Term
|
Definition
- antianxiety agent - anxiolytics - tranqs |
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
barbiturates and other CNS depressants |
|
Definition
undesirable because: - can cause fatal respiratory depression - high potential for abuse - often induce hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes |
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
|
Definition
psychodynamic nursing personality devp |
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Term
|
Definition
intrapersonal theory interpersonal security |
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Term
disorders manifested by anxiety or stress |
|
Definition
- panic disorder - GAD - phobias - OCD - body dysmorphic disorder - trichotillomania - hoarding disorder - hypochondriasis - PTSD |
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Term
|
Definition
Heightened perception, increased motivation, restlessness, irritability |
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Term
|
Definition
Increased heart rate, inc perspiration narrowing of perceptual field, gastric discomfort |
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Term
|
Definition
Inability to concentrate, dry mouth, trembling, tachycardia, palpitations, insomnia |
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Term
|
Definition
Shortness of breath, chest pain, dilated pupils, palpitations, loss of control, fear of dying. |
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Term
|
Definition
Alan will verbalize the need to put the incident in the past. o Alan will describe positive coping strategies to address his fears. o Alan will use relaxation techniques when he becomes fixated on checking the window locks |
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Term
assessments for extreme anxiety related to a grief reaction |
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Definition
affect, mood, tension, fear, insomnia, concentration, worry, sematic complaints, and behavioral symptoms |
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Term
the physical environment of a therapeutic community should have the following characteristics in order to maximize communication |
|
Definition
Basic physiologic needs are fulfilled (think Maslow) • Client has sufficient privacy and physical space • Communal spaces facilitate interpersonal interaction • Clients participate in decision-making • Responsibilities assigned according to client capability • Structured social and work-related activities • Community and family included in program of therapy |
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Term
A client is newly admitted to a therapeutic community with severe anxiety, slight confusion, and verbal agitation |
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Definition
correct order: 1. Establish trust 2. Orient client to reality 3. Set limits on unacceptable behavior 4. 4. Administer anti-anxiety medication |
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Term
NI for a pt that caused an accident and had a passenger |
|
Definition
Reduce environmental stimuli; Discuss Chelsea’s feelings about the accident with her; Teach Chelsea relaxation techniques to use when symptoms appear; Collaborate with Chelsea’s health care provider about appropriate medications. |
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Term
therapies used to treat mental illness |
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Definition
Milieu therapy (Manipulating the environment to maximize therapy) Cognitive therapy (Modifying cognitive distortions) Behavior therapy (Using reinforcement to modify behavior) Electroconvulsive therapy (Application of electrical current to brain) Psychopharmacology (Administration of medications to alleviate symptoms) |
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Term
benzos preferred over barbs |
|
Definition
- they are safer - have a low abuse potential - cause less tolerance and dependence - don't induce drug-metabolizing enzymes - withdrawal symptoms are mild |
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Term
|
Definition
- cause min resp depression - can cause profound resp depression when combined with other CNS depressants (opioids, alcohol) |
|
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Term
|
Definition
benzos produce their effects by enhancing the actions of _______ |
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Term
|
Definition
the principal inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS |
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Term
|
Definition
the selection of which benzo to used is based on... |
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|
Term
principal indications for benzos |
|
Definition
- anxiety - insomnia - seizure disorders |
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|
Term
principal adverse effects of benzos |
|
Definition
- daytime sedation - anterograde amnesia |
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Term
|
Definition
used to treat benzo overdose |
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|
Term
benzodiazepine-like drugs |
|
Definition
- zaleplon [Sonata] - eszopiclone [Lunesta] - zolpidem [Ambien, others] |
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|
Term
cognitive behavioral therapy |
|
Definition
first-line txt for insomnia |
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Term
|
Definition
txt time for transient insomnia with benzos |
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Term
|
Definition
benzos contraindicated in |
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Term
|
Definition
- daytime sedation and driving - complex sleep-related behvs - paradoxical reactions (rage, excitement, heightened anxiety) - drug dependency insomnia during or after withdrawal |
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|
Term
3 major groups of sedative-hypnotics |
|
Definition
- barbs - benzos - benzo-likes |
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|
Term
|
Definition
- induce synthesis of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes which reduces response to other drugs |
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Term
|
Definition
- insomnia - anxiety - genl anesthesia - seizure disorders - muscle spasms - alcohol withdr |
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Term
|
Definition
can cause profound hypotension and cardiac arrest |
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|
Term
the metabolites are pharmacologically active |
|
Definition
benzo responses can persist long after the parent drug has disappeared because... |
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|
Term
preferred for pts with hepatic impairment |
|
Definition
oxazepam, temazepam, lorazepam |
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
don't induce hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes |
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Term
|
Definition
- none to anxiolytics effects - low to hypnotic effects - significant to antiseizure effects |
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|
Term
|
Definition
- dependence may be a greater problem than with other benzos - pts should be monitored for 3 weeks after discontinuing |
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|
Term
parenteral admin of diazepam or lorazepam |
|
Definition
- reserved for emergencies, including acute alcohol withdrawal, severe anxiety, and status epilepticus |
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Term
|
Definition
optimal therapy for anxiety disorders |
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|
Term
|
Definition
used for all anxiety disorders |
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|
Term
|
Definition
used for panic disorders and GAD |
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Term
|
Definition
a chronic condition characterized by uncontrollable worrying |
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Term
|
Definition
- benzos - buspirone - four antidepressants - venlafaxine - paroxetine - escitalopram - duloxetene |
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Term
|
Definition
- suppress symptoms of GAD immediately - used for rapid stabilization for severe anxiety |
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|
Term
buspirone - four antidepressants - venlafaxine - paroxetine - escitalopram - duloxetene |
|
Definition
- anxiolytic effects are delayed - used for LT mgmt. - not rapid relief |
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|
Term
advantages of buspirone over benzos |
|
Definition
- doesn't cause CNS depression - has no abuse potential - doesn't intensify the effects of CNS depressents |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- erythromycin - ketoconazole - g.fruit juice |
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|
Term
- four antidepressants - venlafaxine - paroxetine - escitalopram - duloxetene |
|
Definition
especially well suited for treating pts who have depression and GAD |
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|
Term
|
Definition
- recurrent panic attacks - palps - pounding heart - chest pain - derealization or depersonalization - fear of dying or going crazy |
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Term
|
Definition
- first line defense for panic disorder - dec freq and intensity of: - panic attacks - anticipatory anxiety - avoidance behv |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- intense, irrational fear of being scrutinized by others - doing something that could be embarrassing or humiliating |
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|
Term
PTSD has three core symptoms |
|
Definition
- reexperiencing - avoidance/emotional numbing - hyperarousal |
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|
Term
paroxetine and sertraline |
|
Definition
first-line drugs for PTSD |
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|
Term
venlafaxine, TCAs, and MAOIs |
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
- first appear as behv probs in school - or personal relationships |
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Term
|
Definition
- fascination with movement - impairment of comm skills - insensitivity to pain - abnormal response to sensory stimuli |
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Term
|
Definition
- pica - rumination - anorexia - bulimia |
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|
Term
Tic disorders such as Tourettes |
|
Definition
- abnormalities of semi-involuntary movement - basal ganglia dysfunction - distorted dopamine receptors |
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Term
|
Definition
repeatedly pooping in unacceptable places |
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Term
|
Definition
repetition of someone else's words or phrases |
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Term
|
Definition
sudden crying followed immediately by laughing |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- coughing - throat clearing - snorting - barking |
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|
Term
tourettes complex vocal tics |
|
Definition
repeated use of words or phrases out of context |
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|
Term
tourettes complex vocal tics - coprolalia |
|
Definition
repeated use of obscenities |
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|
Term
tourettes complex vocal tics - palilalia |
|
Definition
repeating one's own words |
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Term
|
Definition
depressed kids can't remember the last time they were happy or had a good time |
|
|
Term
childhood schizo - flat effect or catatonia |
|
Definition
- unresponsive - stuperous |
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Term
|
Definition
repeated involuntary or intentional whizzing after age appropriateness |
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|
Term
Hippocrates associated mental illness with |
|
Definition
irregularity with - blood - black bile - yellow bile - phlegm |
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|
Term
caused care for mentally ill to improve |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
labeled on the basis of incomprehensibility and cultural relativity |
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|
Term
behvs associated with levels of anxiety |
|
Definition
- coping mechanisms - ego defense mechanisms - psychophysiological responses - psychoneurotic responses - psychotic responses |
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Term
|
Definition
begins and sometimes ends before the loss occurs |
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Term
|
Definition
an indv is able to remember and accept both the pos and neg aspects associated with the lost entity |
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Term
|
Definition
- prolonged mourning process - delayed or inhibited mourning process - mourning process becomes distorted and exaggerated out of proportion to the situation |
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|
Term
|
Definition
a significant thought disturbance in which reality testing is impaired, resulting in delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or catatonic behv |
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Term
|
Definition
excessive anxiety that's expressed directly or altered through defense mechanisms - egs., obsession, compulsion, a phobia, sexual dysfunction |
|
|
Term
psychoneurotic responses to anxiety |
|
Definition
- anxiety disorders - somatic symptom disorders - dissociative disorders |
|
|
Term
ethical theory of Kantianism |
|
Definition
actions are bound by a sense of duty and that ethical decisions are made out of respect for moral law - directly opposed to utilitarianism - it's not the end result that makes an action right or wrong - rather, it's the principle or motivation on which the action is based |
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|
Term
moral precept of natural law theory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- autonomy - beneficence - nonmaleficence - veracity - justice |
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|
Term
|
Definition
an indv, as a result of mental illness, is in danger of serious physical harm resulting from - inability to provide for basic needs |
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Term
|
Definition
what is right and good is what is best for the indv making the decision |
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Term
|
Definition
are tied together by a shared heritage |
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|
Term
cultural groups differ in terms of |
|
Definition
- comm - space - social organization - time - enviro control - bio variations |
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|
Term
northern European americans |
|
Definition
- descendants of the first immigrants to the US - make up the current dominant cultural group - value punctuality, work responsibility, healthy lifestyle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- view mental illness as a behv that is out of control and brings shame on the family - don't like touch |
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Term
|
Definition
clusters of behv and physical symptoms considered as illnesses or "afflictions" by specific cultures that don't readily fit into the western model |
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Term
|
Definition
a set of beliefs, values, rites, and rituals adopted by a group of people |
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
meaning of components of nonverbal comm |
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|
Term
motivational interviewing |
|
Definition
facilitates ct's exploration of their own motivation for behv change |
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Term
|
Definition
the gestural component of the spoken word |
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|
Term
therapeutic community (milieu) |
|
Definition
the ct learns adaptive coping, interaction, and relationship skills, that can be generalized to other aspects of his life |
|
|
Term
therapeutic community (Skinner) - 7 basic assumptions |
|
Definition
- the health in each indv is to be realized and encouraged to grow - every interaction is an opportunity for therapeutic intervention - the ct owns his own enviro - each ct owns his behv - peer pressure is a useful and powerful tool - inappropriate behvs are dealt with as they occur - restrictions and punishments are to be avoided |
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|
Term
conditions that promote a therapeutic community |
|
Definition
- the fulfillment of basic physiological needs - physical facilities that are conducive to achievement of the goals of therapy - a democratic form of self-government - assignment of responsibilities according to ct capabilities - a structured program of social and work-related activities - the inclusion of community and family in the program of therapy |
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Term
|
Definition
program of therapy on the milieu unit is conducted by |
|
|
Term
3 major components of cognitive therapy |
|
Definition
- didactic, or educational, aspects - cognitive techniques - behv interventions |
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Term
|
Definition
the induction of a grand mal seizure |
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Term
|
Definition
- cv - osteoporosis - inc intracranial pressure and lesions - pulmonary disorders |
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Term
|
Definition
given before ECT to dec secretions |
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Term
|
Definition
given before ECT to relax muscles |
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Term
|
Definition
txt for body dysmorphic disorder |
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|
Term
|
Definition
- anxiolytics - antidepressants - antihypertensive agents - anticonvulsants |
|
|
Term
drugs for phobic disorders |
|
Definition
- anxiolytics - antidepressants - antihypertensives |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ASD (acute stress disorder) |
|
Definition
if PTSD symptoms last less than a month |
|
|
Term
adjustment disorder is distinguished by the major features of the maladaptive response |
|
Definition
- depression - anxiety - mixed anxiety and depression - disturbance of conduct - mixed disturbance of emotions and conduct |
|
|
Term
paroxetine and group therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- be aware for potential of trauma in any pt, and minimize risk - it protects the physical, emotional, and psychological safety of the pt |
|
|
Term
freud's personality theory can be conceptualized according to |
|
Definition
- structure and dynamics of the personality - topography of the mind - stages of personality devp |
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Term
|
Definition
separation-individuation process |
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Term
|
Definition
the interpersonal involvement of the nurse with a ct in a given nursing situation |
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Term
|
Definition
- normal autism: fulfillment of basic needs - symbiosis, separation-individuation: devp of awareness of external source of needs - differentiation: starts to see separateness - practicing: inc indep - rapprochement: acute awareness of separateness - consolidation: sense of separateness |
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Term
|
Definition
elation with variable mood |
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|
Term
|
Definition
outward behv manifestation of emotional state |
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Term
|
Definition
inability to feel any pleasure |
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Term
|
Definition
severe clouding of consciousness |
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Term
|
Definition
false or incorrect beliefs in spite of contrary evidence |
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|
Term
|
Definition
extremely happy and elevated mood |
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Term
|
Definition
believing that your abilities are exceptional |
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Term
|
Definition
excessive amount of sleeping |
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|
Term
|
Definition
an elevated mood with excessive hyperactivity |
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|
Term
|
Definition
form of severe depression with loss of interest in all activities |
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|
Term
types of depressive disorders |
|
Definition
- Major Depressive Disorder • Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) • Depressive Episodes o Transient o Mild o Moderate o Severe • Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder • Postpartum Depression • Substance-Induced Depressive Disorder • Depressive Disorder due to Medical Condition • Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder • Seasonal Affective Disorder |
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|
Term
etiology and risk factors for depression |
|
Definition
Genetic predisposition • Neurobiological • Intrapersonal • Learning • Cognitive • Sociocultural • Gender |
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|
Term
self-rating scales to assess depression |
|
Definition
Zung Self-Rating Depression Scale • Beck Depression Inventory • Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HDRS) |
|
|
Term
depression is evaluated in 4 spheres of functioning |
|
Definition
Affective • Behavioral • Cognitive • Physiological |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Slumped posture is a behavioral symptom. Indecisiveness is a cognitive symptom, and Listlessness is a physiological symptom |
|
|
Term
txts for depression: Psychotherapy |
|
Definition
o Individual therapy o Group therapy o Family therapy o Cognitive therapy |
|
|
Term
txts for depression: Psychopharmacology |
|
Definition
o Heterocyclics o MAOIs o SNRIs o SSRIs o Tricyclics o Combination drugs |
|
|
Term
txts for depression: Complementary & Alternative |
|
Definition
o Transcranial magnetic stimulation o Light therapy (phototherapy) o Nutritional supplements |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
duloxetine (Cymbalta) - SNRIs bupropion (Wellbutrin) - Heterocyclics paroxetine (Paxil) - SSRIs clomipramine (Anafranil) - Tricyclics phenelzine (Nardil) – MAOIs |
|
|
Term
types of bipolar disorder |
|
Definition
Bipolar I • Bipolar II • Cyclothymic • Substance-Induced Bipolar Disorder • Medication-Induced Bipolar Disorder • Bipolar Disorder Due to Another Medical Condition |
|
|
Term
categories of bipolar disorder |
|
Definition
Mixed: Rapidly alternating moods • Manic: Abnormally elevated mood at time of evaluation • Depressed: Depressed at time of evaluation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Patient has a history of several manic episodes |
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|
Term
|
Definition
- Patient had recurrent bouts of major depression with episodic occurrence of hypomania |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Patient had depression for two years’ duration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Patient appeared manic 12 hours after alcohol use. |
|
|
Term
Medical Condition-Induced |
|
Definition
- Patient was diagnosed with hyperthyroidism |
|
|
Term
predisposing factors for bipolar disorder |
|
Definition
Genetics • Biochemical • Neuroanatomical • Medication use • Psychosocial • Environmental |
|
|
Term
txts for bipolar disorder |
|
Definition
Psychotherapy (individual) - Group therapy • Family therapy • Cognitive therapy • Electroconvulsive therapy • Psychopharmacology o Mood stabilizers o Antimanics o Anticonvulsants o Antipsychotics oCalcium channel blockers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Antimanic - lithium carbonate (Eskalith) Anticonvulsant - valproic acid (Depakote) Antipsychotic - risperidone (Risperdal) Calcium channel blocker - verapamil (Calan) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Because lithium competes in the body with sodium, toxicity or deficiency can easily occur. Therefore, it is important for the RN to teach the patient to have adequate dietary sodium and drink sufficient water. - - The drug should never be discontinued during illness. - Levels need to be monitored once or twice weekly after treatment is initiated, then monthly once on maintenance therapy. |
|
|
Term
Alan, the bipolar, irritable, highly sexual, shopaholic and workaholic |
|
Definition
- manic phase of bipolar - doesn't feel remorse, not in control, nor understand his behv - has tremendous energy in manic phase - Anxiety; Ineffective coping - Impaired Social Interaction - Ineffective sexuality pattern |
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|
Term
etiology and risk factors for suicide |
|
Definition
Genetics • Neurochemical • Previous suicide attempt • Family history of suicide • Mood disorder history • Substance abuse • Hopelessness • Impulsive tendencies • Barriers to healthcare access • Losses – relational, financial, employment • Physical illness • Access to lethal methods • Stigma – unwilling to seek help • Cultural or religious beliefs • Isolation |
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|
Term
NI for pts at risk for suicide |
|
Definition
Create a safe environment o Remove potential harmful objects from access • Establish safety contract with patient that he or she will not harm self • Ask patient to promise that he or she will seek staff assistance should he or she feel suicidal • Place patient on close observation • Be careful during medication administration o Patient may try to “cheek” medications or hoard them in room • Make frequent rounds at irregular intervals • Encourage patient to express feelings • Identify community support systems for patient • Orient patient back to reality, if necessary |
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|
Term
|
Definition
Mood is how we feel, and how we express that mood outwardly is termed |
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|
Term
|
Definition
has a very narrow margin between therapeutic and toxic levels; therefore, close monitoring is essential |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
should continue for 4-9 months after symptoms resolve |
|
|
Term
advantage of ssri over tca |
|
Definition
- cause fewer side effects - safer when taken in overdose |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ssris can cause _______ if combined with maois |
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|
Term
|
Definition
- agitation - confusion - hallucinations - hyperreflexia - tremor - fever |
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|
Term
|
Definition
block reuptake of serotonin and norep |
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|
Term
|
Definition
- nausea - insomnia - HTP - sexual dysfunction - can also cause serotonin syndrome |
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|
Term
|
Definition
- block reuptake of NE and 5-HT - intensifies xmission at noradrenergic and serotonergic synapses |
|
|
Term
common adverse effects of TCAs |
|
Definition
- sedation - orthostatic hypo - anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, constipation) |
|
|
Term
serious adverse effect of TCAs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
can cause a hypertensive crisis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
intensify responses to direct-acting sympathomimetics (eg, epinephrine) and diminish responses to indirect-acting sympathomimetics (eg, amphetamine) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inc neuronal stores of NE and 5-HT, and thereby intensify xmission at noradrenergic and serotonergic synapses |
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|
Term
|
Definition
are effective as SSRIs and TCAs, but are potentially more hazardous |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
first choice drugs only for pts with atypical depression |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- just like SSRIs and SNRIs, they cause direct CNS stimulation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
they cause ortho hypo just like TCAs |
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|
Term
|
Definition
MAOIs mixed with tyramine rich foods |
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|
Term
|
Definition
treat with IV vasodilators like: - sodium nitroprusside - labetalol - phentolamine |
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|
Term
|
Definition
relieves depression faster than drugs and often helps when drugs fail to help at all |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- short acting IV anesthetic (Propofol, etomidate) to produce unconsciousness - short acting muscle relaxant (succinylcholine) to prevent convulsions |
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|
Term
|
Definition
- mood stabilizers - antipsychotics - antidepressants |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- relieve symptoms during manic and depressive episodes - prevent recurrence - does not worsen symptoms, and does not accelerate the rate of cycling |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
used acutely to treat manic episodes, and LT to help stabilize mood |
|
|
Term
to minimize risk of mania in bipolars |
|
Definition
antidepressants should be used with mood stabilizers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
preferred mood stabilizers for BPD |
|
|
Term
to min risk of toxicity in lithium |
|
Definition
- trough level, measured 12 hrs after evening dose, should be < 1.5 mEq/L |
|
|
Term
common side effects of therapeutic lithium |
|
Definition
- tremors - goiter - polyuria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
will reduce lithium excretion, causing lithium buildup and toxicity |
|
|
Term
lithium levels can be inc by |
|
Definition
- diuretics (especially thiazides) - several NSAIDs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- should not be admin with cimetidine - interacts with the neurotransmitter GABA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- dextro - amphetamine - meta - lisdex |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- primarily promoting neuronal release of NE and DA - partly by blocking NE and DA reuptake |
|
|
Term
actions of amps through the CNS |
|
Definition
- inc wakefulness and alertness - reduce fatigue - elevate mood - stimulate resp - suppress appetite |
|
|
Term
by promoting NE release from peripheral neurons, amps can cause |
|
Definition
- vasoconstriction and cardiac effects: - inc HR - inc AV conduction - inc force of contraction |
|
|
Term
common side effects of amps |
|
Definition
- insomnia - wt loss - may also cause: - psychosis - CV effects (dysrhythmias, angina, HTN) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
considered agents of first choice |
|
Definition
methylphenidate and other CNS stimulants |
|
|
Term
the only three nonstimulants approved for ADHD |
|
Definition
- atomoxetine - guanfacine - clonidine |
|
|
Term
caffeine and other methylxanthines |
|
Definition
act primarily by blocking adenosine receptors |
|
|
Term
caffienes' two principal uses |
|
Definition
- txt of apnea in premature infants - reversal of drowsiness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- a sudden event in one's life where usual coping mechanisms don't work - panic may ensue when new techniques are tried and resolution fails to occur |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
are acute, lasting only a few weeks to months |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- dispositional crisis - crisis of anticipated life transitions - crisis resulting from traumatic stress - maturation/devp crisis - crisis reflecting psychopathology - psychiatric emergencies |
|
|
Term
min therap goal of crisis intervention |
|
Definition
- psychological resolution of the indv's immediate crisis - restoration to at least the pre-crisis level of functioning |
|
|
Term
max therap goal of crisis intervention |
|
Definition
improvement in functioning above the pre-crisis level |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- panic anxiety/fear - spiritual distress - risk for post trauma syndrome - ineffective community coping |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- 2nd leading cause of death in ages 15-34 - 4th in ages 35-44 - 5th in ages 45-64 |
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Term
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Definition
- more women attempt than men - men are more successful |
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Term
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Definition
higher rate in highest and lowest SEC status |
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Term
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Definition
- whites - AI and AN - Hispanics - Asians - blacks |
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Term
psychiatric disorders that predispose to suicide |
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Definition
- mood disorders - addiction - schizophrenia - anorexia - borderline and antisocial personality disorders - anxiety disorders |
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Term
predisposing factors for suicide |
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Definition
- internalized anger - hopelessness and other symptoms of severe depression - history of aggression and violence - shame and humiliation - devp stressors - sociological influences - genetics - neurochemical factors |
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Term
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Definition
- chronologically explore: - presenting suicide events - recent events - past events - immediate intentions |
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Term
assessment of the level of intervention for suicide risk |
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Definition
- id the number of proximal or potentiating risks - the number of warning signs |
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Term
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Definition
- level of suicide intention - existence of a plan - lethality of the method |
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Term
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Definition
- assist ct to recognize warning signs - id and implement internal coping strategies - engage family and friends for support - find distractors - id community resources - id ways to restrict access to lethal methods |
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Term
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Definition
- dialectical behv therapy - cog behv therapy - CAMS approach |
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Term
Durkheim's 3 social categories of suicide |
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Definition
- egoistic suicide: the response of the indv who feels separate from the mainstream of society - altruistic suicide: an indv is excessively integrated into the group - anomic suicide: response to changes in an indv's life that disrupt feelings of relatedness to the group |
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Term
Joiner's interpersonal theory of suicide |
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Definition
similar to Durkheim, but he introduces the concept that suicide ideation and suicide attempts need to be understood as distinct processes |
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Term
Klonsky and May three step theory of suicide |
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Definition
- psychological pain combined with hopelessness - pain and hopelessness exceeds one's sense of connectedness - strong, active suicide ideation is present and only happens if the indv has the capacity to make an attempt |
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Term
Chronological Assessment of Suicide Events (CASE) |
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Definition
- a model for enhancing comm in suicide assessment - a flexible guide designed to elicit and enhance detailed, valid feedback from cts |
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Term
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Definition
- Ideation - Substance abuse - Purposelessness - Anger - Trapped - Hopelessness - Withdrawal - Anxiety - Recklessness - Mood |
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Term
Collaborative Assessment and Management of Suicidality model |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
- childhood - adolescence - senescence - puerperium |
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Term
types of depressive disorders |
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Definition
- major depressive disorder (MDD) - persistent depressive disorder (Dysthymia) - premenstrual dysphoric disorder - substance/meds-induced depressive disorder - depressive disorder due to another medical condition |
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Term
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Definition
- sad or down in the dumps - chronically depressed mood - no evidence of psychotic symptoms |
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Term
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Definition
depressive disorder that occurs one week before menses and lasts until one week after |
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Term
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Definition
depressive symptoms that occur as a consequence of a non-mood disorder or as an adverse effect of certain meds |
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Term
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Definition
- meds - neurological disorders - electrolyte disturbances - hormonal disturbances - nutritional deficiencies - other physiological conditions |
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Term
secondary depression - neurological disorders |
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Definition
- CVA - brain tumors - agitated depression due to alzheimers |
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Term
secondary depression - electrolyte disturbance |
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Definition
- excessive levels of Na bicarb, K, or Ca - deficits in Mg, Na, and K |
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Term
secondary depression - hormonal disturbances |
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Definition
- dysfunction of the adrenal cortex, Addison's and Cushing's - changes in estrogen and progesterone levels |
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Term
secondary depression - nutritional deficiencies |
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Definition
- proteins, carbs, b vitamins, vit d, minerals, omega 3 |
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Term
psychosocial theories of depression |
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Definition
- psychoanalytical theory: anger turned inward (Freud) - learning theory: learned helplessness (Seligman) - object loss theory (Spitz) - cognitive theory (Beck) - transactional model |
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Term
developmental implications |
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Definition
- up to age 3: feeding probs, tantrums, failure to thrive - 3-5: accident prone, aggressiveness, phobias - 6-8: start lagging behind classmates - 9-12: morbid thoughts, excessive worrying, poor self-esteem - adols: inappropriately expressed anger, aggressiveness, running away, delinquency - senescence: getting old sux - postpartum |
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Term
depression - clinical pearl (CP) |
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Definition
offer recognition and pos reinforcement for independent accomplishments |
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Term
depression - clinical pearl (CP) |
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Definition
the risk of suicide is greatly inc if the ct has devp a plan, has strong intentions, and especially if means exist for the ct to execute the plan |
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Term
depression - clinical pearl (CP) |
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Definition
- be direct, talk openly and matter-of-factly about suicide - encourage and listen to expression of feelings nonjudgmentally |
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Term
transcranial magnetic stimulation |
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Definition
stimulating nerve cells at localized areas in the cerebral cortex |
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Term
depression - clinical pearl (CP) |
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Definition
all antidepressants carry an FDA black-box warning for inc risk of suicidality in children and adols |
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Term
depression - clinical pearl (CP) |
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Definition
suicide potential often increases as levels of depression decreases |
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Term
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Definition
I - hypomania II - acute mania III - delirious mania |
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Term
most effective txt for bipolar disorder |
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Definition
psychotropic meds and psychosocial therapy |
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Term
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Definition
- empowerment of the consumer |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
a ct experiencing a manic episode or has a history of one or more episodes |
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Term
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Definition
recurrent bouts of major depression with episodic occurrence of hypomania |
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Term
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Definition
- a chronic mood disturbance of at least 2yrs duration - not manic or depressive enough to be bipolar |
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Term
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Definition
a marked impairment in function and require hospitalization |
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Term
stage III: delirious mania |
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Definition
severe clouding of consciousness, with confusion, disorientation, stupor and an intensification of the symptoms associated with acute mania |
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Term
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Definition
the avenue of the least restrictive alternative must be selected when planning interventions for a violent ct |
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Term
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Definition
all antiepileptic (anticonvulsant) carry an FDA black-box warning for inc risk of suicidal thoughts and behv |
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Term
therapeutic range of lithium for acute mania |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
- Olanzapine (Zyprexa) - Carbamazepine (Tegretol) - Gabapentin |
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Term
|
Definition
- tinnitus - severe diarrhea - ataxia |
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Term
diagnosis by priority for a manic episode |
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Definition
- risk for injury - imbalanced nutrition - disturbed sleep pattern - impaired social interaction |
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Term
3 types of pathological grief responses |
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Definition
- delayed or inhibited grief - distorted (exaggerated) grief response - chronic or prolonged grieving |
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Term
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Definition
overreaction to another's person loss may be one manifestation of.... |
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Term
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Definition
the person stays stuck in the denial stage |
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Term
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Definition
the person stays stuck in the anger stage |
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Term
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Definition
one crucial difference between normal and maladaptive grieving |
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Term
Types of crisis (Baldwin) - 6 classes |
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Definition
I - dispositional crisis II - crises of anticipated life transitions III - crises resulting from traumatic stress IV - maturational/devp crises V - crises reflecting psychopathology VI - psychiatric emergencies |
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Term
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Definition
an acute response to an external situational stressor |
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Term
Robert's 7 stage crisis intervention model |
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Definition
1 - psychosocial and lethality assessment 2 - rapidly establish rapport 3 - id the major probs or crisis precipitants 4 - deal with feelings and emotions 5 - generate and explore alternatives 6 - implement an action plan 7 - follow up |
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Term
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Definition
1 - shit happens 2 - can't deal with the shit 3 - tries something new to deal with the shit 4 - loses his shit |
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Term
Aguilera's response to stress |
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Definition
- the indvs perception of the event - the availability of situational supports - the availability of adequate coping mechanisms |
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Term
the client able to make independent decisions about their life. |
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Definition
Symptoms such as palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath, and fear of dying indicate panic disorder. The interventions are aimed at making the client independent in decision-making. Therefore, the nursing care plan is considered effective if |
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Term
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Definition
Phenelzine acts by inhibiting monoamine oxidase enzyme. It is effective in treating social anxiety and agoraphobia. Option 2: Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant, which is effective in treating general anxiety disorder. Option 3: Pimozide is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, which is a first line drug for the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder. Option 4: Buspirone is a partial agonist of 5-HT1A receptor, and it does not inhibit monoamine oxidase enzyme. |
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Term
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Definition
The primary health-care provider prescribes 2 to 6 mg of lorazepam to the client with panic disorder. Option 2: When diazepam is prescribed, the primary health-care provider provides a daily dose of 4 to 40 mg. Option 3: The daily dosage range of buspirone is 15 to 60 mg. Option 4: The dosage range of oxazepam is 30 to 120 mg. Lorazepam has a daily dosage range of 2 to 6 mg. |
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Term
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Definition
controls the function of the arousal and sleep cycle. |
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Term
Flooding or implosion therapy |
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Definition
is used for specific phobias |
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Term
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Definition
a diagrammatic teaching and learning strategy that allows the visualization of interrelationships between medical diagnoses, nursing diagnoses, assessment data, and treatments. |
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Term
phases in indv psychotherapy |
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Definition
Termination of the therapeutic alliance is the phase III intervention. Option 2: Phase II of individual psychotherapy involves establishing new relationships. Option 3: Helping to resolve grief reactions is also an activity of phase II psychotherapy. Option 4: During phase I psychotherapy, the client is encouraged to continue working and participating in regular activities. |
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Term
the ct will have dec self-harming behavior. |
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Definition
Encouraging the client to express or verbalize his or her feelings will help to alleviate aggression and signs of depression in the client. Therefore, the client will have decreased suicidal ideations and self-harming behavior. |
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Term
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Definition
Weight loss usually occurs as a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). Option 2: Abnormal ejaculation usually occurs as a side effect of SSRIs and SNRIs. Option 3: Sleep disturbances usually occurs as a side effect of SSRIs and SNRIs. Option 4: Urinary retention most commonly occurs as a side effect of tricyclics and heterocyclics. |
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Term
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Definition
Psychoanalytic theory postulates that depression is a result of melancholia that may occur as the result of the loss of a loved one. Option 2: Learning theory postulates that depression is a result of numerous failures in daily life. Option 3: Cognitive theory states that depression is a result of negative expectations about the future or environment. Option 4: Object loss theory of depression states that depression occurs when a child is separated from the mother for an extended period of time in the first year of life. |
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Term
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Definition
Mild depression does not cause mood variations because it does not involve diurnal variations in the neurotransmitter levels. Option 2: Severe depression includes physiological changes resulting in mood variation that is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. This mood variation is caused by diurnal variations in the neurotransmitter levels. Option 3: Moderate depression also includes mood variation. However, the client feels better in the morning, and the depression gets worse as the day progresses. Option 4: Transient depression does not include mood variations because the symptoms will subside quickly. |
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Term
trazadone (tricyclics and heterocyclics) side effects |
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Definition
- blurred vision - ortho hypo - prolonged erections |
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Term
kids and approved antidepressants |
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Definition
Fluoxetine is an FDA-approved medication by to treat depression in children or adolescents. Escitalopram is an FDA-approved medication by to treat depression in children or adolescents. |
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Term
|
Definition
In the second stage of depression, the client experiences lack of sleep, chest pain, abdominal pain, headache, and backache. However, variations in mood are not observed in mild depression. Option 2: In the advanced stage of moderate depression, the client feels worse early in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Option 3: In the first stage of depression, the client feels tired and listless. Option 4: It is moderate depression that the client is experiencing. The change in confidence levels from morning through the day is related to the diurnal variations in the neurotransmitter levels that affect mood and activities. |
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Term
3 classes of drugs that have the potential to cause mania |
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Definition
- sulfonamides - antiulcers - antihypertensives |
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Term
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Definition
Option 1: Valproic acid is used as an adjunct therapy to treat schizophrenia. However, it may not cause any complications in the client with migraine. It can be used as a prophylactic for migraine. Option 2: Lamotrigine is used to treat epilepsy and it may also be beneficial for clients with bipolar disorder. However, it is contraindicated in clients below 16 years of age. Option 3: Clonazepam is found to be effective in treating panic disorder due to its central nervous system depressant activity. It may also relieve the discomfort associated with restless leg syndrome. Option 4: Olanzapine is effective in treating depression episodes associated with bipolar disorder. Unlike clonazepam, it is not contraindicated in clients with glaucoma. |
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Term
|
Definition
depression is characterized as a triad of negative distortions related to expectations of the environment, self, and future. |
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Term
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Definition
Option 1: When serum level of lithium is above 3.5 mEq/L, the client shows symptoms of oliguria. Option 2: Nystagmus is noticed in the client when the serum levels of lithium is above 3.5 mEq/L. Option 3: The serum level of 1.5 to 2.0 mEq/L of lithium in the client indicates the presence of lithium toxicity. Persistent vomiting, nausea, and blurred vision are some of the symptoms that occur with this lithium concentration. Option 4: Excessive output of dilute urine is the symptom that is noticed in the client when the serum levels of lithium is 2.0 to 3.5 mEq/L. |
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|
Term
daily dose range of lithium carbonate |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Confronting the client and then following through with established consequences for unacceptable behavior is the recommended intervention. |
|
Definition
The client refusing to cooperate with peer clients during group activity and inaccurate interpretation of environment indicates impaired social interaction. |
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Term
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Definition
Option 1: Antipsychotic agents such as asenapine and ziprasidone are used in the treatment of psychotic symptoms associated with schizophrenia. Option 2: Antipsychotic agents such as olanzapine and risperidone are used in the treatment of psychotic symptoms associated with obsessive compulsive disorder. Option 3: Antimanic agents such as lithium carbonate are effective in the treatment of frequent mood swings associated with bipolar disorder. Option 4: Olazanpine and fluoxetine (Symbax) is an effective combination used in the treatment of depressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder. It reduces depression by increasing the release of serotonin neurotransmitters. |
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Term
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Definition
When the nurse offers an empathetic response to the client’s feelings, the client develops trust in the nurse. This is because the client feels that the nurse has an understanding nature. Option 2: When the nurse provides positive reinforcement on an appropriate behavior of client, the client develops self-esteem. Option 3: Anxiety level rises in a stimulating environment. Therefore, when the nurse provides a low level of stimuli in the client’s environment, the client develops a less anxious nature. Option 4: When the nurse offers various alternatives such as participating in physical activity or providing antianxiety medication, the client develops a feeling of control over the situation. |
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|
Term
imbalance between biogenic amines and acetylcholine. |
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Definition
Euphoria, elevated energy, irritable mood, and distractibility are the symptoms of mania. The pathophysiology associated with mania is the |
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Term
|
Definition
manic symptoms occur due to a dec in |
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Term
A client is diagnosed with bipolar II disorder with delirious symptoms of mania. Which interventions should the nurse include in the client’s care plan? |
|
Definition
helps the client gain a sense of perspective on his or her condition and tangibly encourage linking up with others who have common problems. Since the client has passed through the acute phase of the illness, the nurse should provide information about support groups. |
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Term
|
Definition
Option 2: In the acute stage of mania, the client is hyperactive with great energy and may have insomnia. Therefore, the nurse should take measures to alleviate insomnia in the client. Option 3: The intake of food and fluids should be increased in the client with acute mania to meet the increased demands of the body. Option 4: The client with acute mania neglects hygiene and grooming. Therefore, the nurse assists the client in performing personal hygiene and grooming. Option 5: The client with delirious mania may cause injury to their self or others due to exhaustion. Therefore, the nurse should remove dangerous objects from the client’s environment to prevent risk of violence if the client has delirious mania. |
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Term
|
Definition
- is a mood-stabilizing agent administered to clients with mania. It prevents excessive firing of neurons, and thereby helps to treat epilepsy. - prevents dilation of blood vessels in the brain and prevents migraine attacks. |
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Term
|
Definition
may increase skin sensitivity toward extreme temperatures. Therefore, the nurse teaches the client to avoid excessive exposure to very high or low temperatures. |
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Term
dopamine, norepinephrine, and possibly serotonin |
|
Definition
The major neurotransmitters implicated in the pathophysiology of ADHD are |
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|
Term
It is also an adaptive skill. |
|
Definition
Social participation is the social skill that helps enhance social responsibility and personal independence. |
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|
Term
meningitis and encephalitis. |
|
Definition
The physiological implications for the development of intellectual disability are |
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Term
|
Definition
the comorbid psychiatric disorders associated with Tourette’s disorder |
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Term
|
Definition
Option 1: Clonidine is used for ADHD. Option 2: Dextroamphetamine sulfates aresare used for ADHD. Option 3: Antidepressants can be used for ADHD. Option 4: Dextroamphetamine/amphetamine is used for ADHD. Option 5: Halperidolis an antipsychotic and prescription would cause the nurse to question the order. Option 6: Methylphenidate is used in ADHD treatment, but 100 mg is too high and the nurse would likely confirm with the health-care provider. |
|
|
Term
hyperglycinemia and Phenylketonuria |
|
Definition
genetic factors associated with the inborn errors of metabolism cause intellectual disability in a newborn |
|
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Term
Klinefelter's and Downs Syndrome |
|
Definition
the chromosomal disorders that causes intellectual disability. |
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Term
|
Definition
symptoms occur if the client with Tourette’s disorder abruptly discontinues the administration of prescribed alpha agonist medications |
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Term
Prolapse of the umbilical cord. Premature separation of placenta |
|
Definition
conditions or complications during birth cause intellectual disability in the newborn |
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Term
|
Definition
an adhd drug that causes upper abdominal pain and cough as side effects. Therefore, the nurse expects this medication in the child’s prescription. |
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|
Term
Pimozide Ziprasidone Haloperidol |
|
Definition
prolonged QTc intervals in the electrocardiogram reports of clients taking which medications |
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Term
|
Definition
will develop the sense of control over symptoms and the Tourette's client would be able to manage the symptoms in the presence of others. |
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Term
|
Definition
an antipsychotic and prescription for adhd would cause the nurse to question the order |
|
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Term
|
Definition
The _____ phase of normal grieving usually lasts 6 to 8 weeks in adults, even though it can last longer in older adults |
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|
Term
his or her fears and feelings related to the anxiety. |
|
Definition
Cognitive therapy is an effective therapy for anxiety. However, it may be ineffective if a client is not willing to speak up openly about |
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Term
|
Definition
Option 1: An effective sign in a client who has attempted suicide Is that the client will not harm himself or herself. Option 2: While caring for a client with a feeling of powerlessness, the nurse would expect the participation of the client in daily activities to be the effective outcome of the therapy. Option 3: In complicated grieving, the client is depressed due to loss of a significant person. The nursing care would be effective if the client is able to express anger about the loss. Option 4: When the client is able to effectively solve problems and take control of his or her life situations, it shows the effectiveness of therapy in a client with low self-esteem. |
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Term
|
Definition
Option 1: Gingko is used to treat senility, short-term memory loss, and peripheral insufficiency. Option 2: Kava is used to reduce anxiety while promoting mental acuity. Option 3: Hops can be used in cases of nervousness, mild anxiety, and insomnia. Option 4: Scullcap is used as a sedative for mild anxiety and nervousness. |
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Term
|
Definition
Increase in anxiety, which is termed here as paradoxical excitement, is noticed with ______ therapy. Consultation with a primary health-care provider is essential when the client who is on buspirone therapy shows paradoxical excitement. |
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|
Term
nightmares, regressed behv, separation anxiety |
|
Definition
A 2-year-old child witnessed a tragic accident. Which psychological symptoms would the nurse observe in this child? |
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|
Term
psychotic disorders or conditions precipitate class 5 crises according to Baldwin |
|
Definition
- panic anxiety - borderline personality disorder - schizophrenia |
|
|
Term
nightmares, regressed behv, separation anxiety |
|
Definition
A 2-year-old child witnessed a tragic accident. Which psychological symptoms would the nurse observe in this child? |
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Term
|
Definition
A client with crisis experiences a great amount of anxiety. Therefore, reduced levels of anxiety would be a minimum goal of therapy because it could be achieved within a short span of time. Option 2: Restoration of complete emotional stability is not be achieved easily. It requires many prior crisis interventions for it to be regained completely. Option 3: Psychological resolution is the ability to perform basic functions of living. Therefore, regained psychological resolution would be a minimum goal of the crisis interventions. Option 4: The basic goal while planning an intervention would be that the client should be able to function properly. Therefore, it would be the achievement of a minimum goal if the client’s ability to at least perform the level of precrisis functioning is restored. Option 5: Improved functioning above the precrisis level could only be achieved only after a number of successful primary interventions. |
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|
Term
chronic alcoholic myopathy |
|
Definition
The heart is muscle, and clients with alcoholic myopathy will experience gradual muscle wasting due to the loss of muscle mass and decreased mobility of skeletal muscles. Option 4: Skeletal muscle weakness is observed in the chronic phase of alcoholic myopathy due to the loss of muscle mass. |
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Term
|
Definition
- elevated muscle enzymes - muscle pain |
|
|
Term
Which genetic factor is associated with the formation of abnormal amyloid precursor protein (APP)? |
|
Definition
mutations on chromosome 21 |
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|
Term
The presence of confusion and memory deficits indicate that the client has a disturbed thought process. After providing effective treatment, the client becomes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
conditions are known to precipitate delirium in a client |
|
Definition
- febrile illness - systemic infections - hepatic encephalopathy |
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|
Term
diagnostic test is performed to evaluate the progression of Alzheimer’s disease (AD) in a client |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which neurotransmitter is oversecreted in a client with neurocognitive disorder (NCD), leading to neuronal degeneration and cell death? Secretion of excess ______ leads to over stimulation of N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors. This increases intracellular calcium and subsequent neuronal degeneration and cell death. |
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Definition
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|
Term
A client who is in ________ of AD may experience confabulation, in which the client creates imaginary events to fill in memory gaps and denies the existence of a problem. As the client is able to understand and accept problems, it indicates that the treatment is effective |
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Definition
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|
Term
an antipsychotic drug used in the treatment of psychotic symptoms such as agitation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A client has undergone computerized tomography (CT) examination and has been diagnosed with Pick’s disease. Which parts of the brain are affected in the client? |
|
Definition
- frontal lobe - temporal lobe |
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|
Term
Pick’s disease involves behavioral and personality changes, which indicate that the _________ of the client’s brain is affected |
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Definition
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|
Term
Speech and language problems are evident in Pick’s disease, which indicate that the ________ of the client’s brain is affected. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Encouraging the client’s review of the past may create a disturbance in the client. _______ should be discouraged |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Option 1: Distracting the client from the surroundings is an effective intervention in a client with hallucinations. Option 2: Covering and moving mirrors helps the client avoid seeing faces in patterns on fabrics or in pictures on the wall and is an effective intervention in a client with hallucinations. Mirrors can cause false perceptions, which may aggravate hallucinations. Option 3: Encouraging the client’s review of the past may create a disturbance in the client. Rumination should be discouraged. Therefore, this statement made by the student nurse needs correction. Option 4: Determining the reason for visual hallucinations is an effective intervention in a client with hallucinations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the client forgets major events. This stage of illness is not characterized by the loss of motor activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the client is unable to perform some activities of daily living. Loss of motor activity does not occur in this stage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
, the client is able to perform activities of daily living only with assistance. Complete loss of motor activity does not occur in this stage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the final stage of AD, where the client loses motor activity and is bedridden. The client in this stage of illness has impaired speech and communication. The presence of inflamed alveoli indicates pneumonia, possibly due to a depressed immune system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The client with AD who is in the______ stage of the disease has mild-to-moderate cognitive decline. The client cannot understand current news events during this stage of illness. This finding supports the nurse’s conclusion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The client with AD who is in the ______ stage of the disease has moderate cognitive decline. The client cannot recall addresses and phone numbers during this stage of the disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The client with AD who is in the ______ stage of the disease has mild cognitive decline. Work performance is interrupted during this stage of illness. Therefore, the client is unable to plan or organize work-related tasks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
drug doses for schizophrenia |
|
Definition
- haloperidol 1-100 mg - aripiprazole 10-30 - lurasidone 40-80 - chlorpromazine 40-400 |
|
|
Term
acute phase of a delusion |
|
Definition
Assessment of the client with schizophrenia is a complex process based on information gathered from a number of sources. Clients in an acute episode of their illness are seldom able to make significant contributions to their history. Data may be obtained from family members, if possible; from old medical records, if available; or from other individuals who have been in a position to report on the progression of the client’s behavior. |
|
|
Term
general medical conditions that may cause psychotic symptoms |
|
Definition
- neurosyphilis - hyperparathyroidism - temporal lobe epilepsy - Hypoadrenocorticism - Acute intermittent porphyria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a typical antipsychotic that improves the positive symptoms and worsens the negative symptoms. Therefore, _______ aggravates anhedonia and regression in the client. |
|
|
Term
typical antipsychotic agents |
|
Definition
- loxapine - pimozide - haloperidol - quetiapine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The client prescribed with ______ medication may have high weight gain |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Concomitant use of epinephrine and phenothiazine may result in decreased cardiac output. Therefore, the nurse expects severe ______ in the client. |
|
|
Term
Community support programs |
|
Definition
help the clients to work with community agencies. These programs emphasis on vocational expectations and sheltered workshops help provide rehabilitation to the client with schizophrenia. |
|
|
Term
the psychomotor symptoms of schizophrenia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
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Definition
refers to the lack of energy to perform the activities of daily living. It is common among clients with schizophrenia and it affects the cognitive abilities as well as the physical movements of the client. |
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Term
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Definition
is one of the symptoms associated with schizophrenia, which manifests as assuming bizarre postures. It affects the psychomotor behavior of the client. |
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Term
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Definition
imitating the mvmt of other people |
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Term
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Definition
The schizo client in the of schizophrenia exhibits symptoms such as being very shy and withdrawn. |
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Term
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Definition
The schizo client in the ________ exhibits nonspecific symptoms such as anxiety and irritability. |
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Term
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Definition
The schizo client in the __________ may show symptoms such as disorganized speech |
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Term
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Definition
The client in the ___________ may show negative symptoms such as diminished emotional expression. |
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Term
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Definition
The ____________ pathway is associated with endocrine functions such as digestion and temperature control. If the psychotic client has frequent hyperthermia and indigestion, it indicates that the this pathway may be affected. |
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Term
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Definition
If the psychotic client shows any symptoms associated with memory, emotions, arousal and pleasure, it indicates that the ______ pathway may be affected. |
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Term
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Definition
If the psychotic client shows any symptoms associated with motor control, it indicates that the ______ pathway may be affected. |
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Term
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Definition
If the psychotic client shows any symptoms associated with cognition, social behavior, planning, problem solving, motivation, and reinforcement in learning, it indicates that the ______ pathway may be affected. |
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Term
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Definition
Disturbances in work, interpersonal skills, self-care for at least 6 months is indicative of ________ |
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Term
encephalitis and meningitis |
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Definition
medical conditions may be implicated in the predisposition of an intellectual disability |
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Term
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Definition
is the medication administered to children and adolescents from 5 to 16 years old who have autism spectrum disorder. |
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Term
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Definition
is useful in treating autism spectrum disorder. However, it is prescribed to children and adolescents in the age range of 6 to 17 years old. |
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Term
The DSM-5 groups these disorders into a single diagnostic category—autism spectrum disorder |
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Definition
(ASD): autistic disorder, Rett’s disorder, childhood disintegrative disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, and Asperger’s disorder. |
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Term
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Definition
The incidence rate of intellectual disabilities in the general population is about |
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Term
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Definition
refers to the person’s ability to adapt to the requirements of daily living and the expectations of his or her age and cultural group. |
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Term
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Definition
- ST memory deteriorates with age - LT memory doesn't |
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Term
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Definition
intelligence doesn't dec with age |
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Term
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Definition
learning ability not diminished with age |
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Term
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Definition
common in the elderly, can cause depression |
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Term
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Definition
important to successful aging |
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Term
maintaining a pos self-concept |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
can cause depression and anxiety in the elderly. self-esteem is important |
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Term
psychiatric disorders in later life |
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Definition
- cognitive - depressive - phobias - alcoholism |
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Term
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Definition
- neurocognitive - delirium - depression - schizophrenia - anxiety disorders - personality disorders - sleep disorders |
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Term
Parkinson's - motor symptoms |
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Definition
neurodegenerative disorder - tremors at rest - rigidity - postural instability - bradykinesia |
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Term
parkinsons - nonmotor symptoms |
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Definition
- autonomic dysfunction - sleep disturbances - depression - psychosis - dementia |
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Term
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Definition
- degeneration of neurons in the substantia nigra - sn supplies dopamine to the striatum - imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine |
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Term
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Definition
- activate dopamine receptors - drugs that block cholinergic receptors |
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Term
pd drugs for motor symptoms |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
enzyme that converts levodopa to dopamine |
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Term
acute loss of response to levodopa |
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Definition
two patterns - gradual wearing off at end of dosing interval - abrupt loss of effect. on-off phenomenon |
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Term
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Definition
- nausea - dyskinesias - hypotension - psychosis |
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Term
1st gen antipsychotic drugs |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
two 2nd gen antipsychotic drugs that don't block dopamine receptors |
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Term
combining levodopa with nonselective MAOI |
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Definition
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Term
high protein (amino acid) meals |
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Definition
can reduce levodopa effects |
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Term
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Definition
it enhances the effects of levodopa and doesn't cross the BBB |
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Term
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Definition
- oral nonergot dopamine agonst - first-line drug for pd motor symptoms - can be used with levodopa in late stage of pd - can be used alone in early pd |
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Term
major adverse effects of pramipexole (from excessive activation of dopamine receptors) |
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Definition
- nausea - dyskinesia - post hypo - hallucinations |
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Term
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Definition
- a COMT inhibitor - inhibits metabolism of levodopa in the intestines and peripheral tissues - more levodopa is available to the brain |
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Term
selegiline and rasagiline |
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Definition
- inhibits brain enzyme MAO-B - MAO-B inactivates dopamine |
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Term
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Definition
relieve symptoms of pd by blocking cholinergic receptors in the striatum |
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Term
the goal of pharmacologic therapy in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease |
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Definition
To balance cholinergic and dopaminergic activity in the brain. Parkinson’s disease results from a decrease in dopaminergic (inhibitory) activity, leaving an imbalance with too much cholinergic (excitatory) activity. With an increase in dopamine, the neurotransmitter activity becomes more balanced, and symptoms are controlled. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Selegiline can have a dangerous interaction with ______, leading to stupor, rigidity, agitation, and hyperthermia |
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Term
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Definition
headache, arthralgia, dyspepsia, depression, and flu-like symptoms. |
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Term
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Definition
Amantadine is not as effective as some other medications, so it is not a first-line treatment for pd, but it may be used in addition to other medications. |
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Term
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Definition
- neuritic plaques - neurofibrillary tangles - degeneration of cholinergic neurons in the hippocampus and cerebral cortex |
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Term
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Definition
cholinesterase inhibitors or memantine |
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Term
cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil) |
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Definition
- inc availability acetylcholine at cholinergic synapses - enhances xmission by cholinergic neurons that haven't yet been destroyed by AD |
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Term
cholinesterase inhibitors |
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Definition
modest improvements in cognition, behv, and function in 1 out of 12 pts |
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Term
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Definition
- bradycardia (fainting, falls, fractures, and pacemaker placement) - n&v - dyspepsia - diarrhea |
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Term
drugs that block cholinergic receptors |
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Definition
- 1st gen antihistamines - tricyclic antidepressants - conventional antipsychotics |
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Term
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Definition
- NMDA receptor agonist - modulates effects of glutamate at NMDA receptors |
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Term
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Definition
approved only for moderate to severe AD |
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Term
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Definition
no significant adverse effects |
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Term
Rivastigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor) |
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Definition
is thought to have the highest probability of producing adverse GI effects |
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Term
the principal indication for antipsychotic drugs |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
disordered thinking and reduced comprehension of reality |
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Term
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Definition
- hallucinations - delusions - agitation |
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Term
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Definition
- blunted affect - poverty of speech - social withdrawal |
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Term
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Definition
- disordered thinking - reduced ability to focus attn - learning and memory difficulties |
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Term
1st and 2nd gen antipsychotic drugs |
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Definition
both equally effective at treating schizo |
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Term
1st gen antipsychotics (FGAs) |
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Definition
high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) |
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Term
2nd gen antipsychotics (SGAs) |
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Definition
high risk of metabolic effects |
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Term
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Definition
they are no safer than FGAs |
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Term
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Definition
both inc mortality risk in elderly with dementia-related psychosis |
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Term
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Definition
therapeutic responses to antipsychotic drugs take.... |
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Term
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Definition
are thought to relieve symptoms by causing strong blockade of D2 receptors |
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Term
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Definition
are thought to relieve symptoms by causing moderate blockade of D2 receptors and strong blockade of 5-HT2 receptors |
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Term
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Definition
major concern is EPS early in txt - acute dystonia - parkinsonism - akathisia - tardive dyskinesia (late in txt) |
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Term
What are some of the main symptoms of Akathisia? |
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Definition
Extreme agitation/restlessness Inability to sleep/insomnia Profound anxiety/terror/panic Feeling like you're jumping out of your skin or want to rip your skin off and escape Feeling a need to run away |
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Term
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Definition
A "dragging leg" Cramping of the foot Involuntary pulling of the neck Uncontrollable blinking Speech difficulties |
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Term
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Definition
Lip smacking Tongue thrusting Rapid eye blinking Facial grimacing Finger tapping Arm and leg movements |
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Term
anticholinergic drugs (benzotropine) |
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Definition
acute dystonia and parkinsonism respond to |
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Term
anticholinergic drugs, benzos, or beta blockers |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
|
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Term
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Definition
much greater with high-potency FGAs |
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Term
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Definition
equal with high and low potency FGAs |
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Term
risks with low-potency FGAs |
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Definition
- sedation - ortho hypo - anticholinergic effects |
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Term
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Definition
- neuroleptic malignant syndrome - muscular rigidity - high fever - autonomic instability - death |
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Term
dantrolene and bromocriptine |
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Definition
used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome |
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Term
can inc circulating levels of prolactin |
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Definition
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Term
levodopa can counteract the beneficial effects of FGA drugs, and vice versa because |
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Definition
levodopa activates dopamine receptors, whereas FGAs block dopamine receptors |
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Term
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Definition
the prototype of the high-potency FGAs |
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Term
3 important ways SGAs differ from FGAs |
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Definition
- they block receptors for serotonin and dopamine - they carry a lower risk of EPS, including TD - they carry a higher risk of serious metabolic effects such as wt gain, diabetes, dyslipidemia |
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Term
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Definition
is a nonstimulant drug. It increases the release of norepinephrine, and it is approved for the treatment of adults with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. It has no potential for abuse. |
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Term
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Definition
is recommended for treatment of ADHD in cases where there may be concern for stimulant abuse or there exists a strong aversion to treatment with stimulant medications. |
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Term
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Definition
These drugs decrease hyperactivity but have little effect on impulsivity and inattention. Responses develop slowly. Beneficial effects begin in 2 to 3 weeks and reach a maximum at around 6 weeks. Tolerance frequently develops within a few months. In contrast to the stimulants, which can be discontinued on weekends, antidepressants must be taken continuously. |
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Term
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Definition
act primarily by causing the release of norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine (DA) and partly by inhibiting the reuptake of both transmitters. These actions take place in the CNS and in peripheral nerves. Most pharmacologic effects result from the release of NE. |
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Term
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Definition
can reduce behavioral symptoms of ADHD but is less effective than stimulants. The drug lacks the adverse effects associated with tricyclic antidepressants (eg, cardiotoxicity, anticholinergic effects) but does pose a risk of seizures. |
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Term
The adverse effects of the barbiturates |
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Definition
include respiratory depression, risk of suicide, risk of abuse, and hangover (sedation, impaired judgment, and reduced motor skills). |
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Term
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Definition
, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, is the treatment of choice for overdose of the benzodiazepine diazepam [Valium]. Naloxone [Narcan] is used to reverse opioid overdose. Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst] is used to reverse acetaminophen [Tylenol] overdose. Vitamin K is used to reverse warfarin toxicity. |
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Term
|
Definition
, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, is the treatment of choice for overdose of the benzodiazepine diazepam [Valium]. Naloxone [Narcan] is used to reverse opioid overdose. Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst] is used to reverse acetaminophen [Tylenol] overdose. Vitamin K is used to reverse warfarin toxicity. |
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Term
|
Definition
, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, is the treatment of choice for overdose of the benzodiazepine diazepam [Valium]. Naloxone [Narcan] is used to reverse opioid overdose. Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst] is used to reverse acetaminophen [Tylenol] overdose. Vitamin K is used to reverse warfarin toxicity. |
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Term
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Definition
What are the causes of secondary neurocognitive disorders (NCDs) in a client |
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Term
estrogen and progesterone |
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Definition
when given in combination, leads to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer in elderly clients. |
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Term
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Definition
The client is said to have _____ if he or she misinterprets external stimuli |
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Term
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Definition
The client with schizophrenia may have different types of hallucinations. Tactile hallucinations are one of the types of hallucinations in which the client may complain about something crawling on or under the skin. |
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Term
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Definition
Option 1: The client in the premorbid phase or Phase I experiences schizoid or schizotypal personalities, which are characterized as quiet, passive, and introverted. Option 2: The client in the prodromal phase or Phase II experiences nonspecific symptoms such as social withdrawal and positive symptoms such as suspiciousness. Therefore, the client exploiting the group members during any group activities indicates that the client is in Phase II of schizophrenia. Option 3: The client in the active psychotic phase or Phase III experiences prominent psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations. Option 4: The client in the residual phase or Phase IV experiences periods of remission or exacerbation. |
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Term
psychotic disorders and the risk of harming others |
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Definition
Option 1: Dysphoria refers to a state of dissatisfaction. However, this does not indicate the risk of violent behavior in the client. Option 2: Manic excitement is one of the symptoms that infer that the client is at risk of self-directed or other-directed violence. Mechanical restraints are recommended, when necessary. Option 3: The nurse infers that the client with increased agitation is at a risk of injury. The nurse does not infer the risk of self-directed or other-directed violence. Option 4: The client with extreme hyperactivity is not at risk of self-directed or other-directed violence. |
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Term
psychotic disorders and the risk of harming others |
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Definition
Option 1: Dysphoria refers to a state of dissatisfaction. However, this does not indicate the risk of violent behavior in the client. Option 2: Manic excitement is one of the symptoms that infer that the client is at risk of self-directed or other-directed violence. Mechanical restraints are recommended, when necessary. Option 3: The nurse infers that the client with increased agitation is at a risk of injury. The nurse does not infer the risk of self-directed or other-directed violence. Option 4: The client with extreme hyperactivity is not at risk of self-directed or other-directed violence. |
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Term
Assisting the activity therapists in conducting groups is |
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Definition
the responsibility of the mental health technician. |
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Term
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Definition
is a predisposing factor for depression in an elderly client |
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Term
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Definition
is a predisposing factor for dementia in an elderly client |
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Term
predisposing factors of delirium in an elderly client |
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Definition
Structural brain diseases that involve neurodegeneration may result in delirium in elderly clients. Option 4: Reduced homeostatic regulation or imbalance in the internal environment of the body may cause alteration in the supply of nutrients to the brain. This may result in delirium or a state of confusion in elderly clients. Option 5: Age-related changes in pharmacokinetics of medications are a predisposing factor for delirium in elderly clients. |
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Term
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Definition
the main factor in the development of serious difficulties in living, according to Sullivan’s interpersonal theory |
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Term
phases of indv psychotherapy |
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Definition
phase I psychotherapy, the client is encouraged to continue working and participating in regular activities. Phase II of individual psychotherapy involves establishing new relationships. Helping to resolve grief reactions is also an activity of phase II Termination of the therapeutic alliance is the phase III intervention. |
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Term
Which client condition is a positive outcome for the intervention of anxiety in a patient with depersonalization-derealizationd disorder |
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Definition
The client will be aware that the occurrence of depersonalization behaviors is a dissociative behavior associated with severe anxiety and demonstrate effective coping strategies. |
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Term
attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder |
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Definition
The predisposing factor for antisocial personality disorder is _______ in childhood and adolescence |
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Term
Psychotherapy and amitriptyline |
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Definition
is the most commonly used therapy in clients with adjustment disorder with depressed mood and anxiety. ______ is an antidepressant which reduces the symptoms of adjustment disorder with depressed mood. |
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Term
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Definition
unconventional western medicine |
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Term
The nurse tells a chronic alcoholic client, “Your family may face problems because of your drinking habit.” Which outcomes are expected from the nursing intervention? |
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Definition
1. The client verbalizes the correlation between alcohol and personal problems. 2. The client accepts responsibility for his or her own behavior |
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Term
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Definition
- part of the brain is responsible for impulse control and affective processing - responsible for impulse control and affective processing, appears to be less well-modulated in people with aggression, and responses to fear are reduced. |
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Term
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Definition
AD moderate cognitive decline, which is characterized by the inability of client to perform ______ . Therefore, asking this question will help the nurse evaluate disease progression |
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Term
dealing with an angry patient |
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Definition
1. “The nurse should help the client determine the true source of anger.” 2. “The nurse should refrain from touching the client when he or she is angry.” 3. “The nurse should help the client find alternative ways of releasing tension.” |
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Term
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Definition
the client reacts acutely to a situation as a result of an external stressor. |
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Term
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Definition
is a type of crisis where the cognitive function and the functioning of vital organs are impaired |
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Term
Maturational/developmental crisis |
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Definition
occurs as a result of situations that trigger emotions related to unresolved conflicts. |
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Term
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Definition
due to an unexpected external stressor over which the client has little or no control is known as the crisis resulting from traumatic stress. Because the nurse is discussing how rape results in loss of self-worth, the client is undergoing this type of crisis. |
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Term
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Definition
- self-care deficit: the client develops negative feelings about his or her capabilities and thinks that he or she cannot do anything. - illness anxiety disorder: the client develops false interpretation of symptoms, leading to preoccupation and fear of having a serious disease. - dissociative amnesia: When the client says that he or she cannot remember anything about an accident - deficient knowledge in the client:When a client says, “I don’t know why the doctors put me in a psychiatric unit. I have a physical illness,” |
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Term
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Definition
An exaggerated sense of responsibility is associated with _______ |
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Term
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Definition
- Engaging in self-blame - Inner conflict about effects of the disaster |
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Term
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Definition
causes CNS depression by: - enhancing the depressant effects of GABA - reduces the excitatory effects of glutamate |
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Term
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Definition
the rate-limiting enzyme in alcohol metabolism |
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Term
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Definition
- inc HR - inc force of ventricular contraction - elevates BP - inc cardiac work |
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Term
feigning behavior with respect to physical symptoms to gain attention. |
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Definition
The nurse will diagnose ineffective coping in a client by observing _________. It is a symptom of factitious disorder in ineffective coping |
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Term
somatic symptom and related disorders, and dissociative disorders |
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Definition
- anxiety that occurs at the severe level - it's repressed and manifested in the form of these disorders |
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Term
types of somatic disorders |
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Definition
- somatic symptom disorders - illness anxiety disorder - conversion disorder - psychological factors affecting other medical conditions - factitious disorder |
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Term
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Definition
symptoms that can't be explained medically and are associated with psychosocial distress and frequent flying to hc pros |
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Term
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Definition
a loss of or alteration in bodily functioning, unsubstantiated by medical or pathophysiological explanation |
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Term
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Definition
pt falsifies physical or psychological s/s or induces injury on the self or another person to receive attn from medical personnel |
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Term
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Definition
results in an alteration in the normally integrated functions of id, memory, or consciousness |
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Term
classification of diss disorders |
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Definition
- dissociative amnesia - DID - depersonalization/derealization disorder - specified or unspecified dissociative disorders |
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Term
|
Definition
unable to recall important personal information that is to be explained by ordinary forgetfulness |
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Term
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Definition
the presence of two or more personality states within a single indv |
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|
Term
depersonalization/derealization disorder |
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Definition
- characterized by an alteration in the perception of oneself and/or the environ - depersonalization is described as a feeling of unreality or detachment from one's body |
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Term
nurse's role in assisting cts with dissociative disorders |
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Definition
- help cts understand the role of anxiety in symptom devp - id and establish new, more adaptive cognitive and behavior patterns - provide trauma-informed care and be aware of resources for referral to specialists in trauma care and PTSD txt |
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Term
behaviors that indicate successful treatment of hallucinations with benzos |
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Definition
- Living in the world of reality - Normalized response to sounds - Believing one"s reflection in a mirror is one’s own reflection |
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|
Term
4 stages of recovery process for codependency |
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Definition
1st phase - The client must let go of denial of problems in the survival stage of codependency 2nd stage - the reidentification stage, in which the client should take responsibility for his or her dysfunctional behavior. It helps the client to accept his or her limitations and be ready to face the issues of codependency.
3rd stage - the core issues stage. Facing the fact that relationships cannot be managed by force 4th stage - reintegration stage. Exhibiting willingness to change |
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Term
|
Definition
is a client-centered form of cognitive behavioral psychotherapy that focuses on improving present relationships and circumstances, while avoiding discussion of past events |
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Term
depersonalization-derealization disorder |
|
Definition
Discontinuity in the sense of self, which is due to presence of multiple personalities, is evident in a client with ______ |
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Term
|
Definition
A client with shows characteristics such as unexpected travel to another location, amnesia, and an inability to recall events. |
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|
Term
depersonalization-derealization disorder |
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Definition
Detachment with body or surroundings is observed in the client. |
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Term
|
Definition
The child being regularly absent from school is an indicator of neglect. Option 2: The child wetting the bed is an indicator of sexual abuse. Option 3: Alcohol and drug abuse in a child is an indicator of neglect. Option 4: When the child protests and cries when it is time to go home, this is an indicator of physical abuse. Option 5: A child experiencing a sudden change in appetite is an indicator of sexual abuse. |
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|
Term
j William worden's bereavement steps |
|
Definition
1. Participating in traditional rituals such as the funeral helps pt to accept the reality of the loss 2. Allowing himself or herself to feel the pain of loss helps pt process the pain if grief 3. Developing new skills to cope and adapt to his or her new environment without the lost entity helps adjust to the world w/o the loved one 4. letting go of past attachments and forming new ones. pertains to the ability of the bereaved individual to find an enduring connection with the lost entity in the midst of embarking on a new life. |
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|
Term
falls under cluster A according to the DSM-5. |
|
Definition
- schizoid personality disorder - paranoid personality disorder - schizotypal personality " |
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