Term
| What are the classes of antibiotics that target the cell wall |
|
Definition
B-lactams -> prevent PG synth; penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems
Vancomycin -> prevent D-alanyl D-alanine cross links |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotics target nucleic acid synth? |
|
Definition
Quinolones (DNA)
Rifampin (RNA)
TMP-SMX (folic acid) |
|
|
Term
| What ENZ are targeted by B-lactams? |
|
Definition
| Transpeptidases (inhibit PG synthesis) |
|
|
Term
| Penicillinase Resistant Atb = ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens with increasing Cephalosporin generation? |
|
Definition
Get MORE Gram NEGATIVE COVERAGE
LESS S. aureus coverage |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cefazolin
Cephalexin (orange, cat pee) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ceftazidime
Ceftriaxone
Ceflixime |
|
|
Term
| ALL cephalosporins have NO coverage against __________ |
|
Definition
| ENTEROCOCCUS (intrinsic resistance) |
|
|
Term
| Cheapest vs most expensive carbapenem? |
|
Definition
Cheapest = Imipenem
Expensive = Meropenem |
|
|
Term
| Seizure risk with carbapenems? |
|
Definition
Imipenem - seizure risk when taking
Meropenem - no seizure risk |
|
|
Term
| What Atb's are the broadest spectrum of the B-lactams? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cross-reactivity between penicillins & what other drug when it comes to allergy? |
|
Definition
| Cephalosporins (more common in older generations) |
|
|
Term
| What do the Aminoglycosides target? |
|
Definition
| 30S ribosome (bactericidal) |
|
|
Term
| Which Atb has ototoxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are often used in synergism when treating Gram +'ve endocarditis? |
|
Definition
| B-lactams + aminoglycosides |
|
|
Term
| Examples of aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the differences in mode of action of aminoglycosides vs. tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
AminoG - 30S ribosome; bactericidal
Tetracycline - 30S ribosome, reversible binding; bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
| Examples of Tetracycline Atb's |
|
Definition
| Tetracycline, Doxycycline |
|
|
Term
| What drug is NOT chemically similar to the macrolides, but has a similar mode of action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Macrolides mode of action... |
|
Definition
| Bind to 50S ribosome; bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin (P450 drug interactions)
Azithromycin (fewer interactions) |
|
|
Term
| What is the mode of action of the quinolones? |
|
Definition
Act on DNA gyrase + topoisomerase II - prevent DNA synthesis
Resistance via DNA gyrase mutations |
|
|
Term
| Older generation Quinolones? |
|
Definition
| Ciprofloxacin, Norfloxacin |
|
|
Term
| Newer generation Quinolones? |
|
Definition
| Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin |
|
|
Term
| What happens to quinolone activity as you go from older to newer generations... |
|
Definition
OPPOSITE of cephalosporin trend.
Older generation = better for Pseudomonas
Newer generation = better for S. aureus |
|
|
Term
| What is the mode of action of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole? |
|
Definition
TMP-SMX - interfere with folic acid synthesis + DNA synthesis
Acts on DHF reductase |
|
|
Term
| What Atb can cause kernicterus in the newborn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Atb should be avoided in those taking K+ retaining drugs (hyperkalemia)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of organisms is metronidazole effective against? |
|
Definition
ANAEROBES (Clostridia, Peptostrepto, Bacteroides)
PARASITES |
|
|
Term
| Which drug can lead to an elevation in the INR? |
|
Definition
| Metronidazole - kills Vit K producing microbes in the gut |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs inhibit ergosterol synthesis + ENZ in fungal respiratory chain? |
|
Definition
| Triazoles - Fluconazole, Voriconazole |
|
|
Term
| Most commonly ordered anti-fungal to treat Candidiasis... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aspergillus (fungal) can be treated with either (one of 2)... |
|
Definition
Voriconazole
Caspofungin (echinocandin) |
|
|
Term
| What does PIRO stand for in relation to sepsis? |
|
Definition
Predisposition
Insult/Inflammation
Response
Organ Dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| SIRS can be dx'd with 2 or more of... |
|
Definition
Resp rate > 20
Tachycardia (HR > 100)
Temp above 38 or below 36
Leukocytosis or leukopenia |
|
|
Term
| Sepsis = _______ + _________ |
|
Definition
| Insult/Inflammation + SIRS |
|
|
Term
| Severe Sepsis = Sepsis + __________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is severe sepsis more commonly acquired in the community or the hospital? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram Positive, Spore-Forming, Rod
Obligate anaerobe |
|
|
Term
| Clinical syndromes associated with C. diff infection |
|
Definition
Toxic megacolon - rapid expansion of colon
Pseudomembranous colitis - C. diff overgrowth of colon |
|
|
Term
| Main virulence factors of C. diff |
|
Definition
TcdA and B
Cause diarrhea and colonic epithelial cytotoxicity, respectively |
|
|
Term
| The virulence factors of C. diff are part of a family called _______...and are encoded on the__________ |
|
Definition
LCTs - large clostridial toxins
Encoded on Pathogenicity Locus (only present on pathogenic strains) |
|
|
Term
| How many domains do the large clostridial toxins have and what is their mechanism of action? |
|
Definition
3 domains
catalytic domain inactivates GTPases to paralyze cytoskeleton |
|
|
Term
| Only way to effectively kill C. diff spores? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Either PO metronidazole (anti-fungal/anti-parasitic) OR PO vancomycin
*Vanco must be taken PO, can't be given IV to treat C. diff |
|
|
Term
| Gold standard test for C. diff vs. one thats most commonly used |
|
Definition
Most common = EIA
Gold standard = CCCNA |
|
|
Term
| C. perfringens microbe classification |
|
Definition
Gram positive, spore forming rod
Obligate anaerobe |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for C. perfringens infection |
|
Definition
| Penicillin + Clindamycin + Sx |
|
|
Term
| What is the major virulence factor of C. perfringens? |
|
Definition
| Alpha-Toxin - metalloproteinase that is NEEDED in order for C. perfringens to be infective; cause DAG release from phospholipids |
|
|
Term
| TeNT vs. BoNT neurotoxins (Tetanus vs. Botox) |
|
Definition
TeNT - causes sustained contraction by blocking inhibitory neurons in CNS
BoNT - causes flaccid paralysis by preventing ACh release from presynaptic terminals |
|
|
Term
| Microbiological classification of ALL Clostridia species? |
|
Definition
Gram positive, spore-forming rods
Obligate anaerobes |
|
|
Term
| Microbiological comparison of Clostridia vs. Bacteroides |
|
Definition
Clostridia - Gram positive, rod, sporulating, obligate anaerobe
Bacteroides - Gram negative, rod, non-sporulating, obligate anaerobe |
|
|
Term
| Main virulence factor of Bacteroides fragilis? |
|
Definition
Polysacch. capsule - promotes abscess formation
Also have HlyA,B; BFT enterotoxin |
|
|
Term
| In intra-abdominal sepsis, which phase of infection is B. fragilis usually present in? |
|
Definition
| Chronic phase (get E. coli in acute phase) |
|
|
Term
| Treatment of Bacteroides fragilis infection? |
|
Definition
Metronidazole
Carbapenems
Clindamycin |
|
|
Term
| Microbio. classification of Peptostreptococcus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment of Peptostreptococcus magnus? |
|
Definition
1st line - penicillins
Then - metronidazole, carbapenems |
|
|
Term
| Which Atb can be used to treat almost all anaerobic infections? |
|
Definition
| Metronidazole (most Clostridia, Bacteroides, Peptostrepto) |
|
|
Term
| Microbio classification of Streptococci? |
|
Definition
Gram Positive, Cocci in Chains
Catalase Negative |
|
|
Term
| Hemolysis pattern of classification of bacteria... |
|
Definition
Beta-hemolysis - GAS, GBS
Alpha-hemolysis - S. pneumoniae
Gamma-hemolysis - Enterococci |
|
|
Term
| Encapsulated microorganisms... |
|
Definition
ESNKHCBP
E. coli
Streptococcus
Neisseria
Klebsiella
Haemophilus
Salmonella
Cryptococcus
Pseudomonas
Bacteroides |
|
|
Term
| What is the major virulence factor of S. pyogenes? |
|
Definition
| M-protein - adherence, prevent opsonization/phago |
|
|
Term
| Virulence factors of Strep. |
|
Definition
#1 - M-protein
Streptolysin O - antigenic, B-hemolysis
Streptolysin S - non-antigenic, B-hemolysis
Exotoxins - superantigens
Capsule - hyaluronidase |
|
|
Term
| Rheumatic fever is a potential consequence of which infection? |
|
Definition
| S. pyogenes - because of similarity between M-protein of bacterium and heart valve proteins (cause of endocarditis) |
|
|
Term
| Rx of S. pyogenes infection? |
|
Definition
1st line = Penicillin
2nd line = Erythromycin (Macrolide)
IF invasive - Vancomycin |
|
|
Term
| Difference in cultures of GAS (S. pyogenes) vs. GBS (S. agalactiae) |
|
Definition
GAS - large zone B-hemolysis
GBS - pin-point colonies, small zone hemolysis; CAMP+ |
|
|
Term
| What is the main virulence factor for GBS (S. agalactiae) |
|
Definition
| B-hemolysin - cytotoxic to pulmonary cells; can be killed off by surfactant |
|
|
Term
| What is the drug used for prophylaxis of GBS infection during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do S. pneumoniae appear on a Gram stain? What is their pattern of hemolysis? |
|
Definition
Gram Positive, Lancet-Shaped cocci
Alpha-Hemolysis |
|
|
Term
| Which bacterium is the #1 cause of pneumonia in adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the #1 cause of bacterial meningitis in adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment for Strep. pneumoniae infection? |
|
Definition
1st line = Pen G
If not = cephalosporins (3rd), erythromycin |
|
|
Term
| Vaccine recommendations for S. pneumoniae based on age? |
|
Definition
2-5 yrs = conjugate vaccine
> 5 yrs = polysachhride vaccine |
|
|
Term
| What colour do the alpha-hemolytic colonies appear on blood agar? |
|
Definition
| Greenish - because of incomplete hemolysis |
|
|
Term
| Microbial classification of Enterococci? |
|
Definition
Gram Positive Cocci in Pairs/Short Chains
Catalase Negative (like Strep, unlike Staph) |
|
|
Term
| Catalase tests for Strep vs. Enterococci vs. Staph |
|
Definition
Strep, Enterococci = Catalase Neg
Staph = Catalase Positive |
|
|
Term
| What Atb's does Enterococcus have intrinsic resistance against? |
|
Definition
Cephalosporins
Septra (TMP-SMX) |
|
|
Term
| What Atb's can Enterococcus develop acquired resistance to (not including intrinsically resistant ones)? |
|
Definition
| Cell wall agents - B-lactams, carbapenems; vancomycin |
|
|
Term
| Main virulence factors of enterococci? |
|
Definition
Agg - agglutination, aggregation; intracell survival
Esp - extra cell protein; biofilm formation
MSCRAMMMs
Atb Resistance |
|
|
Term
| Most common infection with Enterococci? |
|
Definition
| UTIs - usually nosocomial |
|
|
Term
| How to treat vancomycin resistant vs. vancomycin sensitive Enterococci? |
|
Definition
VRE - linezolid
VSE - Pen G/ampicillin + gentamicin
(Combo of B-lactam + aminoglycoside for bacterial endocarditis) |
|
|
Term
| Most common causes of bacterial endocarditis? |
|
Definition
1. Strep. viridans
2. Staph. aureus
3. Enterococci |
|
|
Term
| Staph. aureus microbio classification? |
|
Definition
Gram positive cocci in clusters (like clusters of grapes)
Catalase positive
Coagulase positive
Gold appearance on blood agar |
|
|
Term
| Coagulase testing of S. aureus vs. saprophyticus vs. epidermidis |
|
Definition
S. aureus = coagulase positive
S. epiderm, saprophyt = coagulase negative |
|
|
Term
| How is Atb resistance conferred in S. aureus? |
|
Definition
Secretion of penicillinases = penicillin resistance
PBP2' mutation = methicillin resistance |
|
|
Term
| Which diseases associated with S. aureus infection are caused by exotoxin release? |
|
Definition
Scaled Skin Syndrome - by exofoliative exotoxin
Gastroenteritis - by heat toxic enterotoxin
Toxic Shock Syndrome - by TSST-1; superantigen |
|
|
Term
| Clinical syndromes associated with Staph. aureus? |
|
Definition
SOFT PAINS
Skin infection
Osteomyelitis
Food poisoning
Toxic shock
Pneumonia
Acute endocarditis
Infective arthritis
Necrotizing fasc
Sepsis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
MSSA - cloxacililn (1st line); cephazolin
MRSA - vancomycin; linezolid; TMP-SMX |
|
|
Term
| What is the 1st line treatment for MSSA? |
|
Definition
Cloxacillin
2nd line = cefazolin (1st gen Ceph) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Vancomycin (usually is MDR) |
|
|
Term
| S. saprophyticus typically causes... |
|
Definition
| UTIs in sexually active young women |
|
|
Term
| Microbio classification of Chlamydia |
|
Definition
Gram Negative, Obligate intracellular parasite (cannot make ATP)
Has NO PG layer (therefore, no B-lactams) |
|
|
Term
| What drug class can you not use on Chlamydias and why? |
|
Definition
| No B-lactams because no PG layer |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 main species of Chlamydia |
|
Definition
C. pneumoniae
C. psittaci
C. trachomatis |
|
|
Term
| What are the infective particles vs. active particles of Chlamydia called? |
|
Definition
Elementary bodies = infective
Reticular bodies = active |
|
|
Term
| Main clinical syndrome caused by C. pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
| Atypical pneumonia in young adults |
|
|
Term
| What causes atypical pneumonia in pet workers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which species of Chlamydia can infect the greatest # of regions? |
|
Definition
| C. trachomatis - eyes, lungs, genitals |
|
|
Term
| Clinical syndromes associated with C. trachomatis infection? |
|
Definition
Trachoma = chronic conjunctivitis
LGV = lymphogranuloma venereum
Infant conjunctivitis, pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| How is infant conjunctivitis with C. trachomatis treated? |
|
Definition
| Erythromycin eye-drops at birth |
|
|
Term
| Which serotypes of C. trachomatis cause which of its associated clinical syndromes? |
|
Definition
Serotypes A-C = trachoma
Serotypes L1-L3 = LGV
Serotypes D-K = infant conjunctivitis; cervicitis, PID, non-gonoccal urethritis |
|
|
Term
| What are the genital manifestations of C. trachomatis infection? |
|
Definition
Cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease
Lymphogranuloma venereum
Urethritis (non-gonoccal) |
|
|
Term
| Rx for trachoma from C. trachomatis? |
|
Definition
| Rx = azithromycin (macrolide) |
|
|
Term
| Rx for LGV from C. trachomatis infection? |
|
Definition
| 3 weeks DOXYCYCLINE or ERYTHROMYCIN |
|
|
Term
| What are the age restrictions for doxycycline and quinolone use in treating C. trachomatis infections? |
|
Definition
Doxycycline must be 7+ yrs of age (used to treat LGV)
Quinolones must be 18+ yrs of age (used to treat infant pneumonia) |
|
|
Term
| What is thought to be the most common UTI? |
|
Definition
| Non-gonococcal urethritis (caused by C. trachomatis) |
|
|
Term
| What are the microbiological characteristics of Neisseria gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
Gram negative (like Chlamyd), diplococci
Intracellular (within neutrophils)
Coffee bean shaped |
|
|
Term
| What two general classes of drugs can be used to treat most Chlamydia infections? |
|
Definition
Tetracyclines (Doxycycline)
Macrolides (Azithromycin, Erythromycin)
**Doxycyclines only given if 7+ yrs old |
|
|
Term
| What is the main virulence factor for Neisseria gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
| Type IV Pili - adherence, resist phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
| Diseases associated with N. gonorrhea infection? |
|
Definition
Ophthalmia neonatorium (neonates; vertical transmission during birth)
Urethritis, cervicitis (PID), disseminated gonorrhea (bacteremia, arthritis) |
|
|
Term
| What glands are infected in urethritis in males leading to pus discharge when infected with N. gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3rd gen cephalosporin (ceftriaxone) + azithromycin
Prevent resistance; have highly resistant strains in Asia |
|
|
Term
| What is the smallest of all bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two microbes have no PG and are therefore not able to be treated with any B-lactams? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 pathogenic species of Mycoplasma? |
|
Definition
M. pneumoniae
M. genitalia
M. hominis
U. urealyticum |
|
|
Term
| What bacterial infection presents with "walking pneumonia"? |
|
Definition
| Mycoplasma pneumoniae - persistent cough, don't feel sick; atypical pneumonia; Stevens-Johnson syndrome w/ target shaped lesions |
|
|
Term
| Which Mycoplasma infection presents with target shaped lesions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Rx for pneumonia vs. NGU/cervicitis from Mycoplasma infection |
|
Definition
Pneumonia = azithromycin, doxycycline, quinolones (same as C. pneumoniae)
NGU/cervicitis = azithromyc/doxycycline |
|
|
Term
| Which 2 drugs can treat most Mycoplasma infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Characteristics of the Enterobacteriaceae family? |
|
Definition
Gram negative rods; facultative anaerobes
Ferment glucose
Reduce nitrate to nitrite
Catalase +
Oxidase - (except for Plesiomonas) |
|
|
Term
| E. coli are lactose ______, indole ______, and catalase _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of UTIs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of neonatal meningitis? |
|
Definition
| Group B strep (Strep. agalactaciae) |
|
|
Term
| Virulence factors of E. coli |
|
Definition
Siderophores
LPS (Lipid A Endotoxin)
Mucosal adherence
Heat-labile and stable toxin |
|
|
Term
| What colour do E. coli appear on MacConkey agar and why? |
|
Definition
Appear PINK
Because they are lactose +'ve |
|
|
Term
| Where is the O antigen located on bacterium? |
|
Definition
| On the LPS (only on gram negatives) |
|
|
Term
| What colour are EHEC colonies on Sorbitol MacConkey Agar (SMAC)? |
|
Definition
| Colourless (clear colonies) |
|
|
Term
| What is the triad of symptoms in hemolytic uremic syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, acute renal injury |
|
|
Term
| Treatment of UPEC (uropathogenic E. coli)... |
|
Definition
TMP-SMX
or
Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin, Norfloxacin) |
|
|
Term
| What treatments should NOT be given with EHEC dx? |
|
Definition
NSAIDs (increased risk of renal insult)
Anti-motility, antibiotics (increased risk of HUS) |
|
|
Term
| What is the potent toxin of EHEC? Where is a similar toxin found? |
|
Definition
Shiga toxin
Found in Shigella |
|
|
Term
| Which salmonella serovars can cause typhoid fever? |
|
Definition
| S. enterica serovar typhi, paratyphi (A-C) |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of typhoid fever |
|
Definition
Caused by S. enterica (serovars typhi and paratyphi)
Diarrhea, cramps, constipation, rose-spots on trunk (maculopapular) |
|
|
Term
| Struvite stones are seen in infection with... |
|
Definition
Proteus (usually mirabilis, vulgaris)
Providencia (also urease +'ve) |
|
|
Term
| Characteristics of Proteus in Lab: |
|
Definition
Urease +'ve
Lactose -'ve
Swarming Motility |
|
|
Term
| Two main virulence factors for Proteus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Proteus is indole positive? |
|
Definition
| Proteus vulgaris (is the encapsulated one bitch) |
|
|
Term
| What are the lab characteristics of Salmonella enterica? |
|
Definition
Indole Negative
Hydrogen sulfide producing
Lactose Negative |
|
|
Term
| Which Enterobacteriaceae forms "mucoid colonies"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Enterobacteriaceae are lactose positive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which member of Enterobacteriacea is hydrogen sulfide producing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Enterbacteriaceae are urease positive? |
|
Definition
Proteus
Morganella
Providencia |
|
|
Term
| What can be used to treat the SPICE organisms? |
|
Definition
All have inducible AmpC so are generally MDR
Use 4th generation cephalosporins or carbapenems |
|
|
Term
| Which Enterobacteriaceae are gelatinase positive? What is their main infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 factors does the efficacy of B-lactams depend on? |
|
Definition
1) Amount of contact with target
2) Affinity for target
3) Production of B-lactamases |
|
|
Term
| Type of resistance conferred with porin mutations vs. efflux systems? |
|
Definition
Porin = low level
Efflux = high level (usually in addition to porin mutations) |
|
|
Term
| What does LPS confer an INHERENT RESISTANCE to? |
|
Definition
Pen G/V
Vancomycin
Macrolides |
|
|
Term
| In terms of their activity, ESBLs can be (3 different things) |
|
Definition
Constitutive
Inducible
De-Repressed |
|
|
Term
| How do you test for ESBLs? |
|
Definition
Need a B-lactamase inhibitor + 3rd gen cephalosporin
Compare growth w/ and w/o B-lactamase inhibitor (needs to be 8x or more larger w/ for it to be ESBL) |
|
|
Term
| Lab features/characteristics of Pseudomonas? |
|
Definition
Gram Negative
Rod
Oxidase +'ve (unlike most Enterobacteriaceae)
Grape-like odour
Blue-green pigments on wound dressings |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
PCCIA
Pip/Tazo
Ceftazidine
Ciprofloxacin
Imipenem
Aminoglycoside |
|
|
Term
| What is P. aeruginosa most commonly assocaited with in terms of respiratory infections? |
|
Definition
| Ventilator associated Pneumonia (common in CF patients) |
|
|
Term
| Ecthyma gangrenosum may result from infection by which microbe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Associated clinical syndromes with P. aeruginosa infection? |
|
Definition
BE PSEUDO
Burns
Endocarditis
Pneumonia
Skin & soft tissue
External malignant otitis/eye infection
UTI
Diabetic osteomyelitis |
|
|
Term
| Drugs used for malaria prophylaxis |
|
Definition
Chloroquine - widespread resistance
Doxycycline - photosensitivity; no kids
Primaquine - G6PD screening; causes dose dependent anemia
Mefloquine - good drug, bad rep |
|
|
Term
| Standard malaria treatment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does Plasmodium undergo sexual vs. asexual replication |
|
Definition
Sexual = in mosquito
Asexual = in RBCs and liver of us |
|
|
Term
| What are the infective Plasmodium cells called? |
|
Definition
| Sporozoites (swim from mosquito into our bloodstream) |
|
|
Term
| What are the inactive forms of P. vivax and ovale called that reside in the liver? How do we treat those? |
|
Definition
Hypnozoites
Treat with primaquine |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary virulence factor of Giardia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Usually not needed (self-limiting)
If needed - albendazole, metronidazole |
|
|
Term
| Difference between CYSTS and TROPHOZOITES for Giardia? |
|
Definition
Cysts = infective form
Trophozoites = metabolically active form |
|
|
Term
| What are the only 3 diseases learned that spread through the air? |
|
Definition
Varicella Zoster virus
Measles
Mycobacterium TB |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Acid-fast staining (because of mycolic acids in cell wall)
Non-motile
Obligate Aerobe
Rod |
|
|
Term
| What are the special stains used for Mycobacterium TB staining called? |
|
Definition
Ziehl Nielssen stain
Kinyoun stain
Can also use fluorescent staining |
|
|
Term
| What does Mycobacterium TB infection resolve in in the vast majority of cases |
|
Definition
| Ghon's complex - calcification of lymph nodes and caseous lesion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
RIPE
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae B? |
|
Definition
| The polyribitol phosphate capsule (6 types = A-F; B is most common) |
|
|
Term
| What was the #1 cause of meningitis in children until a vaccine was created in 1992? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lab characteristics of Haemophilus influenzae |
|
Definition
Gram negative coccobacilli
Encapsulated |
|
|
Term
| Which gram negatives are coccobacilli? |
|
Definition
Haemophilus
Bordetella pertussis
(Chlamydia) |
|
|
Term
| T. pallidum is classified as Gram _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Gram negatives are cocci? |
|
Definition
| Neisseria (meningitidis, gonorrheae) |
|
|
Term
| Rx for Haemophilus influenzae if infecting the brain? |
|
Definition
| 3rd gen Cephalosporin - ceftriaxone |
|
|
Term
| Difference btwn typeable vs. non-typeable strains of H. influenzae |
|
Definition
| Non-typeable strains do not produce a capsule, are typically less virulent, mostly only seen in IV drug users |
|
|
Term
| Lab characteristics of Bordetella pertussis |
|
Definition
Gram negative
Coccobacilli
Aerobic |
|
|
Term
| Gold standard for B. pertussis dx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Macrolides - erythromycin, azithromycin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What anti-fungal can be used to treat all fungi except Cryptococcus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MOST COMMON FUNGAL INFECTION = ... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment for cryptococcus? |
|
Definition
| Amphotericin, fluconazole |
|
|
Term
| What is the gold standard anti-fungal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mechanism of action of azoles? |
|
Definition
| Inhibit ergosterol synthesis (fungistatic) |
|
|
Term
| Gram positive bacteria... |
|
Definition
CLESSP
Clostridia
Listeria
Enterococci
Strep
Staph
Peptostrepto |
|
|
Term
| What are the only gram negative cocci? |
|
Definition
| Neisseria (meningitidis, gonorrheae) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
PEB
Pseudomonas
Enterobacteriaceae
Bacteroides |
|
|
Term
| Gram negative spirochete... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 gram neg coccobacili |
|
Definition
Haemophilus influ.
Bordetella pertuss.
Chlamydia |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 phases of B. pertussis infection? |
|
Definition
Catarrhal - runny nose, start to cough; can intervene
Paroxysmal - cannot intervene; well established cough |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is B. pertussis most contagious? |
|
Definition
| Catarrhal phase + 1st 2 weeks of coughing |
|
|
Term
| Can 3rd gen ceph cross the BBB |
|
Definition
You bet they can!
Treat H. influenzae B meningitis with ceftriaxone |
|
|
Term
| What kind of viruses are the Herpes viruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does VZV hide in latent period? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which HSV cause oral and genital sores? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do HSV-1 and 2 live in during their latent periods? |
|
Definition
| The pelvic ganglia (nerves) |
|
|
Term
| Where does HSV like to cause encephalitis? |
|
Definition
| Temporal lobe; causes seizures |
|
|
Term
| How do we treat neonatal herpes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the 3rd most infectious disease known to man? |
|
Definition
| VZV (behind TB and Measles) |
|
|
Term
| Which herpes virus is considered to be the "strongest"? |
|
Definition
| VZV - dont need that big of a drop in immune function to re-activate |
|
|
Term
| What is the hallmark of almost every herpes virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is worse, peri-natal or congenital CMV? |
|
Definition
| CONGENITAL ; peri-natal is usually asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
| Therapy for CMV infection? |
|
Definition
| Ganciclovir (same family as acyclovir) |
|
|
Term
| When are the two peaks of EBV infection? |
|
Definition
1-6 yrs; 14-20 yrs
**THIS IS IN DEVELOPED COUNTRIES
**In developing countries, 90% infected by age 2 |
|
|
Term
| Where does the EBV hide during latency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HHV-8 is associated with... |
|
Definition
| Kaposi's sarcoma (mainly in AIDS patients) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 subfamilies of herpes viruses |
|
Definition
Alpha - HSV1, HSV2, VZV
Beta - CMV, HHV6, HHV7
Gamma - EBV, HHV8 |
|
|
Term
| How did HIV get from non-human primates to us? |
|
Definition
| Started as Simian Immunodeficiency Viruses (SIV) rhesus macaques and sooty mangebays; to chimps; to us through eating chimps |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the normal CD4:8 ratio in HIV |
|
Definition
It reverses
Normally CD4:8 > 1, but with CD4 infection of HIV, get decline and ratio reverses |
|
|
Term
| Highest probability of contracting AIDS? |
|
Definition
| Receptive anal intercourse (3 per 100) |
|
|
Term
| What is happening to HIV prevalence and incidence in Canada? |
|
Definition
Prevalence - increasing (people are living longer)
Incidence - stable, no decline |
|
|
Term
| What is the only increasing HIV incidence population in Canada? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does acute retroviral syndrome of AIDS mimic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus causes oral hairy leukoplakia? |
|
Definition
| EBV (is an HIV associated disease) |
|
|
Term
| HIV therapy is now recommended for whom? |
|
Definition
|
|
