Term
What are the four types of hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
Type 1 - Immediate.
Involves the crosslinking of IgE on mast cells by an antigen (allergen)
Type 2 - Antibody Mediated.
The binding of IgG or IgM antibodies to cells or basement membranes.
Type 3 - Immune complex-mediated.
Immune complexes containing antibodies and complement deposit in tissues and mediate the reaction.
Type 4 - Cell-mediated.
T cell-directed mechanisms of tissue injury |
|
|
Term
Type 1 Hypersensitivity reactions are generally called _______.
They can vary in severity from a local whelp to systemic reactions.
There are generally 2 phases, the _______ and _______ phases.
The first phase begins ______ and lasts ______. The second phase begins ______ and lasts for __________. |
|
Definition
Allergies
Initial (or immediate), second (late)
within minutes, for about an hour
2-24 hours after exposure, up to several days
|
|
|
Term
What physical changes characterize the immediate or acute phase of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
A late Phase? |
|
Definition
Acute phase:
Vasodilation, vascular leakage, smooth muscle contraction (ex. bronchioles - not vascular smooth muscle), and mucus secretion (depending on the site)
Late Phase:
Tissue infiltration with Eosinophils, Neutrophils, Basophils, monocytes, CD4 T cells...tissue destruction, usually in the form of mucosal epithelial damage. |
|
|
Term
What type of cells do CD4 T cells transform into to induce B-cell production of IgE antibodies during a hypersensitivity type 1 reaction?
What signals do these cells release? |
|
Definition
Th2
IL-3, IL-4, IL-5, IL-13 |
|
|
Term
Generally, what are the primary mediators of type 1 hypersensitivity released by Mast Cells?
List some of the effects of these mediators. |
|
Definition
Biogenic Amine = Histamine
- Smooth muscle contraction
- increase vascular permeability
- increase mucus production
Enzymes = ex. Neutral and acid Proteses
- Activate Complement
- generate Kinins (vasodilation, smooth muscle contraction)
Proteoglycans = ex. Heparin, chondroitin sulfate
- package and bind mediators in granules
- Anticoagulant properties
Note: These are all Preformed |
|
|
Term
What are the secondary mediators released by Mast cells to mediate a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
What are some of their actions?
Are these preformed or synthesized de novo during a reaction? |
|
Definition
Leukotrienes -- LT-C4 and LT - D4 and LT-E4 are potent vasoactive and spasmogenic mediators. LT-B4 is a chemotactant for granulocytes
Prostaglandin D2 -- causes bronchospasm and mucus production
Platelet Activating Factor -- Causes platelet aggregation, Histamine release from platelets, increased vascular permeability, vasodilation, bronchospasm. Also chemotactant for neutro's and Eo's.
Cytokines:
TNF α, IL-1, IL-3, IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, GM-CSF. Generally these cytokines cause inflammation (esp, TNF and IL-1) and recruit inflammatory cells
These factors are synthesized De novo starting in the acute phase |
|
|
Term
What even leads to Mast cell degranulation? |
|
Definition
IgE bound by its Fc region to the Mast cell surface recognizes a foreign antigen. Crosslinking of two IgE antibodies the the same antigen brings the two receptors into close proximity, which leads to internal signals telling the mast cell to release its granular content. |
|
|
Term
What is the name of the receptor to which IgE is bound by its Fc region to the surface of a mast cell?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What receptor for Histamine mediates the acute allergies of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
|
|
Definition
There are 3 Histamine receptors (H1, H2, H3), but the receptor implicated in type 1 hypersensitivites is H1. |
|
|
Term
What are the actions of:
IL-3
IL-4
IL-5
IL-13
These are the primary cytokines released by Th_ cells in a type _ hypersensitivity reaction. |
|
Definition
IL-13, IL-4 = Activation of B-cells to secrete IgE and IgG4, increase mast cell proliferation and activation of Th2 cells(IL-4)
IL-5 = increase the proliferation of Eo's. Also antiparasitic.
IL-3 = increase the survival and prolif of myeloid cells (everything but lymphocytes)
Th2
type 1 |
|
|
Term
How would mast cell degranulation affect the following:
GI tract
Airways
Blood Vessels |
|
Definition
GI tract - increased fluid secretion and peristalsis, meant for increased expulsion (vomiting and diarrhea)
Airway - bronchoconstriction and increased mucus production, expulsion of airway contents (coughing and phlegm)
Blood Vessels - increased blood flow (dilation), and increased permeability, leading to edema, inflammation, increased lymph flow |
|
|
Term
2ndary synthesis of prostaglandins and Leukotrienes by mast cells depends upon release of __________ from the cell membrane with the enzyme ________. Once released, this molecule can be acted upon by _________ to form Leukotrienes or ____________ to become prostaglandins. |
|
Definition
Arachidonic acid
Phospholipase A2
Lipooxygenase
Cyclooxygenase |
|
|
Term
What chemical mediators do Eosinophils produce?
|
|
Definition
Major Basic Protein
Eosinophilic Cationic Protein
Eosinophil Peroxidase
As well as products similar to what mast cells release:
LT's, PG's, Cytokines (IL-1,2,4,5,6,8,13 and TNF) |
|
|
Term
What factors beside IgE crosslinking could cause a mast cell to degranulate? |
|
Definition
Complement C3a and C5a
drugs or chemicals -- codeine, morphine, adenosine, mellitin
Calcium ionophores (ca influx causes vesicle fusion with membrane)
Certain cytokines - ex IL-8
excess cold, hea, irritants
contrast media (as during a CT scan) |
|
|
Term
What are some pharmacological treatments for Allergic reactions?
|
|
Definition
Anti-histamine - block H1 receptors (the main cause of vascular response)
COX/Lipooxygenase inhibitors
Corticosteroids (decreases transcription of proinflammatory mediators and increases transcription of anti-inflammatory mediators)
Chromolyn Sodium (prevents mast cell degranulation)
Β2 agonists (epinephrine, albuterol) - relaxes smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
What are some immunological treatments for allergies?
|
|
Definition
Inhibit Th2 activation (desensitization with increasing antigen doses, administer Th1 inducing cytokines to divert -- IFNγ, IL-10, IL-12)
Block Th2 cytokines and B cell activation -- inhibilt CD40L, IL-4, IL-13
Inhibit eosinophil-dependent inflammation -- inhibit IL-5
Block mast cell binding of IgE -- anti IgE or FcεR1 blocker |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
RadioImmunoSorbentTest
RadioAllergoSorbentTest
These are both quantitative tests for IgE |
|
|
Term
_______________ anaphylaxis is an immediate type hypersensitivity reaction usually caused by administration of foreign proteins and _____ characterized by vascular ____, widespread _____, and difficulty _____.
|
|
Definition
Systemic
drugs
shock
edema
breathing |
|
|
Term
What antibodies can be implicated in a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?
|
|
Definition
IgM
IgG
IgA (occasionally) |
|
|
Term
Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by antibodies reacting against antigens on what two types of locations? |
|
Definition
Cell surfaces
Extracellular Matrix (ex. Goodpastures) |
|
|
Term
There are 3 mechanisms by which a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction occurs. Name them and provide a description. |
|
Definition
- Complement-dependent: complement binds antibody bound to cell surface (opsonization) and enhances uptake by macrophages or hemolysis with MAC. Example: transfusion reaction
- Antibody-Dependent Cell-Mediated Cytotoxicity: cells with low concentrations of bound antibodies are lysed by nonsensitized cells the an Fc receptor (example, a neutrophil binding and releasing toxic compounds) Example: Graft Rejection
- Antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction: antibodies cause a disruption of cell function. Ex. Graves Disease, Myasthenia Gravis.
|
|
|
Term
Examples of Type 2 Hypersensitivity reactions via mechanism 1
|
|
Definition
Complement-dependent
transfusion reactions
erythroblastosis fetalis
autoimmune hemolytic anemia/granulocytopenia/thrombocytopenia
certain drug reactions (eg, penicilin sensitivity) |
|
|
Term
Mechanism 2 of type 2 hypersensitivity reactions can be used against both a cell and extracellular proteins such as the basement membrane.
elaborate on the mechanism that affects the ECM |
|
Definition
antibodies react with the ECM and attract complement, releasing active complement fragments that attract neutrophils and monocytes. These cells bind the antibodies with Fc receptors and release enzymes and reactive oxygen intermediates and cause tissue damage. |
|
|
Term
What are examples of diseases caused by the Complement/Fc-receptor mechanism of type 2 hypersensitivities?
|
|
Definition
Glomerular Nephritis
vascular rejection in organ grafts
Goodpasture's Syndrome |
|
|
Term
What factors may lead to the deposition of antibody/antigen complexes in tissue and cause a local or systemic inflammatory process?
Otherwise known as __________. |
|
Definition
Type 3 Hypersensitivity Reaction
the nature of the antigen/antibody complex -- become insoluble
the ratio of antigen:antibody (too much antigen leads to formation of very small complexes that cannot be picked up by macrophages)
the inability of phagocytic cells to remove immune complexes due to overload or disfunction |
|
|
Term
Immune complex formation can be _______, being formed in circulation and be deposited systemically, or they can be ____________ to a particular organ. |
|
Definition
Generalized
Localized (ex. joints, kidney, skin) |
|
|
Term
What are some disease phenotypes associated with Antibody-mediated cellular disfuntion, a mechanism of type 2 hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
Myasthenia Gravis (antibody against ACh receptor of muscles)
Grave's Disease (activating TSH receptor of thyroid)
Pemphigus vulgaris (antibodies against desmosomes disrupt epidermal cell junctions, causing vesicles) |
|
|
Term
What is the pathogenesis of Systemic Immune Complex Disease?
|
|
Definition
1. Formation of antigen/antibody complex in circulation, complement may bind to these complexes.
2. Deposition of immune complex in tissues. The complexes insert into tissues and interact with neutrophils or monocytes via Fc or complement receptors, causing release of vasoactive mediators and cytokines.
3. Inflammation reaction illicited by immune complexes. About 10 days after administration. Major events are complement activation (C5a, C3a) and continued phagocyte activation |
|
|
Term
What morphological finding is prominent in type 3 hypersensitivity reactions?
Hint: Consider where these these complexes are initially forming |
|
Definition
Acute Necrotizing Vasculitis.
The necrotizing vessels will be replaces by a smudgy, eosinophilic deposit -- fibrinoid necrosis |
|
|
Term
What are examples of Type 3 Hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
farmers lung -- caused by fungus (_____ lung, in general -- caused by job-associated allergen)
Acute Glomerular Nephritis
Serum Sickness
Arthus reaction |
|
|
Term
Hypersensitivity type 4 reactions are mediated by what types of cells?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
There are two general classification of type 4 hypersensitivity reaction.
One is mediated by CD4 T cells, ____________
The other is mediated by CD8 T cells, ___________ |
|
Definition
CD4: Delayed Type Hypersensitivity
CD8: Direct Cell Toxicity
|
|
|
Term
Delayed type hypersensitivities are characterized by accumulations of ___________ around small veins and venules.
This density is referred to as _________________.
Signals from these cells mediates inflammation, causing increased permeability in the _________, edema, and deposition of ________. |
|
Definition
Mononuclear cells
Perivascular cuffing
microvasculature
fibrin |
|
|
Term
The main cell type that is seen in perivascular cuffing is __________, which may be replaced by _________ (type of cell) if the antigen cannot be eliminated (over 2-3 weeks).
These latter cells undergo a transformation to become __________.
The combination of the latter cells and the main, mediating cell type are characteristic of a ____________. |
|
Definition
CD4 T-Cell
Macrophages
epitheloid cells
granuloma
All this leads to granulomatous inflammation in chronic states.
|
|
|
Term
What are the cytokines most relevent to Delayed type hypersensitivity reactions? What cells are responsible for releasing them? |
|
Definition
IFN gamma -- Th1 cells. Activate macrophages and B cell Ig class switching
IL-12 -- macrophages. Increase Th1 activation, macrophage and NK activation
TNF -- Th1 cells. proinflammatory. increases vasc perm, leukocyte mobilization, local coagulation, selectin and integrin expression by endothelium
lymphytoxin (LT) -- Th1(?), important in limiting inflammation and leukocyte recruitment. |
|
|
Term
Contact hypersensitivity is another type of hypersensitivity type 4 reaction.
These reactions are induced by what kind of molecule?
Provide a few examples |
|
Definition
Haptens.
Poison ivy (pentadecacatechol)
Metal ions -- ex. Ni, CrO3
Gluten allergies |
|
|
Term
Tissue transplant rejection is mediated by two different types of leukocytes.
What are they?
|
|
Definition
T-Cell mediated, a cellular rejection mechanism,
B-Cells mediate a humoral rejection. |
|
|
Term
T-cell mediated immunity is a cellular rejection path that can be ___________ or in__________.
This has to do with whether or not the donor or recipient APC's present the foreign antigen/MHC complex. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the direct pathway of T-cell-mediated graft rejection. |
|
Definition
Recipient T cells directly recognize DONOR MHC molecules on the surface of DONOR APCs. This sensitizes the CD8 cells and they can directly kill donor cells bearing those antigens.
Essentially, there is no middle man. The recipient's cells recognize the Donor's APCs without any cross presentation. |
|
|
Term
Describe the Indirect Pathway for T cell mediated graft rejection.
|
|
Definition
Recipient T cells recognize antigens from the donor graft presented by the recipient's own APCs.
Indirect because the foreign antigen had to be recognized, ingested, and then presented to the recipient T-cells. |
|
|
Term
There are 3 classifications of tissue reection based on the time frame in which they occur:
What are the three classifications and defining times? |
|
Definition
Hyperacute: hours
Acute (cellular/humoral): Days
Chronic: Months |
|
|
Term
Th17 cells are also implicated in immunologic inflammation.
Rather than recruit macrophages to the site of inflammation, Th17 cells recruit what type of cells?
What cytokines are responsible for this recruitment and activation?
|
|
Definition
granuloctes such as neutrophils.
IL-17 and IL-22 |
|
|
Term
Hyperacute reactions happen when the antibodies to the transplanted tissue are _______.
This is why it takes only minutes to hours for a reaction to happen (example ABO incompat.) |
|
Definition
Pre-formed
The recipient had previously been exposed to some antigen present in the donor tissue. |
|
|
Term
The main target of a hyperacute tissue rejection is ?
This damage is due in part to what component that often works with antibodies? |
|
Definition
Vascular endothelium.
Complement -- fixation occurs on antibody-coated endothelium, leading to lupus like events...thrombosis
There is ultimately neutrophil accumulation to remove debris, vessel occlusion, fibrinoid necrosis |
|
|
Term
Acute tissue rejection, happening within days or SUDDENLY within months, can utilize both T cell and B cell mediated mechanisms.
When the mechanism is mostly CD8 T cell mediated you can expect to find what pathology?
|
|
Definition
edema and mononuclear infiltrate
endothelitis
|
|
|
Term
When Acute tissue rejection is mediated by a B-cell humoral response, what patholoy would you expect to find? |
|
Definition
Rejection vasculitis
Marked intimal thickening
antidonor antibodies
Basically a similar picture to the hyperacute because the antibodies are mediating the inflammation. |
|
|
Term
The most common cause of graft rejection is a chronic rejection because patients are on immunosuppression.
Chronic rejection usually works via the direct/indirect (choose one) pathway?
thus, you would expect to see? |
|
Definition
Indirect
interstitial fibrosis |
|
|
Term
Two mechanisms CD8 T cells use to destroy target cells, in tissue rejection, for example, are:
|
|
Definition
Perforin-granzyme-dependent
Fas-FasL-dependent |
|
|
Term
There is a strong genetic predisposition for many autoimmune diseases.
Provide a few examples and a disease name |
|
Definition
CTLA-4 (indicated in some SLE)
AIRE -- APS/APECED
Fas/FasL
FoxP3 -- IPEX |
|
|
Term
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is the classic autoimmunde disease, more common in women than men, and even more so in African-American women.
Describe the possible clinical problems a patient with SLE may have. |
|
Definition
Skin rash (malar, butterfly, or discoid often)
Photosensitivity
Arthritis, serositis, oral ulcers
Hemotologic issues -- anti-rbc,leukocyte,plt antibodies
Fever, fatigue, weightloss
Renal, cardiac, CNS involvement
Positive ANA |
|
|
Term
Though ANAs are not exclusive to SLE, there may be characteristic antibodies found to the nuclear elements of cells.
The four main types of anti-nuclear antibodies are:
|
|
Definition
anti-DNA
anti-histone
anti-non-histone proteins bound the RNA
anti-nucleolar antigens |
|
|
Term
Indirect immunofluorescence testing will generate particular patterns that help identify what type of ANAs are present.
Describe the four patterns and what they indicate |
|
Definition
Homogenous -- chromatin, histones, occasionally ds DNA
Rim or peripheral -- double stranded DNA
Speckled -- Non-DNA nuclear constituents, such as Sm antigen, ribonucleoprotein
Nucleolar -- nucleolar RNA |
|
|
Term
What ANA antibodies are virtually diagnostic of SLE?
|
|
Definition
Anti-double stranded DNA (rim/peripheral or homogenous staining)
anti-Sm (smith) antigen (Speckled pattern)
|
|
|
Term
Anti-phospholipid antibodies are present in 40-50% of SLE patients. However, this may also give a false positive if testing for what other disease? |
|
Definition
Syphilis (cardiolipin)
The test is called the VDRL.
These antibodies give a falsely elevated aPTT in vitro, but actually increase clotting in vivo (pro-coagulatory). May be associated with spontaneous miscarriages and focal cerebral or ocular ischemia |
|
|
Term
In SLE there will often be what form of vasculitis? (recall type 3 hypersensitivities)
|
|
Definition
Necrotizing vasculitis due to the deposition of immune complexes in tissue, primarily vasculature, leading to inflammation and the aggregation of neutrophils and macrophages. |
|
|
Term
There are 5 patterns of lupus nephritis, and can show up to varying degrees in different patients.
What are the patterns?
|
|
Definition
1. minimal/none detected (rare)
2. Mesangial lupus glomerulonephritis -- mesangial cell prolif
3. Focal proliferative glomerulonephritis -- affects <50% of glomeruli
4. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (most serious form) -- prolif of endothelial, mesangial, and epithelial cells, fibroid necrosis
5. Membranous glomerulonephritis -- widespread thickening of capillary walls |
|
|
Term
The characteristic SLE rashes are due to immune complex deposition at what morphological junction?
|
|
Definition
Dermal-epidermal junction |
|
|
Term
Before the use of corticosteroids, a particular non-bacterial endocarditis was common. What is this called? |
|
Definition
Libman-Sacks Endocarditis-
might see mitral thickening
also associated with the heart are pericarditis and accelerated atherosclerosis. |
|
|
Term
There are some drugs that can induce an SLE syndrome.
What are the drugs and what ANA is present in this form? |
|
Definition
Procainamide
hydralazine
isoniazid
D-penicillamine
Anti-histone antibodies are common (homogenous) while anti-dsDNA is rare
Renal and CNS symptoms are rare with this form |
|
|
Term
___________ syndrome is characterized by immunological damage to the lacrimal and salivary glands.
This leads to dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) and dry mouth (xerostomia). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the primary cell types found in infiltrates of the lacrimal and salivary tissues?
|
|
Definition
Primarily CD4 T cells (perivascular and periductal -- type 4 hypersensitivity)
There are also Activated B cells responsible for secreting antibody -- ANA to be specific |
|
|
Term
What type of ANAs would you expect to see in Sjogren Syndrome?
Are they diagnostic? |
|
Definition
antibodies against ribonucleoprotiens: SS-A (Ro) and SS-B (La)
This would make a speckled pattern with immunofluorescence.
These are disease markers for Sjogrens, but they are not diagnostic because they may also be seen in SLE |
|
|
Term
Sjogrens is often a secondary syndrome, seen in conjunction with other autoimmune diseases.
What are a few? |
|
Definition
Rheumatoid Arthritis (30-50% also have Sjogrens)
SLE (50-90% also have Sjogrens)
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (50-100% also have Sjogrens) |
|
|
Term
If the ANAs aren't diagnostic for Sjogrens, what must you do to confirm a diagnosis?
|
|
Definition
Lip biopsy to examine salivary glands.
combination of lacrimal and salivary gland inflammation = Mikulicz Syndrome, which is also in other diseases |
|
|
Term
Systemic ________
Names a chronic disease characterized by abnormal accumulations of fibrous tissue in ________ and multiple __________. |
|
Definition
Systemic Sclerosis
skin, organ (kidneys, heart, lungs, GI) |
|
|
Term
There are 2 main categories of Systemic Scleroderma.
Well? |
|
Definition
Diffuse Scleroderma -- widespread skin involvement, rapid, with early visceral involvement
Limited Scleroderma -- skin involvement confined to fingers, foreares, and face. slow progression and late visceral involvement. |
|
|
Term
People with Limited Sclerosis may also develop a constellation of symptoms involved in what other syndrome?
|
|
Definition
CREST
Calcinosis
Raynoud's phenomenon
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly (a localized thickening and tightness of the skin of the fingers or toes. Sclerodactyly is commonly accompanied by atrophy of the underlying soft tissues.)
Telangiectasia (small dilated blood vessels near the surface of the skin or mucus membranes, measuring between 0.5 and 1 millimeter in diameter.) |
|
|
Term
Though the antigen responsible for systemic sclerosis is unknown, CD4 T cells secrete a variety of cytokines that lead to recruitment of various cells and to the production of collagen and extracellular matrix proteins.
What cells are recruited and what cytokins help mediate the ECM deposition? |
|
Definition
Mast cells and macrophages
TGF beta, IL-13, PDGF |
|
|
Term
The ANA for the diffuse and localized systemic sclerosis are different.
ANA for Diffuse?
ANA for Localized/CREST? |
|
Definition
Diffuse:
Anti-Scl70 -- DNA topoisomerase 1
Localized/CREST:
Anti-centromere
|
|
|
Term
Gross features of systemic sclerosis involve diffuse sclerotic atrophy of the skin in the fingers and distal regions of upper extremeties, neck, and face.
What would you expect histologically?
|
|
Definition
edema
perivascular infiltrates containing CD4 T cells with swelling and degeneration of collagen fibers.
After degeneration there is repair with extensive fibrosis and deposition of collagen in the dermis. Thinning of the eidermis.
Includes GI and esophagus. Also a likelihood of kidneys, heart, and lung involvement. Most deaths are due to renal or pulmonary failure. |
|
|
Term
What are the features that sets Systemic Sclerosis apart from SLE, RA, and Polymyositis?
|
|
Definition
cutaneous changes -- especially thickening from underlying fibrosis
Raynoud's Phenom
dysphagia due to esophageal fibrosis |
|
|
Term
What are Inflammatory Myopathies? |
|
Definition
Heterogenous group of disorders characterized by injury and inflammation of mainly skeletal muscles.
ex. dermatomyositis, polymyositis, inclusion-body mysitis |
|
|
Term
What is Mixed Connective Tissue Disease? |
|
Definition
Features suggestive of SLE, Systemic Sclerosis, RA, and Polymyositis.
However, a distinguishing characteristic may be ANA for
Ribonucleoprotein U1 RNP |
|
|
Term
Polyarteritis Nodosa and other vasculitides
What are these? |
|
Definition
Group of diseases characterized by necrotizing inflammation of blood vessel walls.
"non-infectious necrotizing vasculitis" is used to distinguish these from necrotizing vasculits caused by direct infection of vascular wall.
May affect all types of vessels. |
|
|
Term
____________ is a disease that may have immunological components, but is mostly considered a disease related to abnormal protein folding. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
By using what dyes on a tissue biopsy can you the usual hallmarks of amyloidosis: amorphous, eosinophilic, hyaline, extracellular substance.
How does this build up of "junk" impact the surrounding tissue? |
|
Definition
Congo Red
also the Green Birefringence can be observed when stained for polarized light microscopy
Amyloid accumulations exert pressure on the surrounding cells and distort the tissue structure, causing atrophy of cells. |
|
|
Term
Since amyloid is not a single disease, but a cluster of diseases that create a similar deposition of protein, the exact mechanism is unclear, but often involves inflammatory processes. As such, there are over 15 forms of amyloid protein. However, they all have the same basic conformation, no matter what their chemical makeup.
All amyloid proteins are folded in what conformation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 3 major forms of amyloid proteins? |
|
Definition
Amyloid light chain (AL amyloid)
Amyloid Associated (AA amyloid)
Aβ Amyloid |
|
|
Term
Describe briefly AL amyloid |
|
Definition
Amyloid Light Chain contains Ig light chains, most often the delta chain, or light chain fragments.
It is produced by Ig producing cells and it's deposition is associated with some form of monoclonal B cell proliferation.
This is a primary type, and the most common |
|
|
Term
Briefly Describe AA Amyloid: |
|
Definition
Amyloid Assoiciated contains non-immunoglobulin proteins synthesized in the liver. It is derived from a serum precursor called SAA.
This might be a result of over production of proteins during a chronic inflammatory response.
This is found in secondary, or reactive systemic amyloidosis |
|
|
Term
Briefly describe AB amyloidosis: |
|
Definition
Found in cerebral lesions of Alzheimer's disease (A,B....What was I talking about?)
Deposits are fragments derived from a transmembrane glycoprotein called Amyloid Precursor Protein |
|
|
Term
What are the minor 3 biochemical forms of amyloidosis?
|
|
Definition
Transthyretin Amyloid (TTR)
β2-microglobulin (Aβ2m)
Prion Proteins |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Transthyretin Amyloid is a normal serum protein that binds thyroxine and retinol.
Mutations in TTR favor its deposition into tissue as amyloid (Familial amyloid polyneuropathies)
TTR is also deposited in the heart of aged individuals (Senile systemic amyloidosis) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a component of MHC class 1 molecules.
present in hemodialysis-associated amyloidosis |
|
|
Term
Briefly describe Prion Proteins involved in amyloidosis: |
|
Definition
In prion disease, misfolded prion proteins can aggregate in the extracellular space and form amyloid deposits. |
|
|
Term
Patients with Multiple Myeloma, a primary amyloidosis (AL/immune type), will have what type of protein measureable in their urine and serum?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Reactive Systemic Amyloidosis: |
|
Definition
Amyloid deposits are systemic and made of AA protein (from precursor SAA -- or you may recall SAP from the acute phase inflammation).
It is normally secondary to chronic inflammatory conditions such as RA, IBD, and connective tissue disorders |
|
|
Term
Hemodyalisis-Associated Amyloidosis: |
|
Definition
Occurs in long-term dialysis patients due to deposition of serum Beta 2-microglobulin (component of HLA 1) |
|
|
Term
Heredofamilial Amyloidosis: |
|
Definition
Many types identified
Ex. Familial Mediterranean Fever (an autosomal recesive condition causing AA proteins)
Familial amyloidotic neuropathies (autosomal Dominant, ATTR proteins) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Deposits are restricted to a particular organ.
Infiltrates of lymphocytes and plasma cells frequently surround the amyloid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Microscopic deposits of amyloid can be found in several types of endocrine tumors and in the islets of langerhans in DMII patients.
Amyloid seems to be derived from peptide hormones |
|
|
Term
Amyloid of Aging
AKA: Senile Systemic Amyloidosis |
|
Definition
the deposition of amyloid in elderly patients (70-80 y.o.).
Prominent involvement of the heart results in restrictive cardiomyopathy and arrhythmias. Composed of TRR proteins. |
|
|
Term
Amyloid deposition can be seen as an ____ production of normal proteins that are prone to misfolding, most cases,
Misfolding of proteins due to a ______ that led to structural instability
A defective mechanism of ________ degredation of misfolded proteins. |
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Definition
over-production
mutation
intracellular |
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Term
What does the diagnosis of Amyloidosis depend upon? |
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Definition
Demonstration of amyloid deposits in tissues with a sample obtained from a biopsy (or autopsy)
Kidney for renal manifestations (most common)
Fat pad, rectal, gingival biopsy for systemic amyloid
Serum and urine protein electrophoresis (immunocyte associated, eg. Bence Jones protein) |
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