Term
T/F CSFs are recommended for treatment of neutropenic fever? |
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Definition
False, they are for prevention only |
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Term
what is the dose of Filgrastim for neutropenic fever prophylaxis? |
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Definition
5 mcg/kg SQ until ANC > 10,0000 |
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Term
what is the dose of Pegfilgrastim for febrile neutropenia prophylaxis? |
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Definition
Pegfilgrastim 6 mg SQ x 1 dose |
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Term
When is the appropriate start time for either Pegfilgrastim or Filgrastim? |
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Definition
Both start after 24h but before 72h after start of chemotherapy |
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Term
How long before next chemo dose should you stop Filgrastim? When should you stop Pegfilgrastim? |
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Definition
Filgrastim must be stopped within 24 hours of next dose (convenient)
Pegfilgrastim must be stopped within 14 days of next chemo dose |
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Term
T/F the G-CSFs show an overall mortality benefit for neutropenic fever? |
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Definition
False, just help recovery. |
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Term
a contraindication to Filgrastim and Pegfilgrastim would be? |
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Definition
hypersensitivity to E.Coli derived proteins |
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Term
Primary prophylaxis with CSF is recommended for? |
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Definition
Risks of FN > 20%
dose dense regimens
pts with high risk of FN due to: Age Medical history Disease characteristics Myelotoxicity of the chemotherapy regimen |
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Term
Predictors of reduced RDI (<85%) |
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Definition
Age >65 years Regimen: CAF or CMF 28-day schedule Body surface area >2 m2 No G-CSF support |
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Term
Which of the following is false? Prophylactic Filgrastim use results in:
1 Reduced duration of neutropenia 2 Fewer days of hospitalization 3 Fewer days of IV antibiotic use 4 Fewer chemotherapy dose delays and reductions 5 No change in infection-related or overall mortality 6 None of the above. (all statements are true) |
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Definition
6. All statements are true. |
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Term
When should neulasta (pegfilgrastim) be administered? |
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Definition
approximately 24h after the administration of cytotoxic chemo, but no later than 14 days prior to the next cycle |
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Term
A unique thing about the clearance rate of neulasta is.. |
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Definition
its clearance is proprotional to the rise in ANC |
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Term
Name agents commonly associated with thrombocyopenia |
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Definition
Topotecan Carboplatin Gemcitabine Bortezomib |
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Term
prevention of thrombocytopenia can be done with what drug |
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Definition
Interleukin-11 (oprelvekin, Neumega) 50 mcg/kg SQ until platelets > 100k |
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Term
How should Oprelvekin be used? |
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Definition
Start 6-24h post chemo and admin. 50 mcg/kg SQ until platelets > 100k or for 21 days |
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Term
Adverse Effects and Contraindications of Oprelvekin (IL-11) |
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Definition
Fluid retention, pleural effusion Tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter Conjunctival redness with injection Use with caution in patients with: CHF, cardiac arrhythmias Preexisting visual disturbance Leukemia or multiple myeloma |
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Term
Anemia can occur as a direct effect of the cancer, by substances produced by the cancer, or as a result of treatment (eg, chemotherapy or radiotherapy
Often, however, there are no signs of bone marrow infiltration, blood loss, hemolysis, renal, hepatic or endocrine disorders, or nutritional deficiencies |
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Definition
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Term
T/F in cancer EPO is produced at a lower rate than iron deficiency levels even as Hgb levels increase |
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Definition
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Term
What is the dose of Procrit (human epo)? |
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Definition
100-150 units/kg SQ three times a week (40k units/week commonly used) |
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Term
what is the dose of darbepoetin? |
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Definition
FDA approved dose is 2.25 mcg/kg/week (200 mcg everyother week is commonly used or 500 mcg q3w) |
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Term
T/F pts. at high risk for anemia and Hgb <10 can be give Epo prophylactic? |
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Definition
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Term
what is the difference between epo and darbe? |
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Definition
epo - rHuEPO? 3 N-linked CHO chains (40% cHO)
darbe - NESP 5 N-link CHO chains (51% CHO)
Darbe has increased serum half-life, EPO has decreased receptor binding..? |
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Term
T/F the time course of mucositis typically parallels myelosuppression? |
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Definition
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Term
although Bleomycin doesn't directly cause myelosuppression, it can cause _____, which is linked to myelosuppression |
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Definition
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Term
Palifermin (Kepivance) is a keratinocyte GF approved for transplant patients to help with what chemo adverse effect? |
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Definition
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Term
what agents are largely responsible for chemo related diarrhea? |
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Definition
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Term
What causes both early and lately diarrhea? |
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Definition
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Term
Diarrhea caused by Irinotecan is inversely proportional to: |
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Definition
glucoronidation by UGT 1A! |
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Term
If you have been taking loperamide for >1 day with no symptom relief what should you do? |
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Definition
after 24h take levofloxacin and call your doctor |
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Term
when can you stop taking loperamide post chemo induced diarrhea |
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Definition
after 12 hours without symptoms |
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Term
agent most commonly associated with constipation? |
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Definition
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Term
drugs most commonly responsible for renal toxicity? |
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Definition
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Term
To prevent renal toxicity you can prehydrate cisplatin treamtne with: |
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Definition
1 liter of NS + 20 mEq KCl & 8 mEq MgSO4 over 1-2h to obtain urine flow rate of 100 ml/h, posthydration with same fluid |
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Term
T/F leucovorin will help with MTX nephrotoxicity |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
prevention of renal toxicity with Cisplatin therapy, active in normal tissues to bind free radicals from radiation, no tumor protection.
D/C HTN meds before use |
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Term
when should you administer Amifostine |
|
Definition
30 mins before chemotherapy, IV inf. over 15 mins once daily. t12 of minutes |
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Term
to prevent renal toxicity of MTX you can |
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Definition
administer 12h prior to MTX and 24h after |
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Term
agents known to cause bladder toxicity |
|
Definition
cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide |
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Term
what binds acrolein in kidneys and bladder to prevent bladder toxicity with ifosfamide? |
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Definition
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Term
what % of the ifosfamide dose do you use for IV mesna? |
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Definition
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Term
Mesna IV regimen %(of ifosfamide dose) and timing |
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Definition
20% at start of ifosfamide 20% 4 hours after 20% 8 hours after |
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Term
Mesna PO regimen (% of ifosfamide dose) and timing |
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Definition
20% at start 40% 2 hours after 40% 4 hours after |
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Term
all patient's should have what baseline testing done before taking anthracyclines? what should their EF be? |
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Definition
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Term
Metal chelator that strips doxorubicin from iron complexes, & prevents generation of free oxygen radicals Protects against anthracycline-induced cardiomyopathy Use limited to patients with advanced breast disease who have received > 300 mg/m2 of doxorubicin Dosed in a 10:1 ratio with doxorubicin |
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Definition
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Term
Hypertension is a specific cardiac toxicity seen especially with agents that target what pathway? |
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Definition
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Term
Long-term studies suggest that cardiac dysfunction from what drug responds to medical therapy for CHF, and is at least partially reversible upon stopping treatment, and it is not related to cumulative dose. |
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Definition
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Term
what agents cause pulmonary toxicity |
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Definition
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Term
to prevent pulomnary toxicity Limit total cumulative dose < 400 units total of bleomycin < 500mg of busulfan < 1,000/m2 of carmustine |
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Definition
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Term
treatment of pulmonary toxicity |
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Definition
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Term
what can cause neurotoxicity? |
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Definition
vinca alkaloids oxaliplatin ifosfamide |
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Term
what neurotoxicities are associated with vinca alkaloids? |
|
Definition
peripheral neuropathy and ototoxicity |
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Term
oxaliplatin neurotoxicities |
|
Definition
acute and chronic, cold sensitivity |
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Term
how does ifosfamide nuerotoxicity present |
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Definition
confusion, somnolence, not usually tingling |
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Term
what chemo drugs cause alopecia? |
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Definition
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Term
what can cause hand-foot syndrome (4 drugs)? |
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Definition
capecitabine, 5-FU via cont. inf., sunitinib, sorafenib |
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Term
what can cause hyperpigmentation? |
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Definition
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Term
what chemo agents can cause rash? |
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Definition
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Term
what agents cause photosensitivity? |
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Definition
5-FU, MTX, ATRA, EGFR agents |
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Term
what agents are vesicants? |
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Definition
Anthracyclines, vinca alkaloids, nitrogen mustards (mechlorethamine) |
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Term
to prevent vesicant reaction one should |
|
Definition
Use of central venous catheters
Good administration technique by certified oncology nurses |
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|
Term
specific antidotes for vesicants |
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Definition
Nitrogen mustard 4ml 10% sodium thiosulfate mixed with 6ml sterile water for injection (1/6M) solution injected SQ around extravasation site Vinca alkaloids: (hyaluronidase 1ml as an antidote) Anthracyclines: (99% DMSO 1-2 ml applied to site every 6 hours for 7-14 days) |
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Term
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Definition
dose is based on the patient’s body surface area. Day 1: 1000 mg/m2, Day 2: 1000 mg/m2, Day 3: 500 mg/m2
Totect should not exceed 2000 mg Mixed with 50 mL of diluent. Use immediately (within 2 hours) Inject the mixed volume into the infusion bag with 1000 mL 0.9% NaCl. Repeat steps 1 and 2. in order to obtain the required dose, and inject all the required mixed solutions into the same 1000 mL 0.9% NaCl bag. Infused over 1 to 2 hours at room temperature and normal light conditions
give for 3 days in different veins |
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Term
what should cetuximab pts. be premedicated with? |
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Definition
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Term
Occur in 2%-5% of patients and may be fatal 90% occur during the first infusion Patients who develop reactions are largely in “Bible Belt” of United States Incidence estimated to be 20.8% in Tennessee, 6.1% in northern California, and 0.6% in Boston, MA1 Chung et al identified a specific IgE antibody against cetuximab (specific for galactose-α-1,3-galactose)1 |
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Definition
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|
Term
ice packs for all vesicant drugs EXCEPT what class (uses heat) |
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Definition
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Term
chemo agents known to cause allergic reactions: |
|
Definition
L-asparaginase Paclitaxel Bleomycin Monoclonal antibodies |
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Term
prevention of hypersensitivity reactions |
|
Definition
premedication with steroids every time |
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Term
High emetogenicity agents |
|
Definition
cisplatin, dacarbazine, mechlorethamine |
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Term
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Definition
carboplatin, cyclophosphamide < 1500 mg/m2, anthracyclines, oxaliplatin |
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Term
low emetogenic risk drugs |
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Definition
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|
Term
minimal risk emetogenic risk drugs |
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Definition
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|
Term
what drugs work on the emetic center? |
|
Definition
antihistamines anticholinergics |
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Term
what drugs work on the cortical system of brain? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
phenothiazines butyrophenones metoclopramide 5ht3 antagonists |
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Term
should you take single daily dose or multiple daily doses of 5ht3 antagonists? |
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Definition
single daily dose is preferred |
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Term
what is the 3 day oral Aprepitant and the single dose IV? |
|
Definition
125 PO day 1, 80 day 2, 80 day 3
150 mg IV single dose |
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Term
what level emetogenicity is adreomycin + cyclophosphamide considered? |
|
Definition
high emetogenicity (notoriously delayed NV) |
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Term
delayed emesis regimen of metoclopramide |
|
Definition
metoclopramide 0.5mg/kg PO QID + dexamethasone 8mg PO BID scheduled on day 1 and 2 after chemo |
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Term
|
Definition
AC regimen (moderate) or high emetogenicity |
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Term
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Definition
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|
Term
low emetogenicity regemina |
|
Definition
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|
Term
presentation of cancer in children |
|
Definition
fever HA lymphadenopathy bone/joint pain mediastinal masses abdominal masses bleeding blood ct abnormal |
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Term
what 3 things can amifostine be used to prevent |
|
Definition
renal tox, neurotox, nephrotox |
|
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Term
the difference between non-hodgkin lymphoma in adults vs children is that it behaves like |
|
Definition
ALL, bone marrow involvement, skin, CNS |
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Term
majority of pediatric brain tumors are these fast growing type |
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Definition
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|
Term
your dad smokes so you got |
|
Definition
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|
Term
rib bones CA or pelvic CA |
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
what age group is least likely to have CA |
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
measured calcium + 0.8(4-alb) |
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Term
|
Definition
shorted QT, lethargy, constipation, polyuria |
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