-15 L/min?
|
|
Definition
high flow oxygen delivery system |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
The high flow oxygen delivery system includes the v____ mask, face t____, a_____ mask, t_____ collar, and T-_____.
|
|
Definition
Venturi; tent; aerosol; tracheostomy;piece |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is the best high flow oxygen delivery system for chronic lung dz?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Which high flow oxygen delivery system delivers desired FIO2 for
tracheostomy/laryngectomy/ET tubes and ensures that humidifier creates enough mist?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
True or False-
With a T-piece, mist should only be seen during inspiration, not expiration. |
|
Definition
False- mist should be seen during both inspiration and expiration |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Which breathing treatment uses positive pressure to keep alveoli open in order to improve gas exchange w/out airway intubation? |
|
Definition
noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation
(NPPV) |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are the 2 types of NPPV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is a CPAP used for? |
|
Definition
opens collapsed alveoli; used for atelectasis after surgery or cardiac-induced pulmonary edema and sleep apnea |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is a TTO and why do pts. prefer its use? |
|
Definition
TTO = transtracheal oxygen delivery system-
Long-term delivery of O2 directly into lungs via a small flexible catheter passed into trachea through small incision; pts. prefer its use b/c it
avoids irritation that nasal prongs cause, is more comfortable, and has flow rates that are prescribed for rest and activity
|
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
A t_______ is a surgical incision into trachea for purpose of establishing an airway; a t________ is a stoma (opening) that results from tracheotomy. |
|
Definition
tracheotomy; tracheostomy |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
True or False-
Like ileostomies and colostomies, tracheostomies can be temporary or permanent.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Where in the pt.'s neck is the tracheostomy placed?
|
|
Definition
w/in the second, third, and fourth tracheal rings of cartilage |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
The priority problems for pts. w/ tracheostomies include: reduced o_____, inadequate c_____, inadequate n______, potential for i_____, and damage to oral m_____.
|
|
Definition
oxygenation; communication; nutrition; infection; mucosa |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
A major care issue of a pt. w/ a tracheostomy is what?
|
|
Definition
prevention of tissue damage-
so minimal leak and occlusive techniques should be used, the cuff pressure should be checked often, and malnutrition, hemodynamic instability, and hypoxia should be prevented/treated immediately |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What must happen to air delivered via tracheostomy tube? Why?
|
|
Definition
The air passing thru the tracheostomy tube must be warmed, filtered, and humidified b/c the tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose/mouth where these processes are conducted |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Suctioning is n______ for a pt. w/ a tracheostomy but its complications include: h_____, mucosal t_____, i_____, v_____ stimulation resulting in bronchospasm, and c_____ d_____ from induced hypoxia.
|
|
Definition
necessary; hypoxia; trauma; infection; vagal; cardiac dysrhythmias |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What are the 5 main causes of hypoxia in pts. with tracheostomies?
|
|
Definition
1. ineffective oxygenation before/during/after suctioning
2. use of catheter that is too large for artificial airway
3. prolonged suctioning time
4. excessive suction pressure
5. too frequent suctioning |
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
What is involved in the care of a conscious pt. with a tracheostomy?
|
|
Definition
1. Turn/reposition every 1-2 hours
2. support out-of-bed activities/encourage early ambulation
3. Coughing and deep breathing, chest percussion, vibration, and postural drainage
4. Avoid glycerin swabs or mouthwash containing alcohol for oral care
5. assess for ulcers, bacterial/fungal growth, infection
|
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
The HOB should be elevated for at least ____ minutes after eating for a pt. w/ a tracheostomy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenation & Assessment of Resp. System:
Weaning from a tracheostomy tube will include:
a gradual ______ in tube size (then ultimate removal of tube); cuff is d______ when patient can manage s_______ (i.e. does not need assisted ventilation); change from c_____ to u_______ tube; size of tube decreased by c______; and use smaller f______ tube.
|
|
Definition
decrease; deflated; secretions; cuffed; uncuffed; capping; fenestrated |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the common preventable and treatable dz that is progressive and associated w/ an enhanced chronic inflammatory response in airways and the lung to noxious particles or gases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are the 2 subtypes of COPD? |
|
Definition
1. emphysema
2. chronic bronchitis |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the most important and modifiable risk factor for emphysema and chronic bronchitis development and exacerbation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
Chronic bronchitis may have a genetic component. |
|
Definition
True-
chronic bronchitis may be the result of Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
Only 5% of COPD pts. are non-smokers with no second-hand smoke exposure. |
|
Definition
False-
20% of COPD pts. are non-smokers with no second-hand smoke exposure |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Co-morbidities assoc. w/ COPD include: l____ CA; C___; o______; m______ syndrome; s____ m____ weakness; d_______; and c____ function. |
|
Definition
lung; CAD; osteoporosis; metabolic; skeletal muscle; depression; cognitive |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the nickname for emphysema? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Emphysema is the p ermanent h_______ of the alveoli resulting in d______ of the alveolar and c______ walls.
Small bronchioles become o______ due to mucus, smooth muscle s____, i______ processes & collapse of b____ walls.
|
|
Definition
hyperinflation; destruction; capillary; obstructed; spasms; inflammatory; bronchiolar |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
With emphysema, there is a repeated infectious process which leads to an incr. of n_____ and m_____, causing the release of p______ enzymes, which destroy a______ tissue, causing more i_______, e_______, and e________.
|
|
Definition
neutrophils; macrophages; proteolytic; alveolar; inflammation; edema; exudate |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
With emphysema, what else is destroyed and how does that affect gas exchange in the alveoli?
|
|
Definition
With emphysema, elastin and collagen are also destroyed, causing a loss of elasticity; air enters lungs easily but gets trapped, causing hyperinflation of alveoli |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
With emphysema, what can the development of blebs and bullae cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
With emphysema, what can the loss of alveolar walls and capillaries (decr. gas exchange) cause?
|
|
Definition
hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and respiratory acidosis |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True of False-
With emphysema, ABG abnormalities occur early in the dz process. |
|
Definition
False-
ABG abnormalities occur late in the dz process; over time, renal compensation will also occur |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is defined as a productive cough for 3 months in each of 2 successive yrs in a pt. in whom other causes of the chronic cough have been R/O and is AKA the "blue bloater?" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What causes chronic bronchitis and what can exacerbate its S/S? |
|
Definition
caused by hyperplasia and hypertrophy of mucus glands; can be exacerbated by a virus, bacteria, or irritants |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Early in chronic bronchitis, a pt.'s exam may be n_______ or show only p____ expiration or w______ upon forced exhalation. |
|
Definition
normal; prolonged; wheezes |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
As chronic bronchitis progresses, the pt. will present w/ d____ breath sounds, w_____, c______ at lung bases, d______ heart sounds, incr. r_____ to percussion, and b____-s____ chest. |
|
Definition
decreased; wheezes; crackles; distant; resonance; barrel-shaped |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
With end-stage chronic bronchitis, the pt. will position to relieve d_____ (i.e. "tripoding"), use a______ m_____ to breathe, breathe thru p_____ lips, and will have neck vein d______. |
|
Definition
dyspnea; accessory muscles; pursed; distention |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How is COPD dx? |
|
Definition
1. Spirometry showing airflow limitation is the hallmark for diagnosis (pre & post bronchodilator admin)
2. Presence of symptoms compatible with COPD (dyspnea at rest or on exertion, cough with or without sputum production, progressive limitation of activity)
3. Must R/O airway obstruction due to other diseases (e.g. cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, obliterative bronchiolitis)
|
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Lung volumes measured for COPD are f____ v_____ c_____ (FVC), f_____ e______ v_____ in ___ second (FEV1), r_____ v_____ (RV), and t_____ l_____ c________ (TLC).
|
|
Definition
forced vital capacity; forced expiratory volume; 1; residual volume;
total lung capacity |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Which lung volume is most profoundly affected by COPD? How? |
|
Definition
residual volume (RV) is most profoundly affected; pt. will present with an increase in volume, which reflects stale, trapped air remaining in lungs
|
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
With lung volumes and COPD, when is a definitive dx made? |
|
Definition
with lung volumes, a definitive COPD dx is made when FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 sec)/FVC (forced vital capacity) ratio is <0.70 (as the dz progresses, this ratio will become even smaller) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is an acute incr. in symptoms beyond the normal day-to-day variation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Name a few things that exacerbate COPD. |
|
Definition
viral/bacterial infections; environmental allergens/pollutants; MI; CHF; pulmonary embolism; aging |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How is a COPD exacerbation dx? |
|
Definition
1. CXR- R/O CHF & pneumothorax
2. ABGs and pulse ox- differentiate between acidosis/alkalosis & metabolic/resp. etiology
3. Other labs (CBC, BNP, BMP) to R/O other causes
4. CT- R/O pulmonary embolism (rarely done unless suspected)
5. sputum cultures |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
The goals of COPD exacerbation tx include: identifying and treating the c_____ of exacerbation if possible; optimizing lung function with b______ and other meds; assuring adequate o______ and secretion c________; preventing the need for i________; preventing complications of i________; and addressing n_______ needs. |
|
Definition
cause; bronchodilators; oxygenation; clearance; intubation; immobility; nutritional |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Beta-adrenergic agonist, Anticholinergic agents, Glucocorticoids, ATBs, or Methylxanthines?-
Not used anymore due to lack of efficacy and incr. of side effects; may see outpatient on oral theophylline, which will require regular bloodwork to check therapeutic levels.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the therapeutic range for theophylline? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Beta-adrenergic agonist, Anticholinergic agents, Glucocorticoids, ATBs, or Methylxanthines?-
Disrupts all known production pathways of inflammatory mediators; used for prevention. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Beta-adrenergic agonist, Anticholinergic agents, Glucocorticoids, ATBs, or Methylxanthines?-
Often start pt. on broad spectrum kind and then change kind as sputum cultures grow with sensitivity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Beta-adrenergic agonist, Anticholinergic agents, Glucocorticoids, ATBs, or Methylxanthines?-
Examples are predisone, dexamethasone, methylpredisone, fluticasone, beclomethasone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Beta-adrenergic agonist, Anticholinergic agents, Glucocorticoids, ATBs, or Methylxanthines?-
Relaxes the muscles surrounding the airways, helping decrease airway restriction; can be short- or long-acting; admin via nebulizer or MDI. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Beta-adrenergic agonist, Anticholinergic agents, Glucocorticoids, ATBs, or Methylxanthines?-
Short-acting form is ipratropium; long-acting form is tiotropium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Beta-adrenergic agonist, Anticholinergic agents, Glucocorticoids, ATBs, or Methylxanthines?-
Acts like caffeine to cause bronchodilation by relaxing bronchiolar smooth muscles through inhibiting an enzyme that breaks down the intracellular trigger for relaxation; used to prevent asthma attack or stop one. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Beta-adrenergic agonist, Anticholinergic agents, Glucocorticoids, ATBs, or Methylxanthines?-
Causes bronchodilation by relaxing bronchiolar smooth muscle thru binding to and activating pulmonary beta2 receptors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Beta-adrenergic agonist, Anticholinergic agents, Glucocorticoids, ATBs, or Methylxanthines?-
Primary use is fast-acting "rescue" drug; admin via nebulizer or MDI. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Beta-adrenergic agonist, Anticholinergic agents, Glucocorticoids, ATBs, or Methylxanthines?-
Involves the parasympathetic nervous system and norepinephrine in bronchodilation; purpose is both "rescue" and prevention. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Beta-adrenergic agonist, Anticholinergic agents, Glucocorticoids, ATBs, or Methylxanthines?-
Short-acting (SABA) = albuterol and levalbuterol; long-acting (LABA) = salmeterol. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What resp. medication blocks the leukotriene receptors, preventing the inflammatory mediator from stimulating inflammation; purpose is prevention of attack? |
|
Definition
leukotriene antagonist (montelukast) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
A pt. w/ COPD can NEVER have too much oxygen. |
|
Definition
False-
COPD pts. are often chronically hypercapnic and have learned to live w/ that; too high/too much oxygen will cause them to lose their hypoxic drive, which is what is keeping them breathing |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
The goal oxygen sat range for a COPD pt. is 90-94%. |
|
Definition
True- COPD pts. are used to breathing well below the normal oxygen sat levels (95-100%) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some common side effects of beta-adrenergic agonists? |
|
Definition
fast/irregular heartbeat, anxiety, headache, nervousness |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What some are common side effects of beta-adrenergic agonists? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some more serious side effects of beta-adrenergic agonists?
|
|
Definition
chest pain, syncope, hives, incr. BP, confusion, unsual tiredness/weakness, trouble urinating, N & V, muscle cramps |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some common side effects of anticholinergic agents?
|
|
Definition
mild cough, xerostomia (dry mouth), headache, dizziness, sore throat, heart palpitations, nausea |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some more serious side effects of anticholinergic agents? |
|
Definition
allergic reactions, closed-angle glaucoma (rare), MI (rare), and stroke (rare) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some common side effects of methylxanthines (theophylline)? |
|
Definition
anxiety, tachycardia, N & V |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some more serious side effects of methylxanthines (theophylline)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some common side effects of glucocorticoids? |
|
Definition
high blood glucose, wt. gain, easy bruising, yeast infections of mouth and throat, and hoarseness |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some more serious side effects of glucocorticoids? |
|
Definition
immunosuppression, muscle breakdown/weakness, cataracts, glaucoma, and adrenal insufficiency |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some common side effects of leukotriene antagonists (monteleukast)? |
|
Definition
headache, insomnia, restlessness, epistaxis, abdominal pain, incr. liver enzymes |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some more serious side effects of leukotriene antagonists (monteleukast)? |
|
Definition
suicidal thoughts and Churg-Strauss Syndrome (an abnormally high production and release of eosinophils, which causes extreme inflammation) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some nursing dx for COPD? (just be familiar w/ a few) |
|
Definition
—Impaired Gas Exchange; Ineffective Breathing Pattern; Ineffective Airway Clearance; Imbalanced Nutrition; Anxiety; —Activity Intolerance
Also: fatigue, knowledge deficit, sexual dysfunction, impaired spontaneous ventilation, disturbed sleep, disturbed thought processes, ineffective coping, & ineffective role performance
|
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the priority nursing intervention for COPD pts.?
|
|
Definition
monitoring oxygenation and admin oxygen therapy PRN |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some other nursing interventions for COPD pts.? |
|
Definition
pt. teaching r/t drugs, exercise, energy conservation, nutrition, and breathing techniques; positioning of pt. (upright); encouraging of deep breathing/coughing; chest PT; maintain hydration/nutritional status; prompt tx of infection; and offer emotional support/counseling referral |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is defined as a chronic inflammatory airway disorder assoc. w/ airway hyper-responsiveness that leads to episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and coughing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
When are asthmatic episodes usually worse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
Asthma attacks will always require a tx (medication) to resolve the airway obstruction. |
|
Definition
False-
airway obstruction is spontaneously reversible and reversible w/ tx |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
With long-term asthma characterized by irreversible obstruction, it may be referred to as "o_____ a_____," which is a subtype of C_____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
All asthmatics have COPD. |
|
Definition
False- not all asthmatics fall under the COPD subtype of "obstructive asthma" because some asthmatic's airway obstructions are reversible |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the main immunoglobulin and main cell type associated with asthma? |
|
Definition
the main immunoglobulin = IgE
the main cell type = mast cells |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
More serious complications of asthma include: r____ fractures; p_____; a______; and p_______. |
|
Definition
rib; pneumothorax; atelectasis; pneumonia |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is a severe, life-threatening form of asthma that is characterized by severe, prolonged asthma symptoms that are unresponsive to usual tx? |
|
Definition
status asthmaticus (the tx is the same as for asthma, just incr. the dose and frequency of bronchodilators) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are the goals of asthma tx? |
|
Definition
1. control/prevent exacerbations (Rx, id/avoid irritants/precipitating factors)
2. improve air flow
3. relieve symptoms (rescue Rx, asthma action plan) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the ONLY injected medication for the tx/maintenance of chronic asthma? |
|
Definition
Omalizumab, an immunomodulator |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How does Omalizumab administered and how does it work to tx chronic asthma? |
|
Definition
Omalizumab is admin via subcut inj. q2-4wks; it works by inhibiting IgE from binding to mast cells and basophils, which then prevents allergens from triggering the inflammatory response |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some common side effects of Omalizumab? |
|
Definition
pain @ inj. site, headache, joint/muscle pain, dizziness, cold-like symptoms |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the most serious side effect of Omalizumab? |
|
Definition
allergic reaction (S/S = trouble breathing, hives, syncope, warmth/tingling of skin, and swelling of face, lips, tongue, or throat) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What other Rx are used for tx/maintenance of chronic asthma S/S? |
|
Definition
1. leukotriene modifiers (montelukast)
2. long-acting beta agonists (LABAs- salmeterol)
3. inhaled corticosteroids (fluticasone) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are the Rx for "rescue" therapy for asthma? |
|
Definition
1. short-acting beta agonists (SABAs- albuterol)
2. short-acting anticholinergics (ipratropium)
3. corticosteroids (Oral- prednisone, IV, IM)
4. Oxygen
5. methylxanthines (last ditch effort) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How do you use an inhaler w/ a spacer? |
|
Definition
1. shake whole unit vigorously 3-4x
2. insert mouthpiece into mouth, over tongue and w/ lips sealed around it
3. breathe in medication slowly and deeply
4. hold breath for @ least 10 sec
5. wait @ least 1 min between puffs
6. clean @ least 1x/day |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the preferred method of use for an inhaler w/out a spacer? |
|
Definition
1. tilt head back slightly and breathe out fully
2. hold mouthpiece 1-2 inches away from mouth
3. breathe in medication slowly and deeply for 3-5 sec
4. hold breath for @ least 10 sec
5. wait @ least 1 min between puffs
6. clean @ least 1x/day |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is a bacterial infectious dz of the resp. system affecting the lungs that is spread via airborne droplet transmission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What other areas of the body can be affected by TB? |
|
Definition
kidneys, bones, lymph nodes, and meninges |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
TB can be spread through c____, s_____, and s_____ but is more commonly spread via r______ exposure of a close, frequent, and prolonged nature. |
|
Definition
coughs; sneezes; speaking; repeated |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
The infecting bacterium, tubercle bacillus, can remain dormant for years, then reactivate and produce clinical TB. |
|
Definition
True-
which is why repeated 2-step TB testing is required frequently for all health care personnel |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Who is at highest risk for contracting TB? |
|
Definition
immigrants to the U.S., emerging resistant organisms, people with HIV, immunosuppressed, homeless, elderly, institutionalized people (i.e. hospitals, jails/prisons, nursing homes), and native americans |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What information should the RN obtain during an interview r/t TB hx? |
|
Definition
1. ask about exposure
2. ask about country of origin or foreign travel
3. ask about results of previous TB tests
4. ask about BCG vaccine |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the BCG vaccine and what does it do? |
|
Definition
In many foreign countries (not in the U.S.), the BCG vaccine, which contains attenuated tubercle bacilli, is used to incr. resistance to TB |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What should the RN know about a pt. who has received the BCG vaccine? |
|
Definition
The RN should expect a positive skin test if the BCG vaccine was given w/in the last 10 yrs; the RN should also have the pt. evaluated for TB via CXR, regardless of when vaccine was received |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
The stages of TB are: g______ inflammation; c_______ n______ in the center of the lesion; r_______/d_______/f_______; possible c________; and finally, it may s_______ thru the body. |
|
Definition
glanulomatous; caseation necrosis; resorption/degeneration/fibrosis; cavitation; spread |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
The general S/S of TB include: unexplained wt. _____; _____ of appetite; night s______; f_____; f______; and c______. |
|
Definition
loss; loss; sweats; fever; fatigue; chills |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are the hallmark S/S of TB infection of the lungs? |
|
Definition
coughing for >3 weeks, hemoptysis, and chest pain |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How is TB tentatively dx? |
|
Definition
1. sputum positive for acid-fast bacillus = need for further testing
2. CXR
3. 24-hr ELISA rapid blood test
4. TB skin test |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How is TB definitively dx? |
|
Definition
sputum culture positive for M. Tuberculosis (takes 1-4 wks for culture and confirmation) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
A positive PPD (skin test) indicates active TB and contagiousness. |
|
Definition
False-
A positive PPD does NOT indicate active TB and does NOT indicate contagiousness |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
False positives never occur with PPD; the PPD test is 100% accurate. |
|
Definition
False-
false positives can be assoc. w/ erroneous planting of PPD and incorrect reading of the test |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some reasons for a false negative PPD result? |
|
Definition
planting too deep in elderly or newborns; giving too small a dose; and exposure of vaccine to heat and/or light |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
A person w/ latent TB will have an abnormal CXR, postive PPD, postive sputum test, and will be exhibiting S/S of TB infection. |
|
Definition
False-
A person w/ latent TB will have a normal CXR, a negative sputum test, and will not be exhibiting S/S of TB infection; this person WILL have a positive PPD, which may be the only indication of the infection! |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
A person w/ latent TB should still be tx as if they have an active infection. |
|
Definition
True- this person should still receive tx so that the latent TB does not develop into an active TB infection |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How long must TB be tx? |
|
Definition
1. initial phase of 2 months
2. continuation phase of 4-7 months (extended by 28 wks if cavitation exists on CXR and/or sputum cultures are positive after 2 mos of tx) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How many drugs are approved by the FDA for tx of TB? |
|
Definition
10, but only 4 make-up the first-line anti-TB agents that form the core of tx regimens |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are the 4 first-line anti-TB agents that form the core of tx regimens? |
|
Definition
1. isoniazid (INH)
2. rifampin (RIF)
3. ethambutol (EMB)
4. pyraxinamide (PZA) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the major adverse effect of all anti-TB meds? |
|
Definition
hepatoxicity, which will require periodic labs |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What can be an alarming side effect that is common w/ rifampin (RIF) use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How is an active TB infection managed? |
|
Definition
1. respiratory isolation (i.e. Airborne Precautions- HEPA respirator masks, gowns, gloves)
2. contact investigation
3. direct observation therapy (watch pt. swallow all meds)
4. response to therapy evaluated via symptom resolution/improvement
5. well-balanced nutrition
6. TB drugs can cause nausea, so give @ bedtime |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some nursing dx assoc. w/ TB? (just know a few) |
|
Definition
—Impaired Gas Exchange r/t disease progression; —Ineffective Airway Clearance r/t increased secretions & fatigue; —Deficient Knowledge r/t lack of information; —Fatigue; Imbalanced Nutrition; Social Isolation
|
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is excess fluid in the lungs resulting from inflammatory process as a result of an infectious organism (bacteria or viral) usually contracted via inhalation?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What causes the inflammation in pneumonia? |
|
Definition
WBCs migrate to area of infection -> capillaries leak, edema begins, exudate forms |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is a major nursing dx assoc. w/ pneumonia? Why? |
|
Definition
Nursing dx: Impaired oxygenation
Why?: fluid collects in and around the alveoli, causing the alveolar walls to thicken, which results in decr. in efficient gas exchange |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
The risk factors of pneumonia include: being an o____ adult; C____; i______; d_____; recent exposure to r____ or i_____ virus; use of drugs that cause decr. g____ a_____; intubation/t_____/NGT; and s______. |
|
Definition
older; COPD; immunosuppressed; dysphagia; respiratory; influenza; gastric acidity; tracheostomy; smoking |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are the generic S/S of pneumonia? |
|
Definition
fatigue, headache, fever, chills, cough (generic b/c these are common S/S of many conditions) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are the more tell-tale S/S of pneumonia when present w/ the generic S/S? |
|
Definition
chest/pleuritic pain/discomfort; tachycardia; dyspnea; tachypnea; incr. sputum production; crackles & wheezing upon auscultation |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
A geriatric pt. may have an atypical presentation of pneumonia, exhibiting m_____ s_____ change and possibly be a______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How is a definitive dx of pneumonia made? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
Regardless of cause of pneumonia, all pts. will be tx w/ ATBs. |
|
Definition
False-
if the cause of the pneumonia is viral, no ATBs will be given b/c viral infections do not respond to ATBs |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
ATB therapy for pneumonia will generally be broad-spectrum to begin w/, then tailored to specific organism once its identified. |
|
Definition
True-
sputum cultures and other lab tests can help id the organism and dictate a more targeted ATB regimen |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Symptom management of pneumonia includues: f_____; a_____; and b______. |
|
Definition
fluids; antipyretics; bronchodilators |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Tx for pneumonia will also include: o_____; i_____ s______ to prevent pooling of fluid in airways; and encouragement of c____ and d_____ breathing. |
|
Definition
oxygen; incentive spirometry; cough; deep |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Besides Impaired Oxygenation, what are some other nursing dx for pneumonia? (just be familiar w/ a few) |
|
Definition
Impaired Gas Exchange r/t alveolar capillary membrane changes; Ineffective Airway Clearance r/t effects of infection, increased secretions, etc.; Acute pain; Deficient fluid volume; Disturbed Sleep Pattern; Potential for Pleural Effusion
|
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is an inflammatory process in which connective tissue plugs form in the lower airways and in the tissues between alveoli, causing obliterated airways? |
|
Definition
bronchiolitis obliternas organizing pneumonia (BOOP) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
BOOP is considered a true pneumonia and is assoc. w/ smoking and tobacco use. |
|
Definition
False-
BOOP is not considered a true pneumonia and is not assoc. w/ smoking or tobacco use |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What triggers BOOP? |
|
Definition
infectious organisms, chest radiation therapy, solid organ transplants (may be part of acute rejection) and drugs (i.e. chemotherapy agents, ATBs, anti-seizure drugs, amiodarone, and cocaine) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
The S/S of BOOP include: d_____; f_____; m____ cough; f__-l____ symptoms; and c____ heard upon auscultation. |
|
Definition
dyspnea; fever; mild; flu-like; crackles |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
S/S of BOOP may resolve s______ or r_____ progress; S/S usually _____ improve w/ standard ATB therapy. |
|
Definition
spontaneously; rapidly; don't |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
Dx of BOOP is easy and done via CXR. |
|
Definition
False-
dx of BOOP is DIFFICULT due to non-specific S/S; definitive dx is done via BIOPSY W/ HISTOLOGICAL FINDINGS
|
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
The tx of BOOP that is most effective is c_____ therapy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is an acute viral dz that is highly contagious, occurs in adults of all ages, and is spread via droplet tranmission from person-to-person? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Transmission from person-to-person of influenza is most common in the first __-__ days of the illness. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
May be able to dx influenza w/ p___-of-c____ testing (n____ swab or a____); lab testing exists, but takes __ wks, so influenza is most often dx & tx based on s______ and health t___ in the area. |
|
Definition
patient-of-care; nasal; aspirate; 2; symptoms; trends |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are the treatments for influenza? |
|
Definition
antivirals, antipyretics, fluids, anti-emetics/anti-diarrheals |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What can, if admin. early, shorten the duration of fever/illness symptoms and possibly reduce the risk of complications assoc. w/ influenza? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How early into influenza infection should antivirals be admin. in order to be most effective? |
|
Definition
w/in 48 hrs of the onset of illness |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
True or False-
The CDC recommends the widespread/routine use of antivirals. |
|
Definition
False-
The CDC does NOT recommend widespread/routine use of antiviral medications b/c they could incr. the possibilities of antiviral-resistant viruses emerging |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are the 2 FDA-approved antivirals for tx of influenza? |
|
Definition
1. Oseltamivir
2. Zanamivir |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are some nursing dx for influenza?
(just be familiar w/ a few) |
|
Definition
Risk for deficient fluid volume; Risk for electrolyte imbalance; Nausea; Acute pain; Imbalanced nutrition; Ineffective protection d/t failure to get influenza vaccination; Diarrhea
|
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the most common pulmonary complication in hospitalized pts that mostly result from thrombi in deep veins of legs (DVT)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Other causes of pulmonary embolism include: a_____ fibrilation; prolonged i______; o_____; and h_____ states.
|
|
Definition
atrial; immobilization; obesity; hypercoagulability |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Other than deep veins of legs, pulmonary emboli can also develop in u____ e____ and p____ veins. |
|
Definition
upper extremities; pelvic |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Complications of pulmonary emboli include: pulmonary i____ and pulmonary H___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Clinical manisfestations of pulmonary emboli include: sudden d_____, t_____, & t_____; c_____; c_____ pain; h_____; c_____; f_____; and p_____ of chest & axillae. |
|
Definition
dyspnea, tachycardia, tachypnea; cough; chest; hemoptysis; crackles; fever; petechiae |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
More serious manifestations of pulmonary emboli include: accentuation of pulmonic heart sound S__; sudden change in m____ s_____; and s_____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
A m____ emboli may produce shock; a m_____ emobli may produce pleuritic chest pain; and a s____ emboli may go undetected. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
How is pulmonary embolus dx when in chest? How is it dx when suspected in extremities? |
|
Definition
chest- spiral CT scan
extremities- ultrasound |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What are the goals of tx for pulmonary embolus? |
|
Definition
1. incr. gas exchange
2. improved pulmonary perfusion
3. elimination of embolus
4. prevention of complications
5. oxygen therapy PRN
6. IV fluids for volume and to prevent shock |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
The tx of pulmonary embolus includes: a_____ drugs; b_____; n_______ for pain; t_____ agents; pulmonary e_____; or ____ vena cava interruption. |
|
Definition
antianxiety; bedrest; narcotics; thrombolytic; embolectomy; inferior |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
For a pulmonary embolus, when should thrombolytic agents be administered in order to be most effective? And what kind is most commonly admin? |
|
Definition
w/ 24-48 hrs; tPa is most commonly admin |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the role of heparin and warfarin in tx of pulmonary embolus? |
|
Definition
heparin and warfarin do not dissolve the clot; they help prevent additional clot formation |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
Which is administered 1st in tx of pulmonary emboli: heparin or warfarin? |
|
Definition
heparin first, then warfarin for 3-6 wks |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is a normal INR range compared to an INR range of a pt. taking warfarin? |
|
Definition
normal- 1 to 2 sec
warfarin- 2 to 3 sec |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What should the RN tell the pt. about warfarin and vitamin K? |
|
Definition
warfarin interferes w/ how your body uses vitamin K and vitamin K dependent clotting factors by inhibiting them; the pt. should keep their intake of vitamin K consistent every day |
|
|
Term
Care of Pts. w/ Resp. Dysfunction:
What is the most important teaching point for a pt. on warfarin? |
|
Definition
pts. should be taught about bleeding risks and how to manage a hemorrhage if it occurs |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
On the pH scale, __-__ is acidic, __ is neutral, and __-__ is alkalotic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
PH is i______ proportional to the amount of H+ in the blood, so the higher the H+, the ______ the pH and the lower the H+, the ______ the pH. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Normal blood pH is 7.__-7.__. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
_______ state can only exist from either too much CO2 or too little HCO3. _______ state can only exist from too little CO2 or too much HCO3. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What are the body's 2 compensation mechanisms to maintain neutral pH? |
|
Definition
1. resp. system- lungs
2. metabolic system- renal |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
As blood becomes more acidotic (____ pH), kidneys retain ____ and lungs attempt to expel ____ by increased respirations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
As blood becomes more alkalotic (____ pH), kidneys excrete ____ in the urine; respirations _____ change in an attempt to compensate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is defined as a pH of <7.35 w/ a Paco2 >45 mmHg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What causes resp. acidosis? |
|
Definition
Any condition that causes hypoventilation (i.e. CNS depression from head injury/drugs, SCI impairing resp. muscle func., atelectasis, pneumonia, pneumothorax, pulm. edema, massive pulm. embolus, chest wall injury/deformity, or abdom. distention) |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Resp. acidosis can be caused by any condition that causes ____ventilation, including: C____ depression from head injury/drugs, S____ impairing resp. muscle func., a_____, p______, p_______, pulm. e_____, massive pulm. e______, chest wall i______/d______, or abdom. d_______. |
|
Definition
hypo; CNS; SCI; atelectasis; pneumonia; pneumothorax; edema; embolus; injury/deformity; distention |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
The S/S of resp acidosis are: _______ = dyspnea, resp. distress, shallow resp.; ________ = headache, restlessness, confusion; and _______ = tachycardia, dysrhythmias. |
|
Definition
pulmonary; neurological; cardiovascular |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
How do you manage resp. acidosis? |
|
Definition
1. incr. ventilation to "blow off" excess H+ (supp. oxygen, mech. vent, etc)
2. correct underlying problem if possible (naloxone to reverse OD or effects of anesthesia, stabilize traumatic inj. or pulm. disorders) |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
True or False-
Oxygen alone will correct resp. acidosis. |
|
Definition
False-
oxygen will help stabilize, but ultimately the underlying issue needs to be addressed for full recovery (if possible) |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is defined as a pH >7.45 w/ Paco2 <35 mmHg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What causes resp. alkalosis? |
|
Definition
Any condition that causes hyperventilation (i.e. psych resp. like fear/anxiety, pain, incr. metabolic demands like fever/sepsis/pregnancy/thyrotoxicosis, Rx like resp. stimulants, CNS lesions) |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Any condition that causes Resp. alkalosis is caused by any condtion that causes _____ventilation including: psych resp. like f_____/a_____; p_____; incr. metabolic demands like f_____, s_____, p_____, t________; Rx like resp. s______, and C___ lesions. |
|
Definition
hyper; fear/anxiety; pain; fever; sepsis; pregnancy; thyrotoxicosis; stimulants; CNS |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
The S/S of resp. alkalosis include: _______ = light-headedness, numbness/tingling, confusion, inability to concentrate, blurred vision; ______ = dysrhythmias, palpitations, diaphoresis; and ______ = xerostomia, tetanic spasms of arms/legs. |
|
Definition
neurological; cardiovascular; miscellaneous |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is the tx of resp. alkalosis? If untx, what could happen? |
|
Definition
Tx of resp. alkalosis is to correct the underlying cause; if untx, resp. failure could ensue |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is defined as bicarb level <22 mEq/L with a pH of <7.35? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What causes metabolic acidosis? |
|
Definition
Caused by either a deficit of base in the bloodstream or an excess of acids other than CO2 (i.e. renal failure, DKA, diarrhea/intest. fistulas, anaerobic metabolism, starvation, salicylate intoxication) |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Metabolic acidosis is caused by either a deficit in b_____ in the bloodstream or an excess of a_____ other than CO2 including: r____ failure; D____; d_____/intest. f______; anaerobic m______; s______; or s______ intoxication. |
|
Definition
base; acids; renal; DKA; diarrhea; fistulas; metabolism; starvation; salicylate |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
The S/S of metabolic acidosis include: _____ = headache, confusion, restlessness, lethargy, stupor, coma; _____ = dysrhythmias, warm/flushed skin; ______ = Kussmaul's resp.; and ______ = N & V.
|
|
Definition
neurological; cardiovascular; pulmonary; GI |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What are Kussmaul's resp. and w/ which condition are they assoc.? |
|
Definition
A type of labored or hyperventilation characterized by a consistently deep and
rapid respiratory pattern; assoc. w/ metabolic acidosis
|
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
How do you tx metabolic acidosis? |
|
Definition
tx will depend upon the cause; will often resolve independently if underlysing cause is tx |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is one specific tx intervention for metabolic acidosis? What are the adverse effects of this tx? |
|
Definition
bicarb replacement is one specific tx for metabolic acidosis; however, it can cause potentially serious adverse effects like fluid overload, hypokalemia, and hypercapnia |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is defined as a bicarb level >26 mEq/L w/ a pH of >7.45? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What causes metabolic alkalosis? |
|
Definition
caused by an excess of base or a loss of acid w/in the body (i.e. excess use of antacids, excess use of bicarb/lactate in dialysis, produced vomiting, gastric suction, hypochloremia, excess admin of diuretics) |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Metabolic alkalosis is caused by an ______ of base or a ______of acid w/in the body including: excess use of a______; excess use of b___/l_____ in dialysis; produced v_____; gastric s______; h______; or excess admin of d_____. |
|
Definition
excess; loss; antacids; bicarb/lactate; vomiting; suction; hypochloremia; diuretics |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Metabolic alkalosis S/S include: _____ = depression; _____ = dizziness, lethargy, disorientation, seizures, coma; ______ = weakness, muscle twitching/cramps, tetany; _____ = N & V; and high levels of a_______. |
|
Definition
pulmonary; neurological; muskuloskeletal; GI; aldosterone |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
How is metabolic alkalosis tx? |
|
Definition
tx is difficult w/ slow improvement; may give pt. acetazolamide to force bicarb excretion from the kidneys |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
Normal range is -2 to +2 mEq/L. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
Normal range is 7.35-7.45. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
Normal range is 22-26 mEq/L. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
Normal range is 80-100 mmHg. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
Normal range is 35-45 mmHg. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
Normal range is 95-100%. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
What is the measurement of acidity or alkalinity, based upon H+ ions present (<7.35 = acidosis/>7.45 = alkalosis)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
Indicates the amount of excess of insufficient level of bicarb in the system; a - base = deficit in the blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
What is the partial pressure of oxygen that is dissolved in the arterial blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
What is the calculated value of the amount of bicarb in the bloodstream (>26 = alkalosis/<22 = acidosis)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
What is the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the arterial blood (>45 = acidosis/<35 = alkalosis)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
pH, PO2, SaO2, pCO2, HCO3, or B.E.?-
The arterial oxygen saturation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is the 1st step to interpreting ABGs? |
|
Definition
Id whether pH, pCO2, and HCO3 are abnormal; the 2 matching values (norm vs. acid vs. alkaline) will determine what the problem is |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is the 2nd step to interpreting ABGs? |
|
Definition
If ABG results are abnormal, determine if abnormality is due to kidneys (metab) or lungs (resp); match the 2 abnormalities (metab vs. resp w/ acidosis vs. alkalosis) |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in the blanks w/ acid, alkaline, or norm-
pH: 7.30 (7.35-7.45) ___?___
pCO2: 55 (35-45) ___?___
HCO3: 26 (22-26) ___?___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in the blank w/ metab or resp-
pH: 7.30 (7.35-7.45) ACID
pCO2: 55 (35-45) ACID ___?___
HCO3: 26 (22-26) NORM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What kind of problem is this?-
pH: 7.30 (7.35-7.45) ACID
pCO2: 55 (35-45) ACID RESP
HCO3: 26 (22-26) NORM |
|
Definition
this is respiratory acidosis |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in the blanks w/ acid, alkaline, or norm-
pH: 7.50 (7.35-7.45) ___?___
pCO2: 30 (35-45) ___?___
HCO3: 24 (22-26) ___?___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in the blank w/ metab or resp-
pH: 7.50 (7.35-7.45) ALKALINE
pCO2: 30 (35-45) ALKALINE __?__
HCO3: 24 (22-26) NORM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What kind of problem is this?-
pH: 7.50 (7.35-7.45) ALKALINE
pCO2: 30 (35-45) ALKAINE RESP
HCO3: 24 (22-26) NORM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in the blanks w/ acid, alkaline, or norm-
pH: 7.47 (7.35-7.45) __?__
pCO2: 37 (35-45) __?__
HCO3: 28 (22-26) __?__ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in the blank w/ metab or resp-
pH: 7.47 (7.35-7.45) ALKALINE
pCO2: 37 (35-45) NORM
HCO3: 28 (22-26) ALKALINE __?__ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What kind of problem is this?-
pH: 7.47 (7.35-7.45) ALKALINE
pCO2: 37 (35-45) NORM
HCO3: 28 (22-26) ALKALINE METAB |
|
Definition
this is metabolic alkalosis |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in the blanks w/ acid, alkaline, or norm-
pH: 7.25 (7.35-7.45) __?__
pCO2: 40 (35-45) __?__
HCO3: 19 (22-26) __?__ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in the blank w/ metab or resp-
pH: 7.25 (7.35-7.45) ACID
pCO2: 40 (35-45) NORM
HCO3: 19 (22-26) ACID__?__ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What kind of problem is this?-
pH: 7.25 (7.35-7.45) ACID
pCO2: 40 (35-45) NORM
HCO3: 19 (22-26) ACID METAB |
|
Definition
this is metabolic acidosis |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is it called when the body attempts to correct its acid-base imbalance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What are the 3 types of compensation? |
|
Definition
1. partial
2. full
3. uncompensated |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
With ______ or ______ compensation, the pH remains outside the normal range; with _____ compensation, the pH has returned to normal, but other values may still be abnormal. |
|
Definition
uncompensated; partial; full |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is the 1st step in interpreting ABGs w/ compensation? |
|
Definition
If pCO2 and HCO3 are BOTH ABNORMAL use single value of 7.40 as only "normal" for pH, determine if pH is <7.40 (acidosis) or >7.40 (alkalosis) |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is the 2nd step to interpreting ABGs w/ compensation? |
|
Definition
If pCO2 and HCO3 are BOTH ABNORMAL and pH is abnormal, the 2 matching values will determine what the problem is |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is the 3rd step to interpreting ABGs w/ compensation? |
|
Definition
determine if the abnormality is due to metab (kidneys) or resp (lungs); then match the 2 abnormalities to come up w/ condition |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What is the 4th step to interpreting ABGs w/ compensation? |
|
Definition
once you've identified the condition, determine if its partially or fully compensated: pH of 7.35-7.45 = fully compensated; if pH is outside of 7.35-7.45 range, then its partially compensated |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in the blanks w/ acid, alkaline, or norm-
pH: 7.38 (now 7.40) ?
pCO2: 56 (35-45) ?
HCO3: 35 (22-26) ?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in the blank w/ metab or resp-
pH: 7.38 (now 7.40) ACID
pCO2: 56 (35-45) ACID __?__
HCO3: 35 (22-26) ALKALINE
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What kind of problem is this?-
pH: 7.38 (now 7.40) ACID
pCO2: 56 (35-45) ACID RESP
HCO3: 35 (22-26) ALKALINE |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What kind of compensation is this?-
pH: 7.38 (now 7.40) ACID
pCO2: 56 (35-45) ACID RESP
HCO3: 35 (22-26) ALKALINE |
|
Definition
b/c the pH is within the "regular" normal range (7.35-7.45), we would consider this to be fully compensated |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in blanks w/ acid, alkaline, or norm-
pH: 7.46 (now 7.40) __?__
pCO2: 56 (35-45) __?__
HCO3: 35 (22-26) __?__ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
Fill in blank w/ metab or resp-
pH: 7.46 (now 7.40) ALKALINE
pCO2: 56 (35-45) ACID
HCO3: 35 (22-26) ALKALINE __?__ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What kind of problem is this?-
pH: 7.46 (now 7.40) ALKALINE
pCO2: 56 (35-45) ACID
HCO3: 35 (22-26) ALKALINE METAB |
|
Definition
this is metabolic alkalosis |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
What kind of compensation is this?-
pH: 7.46 (now 7.40) ALKALINE
pCO2: 56 (35-45) ACID
HCO3: 35 (22-26) ALKALINE METAB |
|
Definition
b/c the pH is outside the "regular" normal range (7.35-7.45), we would consider this to be partially compensated
|
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
ABGs can be obtained from any a____, although the r____ is the most common site. ABGs are usually obtained in a g____ or p____ h______ syringe to prevent coagulation. |
|
Definition
artery; radial; glass; plastic; heparinized |
|
|
Term
Acid-base & ABG Interpretation:
True or False-
Once the specimen is obtained, pack the specimen in a plastic bag as is; the elimination of air bubbles is not necessary. |
|
Definition
False-
Once the specimen is obtained, ALL air bubbles should be removed and the specimen should then be packed in ice to stop cell metabolism during transport to lab |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
The normal flow of blood thru the heart:
___ atrium -> ____ valve -> ___ ventricle -> ____ valve -> _____ -> ___ atrium -> _____ valve -> ___ ventricle -> ____ valve -> _____ circulation |
|
Definition
R; tricuspid; R; pulmonic; lungs; L; mitral; L; aortic; systemic |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are the normal cardiovascular changes occurring w/ age? |
|
Definition
1. Hypertrohpy of L ventricle
2. remodeling after certain dz processes
3. fibrosis and calcification of valves
4. Decr. in normal pacemaker cells
5. decr. in ability to respond to stress w/ incr. HR
6. incr. lipid/cholesterol deposits in vessels
7. stiffening of blood vessels |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
D____ = relaxation and filling of atria and ventricles; s____ = contraction and emptying of atria and ventricles; c____ o____ = amount of blood pumped from the left ventricle each minute (Dependent on heart r___ and s____ volume); s____ volume = amount of blood ejected from left ventricle during contraction; p____ = degree of myocardial stretch at the end of diastole and before contraction; a_____ = pressure or resistance that ventricles must overcome to eject blood througgh semilunar valves and into peripheral blood vessels.
|
|
Definition
diastole; systole; cardiac output; rate; stroke; stroke; preload; afterload |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
HTN is dx based upon the average of ___ or more properly measured readings at each of ___ or more visits after an i_____ screeing.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Normal BP = <___/<___ mmHg; preHTN = ___-___/___-___ mmHg; Stage 1 HTN = ___-___/___-___ mmHg; and Stage 2 HTN = equal to/> ___/equal to/> ___. |
|
Definition
120/80; 120-139/80-89; 140-159/90-99; 160/100 |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is the diabetic target BP as recommended by JNC-8? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
True or false-
The pathogenesis of primary ("essential") HTN is poorly understood. |
|
Definition
True- it is poorly understood, but it has been linked to incr. sympathetic neural activity/incr. beta-adrenergic responsiveness; incr. angiotensin II activity & mineralocorticoid excess; genetic factors; decr. adult nephron mass |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some risk factors for HTN?
|
|
Definition
◦Over 60 years old
◦Family history
◦Obesity (excessive eating and low activity)
◦Excessive alcohol intake
◦Hyperlipidemia
◦African-American ethnicity
◦High intake of salt or caffeine
◦Insufficient potassium calcium or magnesium
◦Smoking
◦Stress
◦Vitamin D deficiency
◦Depression
|
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is HTN caused by another dz state or by medications? |
|
Definition
Secondary HTN- caused by dz (i.e. renal dz, primary aldosteronism, Coarc, Cushing's, brain tumor, pregnancy, psych issues, sleep apnea) and meds (i.e. birth control, glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, sympathomimetics) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is HTN that refers to marked HTN w/ retinal hemorrhages, exudates, or papilledema? |
|
Definition
malignant HTN-
usually assoc. w/ diastolic >120 mmHg, but can be assoc. w/ diatolics as low as 100 mmHg w/ preeclampsia or acute glomerulonephritis |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is defined as severe HTN (diastolic = >120 mmHg) in asymptomatic pts? |
|
Definition
hypertensive urgency (note:
There is no proven benefit from rapid reduction in BP in asymptomatic patients who have no evidence of acute end-organ damage and are at little short-term risk)
|
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
True or false-
"White coat HTN" is common, especially in young adults, and there is no way to minimize the effects. |
|
Definition
False- "white coat HTN" is not common, occurs most often in elderly pts., and is thought to be minimized by having the BP measured while seated after 5 minutes in a quiet, unobserved setting by an automated device that obtains 5 repeated BP measurements at 1-5 minute intervals.
|
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
True or false-
Pts. w/ primary HTN are often asymptomatic. |
|
Definition
True- these pts. may only report non-specific S/S of headaches, dizziness, or syncope; more specific S/S occur w/ secondary HTN when the cause of the HTN is dz- or medication-related |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is inovled in an assessment for HTN? |
|
Definition
1. BP readings in BOTH arms
2. assess for orthostatic changes
3. fundoscopic exam (for retinal changes)
4. observation (i.e. sweating & pallor often = pheochromocytoma)
5. assess HR (for tachycardia)
6. auscultation of main arteries (i.e. bruits often = renvascular dz) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Tests that may indicate causes of secondary hypertension include:
Presence of p____, __BC’s, p____ cells & c____ in urine; _____ BUN & Creatinine (poss. r___ disease); Urinary c_____ w/ pheochromocytoma; Serum c____ & increased 17-k_____ w/ Cushing’s; and ____ (poss. anemia d/t chronic kidney disease).
|
|
Definition
protein; R; purulent; casts; elevated; renal; catecholamines; corticoids; ketosteroids; CBC |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Other tests for HTN include: monitoring for e___-o____ damage; no specific x____ (although a C___ can show an enlarged heart); E___; and E___. |
|
Definition
end-organ; x-ray; CXR; ECG; echocardiogram |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Normal range = 135-145 mEq/L; is considered an electrolyte. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Normal range = 100- 110 mEq/L; is considered an electrolyte. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Normal range = 8-26 mg/dL. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Normal range = <1.2 mg/dL. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Normal range = 3.5-5.1 mEq/L; is considered an electrolyte. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Normal range = 74-99 mg/dL. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Critical values = <40 mg/dL and >400 mg/dL. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Critical values = <2.5 mEq/L and >6.5 mEq/L. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Critical values = <120 mEq/L and >160 mEq/L. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Critical value = <4 mg/dL. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Critical values = <80 mEq/L and >115 mEq/L. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Incr. levels = dehydration, metabolic acidosis, Cushing's, excessive infusion of IV normal saline, hyperparathyroidism, resp. alkalosis; decr. levels = overhydration, SIADH, CHF, chronic/excessive vomiting/diarrhea, Addison dz, diuretics, hypokalemia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Incr. levels = may indicate dz affecting kidneys (glomerulonephritis/pyelonephritis/acute tubular necrosis, etc.), CHF, rhabdomyolysis, acromegaly, gigantism; decr. levels = muscular dystrophy, MG, or other conditions w/ decreased muscle mass/debilitation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Incr. levels = DM, acute stress response, chronic renal failure, pancreatitis, diuretics, corticosteroids; decr. levels = hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, extensive liver dz, insulin overdose, starvation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Incr. levels = excessive dietary intake, excessive IV intake, acute/chronic renal failure, aldosterone-inhibiting diuretics (spironolactone), crush injuries, dehydration; decr. levels = deficient dietary intake, deficient IV intake, burn injury, excessive diarrhea/vomiting, diuretics, Cushing's, cystic fibrosis, trauma/surgery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Incr. levels = incr. dietary intake, excessive IV intake, GI loss, excessive sweating, diabetes insipidus; decr. levels = decr. dietary intake, deficient IV intake, excessive diarrhea/vomiting, hyperglycemia, excessive oral water intake, CHF, peripheral edema, bowel obstructions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Incr. levels = hypovolemia, shock, burns, dehydration, CHF, MI, GI bleeding, starvation, sepsis, renal failure, nephrotoxic drugs, urethral kidney stones; decr. levels = liver failure, overhydration, negative N balance (malnutrition), pregnancy, nephrotic syndrome. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Based mostly on nutrition; drugs that incr. levels include aspirin, ATBs, and thiazide diuretics; drugs that decr. levels include chloramphenicol and streptomycin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Drugs that incr. levels include anabolic steroids, ATBs, and corticosteroids, cough medicines, estrogen, laxatives, and birth control; drugs that decr. levels include ACE inhibitors, diuretics, heparin, NSAIDs, tricyclic antidepressants, vasopressin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Drugs that incr. levels include catopril, epinephrine, histamine, mannitol, K+ sparing diuretics; drugs that decr. levels include acetozolamide, aspirin, and laxatives. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Drugs that incr. levels include tricyclic antidepressants, beta blockers, corticosteroids, IV dextrose, estrogens, and lithium; drugs that decr. levels include acetaminophen, alcohol, anabolic steroids, insulin, MAOIs, and propranolol. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Based mostly on hydration status. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Na+, K+, Cl-, BUN, Creatinine, or Glucose?-
Drugs that incr. levels include ammonium chloride, NSAIDs, and cortisone preparations; drugs that decr. levels include aldosterone, bicarbonates, corticosteroids, hydrocortisone, loop & thiazide diuretics. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Hypernatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercholoremia, hyperglycemia?-
S/S include: bradycardia, hypoTN, muscle twitching/tingling/burning/weakness, flaccid paralysis, incr. GI motility/hyperactive bowel sounds/diarrhea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Hypernatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercholoremia, hyperglycemia?-
S/S include: decr. attention span, lethargy/stupor/coma, reduced/absent DTRs, hypovolemia (hypoTN, incr. pulse rate) or hypervolemia (bounding pulses, JVD, elevated diastolic BP, pulm. edema, decr. oxygen sat).
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Hypernatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercholoremia, hyperglycemia?-
S/S include: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and elevated glucose level. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Hypernatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercholoremia, hyperglycemia?-
S/S include: tachypnea, HTN, pitting edema, dimished cognitive ability, intense thirst, possible coma.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypocholoremia, hypoglycemia?-
S/S include: rapid, thready pulses, difficult to palpate peripheral pulses, dysrhythmias, orthostatic hypoTN, irritability/anxiety/confusion, hypoactive bowel sounds/constipation.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypocholoremia, hypoglycemia?-
S/S include: confusion, seizure activity, reduced level of cognition, general arm/leg muscle weakness, dimished DTRs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypocholoremia, hypoglycemia?-
S/S include: hunger, diaphoresis, weakness, nervousness, headache, confusion, slurred speech, and coma (can appear like someone is intoxicated). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypocholoremia, hypoglycemia?-
S/S include: muscle spasticity/tetany, hyponatremia, muscle weakness/twitching, sweating, high fever. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Tx for HTN includes: pt. education- TLCs like w___ loss, D___ diet, s____ management, e____, s____ cessation, decreased E____; a___-H___ meds; supplements like vitamin __ and p____; and avoidance of problematic meds like N____, g_____, d_____, and h____. |
|
Definition
weight; DASH; stress; exercise; smoking; ETOH; anti-HTN; D; potassium; NSAIDs; glucocorticoids; decongestants; herbals |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are medications given for HTN that decr. blood volume, which decr. the work of the heart and ultimately leads to lower BP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are the 3 types of diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. thiazide
2. loop
3. K+-sparing |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Thiazide, Loop, or K+-sparing diuretic?-
Act on distal tubule to inhibit reabsorption of Na+ in exchange for K+. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Thiazide, Loop, or K+-sparing diuretic?-
Prevent Na+ and water reabsorption from distal tubules and promote K+ excretion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Depress Na+ reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle and promote K+ absorption. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Thiazide, Loop, or K+-sparing diuretic?-
K+ need to be checked regularly. |
|
Definition
thiazide (hypokalemia), loop (hypokalemia), & K+-sparing (hyperkalemia) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Thiazide, Loop, or K+-sparing diuretic?-
Example of drug = furosemide. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Thiazide, Loop, or K+-sparing diuretic?-
Example of drug = spironolactone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Thiazide, Loop, or K+-sparing diuretic?-
Example of drug = hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some common side effects of spironolactone? |
|
Definition
hyperkalemia, arrhythmias, headache, dizziness |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some common side effects of furosemide? |
|
Definition
dehydration, hypocalcemia, hypochloremia, hyponatremia, hypomagnesemia, hypovolemia, metabolic alkalosis |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some common side effects of HCTZ? |
|
Definition
hypokalemia, hypoTN, muscle weakness, dizziness, N & V |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are drugs to tx HTN that lower BP by interfering w/ transmembrane flux of Ca+, resulting in vasodilation, which causes a decr. in BP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are 2 examples of Ca+ channel blockers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some common side effects of Ca+ channel blockers? |
|
Definition
peripheral edema, dizziness, incr. or decr. heart rate |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is a drug to tx HTN that acts by interfering w/ angiotensin-converting enzyme (which converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor), thus prevents incr. BP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are 3 examples of ACE inhibitors? |
|
Definition
1. captopril
2. enalopril
3. lisinopril |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
ACE inhibitors may cause increases in c______ and p______ levels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some common side effects of ACE inhibitors? What is a rare, but serious, side effect of ACE inhibitors? |
|
Definition
common- hypoTN, dizziness, cough
rare/serious- angioedema |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Even though a cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors, how should RN respond if a pt. presents w/ a cough while on ACE inhibitors? |
|
Definition
notify the physician immediately; the drug may need to be discontinued b/c it may be a sign of impending angioedema or fluid overload |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are drugs to tx HTN that act by blocking the binding of angiotensin II in vascular and adrenal tissues? |
|
Definition
angiotensin II receptor antagonists (ARBs) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some examples of ARBs? |
|
Definition
candesartan, losartan, and telmisartan |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
When is an ARB an excellent option for pts. w/ HTN? |
|
Definition
when pt.s. develop a cough and can't take ACE inhibitors |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some common side effects of ARBs? What is a rare, but serious, side effect of ARBs? |
|
Definition
common- diarrhea, hypoTN, dizziness, headache
rare/serious- angioedema |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is a major advantage to prescribing ACE inhibitors and ARBs for tx of HTN? |
|
Definition
they are renal protective |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are drugs to tx HTN that lower BP by blocking beta receptors in the heart and peripheral vessels, which decr. the heart rate and cardiac output in order to lower BP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Beta-blockers are also known as c______ agents. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are 2 examples of beta-blocking drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some common side effects of the "lol" meds? What are some serious side effects of the "lol" meds? |
|
Definition
common- fatigue, weakness, depression, and sexual/erectile dysfunction
serious- bradycardia, HF, and pulm. edema |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are drugs to tx HTN that act on the CNS to prevent the reuptake of norepinephrine, which decr. peripheral vascular resistance, thus lowering BP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Central alpha agonists are also referred to as c_____-a_____ antihypertensives. Why are they called this? |
|
Definition
centrally-acting; they are called this b/c central alpha agonists stimulate alpha-2 adrenergic receptors in the CNS |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is an example of a central alpha agonist? |
|
Definition
clonidine transdermal patch, which can be worn for 7 days to control BP |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some common side effects of clonidine? What is a more serious side effect of clonidine? |
|
Definition
common- xerostomia, sedation/drowsiness, postural hypoTN, impotence
more serious- rebound HTN |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
True or False-
Clonidine is a 1st-line drug for management of HTN. |
|
Definition
False- it is NOT a 1st-line drug for HTN |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is a drug to tx HTN that antagonizes peripheral alpha-1 adrenergic receptors to dilate arterioles and veins to lower BP? |
|
Definition
alpha-adrenergic antagonists |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is an example of an alpha-adrenergic antagonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some common side effects of prazosin (Minipres)? |
|
Definition
dizziness, headache, weakness, 1st-dose orthostatic hypoTN, palpitations, angina |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
True or False-
Prazosin (Minipres) is used quite often in the tx of HTN. |
|
Definition
False- the use of prozasin (Minipres) is limited in the tx of HTN b/c of the multitude of frequent side effects |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is one of the most common nursing dx for HTN? Why? |
|
Definition
deficient knowledge r/t misunderstanding of the tx regimen and the TLC that must take place in order to manage the condition |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are the disorders that alter the natural flow of blood through the arteries and veins of the peripheral circulation, affecting the lower extremities and arterioles more often than upper extremities and veins? |
|
Definition
peripheral vascular dz (PVD) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is the pathophysiologic cause of PVD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
The basic problems of PVD are: obstructions in the form of t____ or e____ and altered flow in the form of an a____ or n_____. |
|
Definition
thrombi; emboli; aneurysm; narrowing |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Inflow arterial dzs involve distal end of a____ and common internal/external i____ arteries; outflow arterial dzs involve i______ arterial segments like the femoral, popliteal, and tibial. |
|
Definition
aorta; iliac; infrainguinal |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
S/S of inflow arterial dz = discomfort in l____ b____/b____ (which points to obstruction @/above common iliac or aorta); discomfort in t____ (which points to obstruction @/above profunda femoris artery). |
|
Definition
lower back; buttocks; thighs |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
S/S of outflow arterial dz = burning or cramping in c___/a____/f____/t____ (which points to obstruction @/below superficial femoral or popliteal); discomfort of i____/f____ (which points to obstruction below popliteal artery). |
|
Definition
calves/ankles/feet/toes; instep/foot |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is the progression narrowing and degeneration of arteries, leading to eventual obstruction of arteries of the extremities primarily due to atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
chronic arterial occlusive disorders |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What area of the body is most often affected by chronic arterial occlusive disorders? |
|
Definition
most often involves the legs (femoral, popliteal arteries- most common in non-diabetics; tibial, peroneal arteries- most common in diabetics) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is the danger of chronic arterial occlusive disorders? |
|
Definition
arteries may experience 75% blockage before the manifestation of symptoms |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
The risk factors for chronic arterial occlusive disorders include: s_____; hyper____; ____TN; d_____; o_____; f____ hx; and s_____ lifestyle. |
|
Definition
smoking; hyperlipidemia; hyperTN; diabetes; obesity; family; sedentary |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some S/S of chronic arterial occlusive disorders? |
|
Definition
ischemic predictable reproducible pain that is relieved w/ rest (femoral/popliteal- calf; aortoiliac- butt/upper thighs; iliac- sexual dysfunction). |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some S/S of worsening/progressing chronic arterial occlusive disorders? |
|
Definition
pain at rest, which may indicate ulceration and gangrene, and paresthesias (numbness/tingling r/t nerve ischemia) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
How may a pt. w/ chronic arterial occlusive disorders appear physically? |
|
Definition
they may have pallor, blanching, hyperemia, duskiness, taut skin, loss of hair, and dimished peripheral pulses (always assess pulses in both legs) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
How are chronic arterial occlusive disorders dx? What are the complications? |
|
Definition
dx- doppler, angiography
complications- atrophy, decr. healing ability, susceptibility to infection/necrosis, ulcers or gangreen (leading to amputation) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are the 3 types of chronic arterial occlusive disorder ulcers? |
|
Definition
1. arterial
2. diabetic
3. venous stasis |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Arterial, Diabetic, or Venous Stasis Ulcer?-
Painful; decr. or absent pulses; skin atrophy; hair loss; pallor upon elevation/rubor when dependent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Arterial, Diabetic, or Venous Stasis Ulcer?-
Usually cause minimal pain; ankle discoloration/scars; foot is warm and pulses are palpable distal to ulcer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Arterial, Diabetic, or Venous Stasis Ulcer?-
Painless; pulses usually present; foot may be cool or warm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Arterial, Diabetic, or Venous Stasis Ulcer?-
Develop on plantar surface of feet, over metatarsal heads & on heels; usually pressure ulcers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Arterial, Diabetic, or Venous Stasis Ulcer?-
Develop on toes, between toes, or upper aspect of feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Arterial, Diabetic, or Venous Stasis Ulcer?-
Occur on ankle region. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Non-surgical tx of chronic arterial occlusive disorders include: c____ feet; good s____; s____/p____ excercise; w____ environments; s____; i_____ shoes; and NEVER direct h____. |
|
Definition
cleaning; shoes; slow/progressive; warm; socks; insulated; heat |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Surgical tx of chronic arterial occlusive disorders include: percutaneous t______ angiography; l___-a___ angiography; a______; a____ bypass; e______; patch g____ angioplasty; and a________. |
|
Definition
transluminal; laser-assisted; athrectomy; arterial; endarterectomy; graft; amputation |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are 3 pharmacologic tx for chronic arterial occulusive disorders? |
|
Definition
1. pentoxifyline- incr. RBC flexibility/reduce blood viscosity
2. antiplatelets (aspirin, plavix)- "blood thinners"
3. anti-HTN drugs- prevent vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are arterial occulusive disorders that occur without warning caused by emboli/thrombi in already narrowed artery affecting upper and lower extremities which may be caused by trauma? |
|
Definition
acute arterial occlusive disorders |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is the most common type of emboli involved w/ acute arterial occlusive disorders? What does it cause? |
|
Definition
the most common type of emboli assoc. w/ this disorder is from the heart, which can lead to a-fib and an incr. of acute MI |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What can happen if acute arterial disorders are not tx promptly? |
|
Definition
ischemia -> tissue necrosis -> gangrene w/in hrs |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
The manifestations of acute arterial occlusive disorders include the 6 P's, which are: p____ @ rest and below occlusion; p_____- mottled; p_____; p______; p______; p_____- temp varies r/t surrounding area, mostly cool. |
|
Definition
pain; pallor; pulselessness; paresthesias; paralysis; poikilothermia |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Tx of actue arterial occlusive disorders must occur r_____ and include: a_____ (IV heparin); e____/t_____; and b_____ catheters. After immediate interventions, periodic a_____ and oral a_____ may be ordered. |
|
Definition
rapidly; anticoagulants; embolectomy/thrombolectomy; balloon; angiograms; anticoagulants |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is an episodic vasospasm of small cutaneous arteries that primarily affects young women and is assoc. w/ collagen dzs such as RA, scleroderma, lupus, trauma to fingers/toes, and exposure to heavy metals? |
|
Definition
arteriospastic dz (Raynaud's Phenomenon) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
S/S of Raynaud's are precipitated by c___, e____ upset, c____, and s____. |
|
Definition
cold; emotional; caffeine; smoking |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
During a vasospasm assoc. w/ Raynaud's, area is white (b____) in the beginning, then blue (c____), and finally red (h_____) when vasospasm resolves. |
|
Definition
blanching; cyanotic; hyperemic |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Other S/S of Raynaud's include: complaints of c____/n____; a____ pain/t_____/swelling; punctate l______; and superficial g_____ ulcers. |
|
Definition
cold/numbness; aching; tingling; lesions; gangrenous |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Tx of Raynaud's may not be necessary if the dz is s___-l____. If not, tx may include: c___-c____ blockers; v_____; or s_______ for severe symptoms. |
|
Definition
self-limiting; calcium-channel; vasodilators; sympathethectomy |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What can a pt. do to prevent episodes of Raynaud's? |
|
Definition
wear warm, loose clothing; avoid temp. extremes; avoid caffeine; avoid/cease smoking |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is an inflammatory disorder of medium arteries in the lower extremities in which the cause is unknown; aka "Buerger's Dz?" |
|
Definition
thromboangitis obliterans |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are the risk factors for thromboangitis obliterans? Who is most often affected? |
|
Definition
risks- smoking, familial pattern, maybe auto-immune
most affected- young, male smoker |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is the 1st symptom? What are the other S/S? |
|
Definition
1st- claudication arch of foot
other S/S- claudication of lower extremities, pain @ rest (more severe @ night), incr. sensitivity to cold, numbness, dimished pulses, ulcers, gangrene |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Management of thromboangitis obliterans includes: avoid v_____; promote v_____; releive p____; tx u____/g____. |
|
Definition
vasoconstriction; vasodilation; pain; ulcers/gangrene |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is the most common vasodilator used to tx thromboangitis obliterans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What can usually arrest the dz process of thromboangitis obliterans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What condition occurs in the upper extremities resulting from subclavian artery occlusion or stenosis, altering blood flow to one arm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
The S/S of subclavian steal include: tiredness in arm upon e____; p_____; d_____ w/ exercise; significant difference in b____ p____ between arms; b____; decreased p____; and c____ of affected extremity. |
|
Definition
exertion; paresthesias; dizziness; blood pressure; bruits; pulses; cyanosis |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Management of subclavian steal includes s_____ if cyanosis and pain occur. Post-op care includes: monitoring a____ f____ to affected extremity; RN should check p____ and obseve for e___ or redness. |
|
Definition
surgery; arterial flow; pulses; edema |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
Which disorder is characterized by classic symptoms of calf and groin tenderness and pain w/ sudden onset of unilateral swelling of the leg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
True or False-
Homan's Sign is a definitive dx test for DVT. |
|
Definition
False-
Homan's Sign is only present in a small % of pts. w/ DVT and is therefore NOT a reliable indicator |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
How is DVT dx? |
|
Definition
venous duplex ultrasound (may need venogram if ultrasound is negative but DVT is stongly suspected) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are some risk factors for DVT? |
|
Definition
surgery, restricted mobility, CHF, CA, resp. failure, infectious dz, >40 yrs old, overwt./obese, smoking, family hx |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are the 3 elements of Virchow's Triad for DVT? |
|
Definition
1. endothelial injury (surgery, prior DVT, trauma, sepsis, vasculitis)
2. hypercoagulable state (CA, fam hx, sepsis, protein C, S, or AT III deficiency, antiphospholipid antibody)
3. venous stasis (advanced age, immoblilization, stroke, anesthesia, heart/lung failure, hyperviscosity) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What is the most common tx for DVT? |
|
Definition
anticoagulation (low molecular wt. heparin, warfarin, IV/subcut heparin) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What are the other common tx for DVT? |
|
Definition
thrombolysis and vena cava filters |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
The recommendation for the duration of warfarin tx is __-__ months for the 1st DVT w/ reversible risk factors; at least __ months for idiopathic DVT; and __ months-____ for recurrent DVT or 1st DVT w/ irreversible risk factors.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What syndrome can occur after experiencing a DVT where the affected limb can become chronically swollen and painful? |
|
Definition
post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS) |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
PTS is a ____-term complication of DVT that is identified by chronic, persistent p____, chronic s______, and development of v____ v____. |
|
Definition
long; pain; swelling; varicose veins |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
True or False-
PTS is difficult to dx; however, it is estimated that 330,000 people in the U.S. have this condition. |
|
Definition
True-
it is difficult to dx b/c the S/S are similar to DVT |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
True or False-
The risk factors for PTS have been definitively identified. |
|
Definition
False-
little is know about who will develop PTS; generally though, of the 60% of ppl who have had DVT in the legs, 40% of those will develop PTS |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
When does PTS develop? |
|
Definition
typically w/in the first 6 months after the DVT but can appear up to 2 yrs afterwards |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What can we do as HCPs to prevent DVT/VTE in hospitalized pts.? |
|
Definition
know who is at risk = CHF/severe resp. dz; those on bedrest w/ an additional risk factor; most ICU bowel dz |
|
|
Term
Care of Pt. w/ Cardiac Disorders:
What interventions are implemented to prevent DVT/VTE in hospitalized pts.? |
|
Definition
1. low dose unfractioned heparin or LMWH
2. sequential compression devices
3. graduated compression stockings |
|
|
Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is a type of blood vessel disorder that is included in the general category of atherosclerosis
that begins as soft deposits of fat (atheromas = fatty deposits) that harden with age (referred to as “hardening of arteries”) which can occur in any artery in the body but with a preference for the coronary arteries?
|
|
Definition
coronary artery dz and acute coronary syndrome |
|
|
Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Fibrous plaque can lead to n____ of the vessel l____. A complicated lesion w/ continued inflammation can result in plaque i_____, u_____, r_____, the formation of a t______, and/or total o_____ of the lumen. |
|
Definition
narrowing; lumen; instability; ulceration; rupture; thrombus; occlusion |
|
|
Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
All of the following are nonmodifiable risk factors for CAD except:
a. age b. gender
c. ethnicity d. fam hx
e. cultural food preferences
f. genetic predisposition |
|
Definition
Answer: e
while your culture may not be modifiable, your food preferences and choices are modifiable and can indicate TLCs that can help to prevent/manage CAD; all the others are nonmodifiable risk factors |
|
|
Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
All of the following are modifiable risk factors for CAD except:
a. elevated serum lipids
b. HTN
c. tobacco use
d. physical inactivity
e. T1-DM
f. obesity
g. metabolic syndrome
h. T2-DM |
|
Definition
Answer: e
even properly managed T1-DM would be a nonmodifiable risk factor for CAD b/c it is an incurable dz; 'h' (T2-DM) is modifiable b/c a person can be cured of this dz; all the rest are also modifiable risk factors for CAD |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are the pharmacologic interventions for CAD? |
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Definition
1. anti-platelet therapy
2. statins, niacin- drugs that restrict lipoprotein production
3. bile acid sequesterants- drugs that incr. lipoprotein removal
4. ezetimibe (Zetia)- drugs that decr. cholesterol absorption |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are non-pharmacologic interventions for CAD?
|
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Definition
1. diet- wt. reduction, incr. HDL, lower BP
2. exercise- wt. reduction, lower BP
3. smoking cessation- lower BP |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are 2 examples of an HGM-CoA reductase inhibitors? What should RN tell pt. before beginning statin therapy? |
|
Definition
1. Zocor
2. Lipitor
Rn should tell pt. to take medication in the evening to lessen side effects, report muscle tenderness immediately (as its a sign of a serious side effect), avoid grapefruit juice, and their liver enzymes will need to be monitored regularly |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are some common side effects of statins (i.e. Zocor/Lipitor)? What are rare, but more serious, side effects of statins? |
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Definition
common- abdominal cramps, constipation, diarrhea, flatus, heartburn, rashes
rare/serious- rhabdomyolysis, angioneurotic edema |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is an example of a nicotinic acid for the tx of lowering lipid levels? How should pt. be directed to take this med? |
|
Definition
niacin; pt. should be directed to take this med w/ meals to lessen side effects |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are some common side effects of niacin? What is a more serious side effect of niacin? |
|
Definition
common- GI upset, flushing of face/neck, pruritus
more serious- hepatoxicity |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
How should a pt. be directed to take fibric acid derivatives? |
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Definition
take 30 min before meals or w/ meals to lessen side effects |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What should a pt. know about taking ezetimibe (Zetia)? |
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Definition
this med is safe to take w/ statins but not w/ fibric acid derivatives |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is a common side effect of Zetia? What is a rare, but serious, side effect of Zetia? |
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Definition
common- nausea
rare/serious- angioedema |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
CAD can lead to chronic stable a_____ or acute coronary s_____; acute coronary s_____ can then lead to unstable a____/n__-S____ or S____. |
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Definition
angina; syndrome; syndrome; angina;
non-STEMI; STEMI |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is a reversible and temporary myocardial ischemia in which the oxygen demand is > than the oxygen supply due to insufficient blood flow as a result of atherosclerorsis? |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
True or False-
For ischemia to occur, the artery must only be 20% stenosed. |
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Definition
False-
for ischemia to occur, the artery must be @ least 75% stenosed |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are the S/S of chronic stable angina? |
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Definition
intermittent chest pain that occurs over a long period of time w/ the same pattern of onset, duration, and intensity; pain usually subsides in minutes and when the precipitating factor is relieved; and ECG may reveal ST segment depression |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
True or False-
Angina pain only occurs in the chest. |
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Definition
False-
angina pain can occur substernally and down L arm, in the epigastric area, in the neck/jaw, in the L shoulder and down both arms, or intrascapularly |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is angina that occurs when the pt. is at rest usually in response to a spasm of the major coronary artery often seen in pts. w/ hx of migraines and Raynaud's, which can occur in the absence of CAD? |
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Definition
Prinzmetal's (variant) angina |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
During a spasm w/ Prinzmetal's angina, the pt. may experience c____ pain and see a marked, transient ST e____ on an ECG. These symptoms may also occur often during R___ sleep. |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are the pharmacologic interventions for the tx of chronic stable angina? |
|
Definition
1. ranolazine- anti-anginal/anti-ischemic
2. short-acting nitrates- sublingually
3. long-acting nitrates- nitroglycerin ointment or transdermal patch
4. beta blockers
5. calcium channel blockers
6. ACE inhibitors |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
When are calcium channel blockers used in the tx of angina? |
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Definition
1. when beta blockers are poorly tolerated, contraindicated, or do not control anginal symtpoms
2. used primarily for Prinzmetal's angina b/c of its effectiveness on this type |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Which drug used to tx angina relaxes all types of smooth muscles (vascular and non-vascular), relax both arteries and veins (but is more effective on veins), and is used to tx all types of angina? |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
True or False-
Nitrates only come in one form and have a direct effect on cardiac and skeletal muscles. |
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Definition
False-
Nitrates come in short-acting (sublingual) and long-acting (ointment, transdermal patch) forms and have NO direct effect on cardiac or skeletal muscles. |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
True or False-
Short-acting nitrates are used for acute attacks and long-acting nitrates are used prophylactically. |
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Definition
True-
short-acting = acute attacks, which is why it is delivered sublingually; long-acting = prophylaxis, which is why the methods of admin are slower (i.e. ointment, transdermal patch) |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Some common side effects of nitrates include: o_____ ______tension; t_____ headache; t_____; facial or cutaneous f_____; t______ (tachyphylaxis); and salt and water ________.
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|
Definition
orthostatic hypotension; throbbing; tachycardia; flushing; tolerance; retention |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What should the RN know about handling nitrates?
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Definition
nitrates should not be handled w/out wearing gloves |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
In what pt. are nitrates contraindicated? |
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Definition
pts. who are taking erectile dysfunction drugs |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What drug to tx angina works by blocking Ca+ entry into myocardium causing a decr. in myocardium contractility and a decr. in myocardium oxygen requirement? |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
True or False-
Ca+ channel blockers are used for all types of angina, but are very effective in tx for chronic stable angina and is used mainly for acute attacks. |
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Definition
False-
Ca+ channel blockers are used for all anginas but is very useful in tx variant (Prinzmetal's) angina; Ca+ channel blockers are mainly used prophylactically, not acutely |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What drug for tx angina works by decreasing both heart rate and myocardial contractility, which then decr. myocardial oxygen requirement at rest leading to an improvement in exercise tolerance? |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Beta blockers are useful in decr. m____ r____ in pts. w/ recent MIs. |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Which type of drug for tx angina activates potassium channels, releases nitric oxide, and is a aterio/venodilator? |
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Definition
potassium channel openers (Nicorandil) |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Nicorandil is used p____ in the tx of angina and may cause h____, f_____, and d______. |
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Definition
prophylactically; headache; flushing; dizziness |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
The "other class" of anti-anginal/anti-ischemic meds for the tx of angina is r_____. |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Chronic stable angina is dx w/: health h___/physical e____; l___ studies; __-lead ECG; c___ x-ray; e_______; exercise s_____ test; and/or cardiac c_______. |
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Definition
hx; examination; lab; 12; chest; echocardiogram; stress; catheterization |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is it called when ischemia is prolonged and not immediately reversible; includes unstable angina, non-STEMI, and STEMI? |
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Definition
acute coronary syndrome (ACS) |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is the etiology and pathophysiology of ACS? |
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Definition
deterioration of a once stable plaque -> rupture -> platelet aggregation -> development of thrombus ->
RESULT: partial occlusion = unstable angina or non-STEMI OR
total occlusion = STEMI |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is angina that is new in onset, occurs at rest, has a worsening, unpredicatable pattern, and constitutes a medical emergency? |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is the result of sustained ischemia (>20 min), which causes irreversible myocardial cell death (necrosis)? |
|
Definition
myocardial infarction (MI) |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
With an MI, necrosis of the entire thickness of the myocardium takes __-__ hrs. The degree of altered function depends on the a___ involved and the s____ of the infarct. During an MI, the c_____ function of the heart is disrupted in the areas of myocardial n____. |
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Definition
4-6; area; size; contractile; necrosis |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What causes the pain during an MI? How is it described? And where are the most common areas of pain? |
|
Definition
Pain during an MI is caused by a total occlusion of a vessel, resulting in anaerobic metabolism, which produces lactic acid production and accumulation. The pain is described as heavy/tight/burning/crushing. The common locations for pain are substernal, retrosternal, epigastric (may radiate). |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
During an MI, the sympathetic nervous system responds by releasing g____, s_____, and vaso____ of peripheral blood vessels, which causes skin to be p____, c____, and c_____. |
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Definition
glycogen; sweating; vasoconstriction; pale; clammy; cool |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
The cardiovascular system responds to an MI by first ____ the HR and BP, then ____ them. C____, J____, and abnormal h____ s_____ may manifest (S3/S4). |
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Definition
incr.; decr.; crackles; JVD; heart sounds |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Other bodily responses to an MI include: n____ and v____ due to the stimulation of the vomiting center as a result of the severe p____ and f____, which is a systemic manifestation of the i_____ process caused by the cell d____. |
|
Definition
nausea; vomiting; pain; fever; inflammatory; death |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is involved in the MI healing process? |
|
Definition
1. development of collateral circulation
2. changes seen in the necrotic zone is via ECG or nuclear scanning
3. rest is needed- 10-14 days after MI, the scar tissue is still weak and vulnerable to stress |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is a complication that occurs when the pumping power of the heart has diminished? |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is the most common form of heart failure present in 80% of MI pts? |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is an inflammation of visceral and/or parietal pericardium which may result in cardiac compression, decr. L ventricular filling and emptying, and/or heart failure? |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
The auscultation of a p____ f____ r____ may be heard w/ acute pericarditis. |
|
Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What condition can occur when inadequate oxygen and nutrients are supplied to the tissues due to severe L ventricular failure, requiring aggressive tx/management?
|
|
Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What type of cardiac structure dysfunction causes mitral valve regurgitation and aggravates an already compromised L ventricle? |
|
Definition
papillary muscle dysfunction |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What condition results when the infarcted myocardial wall becomes thinned and bulges out during contraction? |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
With suspected unstable angina and MI, HCPs must obtain a detailed health h___/p____; perform a __-lead ECG; obtain serum c____ markers; perform a coronary a______, e____ s____ testing, and/or e_____. |
|
Definition
hx/physical; 12; cardiac; angiography; exercise stress; echocardiogram |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is the plan of care of choice for an MI? |
|
Definition
1. emergent PCI (aka coronary angioplasty)
2. ambulatory 24 hrs after procedure |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are the indications for fibrinolytic therapy for an MI? |
|
Definition
given to pts. w/ STEMI or new left bundle branch block (LBBB) w/in 12 hrs of onset of symptoms |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are the contraindications for fibrinolytic therapy for an MI? |
|
Definition
prior intracranial hemorrhage; known intracranial neoplasm; ischemic stroke w/in 3 mos; suspected aortic dissection; active bleeding; significant closed head trauma w/in 3 mos; severe uncontrolled HTN; pregnancy; or current use of anticoagulant |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
How do you know that fibrinolytic therapy for MI has worked? |
|
Definition
return of ST segment to baseline indicates reperfusion |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What do you do if fibrinolytic therapy fails? |
|
Definition
rescue PCI (coronary angioplasty) |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Other drugs to tx ACS include: IV n____; m_____ sulfate; b___ blockers; A___ inhibitors; a_____ drugs; c_____-l_____ drugs; and s____ softeners. |
|
Definition
nitroglycerin; morphine; beta; ACE; antidysrhythmia; cholesterol-lowering; stool |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
When is a pt. a candidate for coronary surgical revascularization? |
|
Definition
1. failed medical management
2. presence of L main coronary artery/presence of 3-vessel dz
3. not a candidate for PCI
4. failed PCI w/ ongoing chest pain |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are some nursing dx for chronic stable angina and/or ACS? |
|
Definition
1. acute pain
2. ineffective tissue perfusion
3. anxiety
4. activity intolerance |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
The overall goals of tx of chronic stable angina and/or ACS are: relief of p____; preservation of m____; i___/a___ tx; effective c____ for anxiety/depression r/t condition; participation in r___ plan; and T____ to reduce cardiac risk factors. |
|
Definition
pain; myocardium; immediate/appropriate; coping; rehabilitation; TLCs |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
All of the following are acute interventions for an anginal attack except:
a. rest, comfortable positioning, and oxygen admin
b. pt. education of TLCs
c. 12-lead ECG
d. prompt pain relief (nitrate 1st, then opiod if needed)
e. auscultation of heart sounds |
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Definition
Answer: b
'b' is NOT an intervention for an ACUTE anginal attack and should be performed once the attack subsides; all the other options are interventions for an acute attack |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Upon discharge, a pt. w/ chronic stable angina should be taught about C___ and a____, p______ f_____ for angina, r____ factor reduction, and proper use of m______. |
|
Definition
CAD; angina; precipitating factors; risk; medications |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are the acute interventions for ACS? |
|
Definition
1. pain relief (nitro, morphine, O2)
2. continuous monitoring (ECG, V/S, pulse ox, heart/lung sounds)
3. rest and comfort |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Which acute intervention for ACS will require a pt. to be in the ICU for the first 24-36 hrs w/ a pulm. artery catheter, intraarterial line for cont. BP monitoring, chest tubes for drainage, cont. ECG monitoring, a urinary catheter to monitor UOP, and an NGT for gastric decompression? |
|
Definition
coronary revascularization |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What are the primary focuses of care in the ICU for a pt. recovering from coronary revascularization for ACS? |
|
Definition
1. assess for bleeding at procedure sites
2. monitoring fluid status
3. replacing electrolytes PRN
4. restoring temp (i.e. warming blankets) |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
Upon discharge, a pt. recovering from ACS should be informed to participate in cardiac r_____, make necessary T___, and warned to be cautious when resuming s____ a_____ due to the energy e______ of it. |
|
Definition
rehabilitation; TLCs; sexual activity |
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What is an unexpected death from cardiac causes, which occur mostly outside of the hospital? |
|
Definition
sudden cardiac death (SCD) |
|
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Term
Cardiac Ppt. Part 2:
What cardiac condition contributes to 80% of all SCDs? |
|
Definition
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Term
Heart Failure:
What can result from any structural or functional cardiac disorder that impairs ability of ventricle to fill with or eject blood? |
|
Definition
heart failure (clinical syndrome) |
|
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Term
Heart Failure:
__ million Americans have heart failure, with __00,000 deaths/year. Heart failure costs __-__ billion dollars/year to tx. |
|
Definition
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Term
Heart Failure:
Cardiac output (CO) is calculated by:
s___ v___ x h___ r____. In heart failure, CO becomes i______ to meet the metabolic n____ of the body. |
|
Definition
stroke volume (SV); heart rate (HR); insufficient; needs |
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Term
Heart Failure:
SV is determined by p____, a____, and myocardial c_____. |
|
Definition
preload; afterload; contractility |
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Term
Heart Failure:
Heart failure happens when the e____ f____ (EF) is <40%. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
What are the 3 types of classifications of HF? |
|
Definition
1. systolic failure (decr. contractility)
2. diastolic failure (decr. filling)
3. mixed failure |
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Term
Heart Failure:
During HF, lungs become c______ ("stiffer") and then fluid leaks into a_____, causing SOB. P____ e____ then ensues, with l___, a___, and f___ swelling. Fluid from these areas then seep out into blood v____, causing weight g______. |
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Definition
congested; alveoli; pulm. edema; legs; ankles; feet; vessels; gain |
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Term
Heart Failure:
During HF, there is ____ blood supply to the brain, which may cause d____. The decr. in blood supply to the kidneys will cause the body to retain s____ and w____. |
|
Definition
decreased; dizziness; salt; water |
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Term
Heart Failure:
What does the HF (ADHF) "UNLOAD ME" pneumonic stand for? |
|
Definition
U- upright position
N- nitrates (for chest pain)
L- lasix (to decr. edema)
O- oxygen
A- ACE, ARBs, Amiodarone
D- Dig, Dobutamine
M- morphine sulfate
E- extremities down |
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
What is the most common cause of heart failure and what is the hallmark finding of it? |
|
Definition
The most common cause of heart failure is systolic failure, with the hallmark finding being a decr. in L ventricular EF |
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Term
Heart Failure:
Systolic failure is due to: impaired c______ funtion (as w/ an MI); incr. a_____ (as w/ HTN); c______; and m____ abnormalities (as w/ valve dz). |
|
Definition
contractile; afterload; cardiomyopathy; mechanical |
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Term
Heart Failure:
What HF is defined as the impaired ability of ventricles to relax and fill during diastole, leading to decr. SV and CO in which the dx is based upon the presence of pulm. congestion, pulm. HTN, and ventricular hypertrophy? |
|
Definition
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Term
Heart Failure:
The heart's normal EF is __-__%; w/ diastolic HF, the EF drops to __-__%. |
|
Definition
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Term
Heart Failure:
In mixed s_____ and d_____ failure, the EF is even lower than w/ diastolic failure at <__% and is marked by high pulmonary p_____. |
|
Definition
systolic; diastolic; 35; pressures |
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Term
Heart Failure:
What is HF in which both ventricles may be dilated and have poor filling and empyting capacity? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
Preload or Afterload?-
Force needed to eject blood into circulation. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
Preload or Afterload?-
Volume of blood in ventricles at end diastole. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
Preload or Afterload?-
Depends on venous return and compliance. |
|
Definition
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Term
Heart Failure:
Preload or Afterload?-
Is responsible for arterial BP and pulmonary artery pressure; valvular dz can incr. this. |
|
Definition
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Term
Heart Failure:
C____ and ventricular r____ occurs as the heart is overworked via changes in size, shape, and function of heart after injury to the ___ ventricle. |
|
Definition
Cardiomegaly; remodeling; L |
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Term
Heart Failure:
An enlarged heart is a type of c______ and may be a sign that the heart may be o______. W/ an enlarged heart, the L ventricular wall becomes t____ and w____. |
|
Definition
cardiomyopahty; overworked; thin; weak |
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Term
Heart Failure:
In CHF, the heart will attempt to compensate via all of the following compensatory mechanisms except:
a. tachycardia
b. ventricular dilation (i.e. Starling's)
c. ventricular contraction
d. myocardial hypertrophy |
|
Definition
Answer: c
'c' is incorrect b/c the heart will experience ventricular dilation in response to incr. amounts of blood filling the heart in an attempt to regulate CO; all others are examples of correct compensatory mechanisms |
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Term
Heart Failure:
There are neurohormonal responses to CHF, which over time cause systemic inflammatory response. What are the results of this sustained systemic inflammatory response? |
|
Definition
1. cardiac wasting
2. muscle myopathy
3. fatigue |
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Term
Heart Failure:
In the HF cycle, what is responsible for the salt and water retention by the kidneys? |
|
Definition
decr. CO -> activation of sympathetic nervous system -> release of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone |
|
|
Term
Heart Failure:
What medication often used to tx cardiac problems can actually prevent the ventricular remodeling that occurs w/ HF? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
If you can prevent ventricular remodeling, then you can also prevent ventricluar h_____ and ventricular d____ from occurring. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
The 3 structural changes that can happen w/ HF are ____ contractility, ____ preload (volume), and ____ afterload (resistance). |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
What are the New York Heart Assoc. Functional Classifications of HF? |
|
Definition
I- no limitation of phys. activity
II- slight limitation of phys. activity
III- marked limitation; usually comfortable at rest
IV- inable to carry out any phys. activity w/out discomfort |
|
|
Term
Heart Failure:
What are the ACC/AHA Stages of Heart Failure? |
|
Definition
A- pt. at high risk of developing L ventricular dysfunc. due to contributing conditions
B- developed structural heart dz but who never show signs of HF
C- pt. shows signs of HF w/ structural heart dz
D- pt. w/ advanced structural heart dz and marked sytmptoms of HF at rest despite max med therapy |
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
The 2 primary risk factors for HF are C___ and advancing a____. |
|
Definition
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Term
Heart Failure:
Contributing risk factors include: H___; D__; t____ use; o____; hyper____; A____ A____ descent; v____ heart dz; _____volemia; and sleep a____. |
|
Definition
HTN; DM; tobacco; obesity; hyperlipidemia; African American; valvular; hypervolemia; apnea |
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
CHF can be due to impaired cardiac f_____ (i.e. CAD, cardiomyopathy, rheumatic fever, endocarditis), increased cardiac w____ (i.e. HTN, valvular disorders, anemias, congenital defects), and a____ non-cardiac conditions (i.e. volume overload, hyperthyroid, fever, infection). |
|
Definition
function; workload; acute |
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Term
Heart Failure:
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of CHF?
a. SOB and lack of energy
b. difficulty sleeping at night
c. swelling of legs/feet
d. decreased urination at night
e. cough w/ frothy sputum |
|
Definition
Answer: d
'd' is incorrect b/c w/ CHF, a pt. will typically experience incr. urination at night; all the other choices are correct symptoms of CHF |
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Term
Heart Failure:
Other symptoms of CHF include: swollen or tender a____ w/ loss of appetite and c______/impaired m______. |
|
Definition
abdomen; confusion; memory |
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Term
Heart Failure:
L ventricular HF will primarily affect what area of the body? |
|
Definition
the lungs, producing dyspnea, orthopnea PND, Cheyne Stokes, and rales |
|
|
Term
Heart Failure:
What is the major, life-threatening symptom of ADHF? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
The early signs of ADHF include: ____ resp. rate and ____ Pao2. The later signs of ADHF include: ____pnea and r____ acidemia. |
|
Definition
incr.; decr.; tachy; resp. |
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Term
Heart Failure:
Upon phys exam of a pt. w/ ADHF, what would you expect to find? |
|
Definition
orthopnea, dyspnea, tachypnea, use of accessory muscles, cyanosis, cool/clammy skin |
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
In advanced L sided HF, the S/S include: w______, p_____, c______, increased H___ and B__, S__ heart sounds, r____, and copious amounts of p____/f____ sputum. |
|
Definition
wheezing; pallor; cyanosis; HR; BP; 3; rales; pink/frothy |
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|
Term
Heart Failure:
The goals of tx of CHF include the pneumonic device MAD DOG, which stands for what? |
|
Definition
M- morphine
A- airway (head up/legs down)
D- drugs, dig 1st, others later
D- diuretics
O- oxygen/ measure sats often
G- gases (blood) |
|
|
Term
Heart Failure:
What is the priority intervention for a pt. w/ CHF? |
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Definition
O2 admin w/ HOB elevated (intubate if necessary); oxygen is the priority as these pt. will be experiencing an incr. work of breathing |
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Term
Heart Failure:
The S/S of R sided HF include: weight ______; incr. a____ girth; a______; __UQ pain; J____; h______; and d____ edema. |
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Definition
abdominal; anorexia; gain; R; JVD; hepatomegaly; dependent |
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Term
Heart Failure:
The dependent edema of R sided HF can also cause p_____ edema. |
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Definition
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Term
Heart Failure:
What causes R sided HF? |
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Definition
enlargement of the R ventricle due to high BP in the lungs usually caused by chronic lung dz |
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Term
Heart Failure:
What is another term for R sided HF? |
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Definition
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Term
Heart Failure:
What is the most common dysrhythmia seen w/ HF? |
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Definition
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Term
Heart Failure:
An atrial fibrilation will cause loss of a atrial c_______ (kick), which reduces CO by __-__%. A-fib promotes formation of t____/e____ and possible stroke. Tx for a-fib may include c______, a_____, and a______. |
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Definition
contraction; 10-20; thrombus/embolus; cardioversion; antidysrhythmics; anticoagulants |
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Term
Heart Failure:
Other complications of HF include: p____ e____; r____ insufficiency or failure; severe h______ (fibrosis/cirrhosis). |
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Definition
pleural effusion; renal; hepatomegaly |
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Term
Heart Failure:
A major complication of HF is f___ d___ causing sudden cardiac death (ventricular tachycardia), leading to a EF of <__%. |
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Definition
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Term
Heart Failure:
What is the primary goal of dx and tx HF? |
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Definition
to determine the underlying cause |
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Term
Heart Failure:
How is HF dx? |
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Definition
1. hx and phys exam (major S/S = dyspnea)
2. CXR
3. ECG
4. lab studies (cardiac enzymes, BNP >100, electrolytes)
5. <EF
6. hemodynamic assessment
7. echocardiogram (TEE is best)
8. stress test (exercise or med)
9. cardiac catheterization |
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Term
Heart Failure:
What is the single most important measurement of HF? |
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Definition
EF, which can be determined by an echocardiogram |
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Term
Heart Failure:
What is important to remember regarding EF and HF? |
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Definition
EF can help to define the etiology and type of HF the pt. is experiencing, BUT there is NO correlation between symptoms and EF |
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Term
Heart Failure:
What are some nursing dx of acute HF? |
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Definition
Activity intolerance; Decreased cardiac output; Fluid volume excess; Impaired gas exchange; Anxiety; Deficient knowledge
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What nursing interventions should be initiated for a pt. w/ decr. CO? |
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Definition
plan freq. rest periods; monitor VS and oxygen sat during activity; take apical pulse; review lab results; restrict fluids (strict I & Os); elevate legs; teach relaxation and ROM exercises |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What does the RN need to teach the pt. about managing their HF? |
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Definition
1. need low Na+ diet
2. fluid restriction
3. daily wt.
4. when to call Dr.
5. strict medication adherance
6. correcting/improving co-morbidities |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
The overall goals of nursing management for HF include: ____ in symptoms; decr. in p_____ e_____; _____ in exercise tolerance; compliance w/ m___ r___; and no further c____ r/t HF. |
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Definition
decr.; peripheral edema; incr.; medication regimen; complications |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What are the goals of tx for acute HF? |
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Definition
1. decr. preload
2. decr. afterload
3. incr. cardiac performance
4. balance O2 supply and demand |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
As far as long-term health promotion, the pt. should focus on controlling the u____ dz component, controlling serious dysrhythmias w/ a_____ agents or p______, emphasizing the importance of f____/p____ vaccines, and the need for m____/d___/e____ regimen compliance. |
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Definition
underlying; antidysrhythmic; pacemakers; flu/pneumonia; medication/diet/excercise |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What do we do for pts. who do not respond to conventional pharmacotherapy and other interventions for ADHF? |
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Definition
We use inotropic therapy, which includes digitalis, beta agonists (dopamine), phosphodiesterase inhibitors, and hemodynamic monitoring |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What is the goal oxygen sat for pts. w/ chronic and acute HF? |
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Definition
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
Nonpharmacologic therapies for chronic and acute HF include: c___ r___ therapy (CRT); d_____; and cardiac t______. |
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Definition
cardiac resynchronization; defibrilators; transplantation |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What are the dietary measures that should be take for chronic HF? |
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Definition
1. DASH diet recommended
2. Na+ restricted to 2.5g/day
3. K+ encouraged unless pt. is on K+-sparing diuretics
4. daily wts. should be taken and wt. gain >3-5 lbs in 1 wk should be reported immediately |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What medications may a pt. w/ CHF be given for management of the condition? |
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Definition
1. Loop diuretics- fluid volume control (may cause elevation in BUN/creatinine so check labs often)
2. ACE inhibitors- suppress renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system; decr. afterload via mild dilation
3. beta blockers
4. aldosterone agonist (K+-sparing diuretics)
5. digoxin (not used often) |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What is a CHF therapy that includes the use of a permanent pacemaker, alone or w/ an implantable defibrilator, which can pace one or both ventricles? |
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Definition
cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT) |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
How does CRT work? |
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Definition
When heart rate drops, CRT device sends impulses to cause ventricular contractions, which improve CO |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What is a short-term device for the tx of HF that is a mechanical pump implanted into one or both ventricles to assist w/ pumping blood thru ventricles? |
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Definition
ventricular assist devices |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What is LVR surgery? |
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Definition
left ventricular reduction surgery- a slice of the L ventricle of an enlarged heart is removed to create a smaller L ventricle |
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What is the tx of choice for pts. w/ refractory end-stage HF, inoperable CAD, and cardiomyopathy? |
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Definition
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Term
Heart Failure Ppt.:
What is the most part of the donor heart that MUST be preserved for a cardiac transplantation to be successful? |
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Definition
the sinoatrial (SA) node must be preserved so that a sinus rhythm may be achieved post-op |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
Which valve disorder is a thickening of valves due to fibrosis or calcification, which leads to narrowing of openings that usually results from rheumatic carditis, tumors, calcium deposits, and/or thrombi? |
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Definition
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
In mitral stenosis, L ____ pressure incr., then d______, P____ incr., and the R _____ hypertrophies, which then leads to pulmonary c____, ___ sided HF, and ___ CO. |
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Definition
atrial; dilates; PAP; ventricle; congestion; R; decr. |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
True or False-
Any pt. w/ mitral stenosis will exhibit signs of dyspnea, orthopneas, dry cough, hemoptysis, and pulm. edema. |
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Definition
False-
early mitral stenosis is asymptomatic; these S/S will appear later as the condition progresses |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
Later in mitral stenosis, a pt.'s pulse may be n____ to a-____ and an a____ d____ murmur is heard. |
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Definition
normal; fib; apical diastolic |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
What valve disorder is primarily caused by rheumatic heart dz but may be caused by papillar muscle rupture from congenital, infective endocarditis or ischemic heart dz, which prevents the valve from closing, causing regurgitation during diastole? |
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Definition
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
True or False-
The progression of mitral regurgitation is slow. |
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Definition
True-
the progression of mitral regurgitation is slow, beginning w/ fatigue, chronic weakness, dyspnea, anxiety, and palpitations, which are non-specific symptoms |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
What valve disorder is caused by a variety of conditions and may be assoc. w/ congenital defects, which is more common in women? |
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Definition
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
With mitral valve prolapse, valvular leaflets e____ and prolapse into the L ___ during systole. Most pts. are a_______ but some may report chest p____, p______, or exercise i_____. |
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Definition
enlarge; atrium; asymptomatic; pain; palpitations; intolerance |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
Pts. w/ mitral valve prolapse may also present w/ d____, s____, and have an audible c_____ and m____. |
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Definition
dizziness; syncope; click; murmur |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
What valve disorder is defined by the valves of the the aorta becoming stiff and fibrotic, which impede blood flow with L ventricular contraction? |
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Definition
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
What does aortic stenosis result in? |
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Definition
LV hypertrophy, increased oxygen demands, and pulm. congestion |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
Aortic stenosis may be caused by r____ fever, c_____ abnormalities, or a______; in the elderly, a_____ and c____ is the primary cause. |
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Definition
rheumatic; congenital; atherosclerosis; atherosclerosis; calcification |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
What are the early and late signs of aortic stenosis? |
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Definition
early- dyspnea, angina, syncope
late- marked fatigue, debilitation, peripheral cyanosis, crescendo-decrescendo murmur is heard |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
What valve disorder is characterized by aortic leaflets not closing properly during diastole due to a dilated, loose, or deformed valve ring attaching to leaflets? |
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Definition
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
Causes of aortic regurgitation include: infective e_____, c____ abnormalities, H____, and M____ syndrome. |
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Definition
endocarditis; congenital; HTN; Marfan's |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
True or False-
Many pts. w/ aortic regurgitation may remain asymptomatic for years. |
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Definition
True-
most are asymptomatic and will later develop dyspnea, orthopnea, palpitations, angina, incr. systolic pressure w/ bounding pulses, and/or a high-pitched, blowing decrescendo diastolic murmur |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
How are valve disorders dx? |
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Definition
1. hx and phys. findings
2. EKG
3. CXR
4. cardiac catheterization
5. echocardiogram |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
What medications are given to pts. w/ valve disorders? |
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Definition
diuretics, beta blockers, digoxin, O2, vasodilators, and prophylactic ATBs |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
If a-fib develops in pts. w/ valve disorders, what drug therapy may be initiated? |
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Definition
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
Many of the interventions for valve disorders are the same as for C____. |
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Definition
CHF, such as oxygen admin, strict I & Os and wts., importance of med regimen, etc. |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
A pt. w/ a valve disorder will need to know what important information before undergoing ANY invasive procedure? |
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Definition
this pt. will need prophylactic ATBs before ANY invasive procedure (dental and other surgeries) |
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Term
Valve Disorders Ppt.:
Why is it so important for pts. w/ valve disorders to have prophylactic ATBs before invasive procedures and to be taught the S/S of an infection? |
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Definition
b/c bacterium will adhere to diseased valves very easily, which can readily lead to endocarditis |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
Automaticity, Excitability, Conductivity, Contractility, or Refractoriness?-
Length of rest time needed after depolarization and contraction of the muscle. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
Automaticity, Excitability, Conductivity, Contractility, or Refractoriness?-
The ability to initiate electrical activity w/out other stimulation. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
Automaticity, Excitability, Conductivity, Contractility, or Refractoriness?-
The ability to shorten myocardial muscle fibers to cause chamber contraction. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
Automaticity, Excitability, Conductivity, Contractility, or Refractoriness?-
The ability of cardiac cells to respond to an impulse; allows the cells to depolarize. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
Automaticity, Excitability, Conductivity, Contractility, or Refractoriness?-
The ability to receive an electrical impulse and transmit it to an adjacent cardiac cell. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
How is electrical conduction regulated? |
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Definition
by the autonomic nervous system |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
What is the role of the parasympathetic system (a part of the autonomic system)? |
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Definition
the parasympathetic system releases acetylcholine, which decr. the # of electrical impulses and decr. the heart rate |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
What is the role of the sympathetic system (a part of the autonomic system)? |
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Definition
the sympathetic system releases norepinephrine, which incr. the # of electrical impulses and incr. the heart rate |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
What is the normal electrical conduction pathway? |
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Definition
SA node -> AV node -> bundle of his -> bundle branches -> purkinje fibers |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
SA node, AV node, bundle of his, bundle branches, or purkinje fibers?
Located in the ventricle walls of the heart; receives impulses from R and L bundle branches; inherent rate of ventricular impulses is 20-40 bpm. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
SA node, AV node, bundle of his, bundle branches, or purkinje fibers?
Normal pacemaker of the heart; rate = 60-100 bpm; located in the upper posterior wall ofthe R atrium just distal to the opening from the superior vena cava. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
SA node, AV node, bundle of his, bundle branches, or purkinje fibers?
Helps impulse travel down intraventricular septum; may initiate electrical pulse when the SA node and atrial tissue fail to pace the heart; inherent rate is 40-60 bpm. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
SA node, AV node, bundle of his, bundle branches, or purkinje fibers?
Impulse splits into R and L bundle branches. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
SA node, AV node, bundle of his, bundle branches, or purkinje fibers?
Located in the R atrium behind the tricuspid valve, surrounded by junctional tissue; lacks automaticity and is unable to initiate an electrical impulse or heartbeat; inherent rate of 40-60 bpm; conducts electrial pulse from atria to ventricles. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
The ___-lead EKG system allows for monitoring the limb leads and modified chest leads. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
In a 5-lead EKG, the white wire goes on the pt.'s ____ arm; the green wire goes on the pt.'s ____ leg; the black wire goes on the pt.'s ____ arm; the red wire goes on the pt.'s ____ leg; and the brown wire goes on the __ intercostal space near the ____ sternal border.
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Definition
right; right; left; left; 4th; right |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
True or False-
It is not necessary for a pt.'s skin to be clean, dry, and free of hair in order to place an electrode for an EKG.
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Definition
False-
a pt.'s skin should be washed, dried, and/or shaved in the areas where the electrodes are to be placed |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
What may be used to facilitate electrode adhesion to the skin?
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
On EKG paper, each tiny box = 0.__ seconds and each larger box = 0.__ seconds.
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
A typical EKG strip for interpretation is ___ seconds long. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
In order to estimate the HR, one can count the QRS complexes in a 6-second strip and then multiply by ___. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
An estimate of whether or not a rhythm is regular may be acheived by marking the distance between 2 ____ complexes on a piece of paper and then comparing that distance to the other ____ complexes; if they are even, then it's said the rhythm is r_____. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
On an EKG, what is the "imaginary" line that represents the baseline of the EKG, which is typically located between the T wave and the P wave? |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
In a normal EKG, the waves start and end on the i_____ line; if the waves are above the line, then the waves are p_____; if the waves are below the line, then the waves are n_____. |
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Definition
isoelectric; positive; negative |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
The ____ wave represents atrial depolarization. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
The ___ segment represents the time required for the impulse to travel thru the AV node, just before ventricular depolarization. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
The ___ interval represents the time required for atrial depolarization and thru the conduction system; it is measured from the P wave to the end of the PR segment. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
The ____ complex represents ventricular depolarization and is measured from the beginning of the Q wave to the end of the S wave. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
The ___ point represents the junction where the QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
The ___ segment represents early ventricular repolarization. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
The __ wave represents ventricular repolarization. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
The __ wave represents late ventricular repolarization. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
The __ interval represents the total time required for ventricular depolarization; measure from beginning of QRS complex to end of T wave. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
There should be a ____ complex for each P wave and the ___ interval should be the same throughout the strip. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
What is the normal time for a PR interval (PRI)? |
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Definition
0.12 sec (3 little boxes) to 0.20 sec (5 little boxes) |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
How long should a normal QRS complex be? And what does a widened QRS complex indicate? |
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Definition
normal = <0.12 sec (3 little boxes); a widened QRS complex could indicate an impulse generated in the ventricles or a conduction deficit in the atria |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
What may changes in T waves indicate? |
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Definition
an electrolyte imbalance, some medications, and/or pulm or cardiac issues |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
A U wave is seen after a __ wave and before a __ wave; these may or may not be p____. |
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Definition
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
What are the steps to analyze an ECG? |
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Definition
1. determine HR (count QRS complexes in 6 sec strip and multiply by 10)
2. determine heart rhythm (regular vs. irregular)
3. analyze P waves (should always be followed by QRS complex)
4. meas. PRI (should be same duration)
5. meas. QRS duration (narrow vs. wide)
6. meas. R to R complexes |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
What is a normal sinus rhythm? |
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Definition
60-100 bpm; present P waves followed by a QRS complex; PRI interval is constant (0.12-0.20 sec); and QRS is constant (0.04-0.10 sec) |
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Term
EKG Interpretations & Arrythmias:
_____dysrhythmias = >100 bpm; _____ dysrhythmias = <60 bpm.
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
this is supraventricular tachycardia b/c the HR is >100 bpm and it is almost impossible to differentiate P waves from T waves and QRS complexes are narrow |
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Term
EKG Interpretation and Arrhythmias:
What is aberrant beats w/ wide QRS complexes occurring more than 3 in a row on a 6 sec EKG strip? |
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Definition
ventricular tachycardia = MEDICAL EMERGENCY!!!! |
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Term
EKG Interpretation & Arrythmias:
A first-degree AV block is chracterized by a PRI of >____ seconds, with all other n____ sinus r_____ criteria applying. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
this is atrial flutter (note the tell-tale saw-tooth pattern) |
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