Illustrate the idea of increasing levels of complexity:

a. cells, tissues, organelles, organs, organ systems

b. tissues, cells, organs, organelles,organ systems

c. organs, organelles, organ systems, cells, tissues

d. cells, organelles, organs, tissues

e. organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems

In all organisms, the basic unit of structure and function is:

a. atom

b. molecule

c. macromolecule

d. spleen

e. cell

Metabolism is defined as the:

a. removel of wastes produced by chemical reactions

b. breakdown of substances into simpler forms

c. production of new organisms

d. physical and chemical changes occuring in an organism

e. rate at which a person gains weight

Homeostatsis is the:

a. ability to keep body weight within normal limits

b. maintenance of a constant external temperature inside a room

c. ingestion of enough food to satisfy hunger

d. tendency of the body to maintain a stable environment

e. ability of the blood to circulate nutrients

The thoracic cavity lies ____ to the abdominopelvic cavity.

a. dorsal (posterior)

b. ventral (anterior)

c. superior

d. inferior

e. inside

Most of the terminology to name and describe body parts and their functions come from:

a. latin and greek

b. english and italian

c. picture drawings on the cave walls of our ancestor

d. the language of hunter-gatherers

What does NOT help to maintain the life of an individual organism:

a. responsiveness

b. movement

c. reproduction

d. metabolism

e. respiration

A blood clot stimulating further clotting is an example of:

a. positive feedback

b. negative feedback

c. homeostasis

d. vital sign

e. a disease rate

positive feedback

(Positive feedback is a process that moves conditions away from the normal state)

(Negative feedback is a process that moves conditions back to the "set point" or normal state)

Which of the following organs are in the abdominopelvic cavity?

a. heart

b. trachea

c. thymus gland

d. kidneys

e. eyes

What are the signs of aging at the cellular level?

a. graying hair, waning strength, wrinkles

b. unrepaired DNA and abnormal proteins

c. impaired cell division and the ability to break down and recycle worn cells parts

d. a fatty liver and clogged blood vessels

e. an increase in the number of nuclei

Maintaining a stable internal environment typically requires:

a. positive feedback

b. unrepaired DNA and abnormal proteins

c. energy input

d. inadequate nutrition

e. negative feedback

The activities of an anatomist consist of ____, whereas those of a physiologist consist of _____.

a. observing body parts; sudying function of body parts

b. conductig experiments; making microsopic examination

c. studying chemical molecules; observing forms of the body parts

d. sketching; dissecting

e. none above

What process is necessary to ensure the continuation of the human species?

a. responsiveness

b. movement

c. reproduction

d. metabolism

e. respiration

Homeostasis exists if concentrations of water, nutrients, oxygen, heat and pressure ________:

a. remain perfectly static and not vary

b. remain within certain limited ranges

c. disappear

d. fluctuate greatly between very high and low values

e. increase when the body is stressed

Cell death first occurs in what stage of life?

a. age 60

b. age 50

c. at puberty

d. in the fetus

e. at conception

An anatomical section that separates the body into right and left portions is a _____ section.

a. frontal

b. tranverse

c. coronal

d. parietal

e. saggital

Paired organs, such as the kidneys or lungs, are said to be:

a. bisexual

b. bilingual

c. bilateral

d. bicyclic

e. bivalent

Physical and chemical changes or reactions in the body are collectively known as:

a. metabolism

b. physiology

c. assimilation

d. excretion

e. astrology

Which of the following is NOT an example of a homeostatic mechanism in the body?

a. shivering when body temperature falls below normal limits

b. increasing heart rate and contraction force when blood pressure falls

c. pulling blankets over yourself when cold at night

d. secreting insulin after a meal to decrease blood sugar concentration

e. release of a hormone that causes the body to conserve water when the outside environment is extremely hot and dry

Which of the following are vital signs?

a. body temperature, blood pressure, pulse rate

b. quality of the skin, red blood cell count, oxygen level

c. ability to take a multiple choice exam and short term memory

d. visual acuity and auditory sharpness

e. non above

The upper midportion quadrant of the abdomen is called the ________:

a. hypochondriac

b. iliac

c. hypogastric

d. epigastric

e. metabdonimal

When the body is placed in the anatomical position, which of the following is NOT true?

a. Face is forward

b. arms are at the sides

c. Palms are facing backward

d. body is erect

e. Head is bowed

Which is an environmental factor that a human body requires?

a. carbon dioxide

b. water

c. wastes

d. heat

e. light

Two anatomical terms that refer to features near the surface of the body:

a. anterior and posterior

b. distal and proximal

c. superficial and deep

d. superficial and peripheral

e. epithelial and epidermal

Why is atomic radiation useful for treating cancer?

a. radiation affects cancer cells but not normal cells

b. radiation protects normal cells against the effects of cancer

c. radiation harms cancer cells more readily than it does non-cancer cells

d. chemicals in normal cells are not affected by radiation

e. it kills all cells

DNA:

a. helps synthesize nucleic acids

b. is important in building fats

c. stores genetic information

d. is important in building carbohydrates

e. provides celluar energy

Proteins:

a. are structural materials

b. are chemical messengers

c. contains C,H,O, and N, and sometimes sulfur

d. can function as enzymes

e. all the above

DNA and RNA differ in that:

a. RNA has deoxyribose and DNA has ribose

b. RNA is double stranded and DNA is single stranded

c. DNA holds genetic information and RNA uses that information to synthesize proteins

d. RNA holds genetic information and DNA uses that info to synthesize proteins

e. DNA is found in males and RNA found in females

Which of the following is NOT a source of ionizing radiation?

a. cosmic rayas from outer space

b. cholestrol and triglycerides

c. atomic and nuclear weapons

d. smoke detectors

e. tv components

What gland uses the element iodide?

a. spleen

b. liver

c. thymus

d. thyroid

e. spinal cord

What is the molecular formula for a simple carbohydrate?

a. has a molecular formula of C₆H₁₂O₆

b. is a building block of protein

c. consists of several joined chains

d. has only one nucleotide

e. is a building block of fat

Lipids:

a. are insoluble in water

b. include phospholipids, cholesteral, and fats

c. contain C, H, and O, but with less oxygen than carbohydrates

d. are organic

e. all the above

In the body, oxygen:

a. reacts with water to form carbonic acid

b. is used in various metabolic processes

c. helps regulate body temperature

d. exchanges with carbon dioxide

e. releases energy from glucose during cellular respiration

Sodium Ions and Calcium Ions are examples of:

a. cations

b. dogions

c. anions

d. salts

e. molecules

A complete atom is electrically neutral because the number of:

a. positively charged protons and neutral neutrons are equal

b. negatively charged electrons and neutral neutrons are equal

c. negative lectrons and positive protons are equal

d. electrons is greate than the number of protons and neutrons combines

e. none above

The difference in hydrogen ion concentration between solutions with pH 4 and pH 5 is:

a. twofold

b. fivefold

c. tenfold

d. twentyfold

e. hundredfold

The formula H₂O means:

a. an atom contains two hydrogen molecules and one oxygen molecule

b. an atom contains one hydrogen molecule and two oxygen molecules

c. a molecule contains two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atoms

d. a molecule contains one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms

e. a molecule contains two hydrogen atoms and 2 oxygen atms

The atoms of the isotopes of a particular element can vary in the number of _____:

a. electrons

b. protons

c. neutrons

d. nuclei

e. molecules

The atomic weight of an element whose atoms contain 8 protons, 8 electrons and 8 neutrons is:

a. 8

b. 16

c. 24

d. 32

e. 64

Which of the following is a form of ionizing radiation?

a. cosmic radiation

b. gamma radiation

c. cosmic radiation and gamma radiation

d. neither cosmic nor gamma radiation

e. none above

What substances account for more than 95% of the human body?

a. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen

b. calcium, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen

c. carbon, phosphorus, oxygen, hydrogen

d. calcium, phosphorus, hydrogen, nitrogen

e. carbon, calcium, nitrogen, hydrogen

In a covalent bond:

a. one atom shares and another atom gains electrons

b. atoms share pairs of electrons

c. oppositely charged atoms attract

d. oppositely charged atoms repel

e. all above

An organic compound contains:

a. water and salt

b. oxygen and nitrogen

c. carbon and oxygen

d. nitrogen and hydrogen

e. carbon and hydrogen

Which of the following is not organic (organic always contains carbon and hydrogen):

- oxygen

- Lipids

- nucleic acids

- enzymes

- cholesterol

What is true of Lipids?

- are insoluble in water

- include phospholipids, cholesterol, fats

- contain C, H, O, but with less O than Carbs

- are organic

- all the above

A solution that contains equal numbers of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions is:

- acidic

- basic

- alkaline

- neutral

- toxic

 ______ is the tendency of atoms, molecules, and ions in a liquid or air solutions to move from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration, thus becoming more evenly distributed, or more diffuse.

True or False:

Certain white blood cells take in bacterial cells by phagocytosis.

True or False:

Cilia and flagella extend from certain cells, enabling them to move.

True or False:

Lucky people who cannot be infected with HIV are protected because their cells lack receptors that admit the virus.

True or False:

Cancer can result if the cell cycle stops.

False

(cancer is rapidly dividing cells - to much mitoses)

True or False:

A selectively permeable membrane allows all substances to pass through.

True or False:

Mitochondria has a total of 4 membranes.

False

(2 membranes)

Which of the following describes a lysosome?

a. a double-membraned organelle that is the powerhouse of the cell.

b. a complex network of interconnected membranes that is a communication system in the cell

c. a tiny, membranous sac that contains enzymes that degrade worn cell parts and debris

d. a nonmembranous structure that is essential for mitosis

e. a bilayer of lipid in which proteins are embedded

Osmosis is the movement of:

a. molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration

b. water molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane

c. water molecules from a low concentration to a high concentration through a selectively permeable membrane

d. ions from a low pressure region to a high pressure region through a spm

e. water molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration through an unselectively permeable membrane

The following are major components of a human cell EXCEPT:

- cell wall

- cell membrane

- cytoplasm

- nucleus

The endoplasmic reticulum in a cell is best described as:

a. membranous vesicles; contains digestive enzymes

b. network of interconnected membranes forming sacs and canals; packages protein molecules for secretion

c. nonmembranous structure that synthesizes proteins

d. particles composed of protein and RNA; synthesizes proteins

In a cell, lipids are synthesized in the:

a. golgi apparatus

b. smooth ER

c. rough ER

d. liver

In a cell, organelle that is described as "flattened, membranous sacs" are the:

a. smooth ER

b. nuclear envelope

c. vesicles

d. golgi apparatus

This organelle structure migrates to either end of the cell during division and form spindle fibers to assist in chromosome distrubtion:

- Centrioles

- nuclear envelope

- ribosome

- Nucleus

Movement out of or into a cell AGAINST a concentration gradient is know as:

- Filtration

- Osmosis

- Diffusion

- Active Transport

Active Transport

(all others are passive)

The processes of transporting large molecules or particles into a cell via pinocytosis, phagocytosis, and receptor mediated movement is called:

- Active transport

- Exocytosis

- Endocytosis

- Filtration

The cell cycle can best be described as:

- interphase, mitosis and cytokinesis

- metaphase, telophase, prophase

- cytokinesis, metaphase and diffusion

- Mitosis, meiosis and prophase

The most active period in a cells existence is:

- telophase

- interphase

- prometaphase

- G1 Phase

The general term "cancer" caused by a problem with the genes ususally means there are abnormalities of:

a. cancer supportive genes

b. oncogenes

c. tumor suppressor genes

d. both b and c

______ is a form of pre-programmed cell death:

- differentiation

- apoptosis

- pluripotent

- phagocytosis

During ____ the chomosomes align at the "equator" and then during ____ sister chromatids separate to opposite "poles" of the cell.

- interphase, anaphase

- metaphase, anaphase

- anaphase, telophase

- prophase, telophase

Enzymes

(names end in -ase.  amaylase, lactase, catalase)

- adenine

- guanine

- cystosine

- thymine

(AGCT)

Purines (A&G)

Pyrimidines (T&C)

A binds T (A&T)

C binds G (C&G)

1. One ATP is produced for each citric acide molecule that goes through the cycle.

2. 8 hydrogen atoms with high energy electrons are transferred to hydrogen carriers.

3. As the 6-carbon citric acid reacts to form the 4 carbon oxaloacetic acid, 2 carbon dioxide molecules are produced.

List the 13 steps in Protein synthesis:

(Chapter 4 Quiz)

The layer of the epidermis that includes melanocytes and a single row of columnar cells that undergo mitosis is the:

- stratum corneum

- stratum granulosum

- stratum spinosum

- stratum basale

Eumelanin and pheomelanin are:

a. reddish-yellow and brownish-black pigment

b. Brownish-black and reddish-yellow pigment

c. types of keratine

d. a hair follicle

e. skin on the nose

Adipose (fat) tissue is a form of:

a. epithelium

b. muscle

c. nervous tissue

d. connective tissue

The hardness of a nail comes from:

a. carotene

b. collagen

c. calcium

d. keratin

e. bone

A _____ membrane lines tubes and cavities that open to the outside of the body.

a. serous

b. epithelial

c. synovial

d. mucous

e. cell

Muscle cells with more than one nucleus are what type of muscle?

a. cardiac and skeletal

b. cardiac and smooth

c. skeletal only

d. smooth only

e. cardiac only

Redded skin reflects:

- Dilated blood vessels sending more blood to the dermis.

- Eating too many carrots.

- Inheriting extra melanin

- Constricted blood vessels sending more blood to the epidermis

Skin cells play an important role in producing:

- Vitamin A

- Vitamin B

- Vitamin C

- Vitamin D

Corns are:

- areas of white skin pigmentation

- scaly scalp areas

- keratinized conical masses on toes

- growths emanating from the nostrils

The functions of skin include:

- synthesizing antibodies

- producing adipose tissue

- regulating body temperature

- synthesizing digestive enzymes

An engineered tissue might include:

- stem cells

- progenitor cells

- scaffold built of synthetic materials

- extracellular matrix components

- all the above

Neurons can send messages to:

- only other neurons

- neurons and neuroglia

- other neurons, glands, and muscles

- other neurons and skeletal muscles

- only neurons in sense organs

Epidermis is _______, whereas dermis is _______.

a. the innermost layer of the skin; under the epidermis

b. composed largely of dense connective tissue; composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue

c. the outermost layer of the skin; composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue

d. composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue; composed of connective tissue, smooth muscle and nerve cell processes

The epidermis:

- retains water in deeper skin layers

- keeps out harmful chemicals and pathogens

- protects the skin against mechanical injury

- loses some cells every day

- all the above

Musscle tissue that can be consciously controlled (voluntary) is:

a. smooth

b. skeletal

c. intercalated

d. cardiac

e. epithelial

In areas of the skin where the epidermis is thin, the _____ may be absent.

a. stratum lucidum

b. stratum granulosum

c. stratum corneum

d. stratum basale

e. stratum cranium

Which of the following is not one of the four basic types of body tissues?

- epithelial tissue

- connective tissue

- eye tissue

- muscle tissue

- nervous tissue

Exposure to ultraviolet light darkens skin by stimulating synthesis of ______.

- melatonin

- carotene

- hemoglobin

- cyanin

- melanin

Epithelial tissue functions in:

- secretion, absorption, protection

- contraction, movement, reflexes

- reacting to stimuli, thinking, remembering

- nourishing and hydrating tissues

The skin appears yellowish if a person eats too much:

- collagen

- carotene

- cyanin

- melanin

- chicken soup

This is the name of the middle layer of the integumentary system:

- adipose layer

- epidermis layer

- subcutaneous layer

- dermis layer

Collagen is a major component of:

- bone

- ligament

- tendon

- connective tissue

- all the above

An organ consists of:

- skin and bones

- 2 or more tissues grouped together that function together

- at least 4 tissues grouped together

- one variety of each of the four tissue types

- multiple tissue layer

______ produce connective tissue fibers:

- macrophages

- mast cells

- fibroblasts

- osteoblasts

- cartilage cells

Melanin is produced by ______:

- aerolar cells

- fibroblasts

- melanocytes

- squamous cells

Cartilage heals slowly because:

- chondrocytes don't have direct blood supply

- the intercellular material is sesamoid

- cartilage cells are immersed in fluids

- it isn't used often

These type of cells cover the body surface, organs, forms the inner lining of body cavities, and lines hollow organs:

- Melanocytes

- Epithelium cells

- connective tissue cells

- Fibroblasts

Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of:

- dense irregular tissue

- reticular connective tissue

- muscle tissue

- dense regular connective tissue

- epithelial tissue

The human integumentary system includes:

- skin, nails, hair follicles, glands

- epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous layer

- just the skin

- bones and muscles

Which of the following is not correct concerning the skin?

- Dermis is usually thicker than epidermis

- Epidermis is composed of stratified squamous epithelium

- Subcutaneous layer is between the dermis and epidermis

- dermis contains smooth muscle and nerve tissue

- Skin contains some immune system cells

Macrophages do what action?

- Nourish the white blood cells

- help keritinization

- destroy cells through phagocytosis

- carry secondary oxygen for cells

As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis towards the surface, ____:

- they divide continually

- their supply of nutrients improve

- they die

- they become dermal cells

- they can become cancerous

Which of  nitrogenous bases is part of DNA but not RNA?

- Adenine

- Thymine

- Guanine

- Cytosine

- Uracil

Sweat glands are also known as:

- Sebaceous glands

- Sudoriferous glands

- dermal glands

- metabolism glands

- sebum glands

Which of the nitrogenous bases is part of RNA but not DNA?

- Cytosine

- thymine

- Guanine

- Uracil

- Adenine

The outer most level  the integumentary system is:

- dermis

- melanocytes

- epidermis

- keratin

Malignant Melanoma is:

- a disease that starts in the integumentary system

- a skin cancer

- effects cells that are in the epidermal layer

- often appears as a change in a freckle or mole

- all the above

Smooth muscle lacks:

Areolar tissue contains:

- many adipocytes filled with fat

- nipple and other breast tissue

- chondrocytes and lacunae

- osteocytes, osteoblasts, canaliculi

- collagenous fibers, elastic fibers, and gel-like ground substance

The following is a type of connective tissue:

- blood

- brain

- simple squamous epithelium

- simple columnar epithelium

- none of the above

Bone tissue contains abundant:

- fibronectin

- laminin

- fibrocartilage

- collagen

- cholesterol

This type of tissue comprises much of the body and is the most abundant type of tissue by weight:

- connective tissue

- epithelium

- cardiac tissue

- neurons

A compact bone has ____, whereas spongy bone has _____.

- tightly packed tissue that reduces the weight of the bone; cancellous bone that provide solid strong tissue resistant to bending

- tightly packed tissue that is solid, strong and resistant to bending; cancellous bone that reduces the weight of bone

- epiphyses; a diaphysis

- osteocytes, no osteocytes

- none of the above

The white material that reduces friction at the ends of bones is called:

- epiphysis

- articular cartilage

- periosteum

- endostreum

- white matter

The presence of an ephiphyseal plate indicates that:

- the bone is lengthening

- the bone is no longer lengthening

- bone is increasing in diameter

- bone is dead

- bone is broken

It is possible to determine if a childs long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of the:

- diaphysis

- medullary cavity

- epiphyseal plate

- articular cartilage

- neophyseal plate

Exercise _____ and _____ bones:

- thickens, elongates

- elongates, weakens

- thickens, strengthens

- thins, atrophies

- strengthens, innervates

Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

- responsible for blood cell production

- Storage of inorganic salts

- protection of organs, especially in head and thorax

- interaction with muscles for movement

- all the above

The axial skeleton includes the:

- upper and lower limbs, pelvic and pectoral girdles

- skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, vertebral column

- radius, ulna, carpals, phalanges

- femur, tibia, fibula

- none above

The pituitary gland is located in the:

- sella turcica

- cribriform plate

- sphenoidal sinus

- glenoid cavity

- mandibular fossa

They zygomatic arch is compose of the processes of the:

- zygomatic and temporal bones

- zygomatic and maxilla bones

- maxilla and temporal bones

- temporal and parietal bones

- none above

The hip bone includes:

- ilium, pubis

- ilium sacrum, pubis

- ischium, pubis

- ilium, ischium, pubis

- ischium, sacrum, pubis

Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called:

- true ribs

- false ribs

- floating ribs

- direct ribs

- spare ribs

The acetabulum:

- is a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur

- a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur

- the prominence of the hip

- is the anterior portion of the hip bone

- is formed anteriorly by the joining of the pubic bones

The talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and lateral, intermediate, cuneiform bones are all part of the:

- foot

- hand

- pelvis

- sternum

- skull

A vitamin D deficiency results in _____, whereas a vitamin A deficiency results in ______.

- rickets, dwarfism

- rickets, retardation of bone development

- osteomalacia, rickets

- soft bones, rickets

- osteoporosis, orange skin

Which of the following bones is not part of the eye orbit?

- ethmoid

- sphenoid

- vomer

- frontal

- zygomatic

The clavicles:

- hold the shoulders in place and provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, upper limbs

- form the shoulders

- provide attachments for muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limbs

- are triangle shaped bones with indentations in the center

- serve no function in the body

The following are bones of the cranium:

- ethmoid, nasal, maxilla, zygomatic

- sphenoid, lacrimal, parietal, mandible

- parietal, occiput, frontal and sphenoid

- frontal, parietal, temporal, nasal

- none above

Names of the bones in the middle ear are:

- malleous, concha, stapes

- malleous, incus, zygomatic

- hyoid, incus, stapes

- malleous, hyoid, zygomatic

- malleous, incus, stapes

The appendicular skeleton system includes all these EXCEPT for:

- humerus

- axis

- lower extremity

- femur

- phalanges

This facial boe has sinuses:

- maxilla

- sphenoid

- mandible

- lacrimal

- zygomatic

There are ___ phalanges, on average, in the human body:

- 14

- 56

- 28

- 64

- 206

Th cervical vertebrae are easily distingiushable by this feature:

- large, thick tranverse processes

- large knife like spinous processes

- largest vertebral bodies

- bifurcated spinous processes

- superior articular processes

There are ___ pairs of true ribs, ____ pair of false ribs, of which ____ are floating:

- 7, 5, 2

- 12, 5, 4

- 5, 7, 2

- 7, 2, 5

True or False:

Blood cell formation is called hematoformation

True or False:

 Red marrow is found in the medullary cavity.

True or False:

The longest bone in the human body is the femur.

True or False:

The pectoral girdle is made of the: clavicle and scapula.

True or False:

 The pigmented molecule that carries oxygen in red blood cells is hemoglobin.

True or False:

The largest foramen in the head is the obturator foramen.

True or False:

The pisiform is a carpal bone.

True or False:

The five areas of the spine are called; atlas, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx

Give an example of a Cartilagenous Joint:

Give 3 examples of types of arthritis:

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Gout

Hip (asetabulum and femur head)

Shoulder (glenoidhumeral)

Radiocarpal (wrist)

Carpometacarpal (carpals and metacarpals)

Humero-ulnar (elbow)

Talocrural (ankle)

glenohumeral

acromialclavicular (AC Joint)

ACL (anterior cruciate ligament)

PCL (posterior cruciate ligament)

MCL (medial collateral ligament)

LCL (lateral collateral ligament)

The _____, made of dense connective tissue, separating adjacent muscles and holding them in position.

- fascia

- perimysium

- endomysium

- sarcomysium

- myomysium

Myofibrils are composed primarily of:

- ATP and ADP

- Actin and Myosin

- Troponin and tropomyosin

- fascia and tendson

- perimysium and enomysium

The sarcoplasmic reticulum has a high concentration of:

- myofibrils

- tendons

- calcium

- blood vessels

- ligaments

A tendon is ____, whereas an aponeurosis is _____.

- cordlike and connects bone to bone, broad fibrous sheet of connective tissue

- broad fibrous sheet CT that connects muscle to muscle, cordlike and connects bones to bones

- found in humans, not found in apes

- cordlike and connects muscles to bones; a broad fibrous sheet of CT that connects muscle to muscle

Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles in:

- myofibrils

- motor units

- motor end plates

- motor neuron endings

- sarcomeres

A neuromuscular junction, the space between muscle fiber membrane and nerve is called:

- motor neuron

- neurotransmitter

- synapse

- schwann cell

- motor end plate

Which of the following statements is correct?

- a sarcomere is the functional unit of skeletal muscles

- Actin are firmly attached to mysoin filaments

- cross bridges form between actin and sarcolemma filaments

- skeletal muscles are involuntary

- you can create new muscles cells by exercise

Types of contractions are:

Isometric and Isontonic

AND

Eccentric and Concentric

Smooth Muscles:

a. Lack striations

b. Use norephinephrine and acetylcholine

c. can change length

- (first two)

- all the above

Which of the following is NOT true?

- Red fibers contract more slowly than white

- Red fibers contain more myoglobin than white

- Red fibers have fewer mitochondria than white

- Red fibers fatigue more slowly than white

- Red roosters have red fibers and white chickens have white fibers

A primary muscle of the cervical area that pulls the head to one side, flexes the neck or elevates the sternum is the:

- quadratus lumborum

- splenius capitus

- sternocleidomastoid

- illiocostalis cervicis

- all the above

The Buccinator muscle is in the:

- buttocks

- ankle

- cheek

- chest

The Linea Alba is:

- a muscle extending from the ischial spine to the coccyx and sacrum

- a curved, broad muscle on the side of the chest

- a muscle beneath the skull

- a band of tough connective tissue to which abdominal wall muscles attach

- a muscle attached to the symphysis pubis

Which of the following is not a part of the rotator cuff?

- supraspinatus

- subscapularis

- pectoralis minor

- pectoralis minor

- teres minor

These muscles flex the arm:

- Deltoid and Pectoralis major

- Latissimus Dorsi and Infraspinatus

- biceps and triceps

- soleus and gastrocnemius

- levator scapula and trapezius

The muscle that abducts, extends and flexes the arm is the:

- coracobrachialis

- deltoid

- levator scapulae

- teres major

- none of the above

Cardiac muscle:

- contracts as a syncytium

- excites itself

- responds in an all or none manner

- is only in the heart

- all the above

The Soleus is a muscle that forms part of the:

- Calf

- Buttocks

- Thigh

- Abdomen

- Shoulder

The muscle that extends the elbow:

- biceps brachii

- coracobrachialis

- pronator teres

- vastus medialis

- triceps brachii

Muscles of the abdominal wall are:

- transverse abdominus

- internal obliques

- external obliques

- rectus abdominus

- all the above

The cytoplasmic extensions that, together with the cell body,provide the main receptive surfaces for neurons are:

a. neurofibrils

b. chormatiophilic substance (Nissl bodies)

c. axons

d. dentrites

The space between nerurons is a:

a. dendrite

b. gap junction

c. bleb

d. neurotransmitter

e. synapse

The nervous system:

a. detects changes in the internal or external environment

b. controls the movement of muscles

c. regulates secretions

d. integrates information from several sources and uses it to respond appropriately

e. all the above

Masses of myelanted nerve fibers appear:

a. white

b. gray

c. brown

d. transparent

e. wet

White

(gray matter is unmyelinated)

A neuron may have:

a. one axon and many dendrites

b. one dendrite and many axons

c. no dendrites

d. no axons

e. more than one cell body

Myelin

a. is released from a neuron and travel to another neuron

b. comprises much of the cell emmbrane of Schwann cells

c. is a type of neuron

d. is a form of chromatophilic substance that fills Schwann cells

e. is produced in response to bacterial infection

Which of the following is (are) a type of neuraglia?

a. astrocyte

b. Oligodendrocyte

c. ependymal cell

d. Schwann cell

e. all the above

Dendrites on unipolar neurons are part of:

a. sensory neurons (afferent)

b. motor neurons (efferent)

c. interneurons

d. efferent neurons

e. affective neurons

A stimulus great enough tochange the membrane potential and propagate and action potential is said to have reached:

a. recruitement

b. nirvana

c. summation

d. tetanus

e. threshold

The most rapid nerve impulses are conducted on fibers that are:

a. thick and myelinated

b. thick and unmyelinated

c. thin and myelinated

d. thin and unmyelinated

e. of medium thickness with spots of myelin

The following molecules is responsible for "RUNNER'S HIGH," a good feeling that accompanies long distance running?

a. beta endorphin

b. acetylcholine

c. epinephrine

d. dopamine

e. alcohol

The neurotransmitter that controls skeletal muscle contraction is:

a. beta endorphin

b. nitric oxide

c. acetylcholine

d. GABA

e. nitrous oxide

The central nervous system (CNS) consists of:

a. spinal and cranial nerves

b. the brain and spinal cord

c. the cerebrum and cerebellum

d. nerves in the upper and lower limbs

e. none above

The meninges consist of:

a. the brain and spinal cord

b. the membranes that delineate all the major brain parts

c. the pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater

d. nerve tracts that run up and down the spinal cord

e. non above

Cerebrospinal fluid:

a. informs the autonomic centers in the brainstem and hypothalamus about the internal environment

b. provides a pathway for waste to enter the blood

c. protects the brain

d. protects the spinal cord

e. all the above

The expectd response to the triceps-jerk reflex is:

a. flexion of the forearm

b. extension of the forearm

c. plantar flexion

d. plantar extention

e. none above

The corticospinal tracts control:

a. sweat glands

b. posture

c. voluntary muscle movements

d. spinal reflexes

e. the urge to urinate

If the right lateral spinothalamic tract is servered:

a. muscles on the left side are paralyzed

b. muscles on the right side are paralyzed

c. pain impulses from the left side are blocked

d. pain impulses from the right side are blocked

e. a burnign sensation comes from the left side

The part of the brain that coordinats voluntary muscular movements is the:

a. cerebrum

b. brainstem

c. cerebellum

d. corpus callosum

e. hoppocampus

Which lobe of your brain are you using when you answer this question?

a. frontal

b. parietal

c. temporal

d. occipital

e. insula

Spina bifida is a(n):

a. abnormality in neural tube development

b. open vertebral column

c. exposed spinal cord

d. birth defect

e. all above

The area of skin supplied by sensory nerve fibers from a particular (single) dorsal root is called a:

a. dermatome

b. microtome

c. sensory body

d. nerve body

e. sensitized area

The part of the brain that is overactive in post traumatic stress disorder is the:

a. amygdala

b. brainstem

c. infundibulum

d. thalamus

e. hippocampus

The somatic nervous system consists of nerve fibers that connect the CNS to the ___, whereas the autonomic nervous system consists of fibers that connect the ____.

a. skin and skeletal muscles; brain to the spinal cord.

b. visceral organs; CNS to the skin and skeletal muscles

c. heart intestines; CNS to the cardiac and smooth muscles

d. skin and skeletal muscles; CNS to the visceral organs

e. brain and spinal cord; PNS to the CNS

A spinal nerve passing through the intervertebral foramen is:

a. associated with the vertebra above

b. composed of afferent fibers only

c. composed of efferent fibers only

d. associated with cranial nerve C1

e. none of the above

31 pairs

8 pair of cervical (C1-C8)

12 pairs of thoracic (T1-T12)

5 pairs of lumbar (L1-L5)

5 pairs of sacral (S1-S5)

1 set of coccygeal (C0)

True or False:

Reflexes use the brain

True or False:

Reflex and Response are the same thing.

False

(reflex does not use the brain, response uses the brain)

True or False:

There are five types of receptor nerves.

True or False:

Chemoreceptors deal with smell in the nose.

True

(respond to changes in chemical concentrations)

True or False:

General senses are widely distributed throughout the body.  They are in the skin, various organs, and joints.

True or False:

General senses are found are spinal nerves

True or False:

Special senses are located in the cranial nerves.

True

(confined to structures in the head: eyes, ears, nose and mouth)

True or False:

The autonomic systems consists of the sympathetic and parasympathetic.