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Definition
common malignancy caused by an abnormal growth pattern of epithelial cells around teh neck of the uterus. |
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benign, solid masses of the uterus that develop from an overgrowth of the uterine smooth muscle tissue. |
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adenocarcinoma of the endometrium (AKA endometrial carcinoma) |
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Definition
Most common malignancy of the uterus. strong ties to hormonal changes. |
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what is the most common disorder of teh female breast? |
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What is the second leading cause of cancer deaths in women? |
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What is the mean age for breast cancer?
Approximately 60% of all palpable lesions occur in the____________. |
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Definition
Mean age= 60
Upper outer quadrant of the breast. |
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Definition
Appearance of multiple small depressions on the skin surface as a result of hair follicles becoming visible from skin edema, as might occur with breast cancer. |
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What age are women recommended to get screening mammograms? (according to book and accepted as controversial) |
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Definition
development of an embryo outside the uterine cavity. (fallopian tube) |
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Definition
represents an abnormal conception in which there is usually no fetus. |
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Definition
Benign, enlargement of the prostate gland caused by the development of discrete nodules with the organ. Caused by hormonal changes. |
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Adenocarcinoma of the prostate occurs more frequently in the ____________. |
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Definition
Posterior lobe of the prostate. |
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Definition
common intrinsic scrotal masses caused by a collection of fluid in the testis or along the spermatic cord. |
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Definition
fluid filled, painless scrotal masses within the testis adjacent to the epididymis. |
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Definition
arise from the seminiferous tubules and account for approx. 40% of malignant testicular tumors. |
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Term
Imaging studies performed on a nongravid woman include:
A: hysterosalpingography
B: transvaginal pelvic sonography
C: Transabdominal pelvic sonography'
D: All of the above |
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Definition
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Regular, yearly mammographic screening should ocur in women ____ years of age or older.
A: 20
B: 30
C: 40
D: 50 |
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The congenital disorder resulting in a complete duplication of the uterus, cervix, and vagina is:
A: Bicornuate Uterus
B: retroflexed uterus
C: Unicornuate Uterus
D: uterus didelphys |
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Definition
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The formation of which of the following cystic ovarian masses may occur as a part of the normal menstrual cycle?
1.) Corpus Luteum Cysts
2.) cystadenomas
3.) follicular cysts
A: 1 and 2
B: 1 and 3
C: 2 and 3
D: 1,2, and 3 |
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Definition
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Term
A malignant neoplasm of the ovary is a :
A: cystadenocarcinoma
B: cystadenoma
C: leiomyoma
D: fibroadenoma |
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Diagnosis of which type of neoplastic disease is often made via a PAP smear and confirmed by surgical biopsy?
A: adenocarcinoma of the endometrium
B: cervical carcinoma
C: fibroadenoma of the breast
D: leiomyoma of the uterus |
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Definition
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The majority of breast masses occur in which anatomic region of the breast?
A: lower, inner quadrant
B: lower, outer quadrant
C: upper, inner quadrant
D: upper, outer quadrant |
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Definition
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Term
The presence of excessive amniotic fluid is termed:
A: abruptio placentae
B: oligohydramnios
C: placenta previa
D: polyhydramnios
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Definition
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Prostatic hyperplasia most frequently occurs in men:
A: under the age of 30
B: between the ages of 30 and 50
C: over the age of 50
D: none of the above, prostatic hyperplasia is a female condition. |
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Definition
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Term
Benign tumors of the testes include:
1. hydroceles
2. seminomas
3. spermatoceles
A: 1 and 2
B: 1 and 3
C: 2 and 3
D: 1,2, and 3 |
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Definition
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Term
The majority of blood volume is composed of:
A: erythrocytes
B: leukocytes
C: plasma
D: thrombocytes |
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Definition
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Term
Bilirubin is formed during the destruction of:
A: erythrocytes
B: leukocytes
C: plastocytes
D: thrombocytes |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of blood is considered to be a universal donor?
A: A
B: B
C: AB
D: O |
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Definition
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Term
Which cells are most important in the development of immunity?
A: erythrocytes
B: lymphocytes
C: platelets
D: thrombocytes |
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Definition
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Term
The most common pulmonary complication resulting from AIDS is:
A: Pnemocystitis Carinii Pneumonia
B: Pneumococcal Pneumonia
C: Legionnaire's Pneumonia
D: Tuberculosis |
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Definition
A: Pnemocystitis Carinii Pneumonia |
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Term
Kaposi's sarcoma is frequently associated with AIDS, and it may affect the:
A: Gastrointestinal System
B: Lymph Nodes
C: Skin
D: All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
A neoplastic disease of the plasma is:
A: Hodgkin's Disease
B: Leukemia
C: Lymphoma
D: Multiple Myeloma |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of leukemia predominantly affects children?
A: acute lymphocytic
B: chronic lymphocytic
C: chronic myelocytic
D: acute myelocytic
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Definition
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Term
Reed-Sternberg cells are associated with what type of neoplastic disease?
A: leukemia
B: Hodgkin's disease
C: multiple myeloma
D: non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
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Definition
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Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma affects what type of blood-cells?
A: erythrocytes
B: lymphocytes
C: plastocytes
D: thrombocytes |
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Definition
A lateral lumbar radiograph demonstrating compression fracturs of the second and fourth lumbar vertebral bodies with no apparent fracture of the posterior elements of the spine. |
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Definition
Linear Skull fracture of the parietal bone. Linear fractures appear as straight, sharply defined, nonbranching lines and are intensely radiolucent. Up to 80% of all skull fractures are linear fractures. |
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Definition
Depressed fracture of the occipital bone. A depressed fracture appears as a curvilinear density because the fracture edges overlap. A depressed fracture is best demonstrated when the x-ray beam is directed tangential to the fracture. |
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Definition
Hemorrhagic contusions of the brain |
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Definition
A large epidural hematoma. The highest mortality rate. An epidural hematoma results from a torn artery, usually the middle meningeal artery, with blood pooling between the bony skull and the dura mater. |
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Definition
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Definition
A subdural hematoma. A subdural hematoma is positioned between the dura mater and the arachnoid meningeal layers. It usually follows blunt trauma to the frontal or occipital lobes of the skull.
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Definition
A subarachnoid hematoma accumulates between the arachnoid layer and the thin pia mater that invests the brain. |
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Definition
Intracerebral Hematoma. An intracerebral hematoma can result from trauma as well as from nontraumatic causes such as a ruptured hemangioma or stroke (cerebrovascular accident [CVA]) |
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Definition
comminuted fracture of the tibia and fibula with associated soft tissue edema.
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Term
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Definition
A, Bleeding at broken ends of the bone with subsequent hematoma formation. B, Organization of hematoma into fibrous network. C, Invasion of osteoblasts, lengthening of collagen strands, and deposition of calcium. D, Callus formation; new bone is built up as osteoclasts destroy dead bone. E, Remodeling is accomplished as excess callus is resorbed and trabecular bone is laid down. |
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Definition
a term used to denote bone death resulting from inadequate blood supply. MRI recomendded. |
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Definition
Legg-Calvé-Perthes
a common form of avascular necrosis affecting the femoral head. The cause of this disorder is unknown, refers specifically to ischemic necrosis of the head of the femur. It tends to occur in boys between the ages of 5 and 10 years.
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Term
A contusion formed on the side of the head where trauma occurs is called a:
A: concussion
b. contrecoup lesion
C: coup lesion
D: spondylosis
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Definition
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Term
A fracture of the skeletal system in which the bone has penetrated the skin is termed?
A: closed
B: comminuted
C: Noncomminuted
D: Open |
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Definition
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Term
Fractures that occur at sites of maximal strain on a bone, usually in connection with unaccustomed activity, are classified as ______________ fractures?
A: Avulsion
B: Fatigue
C: Growth Plate
D: Stress |
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Definition
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Term
A fracture that heals in a gaulty position is termed:
A: a calus
B: Delayed union
C: malunion
D: nonunion
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Definition
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Term
Shoulder dislocations are most commonly displaced
A: Anteriorly
B:posteriorly
C: interiorly
D: exteriorly |
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Definition
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Term
Avascular necrosis commonly affects the:
1. Shoulder
2. Hip
3. Fingers
A: 1 and 2
B: 1 and 3
C: 2 and 3
D: 1, 2, 3 |
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Definition
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Term
Incomplete expansion of a lung as a result of partial or total collaps defines:
A: atelectasis
B: empyema
C: pleurisy
D: pneumothorax |
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Definition
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Term
Penetrating chest trauma could lead to a:
A: coma
B: coup lesion
C: pneumoperitoneum
D: pneumothorax |
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Definition
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Term
Demonstration of a pneumothorax is best accomplished by making the exposure with the patient:
A: in an erect, lateral position
B: in a lateral decubitus postion
C: in an erect PA position on expiration
D: in an erect PA position on inspiration |
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Definition
in an erect PA position on expiration |
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Term
Which portion of the GI system is most frequently damaged by blunt trauma of the abdomen?
A: cecum
B: duodenum
C: ileum
D: jejunum |
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Definition
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Definition
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Medical treatment designed to lower serum calcium levels is important in management of:
A: Cystitis
B: nephrocalcinosis
C:neprosclerosis
D: polycystic Kidney disease |
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Definition
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Osteopenia is a erm used to describe the radiographic appearance associated with a decrease in bone density and is associated with:
A: craniosynostoses
B: osteopetrosis
C: osteoporosis
D: Scoliosis
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Definition
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Term
Metabolic actions of the endocrine system in respose to changed in blood chemistry best defines _______ stimuli.
A: hormonal
B: humoral
C: neural |
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Definition
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Term
Corticosteroid production occurs in the:
A: Adrenal Cortex
B: Pancreas
C: Pineal Gland
D: thyroid Gland |
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Definition
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Term
Alpha cells in the pancreas produce:
A: glucagon
B: gonadocorticosteroids
C: insulin
D: thyroxine |
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Definition
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Term
Acromegaly is a condition resultng from a disorder with the ____________ gland.
A: adrenal
B: Pineal
C: Pituitary
D: thymus |
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Definition
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Term
Graves disease is associated with:
A: Hyperthyroidism
B: hyperparathyroidism
CL hypothyroidism
D: hypoparathyroidism |
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Definition
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Term
Type 1 diabets mellitus is most common in:
A: adults
B: Children |
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Definition
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