Term
Bone Marrow is a _______ organ, that can process ______ and synthesize ______. It is also involved in ________, generating 2.5 billion RBCs per day. |
|
Definition
1. reticuloendothelial
2. antigens
3. antibodies
4. hematopoiesis |
|
|
Term
Which of the following regarding stem cells is false?
1. They are self-generating
2. They are pluripotent
3. They are mature/differentiated cells
4. CSFs push their maturation |
|
Definition
3. False, they are immature/undifferentiated |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
5,000-11,000 cells/mm3 (4.8-10. to be exact) |
|
|
Term
Reference range for platelet count |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
\ /
\___________/
/ \
/ \
Fill in: |
|
Definition
\ Hgb /
WBC \___________/ PLT
/ \
/ Hct \ |
|
|
Term
Hold chemo if:
WBC < ____
or
ANC < ____ |
|
Definition
hold chemo if:
WBC < 4000
or
ANC < 1500 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ANC = (% segs + % bands) x total WBC |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is false regarding granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils) and monocytes:
1. 50% in circulation and 50% marginated in cell walls
2. Takes 2 weeks for immature precursors to develop into mature cells
3. Have a life span of 1-2 years
4. First line of defense against infection
|
|
Definition
3. Have a lifespan of 2-3 DAYS |
|
|
Term
eosinophils provide defense against what type of organism usually? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
basophils are typically involved in hypersensitivity reactions (T/F?) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neutropenia is define at neutrophil counts less than _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
neutrophilia can occur from two major ways, 1. _____ (occurs with infection, epinephrine, corticosteroids, and neoplasms) and 2. ______ _______ (increased # of granulocytes, decreased # other cell components, causes sludging of neutrophils)
Treat neutrophilia with 3. ________ |
|
Definition
1. demargination
2. myeloproliferative disorders
3. hydroxyurea 500mg q6h (short term only) |
|
|
Term
Are most cancers B or T cell related? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the nadir for platelets is around _____ (#) and _____ (days) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
acquired thrombocytopenia presenting with decreased platelet production is caused by ________, attributable to the use of ______ or if a pt. has _____ |
|
Definition
caused by bone marrow impairment attributable to chemotherapy, or if pt. has leukemia, lymphoma or myeloma |
|
|
Term
acquired thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction can be caused by immunologic processes such as _____ or nonimmunologic processes such as ____ |
|
Definition
immunologic (auto or alloimmune) ITP, drug induced HIT, purpura posttransfusion
nonimmunologic (thrombotic microangiopathies: DIC, TTP/HUS, HELLP) or (abnormal vascular surfaces: hemangioma, aortic aneurysms, metastatic cancer, artificial heart valves) |
|
|
Term
Anemias are a group of diseases characterized by a decrease in either ____ or ____ resulting in a decrease in ________ capacity of blood |
|
Definition
Hgb or RBCs
oxygen-carrying |
|
|
Term
which of the following is true about anemias - they can be caused by:
1. reduction of number of RBC from decreased production or increased destruction
2. reduction of size of RBCs
3. reduction in the hemoglobin of RBCs
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
E. All of the above |
|
Definition
E. all of the above: anemias can be caused by
1. reduction of number of RBC from decreased production or increased destruction
2. reduction of size of RBCs
3. reduction in the hemoglobin of RBCs |
|
|
Term
Erythropoiesis steps (RBC formation):
pluripotent stem cells (progenitors) found in ____ >form>> erythroid burst-forming units (BFU-E) >which get stimulated by>>____, _____, and _____ >to form>>colony forming units (CFU-E) in the marrow>which is sensitive to>>____>and produces>>proerythroblasts --> divides to form basophilic, polychromatic, pyknotic, reticulocytes and finally an erythrocyte |
|
Definition
pluripotent stem cells found in marrow form BFU-E which get stimulated by EPO, IL-3, and GM-CSF to form CFU-E in the marrow which is sensitive to EPO and produces proerythroblasts that divide to form basophilic, polychromatic, pyknotic, reticulocytes and finally an erythrocyte.
progenitors > BFU-E > CFU-E > proerythroblasts > erythroblasts > erythrocytes |
|
|
Term
EPO -
1. stimulates stem cells to differentiate into ____
2. increases rate of mitosis of ____ _____
3. increase release of _____ from marrow
4. induces _____ formation
|
|
Definition
1. proerythroblasts
2. immature RBCs
3. reticulocytes
4. hemoglobin |
|
|
Term
the primary functin of Hgb is: |
|
Definition
carry oxygen from lungs to the tissues |
|
|
Term
iron is delivered to bone marrow for incorporation into the RBC hemoglobin by _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
if liver is unable to conjugate bilirubin because of disease or oversaturation of enzymes that means elevated (direct/indirect) bilirub lab value?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
if there is an obstruction in the biliary excretion pathway for already conjugated bilirubin, does that equate to an elevated direct or indirect bilirubin lab value? |
|
Definition
elevated direct bilirubin value |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
12-16 g/dL in women 13.5-17.5 g/dL in men |
|
|
Term
Hematocrit is defined as: |
|
Definition
actual volume of RBCs in a unit volume expressed as a percentage, generally 3x Hgb |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
36-46% women, 41-53% in men
low Hct indicates reduction in either number or size of RBCs or an increased plasma volume |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
4.2-5.4 x 106/mm3 in women
4.5-5.9x 106/mm3 in men |
|
|
Term
macrocytic cells are seen with ____ and ___ deficiencies |
|
Definition
B12 and folate deficiencies cause macrocytic MCVs |
|
|
Term
microcytic cells are seen with ___ _____ _____. |
|
Definition
iron deficiency anemia cause microcytic MCV |
|
|
Term
mean corpuscular hemoglobin MCH is defined as: |
|
Definition
average weight of hemoglobin in a RBC |
|
|
Term
the most common cause of an elevated MCH is |
|
Definition
macrocytosis as seen in folate or B12 deficiency |
|
|
Term
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration MCHC is defined as:
a low MCHC always indicates: |
|
Definition
average concentration of Hgb in each RBC
low MCHC always indicates hypochromia (iron deficient anemia) |
|
|
Term
total reticulocyte count is |
|
Definition
indirect measure of new RBC production |
|
|
Term
corrected reticulocyte count = |
|
Definition
observed %reticulocytes x (pt's observed Hct/average normal Hct)
|
|
|
Term
RBC distribution width (RDW) measures what? it is useful for diagnosing ___? |
|
Definition
RDW measures variation in RBC volume. useful for diagnosing mixed anemias |
|
|
Term
serum iron is defined as:
serum iron is decreased with ____ and increased with ____ |
|
Definition
concentration of iron bound to transferrin
decreased with iron deficiency anemia and is increased with ehmolytic anemias and iron overload |
|
|
Term
total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is defined as an indirect measurement of iron-binding capacity of _____ _____.
a low serum iron and a high TIBC indicates what? |
|
Definition
TIBC is an indirect measurement of iron-binding capacity of serum transferrin.
low serum iron and high TIBC indicate iron deficiency anemia |
|
|
Term
percent transferrin saturation is the ratio of ___ to ___ |
|
Definition
serum iron to TIBC
serum iron decreases and TIBC increases in iron deficiency anemia |
|
|
Term
low serum ferritin levels are diagnostic of
serum ferritin can be elevated in patients iwth what type of diseases
|
|
Definition
iron deficiency anemia
renal or liver, or infection/inflammation |
|
|
Term
lab values that are increased in iron deficiency |
|
Definition
TIBC, sometimes platelets |
|
|
Term
how many mg of iron should be given daily |
|
Definition
200mg total. given usually one or more hours before meals |
|
|
Term
how long should iron be given for after CBC normalizes |
|
Definition
3-6 months to avoid relapse |
|
|
Term
how quickly should reticulocytosis peak after starting iron therapy? |
|
Definition
7-10 daus is a good sign of a response |
|
|
Term
Iron dextran (InFED) is administered through what route |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what iron medication requires administering a test dose |
|
Definition
Iron dextran (InFED),
ferric gluconate (ferrlecit) and iron sucrose (venofer) don't require test doses |
|
|
Term
once Hct falls below ___ % the oxygen carrying capacity drops precipitously and predisposes a pt. to ischemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
megaloblastic anemias are a resulted of impaired _______ which causes disordered _____. The RBC life span which is normally 120 days is _____. Megaloblastic anemias are caused by deficiences of _____ and _____. Presentation of ____ (large/small) RBCs and ____ & _____ usually present. |
|
Definition
megaloblastic anemias are a resulted of impaired DNA synehsis which causes disordered RBC maturation. The RBC life span which is normally 120 days is reduced to 40-60 days. Megaloblastic anemias are caused by deficiences of vitamin B12 and folate Presentation of large RBCs and thrombocytopenia & leukopenia usually present. |
|
|
Term
lab values that are increased in vitamin b12 deficiency: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the major difference in symptoms between vitamin b12 deficiency and folic acid deficiency is: |
|
Definition
the relative absence of neurologic manifestationsi n folate-deficiency megaloblastic anemia |
|
|
Term
lab values that are increased in folate deficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
sickle cell anemia is a ___ condition, ___ ___ disorder |
|
Definition
inherited, autosomal recessive disorder |
|
|
Term
is sickle cell disease a homozygous or heterozygous condition
|
|
Definition
homozygous HgS, affects both beta chains of Hg |
|
|
Term
T/F, no clinical symptoms of sickle cell disease are seen before 6 months of age |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
prophylactic PCN regimen for SCD |
|
Definition
from infancy to 5-6 y/o, oral BID to prevent penmococcal infection |
|
|
Term
what parenteral abx should be start when acute onset of fever in SCD |
|
Definition
empiric vancomycin and maybe ceftriaxone if pneumonia suspected |
|
|
Term
treating a pain crisis for SCD, at what O2 sat level should oxygen be given |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pain crisis of SCD, at what level of Hgb should transfusion of RBCs be given |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the indication for hydroxyurea in sickle cell patients |
|
Definition
for patients with 3 or more pain crises per year (hydroxyurea increases HgF levels) |
|
|
Term
chronic transfusions are used in what sickle cell patients? what is the goal HgS level for treatment? |
|
Definition
all pts. with h/o stroke or pts. who have trouble with hydroxyurea
goal HgS < 30% |
|
|
Term
what is the pt. criteria for bone marrow transplants for sickle cell disease |
|
Definition
pts. < 16 y/o with chronic complications |
|
|
Term
if pt. has more than 2 episodes of priapism in one month or more than 4 episodes in one ear what is the treatment |
|
Definition
sudafed 30-60mg PO qhs and terbutaline 2.5-15 BID |
|
|
Term
treatment protocol for acute chest syndrome in sickle cell pt. |
|
Definition
blood cultures immediately
ceftriaxone 50-75 mg/kg q8h plus macrolide PO
O2 prn to keep pulse ox sat > 90%
IV fliuds
pain mgmt
PRBCs as needed (keep Hg < 11gm/dL)
bronchodilators as needed |
|
|
Term
things to watch for with hydroxyurea |
|
Definition
teratogen, myelosuppression (WBC count), increased liver enzymes, increased BUN/Cr |
|
|
Term
the hallmarks of cancer are (6):
|
|
Definition
1. sustaining proliferative signaling
2. evading growth suppressors
3. activating invasion and metastasis
4. enabling replicative immortality
5. inducing angiogenesis
6. resisting cell death |
|
|
Term
with regard to resisting apoptosis, what changes occur in apoptosis during cancer |
|
Definition
blebbing, nuclear condensation, dna fragmentation, cell shrinkage, and some key anti-apoptotic protein scan be upregulated in tumors |
|
|
Term
to test tumors for the hallmark of limitless replication, you would do genetic testing for what enzyme levels |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
genetic testing of tumors for what things help identify resistance to apoptosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
anti-apoptotic protein inhibitors include |
|
Definition
antibodies, vaccines and small molecules against survivin and bcl-2 |
|
|
Term
testing of what in tumors will reveal sustained angiogenesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gompertzian tumor growth is the idea that tumors grow slowest when they are small and very large because tumors switch from avascular to vascular |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
testing for invasion and metastasis of cancer requires |
|
Definition
testing of tumors, lymph node testing, blood circulating tumor cells and whole body imaging
|
|
|
Term
T/F within tumors there is considerable heterogeneity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
features of cancer cells that are different from most normal cells |
|
Definition
constant dna synthesis
high metabolic rate
continuous cell dvision
new blood supply
hormones |
|
|
Term
cell cycle specific agents:
S phase specific:
M specific:
G2 specific:
Non-specific: |
|
Definition
S phase specific: antimetabolites
M specific:taxanes, vinca
G2 specific: bleomycin, etoposide
Non-specific: alkylators, cisplatin, most abx |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
bind covalently to DNA molecule, act as elctrophiles and inhibit dna synthesis (stop clel growth), prevent polymerase from passing adduct
attack ANY dividing cell |
|
|
Term
mechlorethamine, cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide, thiotepa, carmustine (penetrates CNS), cisplatin, carboplatin, oxaliplatin, hydroxyurea, temozolomide (penetrates CNS) procarbazine
drug class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
antitumor antibiotics act by: |
|
Definition
alkylation or intercalation |
|
|
Term
classes of antitumor antibiotics and examples |
|
Definition
anthracyclines (doxorubicin, epirubicin, idarubicin)
misc. mitoxantrone, bleomycin, mitomycin-C |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
generates reactive oxygen species, resulting in DNA strand breaks (similar to radiation) |
|
|
Term
Antimetabolites work by ____ to ____ cell growth |
|
Definition
decrease dna synth and decrease cell growth
|
|
|
Term
antimetabolites can act to inhibit dna synthesis via:
removing ____ _____
or being ___ _____ |
|
Definition
removing critical proteins
or being false substrates |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cytarabine, 5-FU, capecitabine, gemcitabine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
6-MP, cladribine, fludarabine, pentostatin
the "udarabine) |
|
|
Term
which two drugs act on the microtubules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
vinca alkaloids MOA
arrest ___ ___ by preventing formation of ____ ____ |
|
Definition
arrest cell division by preventing formation of mitotic spindle (G2M phase) |
|
|
Term
camptothecins (irinotecan, topotecan) inhibit _____ ____ which is responsible for unwinding DNA during synthesis, this inhibition results in breaking DNA strands |
|
Definition
camptothecins (irinotecan, topotecan) inhibit topoisomerase I |
|
|
Term
which drug class inhibits topoisomerase II |
|
Definition
epipodophyllotoxins (etoposide, teniposide) |
|
|
Term
which class of drugs stabilizes the microtubules to block cell division |
|
Definition
taxenes, (paclitaxel, docetaxel) |
|
|
Term
which drug, paclitaxel or docetaxel is given long infusion? which is short infusion? |
|
Definition
paclitaxels is long, docetaxel is short infusion |
|
|
Term
antiandrogens like ___, ____, nilutamide inhibit or degrade the androgen receptor and are used in ____ ____ |
|
Definition
bicalutamide, flutamide, prostate cancer |
|
|
Term
antiestrogens like _____ , toremifene, fulvestrant, inhibit or degrade estrogen receptor and are used for ___ ____ ___ ___ |
|
Definition
tamoxifen, estrogen dependent breast cancer |
|
|
Term
aromatase inhibitors like letrozole, aminoglutethimide, exemestane and _____ work by inhibiting aromatase (the rate limiting step in estrogen synth) and are use in ___ _____ |
|
Definition
anastrozole, breast cancer |
|
|
Term
what misc. drugs remove a vital amino acid (asparagine) from tumor cells |
|
Definition
asparginase, pegasparaginase |
|
|
Term
antihelmitic drug that non-spec. stims immune system, adjunct in colon CA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
name the vaccine drug that is used for bladder cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
usually human proteins
purified from human cells or recominantly produced
unstable and cannot be administered PO
expensive
immune rxns - rash, flu-like, anaphylaxis
|
|
|
Term
T cell growth factor (IL-2) used for renal cell carcinoma and malignant melanoma, given IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ADRs of aldesleukin (il-2) |
|
Definition
capillary leak in the lung (activated T cells damage lung capillary endothelium) |
|
|
Term
interferon alpha 2a acts by |
|
Definition
increasing phagocytic activity of macrophages and increasing cytotoxicity of lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
flu-like syndrome (large amount of protein being given IV) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
activating phagocytes, (int gamma is produced by t cells) |
|
|
Term
how is inf-gamma admin'd and what are ADRs |
|
Definition
IM, IV over 30 mins, ADR of flu-like sx |
|
|
Term
how long does it take to see effects of EPO |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
contraindications for EPO use |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
an example of a G-CSF is what drug |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
filgrastim acts by increasing production of |
|
Definition
neutrophil precursors, used as adjunct to chemo and for BMT |
|
|
Term
Sargramostim is what class of drug |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the role of Sargramostim (leukine) is to |
|
Definition
increase monocyte and granulocyte precursors and their activity, adjunct to chemo and for BMT |
|
|
Term
vismodegib is a small molecule that blocks what pathway and ultimately causes tumor stem cells to differentiate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the IL-2 molecule conjugated to a toxin is known as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ADRs of denileukin diftitox (ontak) |
|
Definition
flu-like sx, anemia, hepatic enzyme elev., kidney toxicity |
|
|
Term
bortezomib, a protease inhibitor, blocks what proteasome (26s or 20s)? to upregulate lvls of p53 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
carfilzomib blocks what proteasome (20s or 26s) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which has more ADRs like neuropathy and myelosuppression, bortezomib or carfilzomib? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the anti-HER2/neu agents are: |
|
Definition
trastuzumab (herceptin), lapatinib (tykerb), pertuzumab (perjeta) |
|
|
Term
an antibody against HER2/neu that has a 18-27d t1/2, and an ADR of cardiomyopathy, as well as druginteractions with antrhacyclines is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a small molecule EGFR-2 kinase inhibitor that has a 24h half-life is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
an antibody HER2 dimerization inhibitor that can cause netropenia, and peripheral neuropathy is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
geftinib and erlotinib are slective inhibitors of what? |
|
Definition
EGFR-1
both have prevalent resistance |
|
|
Term
an anti-EGFR-1 MAB that has t1/2 of 5 days, used in colon CA and squamous head and neck CA is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a drug that is a BCR-abl kinase inhibitor, commonly causes pulmonary and peripheral edema, myelosuppression and hepatotoxicity
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
two drugs that are BCR abl kinase inhibitors which also block c-kit are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
an angiogensis inhibitor that is a MAB against VEGF (given IV and t1/2 of 20d) for colon, NSCLC, renal cell with key ADR of epistaxis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a small molecule that inhibits b-Raf and is used for melanomas with b-Raf mutations is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
sorafenib, sunitinib, axitinib, cabozatinib, pazapanib are all |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a small molecule that inhibits ALK and c-met, and is used for NSCLC (ALK +) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the drug which is an antibody inhibitor of CTLA-4 and sustains cytotoxic t-cell kill for late stage melanoma is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
an antibody inhibitor of RANK-L that is used in bonemetasis is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the function of cyclin d |
|
Definition
pushes cells throught the G1-S check point of cell cycle |
|
|
Term
which drugs work earlier in the M phase of cell cycle, vinca alkaloids or taxenes? |
|
Definition
vinca alkaloids because they prevent polymerization of microtubule |
|
|
Term
which is the proliferation-apoptosis pathway - RAS or PI3K?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
tumors are detectable what what cell count? at what cell count are they lethal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
log kill kinetics states that each course of chemo kills a certain (number or percent?) or cancer cells? |
|
Definition
percent, killing by 1st order kinetics |
|
|
Term
the goldie-coldman hypothesis elucidates the idea that cancer cells already have what characteristic at 109 number of cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
should you begin therapy with a non-specific or specific agent? |
|
Definition
non-specific, followed by specific |
|
|
Term
metabolic or biomodulation technique: leucovorin is administered with 5-FU because leucovorin causes what? |
|
Definition
FdUMP to form complex with theymidylate sythetase - inhibiting TS action |
|
|
Term
induct therapy is used for what type of tumors? (solid or liquid) |
|
Definition
liquid, pts. who aren't surgical candidates |
|
|
Term
after CR is achieved, the regimen utilized for primarily leukemias to increase long lasting remission is called: |
|
Definition
consolidation/intensification therapy |
|
|
Term
name some disadvantages of adjuvant chemotherapy |
|
Definition
toxicities
morbidity
qol
treat some pts. with no residual cancer cells
increased risk of secondary cancer (leukemia)
cost |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
√ [height(cm) x weight (kg)]
3600
|
|
|
Term
what are some labs that must be evaluated prior to chemo? |
|
Definition
scr, BUN, CrCl, Alk Phos, ALT, AST, bilirubin |
|
|
Term
capecitabine has issues with what organ dysfx? |
|
Definition
renal, check CrCl and dose reduction may be needed |
|
|
Term
how is cisplatin eliminated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
organ dysfx assoc. with fludarabine and hydroxyurea |
|
Definition
caution in pts. with CrCl < 60 |
|
|
Term
methotrexate has what organ dysfx. associated |
|
Definition
renal, check CrCl and monitor levels in pts. receiving high dose |
|
|
Term
| 1 | 2 /3
| 4 | 5 \3
where on fishbone is Scr found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
organ dysfx assoc. with anthracyclines, paclitaxel, and vincas? |
|
Definition
hepatic dysfx. check bilirubin |
|
|
Term
organ dysfx with capecitabine, cisplatin, fludarabine, hydroxyurea, or methotrexate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what drug works on RNA and DNA synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F there is no growth that occurs during the G2 phase |
|
Definition
F: growth occurs but no DNA synthesis occurs in either gap phase (G2 or G1/G0) |
|
|
Term
which promotes cell growth - CDKs or CDK inhibitors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the nitrogen at what position in guanine is strongly nucelophilic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
WHAT MECHANISM IS BELOW?
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a prodrug that requires cleavage of ring N-C bond to become active, gets metabolically activated in liver is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what class of drugs is unstable - decompose in aqueous cell mediums - yielding two reactive intermediates to alkylate DNA?
|
|
Definition
nitrosoureas (carmustine and lomustine) |
|
|
Term
what class of drugs is bifunctional, actiavted by water, reactive with aluminum, must be stored in amber bottles, crosslinks GLG, is an electron deficient metal? |
|
Definition
organoplatinums, cisplatin etc. |
|
|
Term
an example of a direct inhibitor of dTMP is? what is an example of an indirect dTMP inhibitor? |
|
Definition
direcT: fluorouracil
indirect: MTX |
|
|
Term
purine antagonists (inhibit AMP and GMP) examples |
|
Definition
mercaptopurine, thioguanine |
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Term
an example of a DNA polymerase and chain elongation inhibitor |
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Definition
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Term
what drug must be phosphorylated to be active, inhibits thymidylate synthetase and affects DNA and RNA? |
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Definition
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Term
this drug is a derivative of dihydrofolic acid, is an antifolate that binds irreversibly to DHFR to prevent THF acid formation. Has great affinity for enzyme because of its C4-OH to NH2 substitiution which increases basicity of ring, also inhibits TS: |
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Definition
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Term
these two drugs serve as replacements for hypoxanthine (an intermediate in DNA synth) are are inactive until converted to monophosphate by HPRTs |
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Definition
6-MP and 6-TG (6-tg causes DNA strand breaks) |
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Term
this drug must be converted to nucleoside triphosphate to be active, and inhibits DNA polymerase |
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Definition
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Term
this drug is an anti-viral, is deaminated by adenosine deaminase to hypoxanthine arabinoside, inhibits viral DNA polymerase |
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Definition
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Term
what drug is this:
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
similar to tetracyclines, glycoside (anthraquinone nucleus with amino sugar), MOA - causes DNA breaks through intercalation and inhibition of topo II, also has cardiotoxicity through free radical formation |
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Definition
doxorubicin and daunorubicin |
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Term
this drug is an antrhacene derivative: aqueous solutions of it are colored dark blue, has sam MOA as anthracyclines, and free-radical formation causes cardiotoxicity but less than anthracyclines:
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
this drug is isolated from streptomyces parvulus, binds strongly but reversibly to DNA, inhibits topo II, and is photosensitive:
[image] |
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Definition
DACTINOMYCIN - OF COURSE! |
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Term
this drug has 3 groups that can damage cells (quinone, aziridinyl, urethane) |
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Definition
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Term
this drug is a glycopeptide that generates free radicals:
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
semisynthetic derivative of podophyllotoxin, causes M arrest, does NOT inhibit microtubule assembly
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
this drug causes microtubules to arrange in a parallel array |
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Definition
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Term
what phase of cell cycle does bleomycin work on? |
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Definition
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Term
which phases of cell cycle are most radiosensitive? which are most radioresistant? |
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Definition
G2 and M are sensitive, S and G0 are radioresistant |
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Term
this is a protein tyrosine kinase inhibitor, which one?!?!?
[image] |
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Definition
imatinib, or as you may also not know it - Gleevec! |
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Term
this estrogen RA binds competitively with affinity similar to estradiol
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
this is a proteasome inhibitor that is modified dipeptidyl boronic acid (how boron! no kidding!), a reversible inhibitor of 26S
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
Bortezomib works on proteasome 26S which ultimately afected what nuclear factor? |
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Definition
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