Term
In addition to osseous tissue, a typical bone contains
A) smooth muscle tissues (in blood vessel walls).
B) other connective tissues.
C) neural tissues.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following statements apply to a living bone except:
A) It may have both compact and spongy regions.
B) It is essentially inert, hard, and dry throughout.
C) It contains openings for nutrient blood vessels.
D) It can undergo remodeling during life.
E) There are no exceptions; all of the above apply to a living bone. |
|
Definition
B) It is essentially inert, hard, and dry throughout. |
|
|
Term
Ossification of flat bones is called
A) intramembranous.
B) intrachondral.
C) synovial.
D) symphyseal.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A long bone increases in length until
A) the body runs out of calcium.
B) death; bones grow as long as we are alive.
C) the epiphyseal cartilage becomes ossified.
D) appositional growth starts.
E) expansion of the secondary ossification centers ends |
|
Definition
C) the epiphyseal cartilage becomes ossified. |
|
|
Term
Endochondral ossification begins with
A) hyaline cartilage.
B) elastic cartilage.
C) articular cartilage.
D) fibrocartilage.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is not a function of the skeletal system?
A) formation of blood cells
B) support of the body
C) maintenance of interstitial fluid composition
D) storage of minerals
E) provision of levers for muscle action
|
|
Definition
C) maintenance of interstitial fluid composition |
|
|
Term
The divisions of the skeletal system include (the)
A) axial and appendicular.
B) dorsal and ventral.
C) proximal and distal.
D) cranial, caudal, and anterior.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
A) axial and appendicular. |
|
|
Term
The parietal, temporal, frontal, and occipital bones are part of (the)
A) skull.
B) cranium.
C) facial bones.
D) axial skeleton.
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following bones contain the cribriform foramina?
A) maxilla
B) zygomatic
C) frontal
D) sphenoid
E) ethmoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The structure that houses the pituitary gland is called the
A) lesser wing.
B) crista galli.
C) sella turcica.
D) greater wing.
E) dorsum sellae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which bone is not part of the skull?
A) sphenoid
B) palatine
C) zygomatic
D) ethmoid
E) hyoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the foramen magnum?
A) It is located between the parietal and occipital bones.
B) It is located in the inferior surface of the occipital bone.
C) It is the second largest foramen in the cranium.
D) It allows passage of the carotid arteries into the head.
E) None of the above are true. |
|
Definition
B) It is located in the inferior surface of the occipital bone. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following features does not belong to the mandibular bone?
A) hypoglossal canal
B) mental foramen
C) coronoid process
D) mandibular foramen
E) mylohyoid line |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bony structure of the orbit is composed of which of the following?
A) zygomatic, nasal, frontal, and sphenoid only
B) zygomatic, nasal, frontal, sphenoid, palatine, lacrimal, and temporal
C) ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine
D) maxilla, zygomatic, lacrimal, and palatine only
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
C) ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine |
|
|
Term
Which of the following lists includes only facial bones?
A) maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatics, lacrimals
B) sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillae, and mandible
C) inferior conchae, vomer, ethmoid, nasal, lacrimals, and sphenoid
D) frontals, nasals, parietals, and occipital
E) None of the above combinations is correct |
|
Definition
A) maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatics, lacrimals |
|
|
Term
Which of the following structures makes up the inferior portion of the nasal septum?
A) perpendicular plate
B) inferior nasal concha
C) vomer
D) cribriform plate
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Paranasal sinuses are located within which of the following bones?
(1) frontal bone (2) sphenoid (3) ethmoid (4) maxilla (5) nasal bone
A) 3, 4,5
B)1, 3, 5
C) I, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
E) I, 2, 3, 4, 5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The vertebral arch encloses
A) the intervertebral foramen.
B) the foramen spinosum.
C) the transverse foramen.
D) the mental foramen.
E) the vertebral foramen. |
|
Definition
E) the vertebral foramen. |
|
|
Term
The primary curves of the vertebral column are the
A) cervical, lumbar, and sacral.
B) cervical and thoracic.
C) thoracic and sacral.
D) dorsal and ventral.
E) thoracic and coccygeal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The part of the vertebra that transfers weight along the long axis of the vertebral column is (are) the
A) vertebral arch.
B) vertebral body.
C) transverse process.
D) vertebral pedicles.
E) spinous process. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of vertebra has a transverse foramen?
A) cervical
B) sacral
C) thoracic
D) lumbar
E) coccygeal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The vertebral arches surround and protect the
A) vertebrae.
B) cranial nerves.
C) ribs.
D) spinal nerves.
E) spinal cord |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the inferior nasal conchae?
A) They form a part of the bridge of the nose.
B) They support the olfactory epithelium.
C) They are located lateral to the nasal septum.
D) They are a part of the ethmoid bone.
E) All of the above are true. |
|
Definition
C) They are located lateral to the nasal septum. |
|
|
Term
Features of the maxillae include
A) inferior orbital foramina.
B) alveolar processes.
C) sinuses.
D) orbital rims.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following structures can most easily be felt on the dorsum?
A) spinous process
B) intervertebral disk
C) transverse process
D) body
E) pedicle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The dens is a part of the
A) vertebra prominens.
B) anticlinal vertebra.
C) axis.
D) atlas.
E) thoracic vertebra.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The true ribs
A) consist of twelve pairs.
B) attach to the sternum by separate cartilaginous extensions.
C) are the only ribs that are unpaired.
D) attach only to the vertebral column.
E) are both Band D. |
|
Definition
B) attach to the sternum by separate cartilaginous extensions. |
|
|
Term
The most inferior portion of the sternum is called the
A) sternal groove.
B) manubrium.
C) xiphoid process.
D) sternal angle.
E) body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The mastoid processes are part of what bone?
A) occipital
B) temporal
C) zygomatic
D) maxilla
E) sphenoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following bones bear teeth?
A) maxillae
B) mandible
C) palatine bones
D) all of the above
E) A and B only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pelvic girdle consists of
A) the ilium, ischium, and pubis.
B) the ala, ilium, and femur.
C) the acetabulum, femoral head, and pubis.
D) the ossa coxae and the sacrum.
E) all of the bones in A and C as well as the sacrum |
|
Definition
A) the ilium, ischium, and pubis. |
|
|
Term
The pectoral girdle consists of the
A) clavicle, scapula, and sternum.
B) scapula and humerus.
C) clavicle, scapula, and humerus.
D)clavicle and scapula.
E) clavicle and humerus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a structure of the scapula?
A) glenoid cavity
B) supraspinous fossa
C) superior angle
D) spine
E) olecranon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most of the anterior surface of the scapula is formed by the
A) glenoid cavity.
B) coracoid process.
C) scapulohumeral joint.
D) supraspinous fossa.
E) subscapular fossa. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The socket that receives the head of the femur is the
A) sciatic notch.
B) glenoid cavity.
C) popliteal fossa.
D) cubital fossa.
E) acetabulum. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pectoral girdle meets the axial skeleton where the
A) clavicle attaches to the manubrium.
B) humerus attaches to the rib cage.
C) scapula attaches on the ribs.
D) scapula attaches to the clavicle.
E) The appendicular skeleton and the axial skeleton do not touch. |
|
Definition
A) clavicle attaches to the manubrium. |
|
|
Term
The only fixed support for the pectoral girdle is (the)
A) sternum.
B) scapula.
C) clavicle.
D) humerus.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Jason fractured his pisiform bone in an accident. What part of his body is injured?
A) ankle
B) leg
C) wrist
D) skull
E) shoulder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most bones in the appendicular skeleton develop from
A) fibrous connective tissue.
B) hyaline cartilage.
C) the process of intramembranous ossification.
D) the process of endochondral ossification.
E) both Band D. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many bones are in the upper limb and pectoral girdle?
A) 206
B) 64
C) 62
D) 126
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the ankle, the only tarsal bone that articulates with the leg bones is the
A) medial cuneiform bone.
B) talus.
C) navicular bone.
D) calcaneus.
E) cuboid bone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A wedding ring is traditionally worn around which bone?
A) the distal element of the pollex
B) the proximal phalanx of digit four of the manus
C) the third metatarsal
D) the second bone at the carpometacarpal joint
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
B) the proximal phalanx of digit four of the manus |
|
|
Term
A joint that permits free movement is called
A) a diarthrosis.
B) a hinge joint.
C) a synarthrosis.
D) anmphiarthrosis
E) a synovial joint |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A joint that holds skull bones together is called (a)
A) synostosis.
B) gomphosis.
C) synchondrosis.
D) suture.
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A cartilaginous joint that does not permit movement is (a)
A) syndesmosis.
B) synchondrosis.
C) synostosis.
D) synovial joint.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A joint that permits free movement in only two directions is a
A) monaxial joint
B) syndesmosis.
C) biaxial joint.
D) suture.
E) triaxial joint. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An accessory structure of a joint that subdivides a synovial cavity, channels the flow of synovial fluid, or allows for variations in the shapes of the articular surfaces is a
A) fat pad.
B) ligament.
C) meniscus.
D) tendon.
E) bursa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The structure that surrounds a diarthrotic joint is called (a)
A) synovial membrane.
B) meniscus.
C) bursa.
D) joint capsule.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A small, synovial fluid-filled pocket in connective tissue, which may be connected to a joint cavity, is a
A) retinaculum.
B) bursa.
C) gomphosis.
D) fat pad.
E) meniscus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a classification of a synovial joint?
A) symphysis
B) gliding
C) ball and socket
D) pivot
E) hinge
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following associations is not true?
A) uniaxial-hinge
B) monaxial-hinge
C) biaxial-condyloid
D) multiaxial-pivot
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Typical movement at a hinge joint includes
A) rotation.
B) flexion.
C) gliding.
D) extension.
E) both B and D. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is
A) rotation.
B) abduction.
C) gliding.
D) flexion.
E) extension. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pronation and supination occur at the
A) proximal radioulnar joint.
B) ankle.
C) elbow.
D) knee.
E) hip. |
|
Definition
A) proximal radioulnar joint. |
|
|
Term
A movement that turns the sole of the foot inward is an example of
A) elevation.
B) inversion.
C) protraction.
D) opposition.
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To push a structure anteriorly is an example of which movement?
A) extension
B) protraction
C) hyperextension
D) retraction
E) anterior rotation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The type of joint formed by the fusion of two bones is (a)
A) synostosis.
B) synchondrosis.
C) symphysis.
D) syndesmosis.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The joint that permits the greatest range of motion in the entire body is the
A) knee.
B) neck.
C) shoulder.
D) hip.
E) elbow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The metacarpophalangeal joints have
A) pivot
B) ball and socket
C) hinge
D) saddle type
E) ellipsoidal articulations |
|
Definition
E) ellipsoidal articulations |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a function of intervertebral disks?
A) contribute to the height of an individual
B) provide lubrication
C) prevent bone-on-bone contact
D) act as shock absorbers
E) All of the above are functions of intervertebral disks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Interphalangeal joints are
A) ellipsoidal joints.
B) ball and socket joints.
C) hinge joints.
D) gliding joints.
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following does not contribute to the limitation of movement of a joint?
A) the joint capsule
B) shape of the articular surface
C) tendon attachments
D) presence of muscle, other bones, etc., near the joint
E) All of the above contribute to limiting range of motion |
|
Definition
E) All of the above contribute to limiting range of motion |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is most unique to the knee?
A) joint capsule
B) bursae
C) menisci
D) tendons
E) ligaments |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are synovial joints found in the foot except
A) intertarsal joints.
B) interphalangeal joints.
C) tarsometatarsal joints.
D) metatarsophalangeal joints.
E) there are no exceptions; all of the above are found in the foot. |
|
Definition
E) there are no exceptions; all of the above are found in the foot |
|
|
Term
The structure that attaches the patella to the tibia is called (the)
A) patellar ligament.
B) collateral ligament.
C) quadriceps tendon.
D) synovial membrane.
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following ligaments attaches the clavicle to the scapula?
A) acromioclavicular
B) glenoid labrum
C) glenohumeral
D) coracoacromial
E) A and B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about the elbow is false?
A) It involves the humeroulnar joint.
B) The elbow is actually two joints.
C) The elbow is extremely stable.
D) Rotation of the elbow is called supination and pronation.
E) A, B, and C are true.
|
|
Definition
D) Rotation of the elbow is called supination and pronation. |
|
|
Term
The layers of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle from the outside to the inside in
correct order are
A) endomysium, epimysium, and perimysium.
B) epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium.
C) perimysium, epimysium, and endomysium.
D) endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium.
E) epimysium, endomysium, and perimysium. |
|
Definition
B) epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium. |
|
|
Term
The connective tissues that surround skeletal muscles are collectively called
A) subserous fascia.
B) deep fascia.
C) superficial fascia.
D) aponeuroses.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A word in a muscle name that indicates it is a large muscle might be
A) magnus.
B) minimus.
C) brevis.
D) longus.
E) minor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following words means short?
A) longissumus
B) brevis
C) gracilis
D) major
E) latissimus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a function of skeletal muscle?
A) stabilize joints
B) maintain posture
C) generate heat
D) produce movement
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscular partition that separates the abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities is the
A) diaphragm.
B) masseter.
C) transversus abdominis.
D) perineum.
E) rectus abdominis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following features are common to the muscles of mastication?
A) They are considered among the muscles of facial expression.
B) They share an oculomotor nerve innervation.
C) They allow a person to smile.
D) They move the mandible at the temporomandibular joint.
E) A and C are true. |
|
Definition
D) They move the mandible at the temporomandibular joint. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following muscles is not involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in the mouth?
A) masseter
B) temporalis
C) omohyoid
D) external pterygoid
E) internal pterygoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Orbicularis oris, orbicularis oculi, and platysma are part of the group of muscles known as muscles of
A) facial expression.
B) the tongue.
C) mastication.
D) the pharynx.
E) the extra-ocular region. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which muscle has three attachments to bone?
A) thyrohyoid
B) mylohyoid
C) stylohyoid
D) sternocleidomastoid
E) sternohyoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Muscles of facial expression most often insert into the
A) muscles adjacent to them.
B) skin.
C) eyes.
D) bones of the face.
E) tongue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The deepest layer of the anterial abdominal muscles is the
A) psoas major.
B) transversus abdominis.
C) internal oblique.
D) external oblique.
E) rectus abdominis. |
|
Definition
B) transversus abdominis. |
|
|
Term
Of the following muscles, which can compress the abdomen?
A) external oblique
B) internal oblique
C) transversus abdominis
D) rectus abdominis
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The powerful flexors of the thigh are the
A) iliopsoas.
B) pectineus.
C) obturators.
D) piriformis.
E) adductors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Knee extensors, known as the quadriceps femoris, include the
A) three vastus muscles and the rectus femoris.
B) biceps femoris, gracilis, and sartorius.
C) popliteus, iliopsoas, and gracilis.
D) hamstrings and adductors.
E) gastrocnemius, tibialis, and fibularis. |
|
Definition
A) three vastus muscles and the rectus femoris. |
|
|
Term
Muscles associated with the upper limb and pectoral girdle belong to which of the following groups?
A) muscles that move the hand and fingers
B) muscles that position the pectoral girdle
C) muscles that move the arm
D) muscles that move the forearm and wrist
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following muscles belongs to the group known as "hamstrings"?
A) semimembranosus
B) semitendinosus
C) biceps femoris
D) all of the above
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which muscle does not insert into the medial border of the scapula?
A) serratus anterior
B) rhomboid major
C) rhomboid minor
D) trapezius |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscle covers most of the surface area of the upper back.
A) rhomboid
B) infraspinatus
C) trapezius
D) teres major
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are part of the rotator cuff except the
A) teres minor.
B) infraspinatus.
C) subscapularis.
D) teres major.
E) supraspinatus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The origin of the deltoid is (the)
A) clavicle.
B) scapula.
C) vertebral column.
D) humerus.
E) both A and B. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscle just superior to the spine of the scapula that is part of the rotator cuff is the
A) coracobrachialis.
B) subscapularis.
C) infraspinatus.
D) supraspinatus.
E) teres minor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscles of the arm (brachium) are divided into which of the following compartments?
A) superior and inferior
B) anterior and posterior
C) pronator and supinator
D) proximal and distal
E) medial and lateral |
|
Definition
B) anterior and posterior |
|
|
Term
Extensors of the elbow include (the)
A) triceps brachii.
B) coracobrachialis and brachioradialis.
C) deltoid and supinator.
D) brachioradialis and brachialis.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Actions of the biceps brachii muscle include
A) supination of the forearm.
B) flexion of the shoulder.
C) flexion of the elbow.
D) all of the above.
E) A and C only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary flexors of the wrist include which of the following muscles?
A) supinator and brachioradialis
B) brachialis and palmaris longus
C) flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor carpi radialis, and palmaris longus
D) both A and C
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
C) flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor carpi radialis, and palmaris longus |
|
|
Term
The ____________ muscle attaches to the radial tuberosity.
A) biceps brachii
B) anconeus
C) brachioradialis
D) supinator
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Movements made by the thumb include
A) flexion and extension.
B) abduction and adduction.
C) flexion, extension, and opposition.
D) flexion, extension, and rotation.
E) both Band C. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Muscles in all of the following groups originate on the lower limb except
A) muscles that move the leg.
B) muscles that move the thigh.
C) muscles that move the foot and toes.
D) B and C only.
E) there are no exceptions; all of these groups include muscles that originate on the lower limb |
|
Definition
B) muscles that move the thigh |
|
|
Term
What is the longest muscle in the body?
A) rectus femoris
B) adductor longus
C) sartorius
D) adductor magnus
E) gracilis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscles that originate on the anterior surface of the pubic bone are
A) medial rotators of the thigh.
B) adductors of the thigh.
C) flexors of the thigh.
D) extensors of the thigh.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
B) adductors of the thigh |
|
|
Term
Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus are all in the
A) posterior compartment of the thigh.
B) anterior compartment of the leg.
C) lateral compartment of the thigh.
D) anterior compartment of the thigh.
E) posterior compartment of the leg. |
|
Definition
A) posterior compartment of the thigh. |
|
|
Term
The only muscle that acts as a flexor of the knee and originates on the iliac spine is the
A) semitendinosus.
B) biceps femoris.
C) semimembranosus.
D) sartorius |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscle that looks like a fish is the
A) soleus.
B) sartorius.
C) semitendinosus.
D) popliteus.
E) gastrocnemius |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following muscles are extensors of the leg?
A) vastus lateralis
B) vastus medialis
C) vastus intermedius
D) rectus femoris
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscles of the quadriceps femoris group insert on (the)
A) head of the fibula.
B) anterior inferior iliac spine.
C) tibial tuberosity.
D) femoral condyles.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscle that can both flex and adduct the arm is (the)
A) latissimus dorsi.
B) subscapularis.
C) pectoralis major.
D) teres major.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The knee extensor muscle that also assists in flexion of the thigh is the
A) rectus femoris.
B) sartorius.
C) vastus lateralis.
D) vastus intermedius.
E) vastus medialis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ____________ muscle is the most active muscle of the pectoral girdle because it can move the
scapula in nearly any direction.
A) trapezius
B) levator scapulae
C) latissimus dorsi
D) deltoid
E) rhomboid major |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Vasoconstriction is a term that refers to the contraction of muscle in the walls of the blood vessels, thus causing the diameter of the blood vessel to decrease. Which of the following types of muscle would be involved in this contraction?
A) skeletal
B) smooth
C) cardiac
D) both cardiac and smooth
E) both skeletal and smooth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following types of muscle does not have a striated appearance?
A) cardiac
B) skeletal
C) smooth
D) both smooth and cardiac
E) both skeletal and cardiac |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following types of muscle does not have a striated appearance?
A) cardiac
B) skeletal
C) smooth
D) both smooth and cardiac
E) both skeletal and cardiac |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fill in each blank with the correct single answer from the key.
Key: A) skeletal muscle, B) cardiac muscle, C) smooth muscle.
- (1) striated and involuntary.
- (2) striated and voluntary.
- (3) not striated and involuntary
- (4) fiber is a giant, multinucleate cell |
|
Definition
- (1) striated and involuntary. B-cardiac muscle
- (2) striated and voluntary. A- skeletal muscle
- (3) not striated and involuntary C-smooth muscle
- (4) fiber is a giant, multinucleate cell A) skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
The muscle that closes the eyes is
A) occipitalis,
B) zygmaticus,
C) corrugator supercilii,
D) oricularis oris
E) none of these. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The prime move of inhalation (inspiration) in breathing is
A) the diaphragm,
B) internal intercostals,
C) external oblique,
D) smooth muscle inside the lungs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Intrinsic muscles of the back that extend the spine (or head) include all of these except
A) splenium muscles,
B) semispinalis muscles,
C) scalene muscles,
D) erector spinae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Muscles that depress the hyoid bone and larynx include all but the
A) sternohyoid,
B) omohyoid,
C) geniohyoid,
D) sternothyroid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The quadriceps femoris mucles include all but
A) vastus lateralis,
B) biceps femoris,
C) vastus intermedius,
D) rectus femoris,
E) vastus intermedius. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A prime mover of thigh flexion at the hip is the
A) rectus femoris,
B) biceps femoris,
C) vastus intermedius
D) iliopsoas. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The prime mover of thigh extension at the hip in climbing stairs is the
A) gluteus maximus,
B) gluteus medius,
C) biceps femoris,
D) semimembranosus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The lining of the stomach
A) is composed of simple columnar cells.
B) is constantly replaced.
C) is covered by thick, viscous mucus.
D) has folds called rugae.
E) has all of the attributes above. |
|
Definition
E) has all of the attributes above. |
|
|
Term
The correct order of the digestive tube layers, from lumen outward, is:
(1) mucosa (2) muscularis externa (3) serosa (4) submucosa
A) 3, 1, 2, 4
B) 1, 4, 2, 3
C) 4, 2, 3, 1
D) 4, 1, 2, 3
E) 1, 4, 3, 2
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not part of the digestive tract?
A) stomach
B) intestine
C) spleen
D) esophagus
E) pharynx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is the
A) myenteric plexus.
B) mucosa.
C) submucosa.
D) mesocolon.
E) muscularis mucosa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Functions of the gallbladder include
A) secretion of gastrin, a stomach hormone.
B) storage of bile.
C) secretion of acids to assist the duodenum in breakdown of lipids.
D) secretion of bile.
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscular layer nearest the lumen is (the)
A) oblique layer of the muscularis externa.
B) circular layer of the muscularis externa.
C) longitudinal layer of the muscularis externa.
D) muscularis mucosae.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are true of the mesenteries?
(1) They are sheets of serous membrane.
(2) They suspend portions of the digestive tract within the peritoneal cavity.
(3) They are double sheets of peritoneal membrane.
(4) They provide an access route to digestive structures for nerves, lymphatics and blood vessels.
(5) They provide proprioceptive information to the spinal cord regarding the digestive organs.
A) All of the above are true.
B) None of the above are true.
C) 2, 4, and 5 are true.
D) 1,3, and 5 are true.
E) 1, 2, 3, and 4 are true. |
|
Definition
E) 1, 2, 3, and 4 are true. |
|
|
Term
In areas where the digestive tract is not covered in serosa, it is covered by a fibrous connective tissue called
A) the plexus of Auerbach.
B) mucosa.
C) peritoneum.
D) adventitia.
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A retroperitoneal structure
A) has only its anterior surface covered by peritoneum.
B) is covered by both the greater and lesser omenta.
C) is encased within the lesser omentum.
D) has greater freedom of movement than an organ enclosed by the mesenteries.
E) has none of the above attributes. |
|
Definition
A) has only its anterior surface covered by peritoneum |
|
|
Term
Which of the following are salivary glands?
(1) parotid (2) sublingual (3) submandibular (4) geniculate (5) maxillary
A) all of the above
B) none of the above
C) 2,4
D) 1, 2, 3
E) 3, 4,5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The tissue that suspends the transverse colon in the abdominal cavity is (the)
A) greater omentum.
B) lesser omentum.
C) transverse mesocolon.
D) mesentary.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The esophagus
A) is a hollow muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach.
B) always remains open.
C) is under both voluntary and autonomic nervous control.
D) is reinforced by cartilaginous structures.
E) has all of the above attributes. |
|
Definition
A) is a hollow muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. |
|
|
Term
The tongue has many bumps called the
A) papillae.
B) frenulum.
C) septa.
D) lingum.
E) body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a small intestine feature that increases surface area for digestion and absorption?
A) microvilli
B) omentum
C) rugae
D) taeniae coli
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The first intestinal segment entered by materials that leave the stomach through the pylorus is (the)
A) jejunum.
B) duodenum.
C) ileum.
D) gallbladder.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hardest substance in the body is
A) pulp.
B) cementum.
C) enamel.
D) dentin.
E) bone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not an accessory digestive organ?
A) spleen
B) gallbladder
C) liver
D) pancreas
E) salivary gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Structures that unite to form the common bile duct include:
(1) hepatopancreatic sphincter (2) porta hepatis (3) cystic duct (4) common hepatic duct
(5) duodenal papilla
A) I, 3, 5
B) I, 2, 3
C) I, 2
D)3,4
E) 2,4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The visible portion of a tooth is the
A) crown.
B) root.
C) head.
D) neck.
E) body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The head of the pancreas is most closely associated with the
A) descending colon.
B) posterior surface of the spleen.
C) inferior surface of the liver.
D) curve of the duodenum.
E) body of the gallbladder. |
|
Definition
D) curve of the duodenum. |
|
|
Term
The basic functional unit of the liver is (the)
A) falciform, round, and coronary ligaments.
B) hepatocyte.
C) liver lobule.
D) stellate reticuloendothelial cells.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A hepatic (portal) triad consists of branches of the
A) central vein, hepatic vein, bile duct.
B) hepatic portal vein, central vein, hepatic artery.
C) hepatic artery, central vein, bile duct.
D) hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery, hepatic vein.
E) hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct |
|
Definition
E) hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct |
|
|
Term
Chief cells secrete
A) pepsin.
B) HCI.
C) pepsinogen.
D) gastrin.
E) mucus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The opening in the diaphragm that the esophagus passes through is (the)
A) cardiac sphincter.
B) hilus.
C) hiatus.
D) crus.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The longest portion of the small intestine is the
A) colon.
B) appendix.
C) jejunum.
D) ilium.
E) duodenum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The anatomical subdivisions of the nervous system are (the)
A) dorsal and ventral nervous systems.
B) autonomic and somatic nervous systems.
C) central and peripheral nervous systems.
D) appendicular and axial nervous systems.
E) none of the above.
|
|
Definition
C) central and peripheral nervous systems. |
|
|
Term
The central nervous system (CNS) includes the
A) brain.
B) spinal cord.
C) nerves.
D) A and B.
E) A and C. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) include
A) the somatic nervous system.
B) the special sensory receptors.
C) the autonomic nervous system.
D) the visceral sensory receptors.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Functions of the peripheral nervous system include
A) providing sensory information to the CNS.
B) making higher order decisions to interpret sensory inputs.
C) carrying motor commands to the peripheral tissues and systems.
D) carrying information up and down the spinal cord.
E) A and C. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cells responsible for information processing and transfer are
A) astrocytes.
B) neuroglia.
C) neurons.
D) Schwann cells.
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neuroglia in the nervous system function to
A) support the neurons.
B) process information in the nervous system.
C) transfer nerve impulses from the brain to the spinal cord.
D) carry nerve impulses.
E) do all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Muscles, glands, and special cells that respond to neural stimuli are called
A) effectors.
B) axons.
C) dendrites.
D) reflexes.
E) receptors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following selections lists only types of glial cells?
A) apocrine and exocrine cells
B) microglia, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells
C) astrocytes and parenchymal cells
D) merocrine, platelet, and ependymal cells
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
B) microglia, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells |
|
|
Term
The portion of a neuron that carries information in the form of a nerve impulse is called the
A) dendrite.
B) axon.
C) Nissl body.
D) soma.
E) myelin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands are under the control of the
A) central nervous system.
B) parasympathetic division.
C) sympathetic division.
D) somatic nervous system.
E) Band C. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The very beginning of the axon is called the
A) neurofibril.
B) initial segment.
C) Nissl body.
D) axoplasm.
E) axon hillock. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Microglia are (the)
A) largest neuroglial cell.
B) most numerous neuroglial cell.
C) smallest neuroglial cell.
D) least numerous neuroglial cell.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
C) smallest neuroglial cell |
|
|
Term
Myelin is (a)
A) multilayered membrane around an axon.
B) cell body.
C) special area of the brain
D) special cell that protects neurons.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
A) multilayered membrane around an axon. |
|
|
Term
The structural classification of a neuron is based upon
A) the size of the dendrites.
B) the type of chemical neurotransmitter it secretes.
C) the number of axons.
D) the number of processes that project from the cell body.
E) A and D. |
|
Definition
D) the number of processes that project from the cell body. |
|
|
Term
Areas of a myelinated axon that are not covered by myelin are called
A) nodes.
B) gray matter.
C) white matter.
D) internodes.
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The functional classifications of neurons do not include
A) association neurons (= interneurons).
B) sensory neurons.
C) axoplasmic neurons.
D) motor neurons.
E) any exceptions; all of the above are correct |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following neuroglia produce cerebrospinal fluid?
A) microglia
B) oligodendrocytes
C) ependyma
D) astrocytes
E) satellite cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Voluntary skeletal muscle fibers in the leg are innervated by
A) visceral motor fibers.
B) postganglionic fibers.
C) somatic motor fibers.
D) preganglionic fibers.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Satellite cells surround the cell bodies of peripheral neurons, which can be found in (the)
A) peripheral centers.
B) ganglia.
C) roots.
D) nuclei.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The outermost covering of an unmyelinated axon is called (the)
A) neurolemma.
B) sarcolemma.
C) axolemma.
D) internode.
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chemical synapses do not have
A) neurotransmitter release.
B) receptor proteins.
C) a gap junction.
D) two interacting neurons.
E) a postsynaptic membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Areas of the nervous system that are dense in myelinated axons are referred to as
A) white matter.
B) gray matter.
C) dura mater.
D) arachnoid mater.
E) it doesn't matter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are examples of neuroeffector junctions?
A) neuromuscular junction
B) neuroglandular junction
C) neuroaxonic junctions
D) neuroneural junction
E) both A and B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A gap junction acts to facilitate
A) growth of Schwann cells.
B) the passage of neurotransmitters between cells.
C) a change in the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane.
D) the passage of ions between the cells.
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
D) the passage of ions between the cells |
|
|
Term
The rate of conduction of a nerve impulse depends upon
A) the type of neurotransmitter present.
B) the number of cell dendrites.
C) properties of the soma of the neuron.
D) the presence or absence of a myelin sheath.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
D) the presence or absence of a myelin sheath. |
|
|
Term
Pathways leading from the receptors to the CNS are called
A) afferent pathways.
B) efferent pathways.
C) sensory pathways.
D) motor pathways.
E) both A and C. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At an electrical synapse the neurons are bound together by
A) telodendria.
B) internodes.
C) gap junctions.
D) nodes.
E) neurotransmitters. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Types of synapses include all of the following except
A) axosomatic.
B) neuroeffector junctions.
C) axodendritic.
D) axoaxonic.
E) None of the above are exceptions. |
|
Definition
E) None of the above are exceptions |
|
|
Term
In the process known as Wallerian degeneration,
A) macrophages remove the debris of damaged axons.
B) the axon proximal to the injury degenerates.
C) Schwann cells completely degenerate.
D) no trace is left of the path taken by a previous axon.
E) A and C happen. |
|
Definition
| A) macrophages remove the debris of damaged axons. |
|
|
Term
A neuron pool is
A) a group of neurons linked by gap junctions.
B) a group of interconnected neurons with specific functions.
C) the group of neurons available to regenerate a damaged nerve.
D) a group of identical nerve cells.
E) both A and B. |
|
Definition
B) a group of interconnected neurons with specific functions. |
|
|
Term
Which type of cell cannot be found in the peripheral nervous system?
A) neurons
B) oligodendrocytes
C) Schwann cells
D) satellite cells
E) A and B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During development of the nervous system, when the ectoderm of the dorsal midline thickens it forms (the)
A) notochord.
B) neural tube.
C) neural crest.
D) neural plate.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Demyelination
A) is the addition of myelin to the axon.
B) is the gradual reduction in myelin.
C) only affects oligodendrocytes.
D) is the thickening of the myelin sheath.
E) only affects Schwann cells. |
|
Definition
B) is the gradual reduction in myelin. |
|
|
Term
If a nerve becomes less efficient at transmitting impulses, this might indicate damage to which of the following cells?
A) Schwann cells
B) microglia
C) ependymal cells
D) satellite cells
E) astrocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neurotransmitters are
A) released only at electrical synapses.
B) produced by astrocytes.
C) stored in synaptic vesicles.
D) produced on command.
E) never recycled. |
|
Definition
C) stored in synaptic vesicles. |
|
|
Term
The meninges include
A) two layers of transverse collagen fibers.
B) pia mater, dura mater, and venous sinuses from the outside inward.
C} different layers for the brain and the spinal cord.
D) pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater from the inside outward.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
D) pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater from the inside outward. |
|
|
Term
A needle used in a spinal tap must be inserted until its tip is in the
A) subdural space.
B) peridural space.
C} epidural space.
D) arachoid mater.
E) subarachnoid space. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The spinal meninges function to
A) assist in delivering nutrients and oxygen to the spinal cord.
B) protect the spinal cord.
C} stabilize the spinal cord.
D) absorb shocks to the spinal cord.
E) do all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The H-shaped mass in the center of the spinal cord is mostly
A) axons.
B) black matter.
C} white matter.
D) gray matter.
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The nuclei in the spinal cord that contain the cell bodies of the somatic and visceral sensory neurons are located in (the)
A) posterior gray horn.
B) anterior gray horn.
C} gray commissures.
D) lateral gray horn.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary purpose of the blood-brain barrier is to
A) drain blood from the brain.
B) isolate the CNS from general circulation.
C} provide the brain with oxygen.
D) hook areas of the brain together.
E) do none of the above. |
|
Definition
B) isolate the CNS from general circulation. |
|
|
Term
The telencephalon becomes the
A) pons.
B) cerebrum.
C) medulla.
D) diencephalon.
E) midbrain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cerebral hemispheres are separated by (the)
A) longitudinal fissure.
B) lateral ventricles.
C) central sulcus.
D) coronal fissure.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect
A) perception of pain.
B) the ability to taste.
C) voluntary motor control.
D) the ability to see.
E) the ability to hear.
|
|
Definition
C) voluntary motor control. |
|
|
Term
Together the midbrain, pons, and medulla are called the
A) rhombencephalon.
B) gray matter.
C) diencephalon.
D) cerebellum.
E) brain stem. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Arachnoid granulations
A) absorb CSF into the venous circulation.
B) occur along the inferior sagittal sinus.
C) line the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.
D) have none of the above attributes.
E) are projections of the dura mater into the arachnoid. |
|
Definition
A) absorb CSF into the venous circulation. |
|
|
Term
The choroid plexus
A) is the site of drainage of used cerebrospinal fluid from neural tissues.
B) is the site where the spinal nerves first enter the medulla.
C) is the site of production of the cerebrospinal fluid.
D) is located on the entire surface area of the brain-ventricle interface.
E) is none of the above. |
|
Definition
C) is the site of production of the cerebrospinal fluid. |
|
|
Term
Blood and cerebrospinal fluid drain from the brain in (the)
A) subarachnoid space.
B) ventricles.
C) dural sinuses.
D) epidural space.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The largest region of the brain is (the)
A) diencephalon.
B) brain stem.
C) cerebrum.
D) cerebellum.
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Deep gray matter of the cerebrum is called
A) projection fibers.
B) the cerebral cortex.
C) fissures.
D) cerebral nuclei.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cortical surface of the cerebral hemispheres forms a series of elevated ridges called
A) sulci.
B) nuclei.
C) gyri.
D) lobes.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The largest cerebral lobe is the
A) frontal
B) occipital lobe.
C) parietal
D) insular
E) temporal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The groove between the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain is (the)
A) lateral sulcus.
B) parieto-occipital sulcus.
C) central sulcus.
D) longitudinal fissure.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The parietal lobe is primarily used for
A) motor functions.
B) perception of auditory stimuli.
C) sensory functions.
D) perception of visual stimuli.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The central sulcus separates which regions of the cerebrum?
A) the sensory and motor areas
B) the pyramidal cells and the frontal lobes
C) the temporal and insular lobes
D) the parietal and occipital lobes
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
A) the sensory and motor areas |
|
|
Term
The visual cortex is located in the
A) temporal
B) occipital lobe.
C) insular
D) parietal
E) frontal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which unique function of the brain occurs in the postcentral gyrus?
A) provides voluntary motor control to the skeletal muscles
B) returns cerebrospinal fluid into the circulatory system
C) receives primary sensory information of touch, pressure, pain, taste, and temperature
D) provides visceral motor responses, serving as center of the autonomic nervous system
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
C) receives primary sensory information of touch, pressure, pain, taste, and temperature |
|
|
Term
The caudate nucleus and the lentiform nucleus are anatomically separated by (the)
A) internal capsule.
B) longitudinal fissure.
C) corpus callosum.
D) fornix.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The thalamus
A) performs many voluntary functions.
B) forms the walls of the diencephalon around the third ventricle.
C) is the initial processing center for most motor output to the spinal cord.
D) contains centers that are involved with emotions and visceral processes.
E) has none of the above attributes. |
|
Definition
B) forms the walls of the diencephalon around the third ventricle |
|
|
Term
Thalamic nuclei function to
A) relay information to the mamillary bodies.
B) pass motor information to the descending tracts and to the spinal cord.
C) relay sensory information to the cerebral nuclei and cerebral cortex.
D) relay information to the occipital lobes.
E) do none of the above. |
|
Definition
C) relay sensory information to the cerebral nuclei and cerebral cortex. |
|
|
Term
Functions of the urinary system include
A) regulating blood volume.
B) conserving nutrients by preventing their excretion in the urine.
C) regulating blood pressure.
D) regulating plasma concentrations of ions by controlling the amount lost in the urine.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The urinary system includes all but which of the following?
A) adrenal glands
B) kidneys
C) ureters
D) urinary bladder
E) urethra |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The glomerular capsule and the glomerulus make up the
A) renal pyramid.
B) juxtaglomerular apparatus.
C) loop of Henle.
D) renal corpuscle.
E) renal papilla. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Kidneys are often difficult to see without dissection because they are surrounded by a layer of fat. What is the significance of this fat?
A) It expands for storage of additional urine once the bladder is full; it acts as a sponge.
B) There is no special significance; this fat stores energy as do other fat deposits in the abdominal cavity.
C) It provides cushioning or padding for protection from sudden jolts or other injuries.
D) This fat cools the kidneys during active filtration.
E) A and D are correct. |
|
Definition
C) It provides cushioning or padding for protection from sudden jolts or other injuries. |
|
|
Term
The kidneys are located
A) medial to the aorta.
B) anterior to the colon and pancreas.
C) at the level between 10 and 11.
D) retroperitoneally.
E) nowhere near any of the above structures. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The large passageway into which the major calyces empty is the
A) minor calyx.
B) renal calyx.
C) renal cortex.
D) renal pelvis.
E) renal medulla |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A glomerulus
A) occurs in the loop of Henle.
B) filters urine just prior to its exit from the kidney.
C) is a portion of the proximal convoluted tubule.
D) is a capillary knot contained within the renal corpuscle.
E) is or does none of the above. |
|
Definition
D) is a capillary knot contained within the renal corpuscle. |
|
|
Term
The blood vessels at the boundary of the cortex and medulla of the kidney are the
A) interlobular artery and vein.
B) arcuate artery and vein.
C) segmental artery and vein.
D) interlobar artery and vein.
E) glomerular artery and vein. |
|
Definition
B) arcuate artery and vein. |
|
|
Term
Blood enters the nephron via the
A) segmental artery.
B) renal artery.
C) afferent arteriole.
D) efferent arteriole.
E) lobar artery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A nephron has two parts:
A) glomerulus and collecting duct.
B) proximal convoluted tubule and distal convoluted tubule.
C) collecting duct and convoluted tubules.
D) renal corpuscle and renal tubules.
E) renal tubule and collecting duct. |
|
Definition
D) renal corpuscle and renal tubules. |
|
|
Term
The first part of the renal tubule is the
A) glomerular capsule.
B) loop of Henle.
C) proximal convoluted tubule.
D) distal convoluted tubule.
E) glomerulus.
|
|
Definition
C) proximal convoluted tubule. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following drains into the minor calyx?
A) collecting duct
B) papillary duct
C) renal corpuscle
D) proximal convoluted tubule
E) distal convoluted tubule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The parietal and visceral epithelia of Bowman's capsule are separated by (the)
A) vascular pole.
B) capsular space.
C) renal column.
D) lobar space.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The glomerulus is made up of many
A) sinusoids.
B) venules.
C) fenestrated capillaries.
D) arterioles.
E) A and C. |
|
Definition
C) fenestrated capillaries. |
|
|
Term
The ureters
A) take exactly the same path to the bladder in men and women.
B) float freely within the abdominal cavity.
C) have specialized subdivisions called the urethrae.
D) are retroperitoneal.
E) have none of the attributes above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The gaps between the pedicles of the podocytes are called (the)
A) mesangia.
B) square ligament.
C) filtration slits.
D) urachus.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The parts of the urethra in the male, in correct order from the bladder to the exterior, are:
(1) urachus (2) penile urethra (3) dysuria (4) membranous urethra (5) prostatic urethra
A) 2, 4
B) 4, 2, 1
C) 1,3, 5
D) 5, 4, 2
E) I, 2, 3, 4, 5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The structure directly opposite the vascular pole of the glomerulus is the
A) glomerulus.
B) proximal convoluted tubule.
C) tubular pole.
D) ureters.
E) C and D. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscle responsible for compressing the urinary bladder and expelling its contents is (the)
A) pyramidalis.
B) detrusor.
C) external urethral sphincter.
D) internal urethral sphincter.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Urine reaches the urinary bladder by
A) differential pressure exerted on the ureters by the movements of the digestive organs.
B) peristalsis.
C) suction from the empty bladder.
D) the force of gravity.
E) none of the above means. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The loop of Henle is composed of (the)
A) thick segment.
B) descending limb.
C) ascending limb.
D) thin segment.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The mechanism whereby benign enlargement of the prostate affects urinary function in older men includes which of the following?
A) It may compress the prostatic urethra.
B) It may compress the membranous urethra.
C) It may compress the body of the bladder.
D) It may compress the opening of the ureters into the bladder.
E) None of the above are mechanisms affecting urinary function. |
|
Definition
A) It may compress the prostatic urethra. |
|
|
Term
Damage, disease, or irritation of the renal cortex would impair the function of which kidney structures?
A) the renal pyramids
B) the renal columns
C) the major calyces
D) the nephron units
E) the renal papillae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Straight tubules originate at the seminiferous tubules and form a maze of passageways called the
A) rete testis.
B) efferent ducts.
C) ductus deferens.
D) epididymis.
E) afferent ducts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the follicular phase of the uterine cycle, the ovary is
A) developing a mature follicle.
B) undergoing atresis. .
C) forming the corpus luteum.
D) secreting progesterone.
E) doing all of the above |
|
Definition
| A) developing a mature follicle. |
|
|
Term
Major functions of the accessory organs of the male reproductive tract include all of the following except
A) providing nutrients that spermatozoa need for motility.
B) activating spermatozoa.
C) production of spermatozoa.
D) propelling spermatozoa and fluids along the reproductive tract.
E) None of the above are functions of male reproductive tract organs. |
|
Definition
C) production of spermatozoa. |
|
|
Term
The seminiferous tubules
A) average 200 inches in length.
B) are the site of production of spermatozoa.
C) are the sites of the production of androgens for the testis.
D) occur in the testicular lobules.
E) have the attributes of C and D. |
|
Definition
B) are the site of production of spermatozoa. |
|
|
Term
The process whereby sperm cells or spermatozoa are produced is
A) diploid division.
B) mitosis.
C) spermatogenesis.
D) spermiogenesis.
E) none of the above.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gametes are called haploid because
A) they are either sperm or ova.
B) there are half as many of them produced at each division in comparison with diploid cells.
C) they contain one-half the normal number of chromosomes.
D) they are produced by the process of mitosis.
E) of all of the above. |
|
Definition
C) they contain one-half the normal number of chromosomes. |
|
|
Term
The process whereby ovum production occurs is
A) triggered by completely different hormones than those of the male that initiate
spermatogenesis.
B) oogenesis.
C) continuous throughout the life of the individual.
D) atresia.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Compartments within the testes are (the)
A) seminiferous tubules.
B) straight tubules.
C) lobes.
D) lobules.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Semen contains all of the following except
A) seminal fluid.
B) fructose.
C) prostatic fluid.
D) sperm.
E) spermatozoons. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The lining of the uterus is (the)
A) serosa.
B) endometrium.
C) myometrium.
D) perimetrium.
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Stem cells in the testes are the
A) spermatozoa.
B) spermatids.
C) primary spermatocytes.
D) haploids.
E) spermatogonia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The vagina is lined by (a)
A) transitional epithelium.
B) simple ciliated columnar epithelium.
C) stratified squamous epithelium.
D) simple cuboidal epithelium.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
C) stratified squamous epithelium. |
|
|
Term
Spermatogenesis ends with the production of spermatids.
A)2
B)4
C)6
D)8
E)16 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the correct order, the steps involved in oogenesis are:
(1) formation of a tertiary follicle
(2) ovulation
(3) formation and degeneration of the corpus luteum
(4) formation of primary follicles
(5) formation of secondary follicles
A) I, 2, 3, 4, 5
B) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
C) 2, 5, 4, I, 3
D) 4, 5, I, 2, 3
E) 3, 5, I, 4, 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During the ovarian cycle,
A) primary oocytes are suspended in the metaphase state until maturation occurs.
B) usually only one mature graafian follicle forms.
C) each of the primary oocytes develops into two secondary oocytes.
D) all secondary follicles form tertiary follicles.
E) A and C take place. |
|
Definition
B) usually only one mature graafian follicle forms. |
|
|
Term
The of the epididymis receives spermatozoa via the efferent ducts of the mediastinum of the testis.
A) body
B) head
C) tail
D) neck
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the vas deferens fuses with the base of the seminal vesicle, it forms (the)
A) ejaculatory duct.
B) deferential duct.
C) prostatic urethra.
D) seminiferous tubules.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The heart wall is composed of _layers of tissues.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Blood that is transported to and from all of the tissues of the body with the exception of the lungs is in the
A) venous circulation.
B) pulmonary circuit.
C) arterial circulation.
D) portal circulation.
E) systemic circulation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The serous membrane lining the pericardial cavity is the
A) pericardium.
B) endocardium.
C) myocardium.
D) mediastinum.
E) pleura. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During ventricular systole, the
A) pressure in the ventricles declines.
B) ventricles are relaxed.
C) atria are contracting.
D) the ventricles are filling.
E) A V valves are closed. |
|
Definition
E) A V valves are closed. |
|
|
Term
The epicardium is also called the
A) visceral pericardium.
B) pericardial sac.
C) parietal pericardium.
D) pericardial cavity.
E) fibrous pericardium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Functions of the endocardium include
A) covering the outer surface of the heart.
B) forming the atria and ventricles of the heart.
C) covering the inner surfaces of the heart, including the valves.
D) covering the interatrial septum.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
C) covering the inner surfaces of the heart, including the valves. |
|
|
Term
Most of the thickness of the heart wall is the
A) fibrous pericardium.
B) parietal and visceral layers of the epicardium.
C) endocardium
D) connective tissue.
E) myocardium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cardiac muscle differs from other muscle tissue in
A) having fewer mitochondria.
B) having fibers connected to one another at intercalated disks.
C) having striations.
D) no ways; it is not unusual.
E) having larger sized fibers than other striated muscles. |
|
Definition
B) having fibers connected to one another at intercalated disks. |
|
|
Term
Exchange vessels are
A) venules.
B) capillaries.
C) arterioles.
D) arteries.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The border between the atria and the ventricles is
A) impossible to identify externally.
B) marked by the interventricular sulci.
C) at the midsagittal plane.
D) marked by the coronary sulcus.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
D) marked by the coronary sulcus. |
|
|
Term
The inferior tip of the heart is the
A) pulmonary surface.
B) base.
C) anterior surface.
D) apex.
E) sternocostal surface |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Prominent muscular ridges that run along the inner surface of the auricle and across the adjacent atrial wall are the
A) foramen ovale.
B) pectinate muscles.
C) papillary muscles.
D) trabeculae carneae.
E) chordae tendineae. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Externally the posterior and inferior portions of the left ventricle form the
A) right border.
B) left border.
C) sternocostal surface.
D) superior border.
E) diaphragmatic surface. |
|
Definition
E) diaphragmatic surface. |
|
|
Term
Blood travels from the right atrium to the right ventricle through the
A) fossa ovalis.
B) conus arteriosus.
C) mitral valve.
D) semilunar valve.
E) tricuspid valve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Grooves on the external surface of the heart that divide the right and left ventricles include the
A) lateral sulcus.
B) anterior interventricular sulcus.
C) coronary fissure.
D) posterior interventricular sulcus.
E) Band D. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Blood is supplied to the muscle of the heart through the
A) interventricular septum.
B) coronary arteries.
C) conus arteriosus.
D) cardiac sinus.
E) pulmonary arteries. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The grooves on the outside of the heart contain
A) cardiac veins.
B) anastomoses.
C) fat.
D) coronary arteries.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The left atrium receives blood from the
A) pulmonary trunk.
B) mitral valve.
C) coronary arteries.
D) aorta.
E) pulmonary veins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The left ventricle
A) receives blood from the left atrium through the tricuspid valve.
B) has thinner muscular walls than does the right ventricle.
C) pumps blood out of the heart to the pulmonary circuit.
D) sends blood out through the aortic semilunar valve to the systemic circulation.
E) does all of the above.
|
|
Definition
D) sends blood out through the aortic semilunar valve to the systemic circulation. |
|
|
Term
The left ventricle is associated with all of the following except the
A) papillary muscles.
B) bicuspid valve.
C) aorta.
D) trabeculae cameae.
E) pulmonary trunk. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The right ventricle pumps blood into the
A) pulmonary arteries.
B) pulmonary semilunar valves.
C) vena cava.
D) pulmonary veins.
E) aorta. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following valves is assisted in functioning by the papillary muscles?
A) tricuspid valve
B) bicuspid valve
C) right atrioventricular valve
D) left atrioventricular valve
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the coronary arteries?
A) Together they supply part of the heart muscle with oxygen.
B) They originate at the base of the aorta and are the first branch off this vessel.
C) They open and close in pulsation with the contraction and relaxation of the heart ventricles.
D) They branch off the pulmonary veins.
E) None of the above are true. |
|
Definition
B) They originate at the base of the aorta and are the first branch off this vessel. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an incorrect association?
A) semilunar-pulmonary valve
B) atrioventricular-aortic valve
C) atrioventricular-mitral valve
D) atrioventricular-tricuspid valve
E) None of the above are incorrect. |
|
Definition
B) atrioventricular-aortic valve |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the contraction of the heart?
A) Cardiac contractions are coordinated by specialized conductive cardiac muscle fibers.
B) The muscle obtains the beat from the pacemaker region exclusively.
C) The contractions do not occur in any specific repeatable sequence each time.
D) The ventricles contract first, followed by the atria.
E) None of the above are true. |
|
Definition
A) Cardiac contractions are coordinated by specialized conductive cardiac muscle fibers. |
|
|
Term
The main pacemaker region of the heart is
A) in the interventricular septum.
B) able to cause the atria and ventricles to contract simultaneously.
C) in the wall of the right atrium.
D) able to cause the muscle to begin to contract at the apex.
E) electrically active nodal tissue located in the wall of the left ventricle. |
|
Definition
C) in the wall of the right atrium. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following empties directly into the right atrium?
A) middle cardiac vein
B) great cardiac vein
C) small cardiac vein
D) anterior cardiac veins
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
D) anterior cardiac veins |
|
|
Term
Structures in the heart that establish the rate of contraction are called
A) Purkinje fibers.
B) the chordae tendineae.
C) conducting fibers.
D) nodes.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a major component of the conduction system located in the interventricular septum?
A) SA node
B) Purkinje fibers
C) Avnode
D) bundle branches
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Blood vessels, in correct order from the largest to the smallest, are:
(1) capillaries (2) aorta (3) major arteries (4) arterioles (5)pulmonary trunk
A) 5, 3, 2 or 4, 1
B) 1,2,3,4,5
C) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 2, 5, 3, 4, 1
E) I, 3, 5, 2 or l |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The innermost layer of a blood vessel, which includes the endothelial lining and an underlying layer of connective tissue with variable amounts of elastic fibers, is the
A) external elastic membrane.
B) tunica interna.
C) internal elastic membrane.
D) tunica externa.
E) tunica media. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following applies to elastic arteries?
A) They have a poorly defined tunica externa.
B) The tunica media of these arteries contains a high density of elastic fibers and relatively few smooth muscle cells.
C) The tunica media consists of scattered smooth muscle fibers that do not form a complete layer.
D) These vessels distribute blood to the skeletal muscles and internal organs of the body.
E) None of the above applies to elastic arteries. |
|
Definition
B) The tunica media of these arteries contains a high density of elastic fibers and relatively few smooth muscle cells. |
|
|
Term
Muscular arteries
A) are larger than elastic arteries and smaller than arterioles.
B) serve as the cushion to prevent sudden rises in blood pressure from causing trouble for the circulation.
C) are exemplified by the external carotid, brachial, and femoral arteries.
D) have a thick tunica media with a large amount of smooth muscle fiber within them.
E) have the attributes of C and D. |
|
Definition
E) have the attributes of C and D. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is untrue of a capillary?
A) It has a relatively thick tunica media.
B) The vessel walls are relatively thin.
C) The histological structure of a capillary wall permits a two-way exchange of substances between the blood and body cells.
D) Blood flow through a capillary is the slowest of all classes of vessels.
E) There are no exceptions; all of the above are true. |
|
Definition
A) It has a relatively thick tunica media. |
|
|
Term
Large arteries that tend to branch after a short distance are called
A) muscular arteries.
B) anastomoses.
C) metarteries.
D) trunks.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ascending aorta begins at (the)
A) aortic valve.
B) apex of the heart.
C) conus arteriosus.
D) external carotid artery.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The right common carotid artery and right subclavian arteries are branches of (the)
A) vertebral artery.
B) brachiocephalic trunk.
C) aortic arch.
D) thyrocervical trunk.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
B) brachiocephalic trunk. |
|
|
Term
Veins are much more easily distended under pressure than are arteries
A) only in a few specialized cases.
B) because of vasoconstriction.
C) because their walls are thicker, and veins contain a greater proportion of elastic fibers and collagen.
D) because their walls are thinner and contain a lower proportion of smooth muscle fibers.
E) because of none of the above reasons |
|
Definition
D) because their walls are thinner and contain a lower proportion of smooth muscle fibers. |
|
|
Term
After leaving the thoracic cavity and passing over the outer border of the first rib, the subclavian artery becomes the
A) ulnar artery.
B) radial artery.
C) axillary artery.
D) clavicular artery.
E) brachial artery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The outermost layer of a blood vessel is (the)
A) tunica intima.
B) tunica extema.
C) endothelim.
D) tunica media
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Another name for elastic arteries is
A) muscular arteries.
B) conducting arteries.
C) small arteries.
D) distributing arteries.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After passing from the thoracic cavity over the border of the first rib, the subclavian artery changes its name. The name changes continue along the arm and to the hand. In correct order, these names are:
(1) superficial palmar arch (2) deep palmar arch (3) brachial artery
(4) radial artery (5) axillary artery (6) ulnar artery
A) 5, 3, 4 or 6, 1 or 2
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C) 6, 5, 4, 3, 2,1
D) 1 or 4, 2, 3 or 5, 6
E) None of the above orders is correct.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The parietal branches of the thoracic aorta include the
A) superior diphramatic arteries.
B) intercostal arteries.
C) mediastinal arteries.
D) pericardial arteries.
E) A and B. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Unpaired arteries that branch from the abdominal aorta include the
A) gonadal.
B) superior mesenteric.
C) inferior mesenteric.
D) suprarenal.
E) Band C. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The terminal segment of the abdominal aorta divides directly to form
A) three inferior branches.
B) the internal iliac arteries.
C) the common iliac arteries.
D) the external iliac arteries.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
C) the common iliac arteries |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a branch of the common hepatic artery?
A) gastroduodenal artery
B) hepatic artery proper
C) right gastric artery
D) cystic artery
E) splenic artery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the leg, the femoral artery becomes the
A) saphenous artery.
B) deep femoral artery.
C) popliteal artery.
D) tibial artery.
E) iliac artery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Blood in the hepatic portal vein carries blood
A) from the kidneys.
B) high in oxygen.
C) high in nutrients.
D) high in acid.
E) that is all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these is not a tributary of the hepatic portal vein?
A) superior mesenteric vein
B) lumbar vein
C) inferior mesenteric vein
D) splenic vein
E) left colic vein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At the ankle, the anterior tibial artery becomes (the)
A) dorsalis pedis artery.
B) lateral plantar artery.
C) medial plantar artery.
D) dorsal plantar arch.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
A) dorsalis pedis artery. |
|
|
Term
The radial side of the arm contains a long superficial vein named the
A) median antebrachial vein.
B) cubital vein.
C) basilic vein.
D) radial vein.
E) cephalic vein. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why do arteries lack the valves that are commonly present in veins?
A) No explanation is known.
B) Arterial blood pressure is high enough that no valves are required to prevent the regurgitation of blood in the wrong direction.
C) The statement is untrue; arteries have valves.
D) The blood pressure in arteries is too high to permit valves to function correctly.
E) None of the above are reasons arteries lack valves. |
|
Definition
B) Arterial blood pressure is high enough that no valves are required to prevent the regurgitation of blood in the wrong direction. |
|
|
Term
A major difference between the arterial and venous systems is that
A) veins are usually less branched than arteries.
B) in the limbs there is dual venous drainage.
C) arteries are usually more superficial than veins.
D) all of the above are true.
E) none of the above true. |
|
Definition
B) in the limbs there is dual venous drainage. |
|
|
Term
Another name for the brachiocephalic vein is (the)
A) cranial vein.
B) innominate vein.
C) brachial vein.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The longest vein in the body is the
A) small saphenous vein.
B) femoral vein.
C) sartorius vein.
D) cephalic vein.
E) great saphenous vein. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following empty directly into the inferior vena cava except
A) superior mesenteric vein.
B) hepatic veins.
C) lumbar veins.
D) the suprarenal veins.
E) there are no exceptions; all of them empty into the inferior vena cava. |
|
Definition
A) superior mesenteric vein. |
|
|
Term
Components of the lymphatic system include the:
(1) pancreas (2) spleen (3) lymphatic vessels (4) thymus (5) lymph nodes (6) thoracic duct
A) all of the above
B) none of the above
C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
D) I, 4, 6
E) 1,3,5,6 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which lymphatic vessels have valves?
A) lymphatic ducts
B) large lymphatic vessels
C) lymphatic capillaries
D) lymphatic sacs
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
B) large lymphatic vessels |
|
|
Term
Lymph nodes
A) filter both blood and lymph.
B) receive lymph through the efferent vessels.
C) manufacture lymph.
D) do not occur in the brain.
E) occur in all regions of the body. |
|
Definition
D) do not occur in the brain. |
|
|
Term
Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the
A) lymph nodes.
B) cisterna chyli.
C) hepatic portal vein.
D) right lymphatic duct.
E) thoracic duct. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Deep lymphatics are found
A) in the walls of organs.
B) in the brain.
C) under mucous membranes.
D) near deep arteries and veins.
E) in subcuteanous tissue. |
|
Definition
D) near deep arteries and veins |
|
|
Term
When is the thymus most active?
A) during infancy and youth
B) during old age
C) during middle age
D) from puberty to adulthood
E) throughout life |
|
Definition
A) during infancy and youth |
|
|
Term
The thoracic duct
A) carries lymph to the right brachiocephalic vein.
B) carries lymph originating in tissues superior to the diaphragm.
C) carries lymph from the right bronchomediastinal trunk.
D) joins the left subclavian vein immediately lateral to where the left internal jugular vein joins.
E) does A and B. |
|
Definition
D) joins the left subclavian vein immediately lateral to where the left internal jugular vein joins. |
|
|
Term
Which of these is not a part of a lymph node?
A) medulla
B) hilus
C) trabeculae
D) cortex
E) white pulp |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The area of the respiratory passageways that extends from the opening of the nasal cavity to the smallest bronchioles is (the)
A) respiratory portion.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) conducting portion.
D) upper respiratory tract.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the significance of the "C-shaped" cartilages that reinforce the tracheal rings?
A) They form a solid cartilaginous tube.
B) The incomplete portion of the C-shaped cartilages are located at the posterior of the tracheal cartilages, to permit the esophagus to bulge anteriorly into the tracheal lumen in transient fashion to permit a large bolus to pass.
C) These cartilages hold the trachea rigidly open at the same diameter at all times.
D) The open region permits passage of the nerves that stimulate the muscles of the laryngeal
region.
E) None of the above are true. |
|
Definition
B) The incomplete portion of the C-shaped cartilages are located at the posterior of the tracheal cartilages, to permit the esophagus to bulge anteriorly into the tracheal lumen in transient fashion to permit a large bolus to pass. |
|
|
Term
The is shared by the digestive and respiratory systems.
A) nasal septum
B) esophagus
C) larynx
D) nasal cavity
E) pharynx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The area of the respiratory system that includes the larynx and respiratory tree is called the
A) bronchi.
B) upper respiratory tract.
C) respiratory portion.
D) lower respiratory tract.
E) conducting portion. |
|
Definition
D) lower respiratory tract. |
|
|
Term
The chamber posterior to the uvula and base of the tongue is the
A) oral cavity.
B) nasopharynx.
C) oropharynx.
D) larynx.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The fissures divide the lungs into
A) lobules.
B) alveoli.
C) bronchi.
D) lobes.
E) segments |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The false vocal folds are also called (the)
A) vocal ligament.
B) functional folds.
C) vestibular folds.
D) glottis.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Together, the epithelium and the lamina propria of the respiratory tract constitute (a)
A) cutaneous membrane.
B) serous membrane.
C) mucous membrane.
D) synovial membrane.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The structures that form the respiratory membrane include:
(1) elastic fibers (2) secondary bronchioles
(3) Type I aveolar cell and the basement membrane of the alveolar epithelium (4) the pulmonary nerve plexus (5) capillary walls
A) all of the above
B) none of the above
C) 3,5
D) 2, 4, 5
E) 2,4
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During extreme bouts of exercise, inspiration may be aided by (the)
A) rectus abdominus, external and internal oblique, and the transversus abdominus.
B) serratus anterior and levator scapulae.
C) intrinsic back muscles and the scalenus anterior and medius.
D) diaphragm and external and internal intercostal muscles.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
B) serratus anterior and levator scapulae. |
|
|
Term
The ridge found at the bifurcation of the trachea is called the
A) carina.
B) extrapulmonary ridge.
C) hilum.
D) trachealis.
E) root of the lung. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The function of surfactant is to
A) reduce the surface tension in the fluid coating alveolar surfaces to prevent alveolar collapse.
B) cause capillaries to adhere closely to the alveolar surfaces to promote gas exchange.
C) phagocytize particulate matter that has eluded the respiratory defenses and reached the alveoli.
D) cause diffusion.
E) do none of the above. |
|
Definition
A) reduce the surface tension in the fluid coating alveolar surfaces to prevent alveolar collapse. |
|
|
Term
Compared with the left primary bronchus, the right primary bronchus is
A) wider.
B) less resistant to airflow.
C) steeper.
D) more prone to blockage.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most important skeletal muscles involved in making normal, relaxed, respiratory movements include (the)
A) diaphragm and external and internal intercostal muscles.
B) rectus abdominis, external and internal oblique, and the transversus abdominis.
C) serratus anterior and levator scapulae.
D) intrinsic back muscles and the scalenus anterior and medius.
E) all of the above. |
|
Definition
A) diaphragm and external and internal intercostal muscles. |
|
|
Term
The superior and inferior lobes of the left lung are separated by (the)
A) horizontal fissure.
B) transverse fissure.
C) oblique fissure.
D) sagittal fissure.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The curving anterior surface of the lungs is called the
A) costal surface.
B) root of the lung.
C) diaphragmatic surface.
D) mediastinal surface.
E) base of the lung. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Secondary bronchi are also termed bronchi.
A) lobular
B) lobar
C) tertiary
D) segmental
E) none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Each tertiary bronchus leads to one
A) septum.
B) lobe.
C) bronchopulmonary segment.
D) lung.
E) none of the above. |
|
Definition
C) bronchopulmonary segment. |
|
|
Term
The middle lobar bronchus is found
A) in both lungs.
B) only in very large individuals.
C) only in males.
D) in the left lung only.
E) in the right lung only. |
|
Definition
E) in the right lung only. |
|
|
Term
The first passageway of the respiratory portion of the respiratory tract is called the
A) alveolar duct.
B) respiratory bronchiole.
C) air sac.
D) terminal bronchiole.
E) alveolus. |
|
Definition
B) respiratory bronchiole. |
|
|
Term
The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) ________.
A) extensor thrust reflex
B) stress reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) stretch reflex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ nerve is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve.
A) ophthalmic
B) maxillary
C) cervical
D) mandibular |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus?
A) median
B) phrenic
C) radial
D) ulnar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not an example of an exteroceptor?
A) touch
B) pressure
C) pain
D) temperature
E) baroreceptor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a main level of neural integration in the somatosensory system?
A) receptor
B) circuit
C) segmental
D) perceptual |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve.
A) obturator
B) common fibular
C) tibial
D) femoral |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order):
A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords
B) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks
C) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords
D) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots |
|
Definition
| A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords |
|
|
Term
The cranial nerve with a dual origin (brain and spinal cord) is the ________.
A) hypoglossal
B) accessory
C) vagus
D) glossopharyngeal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation? A) The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor. B) The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor's receptive field. C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential. D) A generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold. |
|
Definition
| C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential. |
|
|
Term
A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________.
A) femoral
B) iliohypogastric
C) sciatic
D) ilioinguinal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________.
A) lumbar plexus
B) femoral plexus
C) sacral plexus
D) thoracic plexus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The abducens nerve ________.
A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye
B) relays sensory information from taste buds on the tongue
C) exits from the medulla
D) if paralyzed, exhibits Bell's palsy |
|
Definition
| A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye |
|
|
Term
Inborn or intristic reflexes are ________.
A) rapid, predictable, learned responses
B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
C) autonomic only
D) always mediated by the brain |
|
Definition
| B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not an aspect of sensory perception?
A) magnitude estimation
B) spatial discrimination
C) feature attraction
D) quality estimation
E) pattern recognition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________.
A) radial nerve
B) sciatic nerve
C) ulnar nerve
D) median nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________.
A) Golgi tendon reflex
B) flexor reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) plantar reflex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________.
A) interoceptors
B) exteroceptors
C) proprioceptors
D) mechanoreceptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________.
A) interoceptors
B) photoreceptors
C) nociceptors
D) proprioceptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which receptors adapt most slowly?
A) smell receptors
B) pressure receptors
C) nociceptors
D) touch receptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The trochlear nerve conveys proprioceptor impulses from the ________ to the brain.
A) medial rectus muscle
B) lateral rectus muscle
C) superior rectus muscle
D) inferior rectus muscle |
|
Definition
| C) superior rectus muscle |
|
|
Term
Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.
A) afferent nerves
B) efferent nerves
C) motor nerves
D) mixed nerves |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.
A) Wallerian cells
B) Schwann cells
C) dendrites
D) Golgi organs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Regeneration within the CNS ________.
A) is more successful than with the PNS
B) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm
C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes
D) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars |
|
Definition
| C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes |
|
|
Term
In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________.
A) also flex
B) extend
C) abduct
D) adduct |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the correct definition.
A) Magnitude estimation is the simplest level of sensation.
B) Perceptual detection is the ability to detect how much stimulus is applied to the body.
C) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.
D) Spatial discrimination allows us to recognize textures. |
|
Definition
| C) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face. |
|
|
Term
All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________.
A) pons
B) thalamus
C) reticular formation
D) medulla |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves?
A) pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous
B) posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial
C) pudendal and common fibular
D) common fibular and tibial |
|
Definition
| D) common fibular and tibial |
|
|
Term
Irritation of a major nerve of this plexus may cause hiccups.
A) cervical plexus
B) lumbar plexus
C) sacral plexus
D) thoracic plexus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bell's palsy is ________.
A) characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles
B) characterized by loss of vision
C) often caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve
D) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles |
|
Definition
| D) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?
A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
C) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
D) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector |
|
Definition
| B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector |
|
|
Term
Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following?
A) oculomotor
B) olfactory
C) trigeminal
D) facial |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Transduction refers to conversion of ________.
A) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses
B) stimulus information to nerve impulses
C) receptor energy to stimulus energy
D) afferent impulses to efferent impulses |
|
Definition
| B) stimulus information to nerve impulses |
|
|
Term
The flexor muscles in the anterior arm (biceps brachii and brachialis) are innervated by what nerve?
A) radial
B) median
C) ulnar
D) musculocutaneous |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cranial nerves that have neural connections with the tongue include all except the ________.
A) trigeminal
B) facial
C) glossopharyngeal
D) trochlear |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
A) abducens
B) vestibulocochlear
C) trigeminal
D) accessory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve?
A) glossopharyngeal
B) vagus
C) olfactory
D) accessory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the statement that is most correct.
A) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers.
B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
C) The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.
D) The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord. |
|
Definition
| B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons. |
|
|
Term
A fall or an improperly delivered gluteal injection could result in ________.
A) neurofibromatosis
B) postpoliomyelitis muscular atrophy
C) paresthesia
D) sciatica |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except ________.
A) Meissner's corpuscles
B) tactile discs
C) Pacinian corpuscles
D) hair follicle receptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye, and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve has been damaged?
A) facial
B) glossopharyngeal
C) hypoglossal
D) accessory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?
A) complete loss of sensation
B) a complete loss of voluntary movement
C) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control
D) a complete loss of sensation and movement |
|
Definition
| B) a complete loss of voluntary movement |
|
|
Term
| A pebble kicked up into a shoe causes the ________ of localized deep pressure, but the ________ of it is an awareness of discomfort. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which receptors are modified free-nerve endings found in the deeper levels of the epidermis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The perineurium defines the boundary of a ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ________ nerve is the largest of the cranial nerves. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ventral spinal cord roots contain ________ fibers, while the dorsal roots contain ________ fibers. |
|
Definition
| motor (efferent); sensory (afferent) |
|
|
Term
| The facial nerve is cranial nerve number ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ is a protective reflex that also overrides the spinal pathways and prevents any other reflexes from using them at the same time. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ is the tingling sensation or numbness when blood has been cut off from an area, as when the foot "goes to sleep." |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain, temperature, and coarse touch are involved in the ________ ascending pathways of the somatosensory system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Complex motor behavior such as walking depends on ________ patterns. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Information regarding skeletal muscle tension is provided by ________ and muscle length by ________. |
|
Definition
| Golgi tendon organs; muscle spindles |
|
|
