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Hematology/Oncology Exam 1
(Lab Review - Principles of Chemotherapy)
188
Bartending
Pre-School
01/24/2013

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Cards

Term
Bone Marrow is a _______ organ, that can process ______ and synthesize ______.  It is also involved in ________, generating 2.5 billion RBCs per day.
Definition

1. reticuloendothelial

2.  antigens

3.  antibodies

4.  hematopoiesis

Term

Which of the following regarding stem cells is false?

1.  They are self-generating

2.  They are pluripotent

3.  They are mature/differentiated cells

4.  CSFs push their maturation

Definition
3.  False, they are immature/undifferentiated
Term
Reference for WBC
Definition
5,000-11,000 cells/mm3 (4.8-10. to be exact)
Term
Reference range for platelet count
Definition
140,000-444,000/µL
Term

 

          \                       /

            \___________/

            /                    \

          /                        \

 

Fill in:

Definition

 

          \        Hgb          /

  WBC   \___________/    PLT

            /                    \

          /          Hct         \

Term

Hold chemo if:

WBC < ____

or

ANC <  ____

Definition

hold chemo if:

WBC < 4000

or

ANC < 1500

Term
ANC =
Definition
ANC = (% segs +  % bands) x total WBC
Term

Which of the following is false regarding granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils) and monocytes:

1.  50% in circulation and 50% marginated in cell walls

2.  Takes 2 weeks for immature precursors to develop into mature cells

3.  Have a life span of 1-2 years

4.  First line of defense against infection

 

Definition
3.  Have a lifespan of 2-3 DAYS
Term
eosinophils provide defense against what type of organism usually?
Definition
parasites
Term
basophils are typically involved in hypersensitivity reactions (T/F?)
Definition
T
Term
Neutropenia is define at neutrophil counts less than _____
Definition
1500 cells/mm3
Term

neutrophilia can occur from two major ways, 1. _____ (occurs with infection, epinephrine, corticosteroids, and neoplasms)  and 2.  ______ _______ (increased # of granulocytes, decreased # other cell components, causes sludging of neutrophils)

 

Treat neutrophilia with 3.  ________

Definition

1.  demargination

2.  myeloproliferative disorders

3.  hydroxyurea 500mg q6h (short term only)

Term
Are most cancers B or T cell related?
Definition
B cell
Term
the nadir for platelets is around _____ (#) and _____ (days)
Definition
20,000 and 21-28 days
Term
acquired thrombocytopenia presenting with decreased platelet production is caused by ________, attributable to the use of ______ or if a pt. has _____
Definition
caused by bone marrow impairment attributable to chemotherapy, or if pt. has leukemia, lymphoma or myeloma
Term
acquired thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction can be caused by immunologic processes such as _____ or  nonimmunologic processes such as ____
Definition

immunologic (auto or alloimmune) ITP, drug induced HIT, purpura posttransfusion

 

nonimmunologic (thrombotic microangiopathies: DIC, TTP/HUS, HELLP) or (abnormal vascular surfaces: hemangioma, aortic aneurysms, metastatic cancer, artificial heart valves)

Term
Anemias are a group of diseases characterized by a decrease in either ____ or ____ resulting in a decrease in ________ capacity of blood
Definition

Hgb or RBCs

oxygen-carrying

Term

which of the following is true about anemias - they can be caused by:

 

1.  reduction of number of RBC from decreased production or increased destruction

2.  reduction of size of RBCs

3.  reduction in the hemoglobin of RBCs

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  1 and 3

D.  2 and 3

E.  All of the above

Definition

E. all of the above:  anemias can be caused by

 

1.  reduction of number of RBC from decreased production or increased destruction

2.  reduction of size of RBCs

3.  reduction in the hemoglobin of RBCs

Term

Erythropoiesis steps (RBC formation):

 

pluripotent stem cells (progenitors) found in ____ >form>> erythroid burst-forming units (BFU-E) >which get stimulated by>>____, _____, and _____ >to form>>colony forming units (CFU-E) in the marrow>which is sensitive to>>____>and produces>>proerythroblasts --> divides to form basophilic, polychromatic, pyknotic, reticulocytes and finally an erythrocyte

Definition

pluripotent stem cells found in marrow form BFU-E which get stimulated by EPO, IL-3, and GM-CSF to form CFU-E in the marrow which is sensitive to EPO and produces proerythroblasts that divide to form basophilic, polychromatic, pyknotic, reticulocytes and finally an erythrocyte.

 

progenitors > BFU-E > CFU-E > proerythroblasts > erythroblasts > erythrocytes

Term

EPO -

 

1.  stimulates stem cells to differentiate into ____

2.  increases rate of mitosis of ____ _____

3.  increase release of _____ from marrow

4.  induces _____ formation

 

Definition

1. proerythroblasts

2.  immature RBCs

3.  reticulocytes

4.  hemoglobin

Term
the primary functin of Hgb is:
Definition
carry oxygen from lungs to the tissues
Term
iron is delivered to bone marrow for incorporation into the RBC hemoglobin by _____
Definition
transferrin
Term

if liver is unable to conjugate bilirubin because of disease or oversaturation of enzymes that means elevated (direct/indirect) bilirub lab value?

 

Definition
elevated indirect
Term
if there is an obstruction in the biliary excretion pathway for already conjugated bilirubin, does that equate to an elevated direct or indirect bilirubin lab value?
Definition
elevated direct bilirubin value
Term
Hgb reference range
Definition
12-16 g/dL in women
13.5-17.5 g/dL in men
Term
Hematocrit is defined as:
Definition
actual volume of RBCs in a unit volume expressed as a percentage, generally 3x Hgb
Term
Hct reference ranges
Definition
36-46% women, 41-53% in men

low Hct indicates reduction in either number or size of RBCs or an increased plasma volume
Term
RBC reference range
Definition

 

4.2-5.4 x 106/mm3 in women

 

4.5-5.9x 106/mm3 in men

Term
macrocytic cells are seen with ____ and ___ deficiencies
Definition
B12 and folate deficiencies cause macrocytic MCVs
Term
microcytic cells are seen with ___ _____ _____.
Definition
iron deficiency anemia cause microcytic MCV
Term
mean corpuscular hemoglobin MCH is defined as:
Definition
average weight of hemoglobin in a RBC
Term
the most common cause of an elevated MCH is
Definition
macrocytosis as seen in folate or B12 deficiency
Term

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration MCHC  is defined as:

 

a low MCHC always indicates:

Definition

average concentration of Hgb in each RBC

 

low MCHC always indicates hypochromia (iron deficient anemia)

Term
total reticulocyte count is
Definition
indirect measure of new RBC production
Term
corrected reticulocyte count =
Definition

observed %reticulocytes x (pt's observed Hct/average normal Hct)

 

Term
RBC distribution width (RDW) measures what?  it is useful for diagnosing ___?
Definition
RDW measures variation in RBC volume.  useful for diagnosing mixed anemias
Term

serum iron is defined as:

 

serum iron is decreased with ____ and increased with ____

Definition

concentration of iron bound to transferrin

 

decreased with iron deficiency anemia and is increased with ehmolytic anemias and iron overload

Term

total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is defined as an indirect measurement of iron-binding capacity of _____ _____. 

 

a low serum iron and a high TIBC indicates what?

Definition

TIBC is an indirect measurement of iron-binding capacity of serum transferrin. 

 

low serum iron and high TIBC indicate iron deficiency anemia

Term
percent transferrin saturation is the ratio of ___ to ___
Definition

serum iron to TIBC

 

serum iron decreases and TIBC increases in iron deficiency anemia

Term

low serum ferritin levels are diagnostic of

 

serum ferritin can be elevated in patients iwth what type of diseases

 

Definition

iron deficiency anemia

 

renal or liver, or infection/inflammation

Term
lab values that are increased in iron deficiency
Definition
TIBC, sometimes platelets
Term
how many mg of iron should be given daily
Definition
200mg total.  given usually one or more hours before meals
Term
how long should iron be given for after CBC normalizes
Definition
3-6 months to avoid relapse
Term
how quickly should reticulocytosis peak after starting iron therapy? 
Definition
7-10 daus is a good sign of a response
Term
Iron dextran (InFED) is administered through what route
Definition
IM (or IV)
Term
what iron medication requires administering a test dose
Definition

Iron dextran (InFED),

 

ferric gluconate (ferrlecit) and iron sucrose (venofer) don't require test doses

Term
once Hct falls below ___ % the oxygen carrying capacity drops precipitously and predisposes a pt. to ischemia
Definition
30%
Term
megaloblastic anemias are a resulted of impaired _______ which causes disordered _____.  The RBC life span which is normally 120 days is _____.  Megaloblastic anemias are caused by deficiences of _____ and _____.  Presentation of ____ (large/small) RBCs and ____ & _____ usually present.
Definition
megaloblastic anemias are a resulted of impaired DNA synehsis which causes disordered RBC maturation.  The RBC life span which is normally 120 days is reduced to 40-60 days.  Megaloblastic anemias are caused by deficiences of vitamin B12 and folate   Presentation of large RBCs and thrombocytopenialeukopenia usually present.
Term
lab values that are increased in vitamin b12 deficiency: 
Definition
MCV (macrocytic anemia)
Term
the major difference in symptoms between vitamin b12 deficiency and folic acid deficiency is:
Definition
the relative absence of neurologic manifestationsi n folate-deficiency megaloblastic anemia
Term
lab values that are increased in folate deficiency
Definition
MCV and MCH
Term
sickle cell anemia is a ___ condition, ___ ___ disorder
Definition
inherited, autosomal recessive disorder
Term

is sickle cell disease a homozygous or heterozygous condition

 

Definition
homozygous HgS, affects both beta chains of Hg
Term
T/F, no clinical symptoms of sickle cell disease are seen before 6 months of age
Definition
True
Term
prophylactic PCN regimen for SCD
Definition
from infancy to 5-6 y/o, oral BID to prevent penmococcal infection
Term
what parenteral abx should be start when acute onset of fever in SCD
Definition
empiric vancomycin and maybe ceftriaxone if pneumonia suspected
Term
treating a pain crisis for SCD, at what O2 sat level should oxygen be given
Definition
< 93%
Term
pain crisis of SCD, at what level of Hgb should transfusion of RBCs be given
Definition
Hgb < 7
Term
what is the indication for hydroxyurea in sickle cell patients
Definition
for patients with 3 or more pain crises per year (hydroxyurea increases HgF levels)
Term
chronic transfusions are used in what sickle cell patients?  what is the goal HgS level for treatment?
Definition

all pts. with h/o stroke or pts. who have trouble with hydroxyurea

 

goal HgS < 30%

Term
what is the pt. criteria for bone marrow transplants for sickle cell disease
Definition
pts. < 16 y/o with chronic complications
Term
if pt. has more than 2 episodes of priapism in one month or more than 4 episodes in one ear what is the treatment
Definition
sudafed 30-60mg PO qhs and terbutaline 2.5-15 BID
Term
treatment protocol for acute chest syndrome in sickle cell pt.
Definition

blood cultures immediately

ceftriaxone 50-75 mg/kg q8h plus macrolide PO

O2 prn to keep pulse ox sat > 90%

IV fliuds

pain mgmt

PRBCs as needed (keep Hg < 11gm/dL)

bronchodilators as needed

Term
things to watch for with hydroxyurea
Definition
teratogen, myelosuppression (WBC count), increased liver enzymes, increased BUN/Cr
Term

the hallmarks of cancer are (6):

 

Definition

1. sustaining proliferative signaling

2.  evading growth suppressors

3.  activating invasion and metastasis

4.  enabling replicative immortality

5.  inducing angiogenesis

6.  resisting cell death

Term
with regard to resisting apoptosis, what changes occur in apoptosis during cancer
Definition
blebbing, nuclear condensation, dna fragmentation, cell shrinkage, and some key anti-apoptotic protein scan be upregulated in tumors
Term
to test tumors for the hallmark of limitless replication, you would do genetic testing for what enzyme levels
Definition
telomerase levels
Term
genetic testing of tumors for what things help identify resistance to apoptosis
Definition
bcl-2, survivin,
Term
anti-apoptotic protein inhibitors include
Definition
antibodies, vaccines and small molecules against survivin and bcl-2
Term
testing of what in tumors will reveal sustained angiogenesis
Definition
HIF, VEGF
Term
Gompertzian tumor growth is the idea that tumors grow slowest when they are small and very large because tumors switch from avascular to vascular
Definition
Term
testing for invasion and metastasis of cancer requires
Definition

testing of tumors, lymph node testing, blood circulating tumor cells and whole body imaging

 

Term
T/F within tumors there is considerable heterogeneity
Definition
true
Term
features of cancer cells that are different from most normal cells
Definition

constant dna synthesis

 

high metabolic rate

 

continuous cell dvision

 

new blood supply

 

hormones

Term

cell cycle specific agents:

 

S phase specific:

M specific:

G2 specific:

Non-specific:

Definition

 

S phase specific: antimetabolites

M specific:taxanes, vinca

G2 specific: bleomycin, etoposide

Non-specific: alkylators, cisplatin, most abx

Term
akylating agents MOA
Definition

bind covalently to DNA molecule, act as elctrophiles and inhibit dna synthesis (stop clel growth), prevent polymerase from passing adduct

 

attack ANY dividing cell

Term

mechlorethamine, cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide, thiotepa, carmustine (penetrates CNS), cisplatin, carboplatin, oxaliplatin, hydroxyurea, temozolomide (penetrates CNS) procarbazine

 

drug class

Definition
Alkylating agents
Term
antitumor antibiotics act by:
Definition
alkylation or intercalation
Term
classes of antitumor antibiotics and examples
Definition

anthracyclines (doxorubicin, epirubicin, idarubicin)

 

misc. mitoxantrone, bleomycin, mitomycin-C

Term
how does bleomycin work?
Definition
generates reactive oxygen species, resulting in DNA strand breaks (similar to radiation)
Term
Antimetabolites work by ____ to ____ cell growth
Definition

decrease dna synth and decrease cell growth

 

Term

antimetabolites can act to inhibit dna synthesis via:

 

removing ____  _____

 

or being ___ _____

Definition

removing critical proteins

 

or being false substrates

Term
folic acid analogue
Definition
methotrexate
Term
pyrimidine analogue
Definition
cytarabine, 5-FU, capecitabine, gemcitabine
Term
purine analogues
Definition

6-MP, cladribine, fludarabine, pentostatin

 

the "udarabine)

Term
which two drugs act on the microtubules
Definition
vincas and taxenes
Term

vinca alkaloids MOA

 

arrest ___ ___ by preventing formation of ____ ____

Definition
arrest cell division by preventing formation of mitotic spindle (G2M phase)
Term
camptothecins (irinotecan, topotecan) inhibit _____ ____ which is responsible for unwinding DNA during synthesis, this inhibition results in breaking DNA strands
Definition
camptothecins (irinotecan, topotecan) inhibit topoisomerase I
Term
which drug class inhibits topoisomerase II
Definition
epipodophyllotoxins (etoposide, teniposide)
Term
which class of drugs stabilizes the microtubules to block cell division
Definition
taxenes, (paclitaxel, docetaxel)
Term
which drug, paclitaxel or docetaxel is given long infusion?  which is short infusion?
Definition
paclitaxels is long, docetaxel is short infusion
Term
antiandrogens like ___, ____, nilutamide inhibit or degrade the androgen receptor and are used in ____ ____
Definition
bicalutamide, flutamide, prostate cancer
Term
antiestrogens like _____ , toremifene, fulvestrant, inhibit or degrade estrogen receptor and are used for ___ ____ ___ ___
Definition
tamoxifen, estrogen dependent breast cancer
Term
aromatase inhibitors like letrozole, aminoglutethimide, exemestane and _____ work by inhibiting aromatase (the rate limiting step in estrogen synth) and are use in ___ _____
Definition
anastrozole, breast cancer
Term
what misc. drugs remove a vital amino acid (asparagine) from tumor cells
Definition
asparginase, pegasparaginase
Term
antihelmitic drug that non-spec. stims immune system, adjunct in colon CA
Definition
levamisole
Term
name the vaccine drug that is used for bladder cancer
Definition
bacillus calmette-guerin
Term
common features of BRMs
Definition

usually human proteins

purified from human cells or recominantly produced

unstable and cannot be administered PO

expensive

immune rxns - rash, flu-like, anaphylaxis

 

Term
T cell growth factor (IL-2) used for renal cell carcinoma and malignant melanoma, given IV
Definition
aldesleukin
Term
ADRs of aldesleukin (il-2)
Definition
capillary leak in the lung (activated T cells damage lung capillary endothelium)
Term
interferon alpha 2a acts by
Definition
increasing phagocytic activity of macrophages and increasing cytotoxicity of lymphocytes
Term
ADR of intron A
Definition
flu-like syndrome (large amount of protein being given IV)
Term
interfern gamma acts by
Definition
activating phagocytes, (int gamma is produced by t cells)
Term
how is inf-gamma admin'd and what are ADRs
Definition
IM, IV over 30 mins, ADR of flu-like sx
Term
how long does it take to see effects of EPO
Definition
2-6 weeks
Term
contraindications for EPO use
Definition
erythroid based tumors
Term
an example of a G-CSF is what drug
Definition
filgrastim (neupogen)
Term
filgrastim acts by increasing production of
Definition
neutrophil precursors, used as adjunct to chemo and for BMT
Term
Sargramostim is what class of drug
Definition
GM-CSF
Term
the role of Sargramostim (leukine) is to
Definition
increase monocyte and granulocyte precursors and their activity, adjunct to chemo and for BMT
Term
vismodegib is a small molecule that blocks what pathway and ultimately causes tumor stem cells to differentiate?
Definition
sonic hedgehog pathway
Term
the IL-2 molecule conjugated to a toxin is known as
Definition
denileukin diftitox
Term
ADRs of denileukin diftitox (ontak)
Definition
flu-like sx, anemia, hepatic enzyme elev., kidney toxicity
Term
bortezomib, a protease inhibitor, blocks what proteasome (26s or 20s)? to upregulate lvls of p53
Definition
26s
Term
carfilzomib blocks what proteasome (20s or 26s)
Definition
20s, my car has 20s!
Term
which has more ADRs like neuropathy and myelosuppression, bortezomib or carfilzomib?
Definition
bortezomib is worse
Term
the anti-HER2/neu agents are:
Definition
trastuzumab (herceptin), lapatinib (tykerb), pertuzumab (perjeta)
Term
an antibody against HER2/neu that has a 18-27d t1/2, and an ADR of cardiomyopathy, as well as druginteractions with antrhacyclines is:
Definition
trastuzumab
Term
a small molecule EGFR-2 kinase inhibitor that has a 24h half-life is:
Definition
lapatinib
Term
an antibody HER2 dimerization inhibitor that can cause netropenia, and peripheral neuropathy is:
Definition
pertuzumab (perjeta)
Term
geftinib and erlotinib are slective inhibitors of what?
Definition

EGFR-1

 

both have prevalent resistance

Term
an anti-EGFR-1 MAB that has t1/2 of 5 days, used in colon CA and squamous head and neck CA is
Definition
cetuximab (erbitux)
Term

a drug that is a BCR-abl kinase inhibitor, commonly causes pulmonary and peripheral edema, myelosuppression and hepatotoxicity

 

Definition
imatinib (gleevec)
Term
two drugs that are BCR abl kinase inhibitors which also block c-kit are:
Definition
nilotinib and dasatinib
Term
an angiogensis inhibitor that is a MAB against VEGF (given IV and t1/2 of 20d) for colon, NSCLC, renal cell with key ADR of epistaxis is:
Definition
bevacizumab (avastin)
Term
a small molecule that inhibits b-Raf and is used for melanomas with b-Raf mutations is:
Definition
vemurafenib (zelboraf)
Term
sorafenib, sunitinib, axitinib, cabozatinib, pazapanib are all
Definition
angiogensis inhibitors
Term
a small molecule that inhibits ALK and c-met, and is used for NSCLC (ALK +)
Definition
crizotinib (xalkori)
Term
the drug which is an antibody inhibitor of CTLA-4 and sustains cytotoxic t-cell kill for late stage melanoma is:
Definition
ipilimumab (yervoy)
Term
an antibody inhibitor of RANK-L that is used in bonemetasis is
Definition
denosumab (xgeva)
Term
what is the function of cyclin d
Definition
pushes cells throught the G1-S check point of cell cycle
Term
which drugs work earlier in the M phase of cell cycle, vinca alkaloids or taxenes?
Definition
vinca alkaloids because they prevent polymerization of microtubule
Term

which is the proliferation-apoptosis pathway - RAS or PI3K?

 

Definition
RAS
Term
tumors are detectable what what cell count?  at what cell count are they lethal?
Definition

109

 

lethal at 1012

Term
log kill kinetics states that each course of chemo kills a certain (number or percent?) or cancer cells?
Definition
percent, killing by 1st order kinetics
Term
the goldie-coldman hypothesis elucidates the idea that cancer cells already have what characteristic at 109 number of cells?
Definition
multi-drug resistance
Term
should you begin therapy with a non-specific or specific agent?
Definition
non-specific, followed by specific
Term
metabolic or biomodulation technique:  leucovorin is administered with 5-FU because leucovorin causes what?
Definition
FdUMP to form complex with theymidylate sythetase - inhibiting TS action
Term
induct therapy is used for what type of tumors? (solid or liquid)
Definition
liquid, pts. who aren't surgical candidates
Term
after CR is achieved, the regimen utilized for primarily leukemias to increase long lasting remission is called:
Definition
consolidation/intensification therapy
Term
name some disadvantages of adjuvant chemotherapy
Definition

toxicities

morbidity

qol

treat some pts. with no residual cancer cells

increased risk of secondary cancer (leukemia)

cost

Term
BSA (m2) =
Definition

[height(cm)  x weight (kg)]


3600

 

Term
what are some labs that must be evaluated prior to chemo?
Definition
scr, BUN, CrCl, Alk Phos, ALT, AST, bilirubin
Term
capecitabine has issues with what organ dysfx?
Definition
renal, check CrCl and dose reduction may be needed
Term
how is cisplatin eliminated?
Definition
renally
Term
organ dysfx assoc. with fludarabine and hydroxyurea
Definition
caution in pts. with CrCl < 60
Term
methotrexate has what organ dysfx. associated
Definition
renal, check CrCl and monitor levels in pts. receiving high dose
Term

   |  1   |   2   /3  

|  4    |  5    \3

 

where on fishbone is Scr found?

Definition

5

 

Term
organ dysfx assoc. with anthracyclines, paclitaxel, and vincas?
Definition
hepatic dysfx. check bilirubin
Term
organ dysfx with capecitabine, cisplatin, fludarabine, hydroxyurea, or methotrexate
Definition
renal
Term
what drug works on RNA and DNA synthesis?
Definition
5-FU
Term
T/F there is no growth that occurs during the G2 phase
Definition
F:  growth occurs but no DNA synthesis occurs in either gap phase (G2 or G1/G0)
Term
which promotes cell growth - CDKs or CDK inhibitors?
Definition
CDKs
Term
[image]
Definition
ADENINE
Term
[image]
Definition
GUANINE
Term
[image]
Definition
CYTOSINE
Term

[image]

 

Definition
URACIL
Term
[image]
Definition
THYMINE
Term
the nitrogen at what position in guanine is strongly nucelophilic?
Definition
N7
Term

WHAT MECHANISM IS BELOW?

[image]

Definition
ALKYLATION
Term
a prodrug that requires cleavage of ring N-C bond to become active, gets metabolically activated in liver is:
Definition
cyclophosphamide
Term

what class of drugs is unstable - decompose in aqueous cell mediums - yielding two reactive intermediates to alkylate DNA?

 

Definition
nitrosoureas (carmustine and lomustine)
Term
what class of drugs is bifunctional, actiavted by water, reactive with aluminum, must be stored in amber bottles, crosslinks GLG, is an electron deficient metal?
Definition
organoplatinums, cisplatin etc.
Term
an example of a direct inhibitor of dTMP is?  what is an example of an indirect dTMP inhibitor?
Definition

direcT: fluorouracil

 

indirect: MTX

Term
purine antagonists (inhibit AMP and GMP) examples
Definition
mercaptopurine, thioguanine
Term
an example of a DNA polymerase and chain elongation inhibitor
Definition
cytarabine (ara-c)
Term
what drug must be phosphorylated to be active, inhibits thymidylate synthetase and affects DNA and RNA?
Definition
5-FU
Term
this drug is a derivative of dihydrofolic acid, is an antifolate that binds irreversibly to DHFR to prevent THF acid formation.  Has great affinity for enzyme because of its C4-OH to NH2 substitiution which increases basicity of ring, also inhibits TS:
Definition

methotrexate

 

whew :(

Term
these two drugs serve as replacements for hypoxanthine (an intermediate in DNA synth) are are inactive until converted to monophosphate by HPRTs
Definition
6-MP and 6-TG (6-tg causes DNA strand breaks)
Term
this drug must be converted to nucleoside triphosphate to be active, and inhibits DNA polymerase
Definition
Cytarabine
Term
this drug is an anti-viral, is deaminated by adenosine deaminase to hypoxanthine arabinoside, inhibits viral DNA polymerase
Definition
vidarabine (ara-A)
Term

what drug is this:

[image]

Definition
DOXORUBICIN SILLY!
Term
similar to tetracyclines, glycoside (anthraquinone nucleus with amino sugar), MOA - causes DNA breaks through intercalation and inhibition of topo II, also has cardiotoxicity through free radical formation
Definition
doxorubicin and daunorubicin
Term

this drug is an antrhacene derivative: aqueous solutions of it are colored dark blue, has sam MOA as anthracyclines, and free-radical formation causes cardiotoxicity but less than anthracyclines:

[image]

Definition
MITOXANTRONE DUMMY!
Term

this drug is isolated from streptomyces parvulus, binds strongly but reversibly to DNA, inhibits topo II, and is photosensitive:

 

[image]

Definition
DACTINOMYCIN - OF COURSE!
Term
this drug has 3 groups that can damage cells (quinone, aziridinyl, urethane)
Definition
mitomycin C
Term

this drug is a glycopeptide that generates free radicals:

 

[image]

Definition
BLEOMYCIN!
Term

semisynthetic derivative of podophyllotoxin, causes M arrest, does NOT inhibit microtubule assembly

 

[image]

Definition
ETOPOSIDE
Term
this drug causes microtubules to arrange in a parallel array
Definition
paclitaxel
Term
what phase of cell cycle does bleomycin work on?
Definition
G2
Term
which phases of cell cycle are most radiosensitive? which are most radioresistant?
Definition
G2 and M are sensitive, S and G0 are radioresistant
Term

this is a protein tyrosine kinase inhibitor, which one?!?!?

[image]

Definition
imatinib, or as you may also not know it - Gleevec!
Term

this estrogen RA binds competitively with affinity similar to estradiol

 

[image]

Definition
Fulvestrant (faslodex)
Term

this is a proteasome inhibitor that is modified dipeptidyl boronic acid (how boron! no kidding!), a reversible inhibitor of 26S

 

[image]

Definition
BORTEZOMIB (velcade)
Term
Bortezomib works on proteasome 26S which ultimately afected what nuclear factor?
Definition
NF-kappaB
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