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Virtually all theories of autonomy view two conditions as essential for autonomy. Name them: |
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Definition
Information and voluntariness |
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Name the three main standards of surrogate decision-making |
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Definition
pure autonomy, substituted judgement, and best interests |
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A person acts ______________ if he or she wills the actions without being under the control of another’s influence. |
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Definition
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4. Utilitarian Mill gives little weight to respect for autonomy in his moral theory of weighing happiness/value and unhappiness/lack of value produced by an action. (T/F) |
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Definition
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5. The principle of respect for autonomy can be stated as either a negative obligation or as a _______________ obligation. |
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Definition
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6. In the study cited by BC6 Korean Americans and Mexican Americans tended to believe that the family should make decisions about the use of life support. (T/F) |
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Definition
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7. Autonomous choice is a duty of patients. (T/F) |
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Definition
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8. The difference between and opt-in and opt-out approach to public policy is that opt out assumes _______________ while opt in does not assume _____________. |
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Definition
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9. Technically, health care workers assess capacity and not competence. (T/F) |
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Definition
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10. The substituted judgment standard of surrogate decision-making determines whether or not the life lived and to be lived by the patient has adequate quality. (T/F) |
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Definition
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11. The single core meaning of “competence” applicable in all contexts: |
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Definition
ability to perform a task |
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Term
12. Competence is a threshold concept. (T/F) |
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Definition
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13. The competence to decide is always relative to the particular ____________ to be made. |
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Definition
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14. The main standard of disclosure to use in determining what material facts should be disclosed to a patient is the professional practice standard. (T/F) |
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Definition
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15. One specific moral rule specified under the principle of autonomy: |
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Definition
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16. Name the three types of cases that provide legal exceptions to informed consent: |
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Definition
emergency, incompetence, waiver |
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Term
17. Persuasion is a form of coercion. (T/F) |
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Definition
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18. A ___________ is a substance or intervention that the clinician believes to be pharmacologically or biomedically inert for the conditions being treated. |
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Definition
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19. Subjects in research sometimes commit the ______________________, whereby the fail to distinguish the aims of clinical care from those of research. |
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Definition
therapeutic misconception |
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Term
20. Patients in mental institutions who cannot care for themselves and have been declared legally incompetent cannot make any autonomous choices. (T/F) |
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Definition
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21. Actions are autonomous by degrees. (T/F) |
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Definition
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22. To respect autonomous agents is to acknowledge their right to hold views, to make choices, and to take actions based on their personal beliefs and values. (T/F) |
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Definition
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23. According to BC6, disrespect for autonomy involves attitudes and actions that do what to others’ rights of autonomous action? |
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Definition
ignore, insult, inattentive to the other's right of autonomous action |
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Term
24. The principle of respect for autonomy has a correlative right and mandatory duty to choose. (T/F) |
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Definition
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25. A fundamental obligation exists to ensure that patients have the right to decline information. (T/F) |
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Definition
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26. Forced information and forced choice are consistent with the obligation to disclose material information so as to ensure an informed decision on the part of a patient. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
27. Consent should refer to presumptions about the choices the individual would or should make and not merely an individual’s actual choices. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
28. AIDS exceptionalism refers to a criticism of policies that refrained from applying conventional public health measures to HIV infection and AIDS. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
29. Acting in character does not necessarily show autonomy. (T/F) |
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Definition
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30. BC6 cite several recent reviews of instruments to measure competence and they find that these instruments produce variable results. (T/F) |
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Definition
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31. The level of evidence for determining competence should vary according to _____________. |
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Definition
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Term
32. Informed consents, when legally effective authorizations, are autonomous acts. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
33. Legal, regulatory, philosophical, medical, and psychological literatures tend to favor the following 5 elements of informed consent: |
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Definition
competence, disclosure, understanding, voluntariness, consent |
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Term
34. Two competing standards of disclosure have emerged: |
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Definition
reasonable person, professional practice |
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Term
35. The information to be disclosed should be determined by reference to a hypothetical reasonable person when using the professional practice standard of disclosure. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
36. Subjects in research sometimes commit the ______________________, whereby the fail to distinguish the aims of clinical care from those of research. |
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Definition
therapeutic misconception |
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Term
37. Data indicate that patients generally make their decisions prior to and independent of the process of receiving information. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
38. Therapeutic privilege states that a physician may legitimately withhold information, based on a sound medical judgment that divulging the information would potentially harm a depressed or unstable patient. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
39. It is usually appropriate to recognize waivers of rights because we enjoy discretion over whether to exercise our rights. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
40. The manner in which a health care professional presents information---by tone of voice, by forceful gesture, and by framing information---can manipulate a patient’s perception and response, thereby affecting understanding and voluntariness. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
41. The substituted judgment standard is a weak standard of autonomy and holds that the surrogate should make the decision the incompetent person would have made if competent. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
42. Obligations not to harm others are the same as obligations to help others. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
43. A beneficial action necessarily takes second place to an act of not causing harm. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
44. Rules in ethics favor avoiding harm over providing benefit in all circumstances. (T/F) |
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Definition
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45. Rules of nonmaleficence take the form, __________________. |
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Definition
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46. Obligations of nonmaleficence include not only obligations not to inflict harms, but also obligations not to impose risks of harm. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
47. A standard of due care is a specification of the principle of ______________________. |
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Definition
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Term
48. In some cases agents are causally responsible for a harm that they did not intend or know about. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
49. ______________ means taking sufficient and appropriate care to avoid causing harm, as the circumstances demand of a reasonable and prudent person. |
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Definition
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Term
50. _________________ is the absence of due care. |
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Definition
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Term
51. The four essential elements in a professional model of due care: |
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Definition
duty, breach of duty, harm, harm caused by the breach |
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Term
52. The distinction between withdrawing and withholding treatments is morally irrelevant. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
53. Giving priority to withholding over withdrawing treatment can lead to overtreatment and undertreatment. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
54. The distinction between ordinary and extraordinary means of treatment is unacceptably vague and morally misleading. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
55. Courts have increasingly maintained that medical nutrition and hydration are medical procedures subject to the same standards of evaluation as other medical procedures and thus sometimes unjustifiably burdensome. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
56. There is no reason to believe that medical nutrition and hydration is always an essential part of palliative care or that it necessarily constitutes a beneficial medical treatment. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
57. Evidence indicates that patients who are allowed to die without artificial hydration sometimes die more comfortably than patients who receive hydration. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
58. One of the few widely shared views in the literature on the rule of double effect is that intentional actions require that an agent have a _____________ —a blueprint, map, or representation of the means and ends proposed -- for the execution of the action. |
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Definition
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Term
59. A person who knowingly and voluntarily acts to bring about an effect acts in an _____way. |
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Definition
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Term
60. The term “______” means a treatment provides no physiological benefit or is hopeless and becomes optional. |
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Definition
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Term
61. A judgment about whether to use life-prolonging treatment rests unavoidably on the anticipated quality of life of the patient, not merely on a standard of what is medically indicated. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
62. Mental retardation is quite relevant in determining whether treatment is in the patient’s best interest. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
63. Criteria focused on the incompetent patient’s best interests should be decisive for a proxy unless the patient’s interests conflict with familial or societal interests in avoiding burdens or costs. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
64. When a patient has such a low quality of life that aggressive intervention or intensive care produces more harm than benefit, physicians justifiably may withhold or withdraw treatment from near-term fetuses, newborns, or infants, just as they do with persons of older ages. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
65. The meanings of “killing” and “letting die” clearly are vague and inherently contestable. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
66. “Letting die” is (prima facie) acceptable in medicine under one of two conditions: |
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Definition
treatment is futile, patient makes autonomous rejection of life-sustaining treatment |
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Term
67. Standard justifications of killing prevent us from prejudging an action as wrong merely because it is a killing. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
68. Forgoing treatment to allow patients to die can be both as intentional and as immoral as actions that in some more direct manner take their lives, and both can be forms of killing. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
69. Rightness and wrongness depend on the merit of the justification underlying the action, not on whether it is an instance of killing or of letting die. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
70. Two types of advance directive aim at governing future decision making: |
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Definition
health care power of attorney and living will |
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Term
71. The family’s role as surrogate decision-makers for incompetent patients should be primary for the following three main reasons: |
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Definition
depth of concern about the patient, intimate knowledge about patients wishes, traditional role in society |
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Term
72. _________________________ is the name of the principle BC6 use to describe all forms of action intended to benefit other persons. |
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Definition
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Term
73. This chapter presents two principles of beneficence:_________________ and _________________. |
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Definition
positive beneficence and utility |
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Term
74. Some forms of beneficence are morally obligatory. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
75. Principles of beneficence are broad enough to justify all other principles. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
76. The New Testament parable of the Good Samaritan suggests positive beneficence is an obligation. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
77. We are morally required to benefit persons on all occasions. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
78. One rule specified under the principle of beneficence: |
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Definition
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Term
79. Rules of nonmaleficence need not always be followed impartially. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
80. Rules of beneficence are negative prohibitions of action. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
81. Rules of nonmaleficence provide moral reasons for legal prohibitions of certain conduct. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
82. Failing to act beneficently toward a party is prima facie immoral. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
83. Failing to act nonmaleficently toward a party is prima facie immoral. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
84. The more widely we generalize obligations of beneficence, the less likely we will be to meet our primary responsibilities. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
85. Peter Singer argues that even if it is in our power to prevent something bad from happening, without thereby sacrificing anything of comparable moral importance, we have no moral obligation to do it. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
86. Health care worker X has an obligation of beneficence toward patient Y if five conditions are met. Name them: |
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Definition
y sig. risk, x acts nec., x acts high probability of success, x not a big risk, benefit to y outweighs cost to x |
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Term
87. The morally relevant difference between rescuing specific individuals and alleviating global poverty and increasing public health is what? |
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Definition
well placed at that moment to help victim |
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Term
88. Ethical theory and practical deliberation can set precise, determinate conditions of obligations of beneficence. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
89. There is an implicit assumption of beneficence in all medical and health care professions. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
90. ___________________ is the act or practice of making an appropriate and often proportional return. |
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Definition
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Term
91. Paternalism typically involves a conflict between two moral principles. Name them: |
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Definition
respect for autonomy, beneficence |
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Term
92. The analogy between professional paternalism and paternalism of a father for a child presupposes two features of the paternal role. Name them: |
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Definition
makes most decisions, does so in a way to further child's best interests |
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Term
93. The definition of paternalism used by BC6: |
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Definition
intentional overriding of one person's preferences, justify by benefit to person |
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Term
94. The main difference between soft paternalism and hard paternalism is the existence of what in hard that is absent from soft? |
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Definition
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Term
95. Refraining from soft paternalism is an example of respect for autonomy. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
96. Refraining from hard paternalism is an example of respect for autonomy. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
97. Soft paternalistic actions are morally complicated because of the difficulty of determining whether a person’s actions are substantially nonautonomous. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
98. “Sin taxes” are an example of a hard paternalist policy. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
99. What an informed and competent person actually chooses to do is the best evidence we have of what his or her values are. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
100. BC6 warn against routinely using soft paternalism, giving two major reasons. Name them: |
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Definition
comes with negative psychosocial costs, runs the risk of preparing way for hard paternalistic interventions |
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Term
101. Three general positions dominate the literature on the justification of paternalism. Name them: |
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Definition
antipaternalism, paternalism justified by beneficence, paternalism justified by respect for autonomy |
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Term
BC6 argue the main justification for paternalistic interventions is respect for autonomy. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
103. BC6 argue that beneficence alone justifies paternalistic actions. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
104. As the benefits for a person increase and that person’s autonomy decreases, the justification for paternalistic action becomes less plausible. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
105. In general, as the risk to a patient’s welfare increases or the likelihood of an irreversible harm increases, the likelihood of a justified paternalist intervention correspondingly increases. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
106. There exist cases of justified hard paternalism. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
107. The antipaternalistic stance resisting suicide intervention is vulnerable to criticism on two grounds. Name them: |
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Definition
fails to convey community concern for individual, individual may be depressed |
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Term
108. A suicide attempt, irrespective of motive, almost universally provides a legal basis for public officers to intervene, as well as grounds for involuntary hospitalization. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
109. _________________ include the resources required to bring about a benefit, as well as the negative effects of pursuing and realizing that benefit. |
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Definition
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Term
110. IRB stands for ____________________________________. |
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Definition
institutional review board |
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Term
111. An IRB proposal should essentially include what about the research being proposed? |
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Definition
statement of risks, benefits, and clear that benefit outweighs risk |
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Term
112. CEAs are typically put in monetary terms. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
113. CEA and CBA are appear precise and helpful because they __________________________. |
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Definition
put things in qualified terms |
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Term
114. _____________ refers to a possible future harm. |
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Definition
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Term
115. Unlike risk, benefit is a probabilistic term. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
116. __________ is the set of individual, institutional, or policy responses to the analysis and assessment of risk, including decisions to reduce or control risks. |
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Definition
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Term
117. Societal perceptions of clinical research shifted significantly in the 1970s and early 1980s, from increasing access to clinical trials to protecting individuals from risks and burdens associated with research. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
118. BC6 draw two general conclusions from their consideration of the RBA of silicone-gel breast implants. Name them: |
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Definition
need FDA and public safety protection, RBA's are not value-free |
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Term
119. Measures commonly associated with the _______________________ principle include transparency, involvement of the public, and consultation with experts about possible responses to threats marked by uncertainty or ignorance about probabilities and magnitudes. |
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Definition
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Term
1. One method used to determine the value of a human life by policy makers is _______________. |
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Definition
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Term
121. QALYs bring _______ of life and ___ of life into a single framework for evaluation. |
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Definition
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Term
122. __________ justice refers to fair and equitable distribution determined by justified norms of society. |
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Definition
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Term
123. The formal principle of justice: |
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Definition
equals should be treated equally, unequals unequally |
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Term
124. A material principle of justice identifies relevant _________________ for distribution. |
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Definition
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Term
125. In Philosophy 221, the two maternal principles most used for grading: |
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Definition
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Term
126. In the Auto Workers v. Johnson Controls, Inc., the course found that the workplace policy involved was based on the irrelevant (unjust) property of ______________. |
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Definition
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Term
127. In order to specify and balance principles a general _________ of justice can provide assistance. |
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Definition
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Term
128. __________ theories of justice focus on principles that evolve through traditions and practices. |
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Definition
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Term
129. The right to health care is on a weak foundation when based on overall utility. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
130. _________theories of justice hold that health care is not a right, and the ideal health care system is privatized. |
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Definition
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Term
131. John Rawls’ theory of justice holds that each person is entitled to the maximum amount of ______________ compatible with a similar measure of liberty for others. |
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Definition
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Term
132. The theory of _________________ holds that there is a social obligation to reduce or eliminate barriers that prevent fair equality of opportunity. |
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Definition
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Term
133. The fair opportunity rule is specified under the principle of _________________. |
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Definition
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Term
134. The fair opportunity rule says that no person should receive social benefits on the basis of _________________. It also hold that no person should be denied social benefits on the basis of ___________________ . |
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Definition
undeserved advantageous properties, undeserved disadvantageous properties |
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Term
135. The genetic lottery refers to distribution of advantages and disadvantages of ticket numbers for a hypothetical health care insurance drawing. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
136. Many studies in the US indicate blacks and women have greater access to various forms of health care in comparison to white men. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
137. ______________ refers to a person’s susceptibility to coercion or harm. |
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Definition
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Term
138. A ______________________ situation is one where a person feels controlled by the situation, such as severe illness or lack of food and shelter. |
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Definition
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Term
139. Undue inducements are sometimes referred to as undue profits. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
140. Inducements are not undue unless they are both excessive in _______ and excessive in ________. |
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Definition
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Term
141. Two main arguments support a moral right to government funded health care: an argument based on _____________________ and an argument from ______________________. |
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Definition
collective social protection, fair opportunity |
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Term
142. The decent minimum approach entails acceptance of a __________________ system. |
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Definition
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Term
143. The concept of decent minimum represents one place of agreement among different theories of justice. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
144. Public preferences should play a role in setting the decent minimum. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
145. Ethical and political theories that explicitly address questions of global justice are referred to as ______________________ theories. |
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Definition
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Term
146. Approximately 20 million people in the developing world die each year from malnutrition and diseases that can be inexpensively prevented or treated by cheap and available means. (T/F) |
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Definition
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Term
147. CUA stands for ________________________. |
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Definition
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Term
148. Good evidence exists to show that public health expenditures targeted at poorer communities for ________________________ (such as prenatal care) save many times that amount in future care. |
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Definition
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Term
149. BC6 present several basic “target goals” for a new health care policy: a. Some form of _____________________________. b. Acceptable incentives for ___________________ and for __________________. c. A fair system of rationing that does not violate the ____________________. d. Put new system into effect ____________________. |
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Definition
universal insurance coverage, physicians and patients/customers, decent minimums, incrementally |
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Term
150. ___________ is a French term meaning sorting, picking, or choosing. |
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Definition
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