Term
With Respect to the certification of Airmen, which is a CATEGORY of aircraft?
A. Gyroplane, Helicopter, Airship, Free Balloon
B. Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Lighter than Air
C. Single-Engine land and sea, Multiengine Land and Sea
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Definition
B. Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Lighter than Air |
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Term
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a CLASS of aircraft?
A. Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Lighter than air
B. Single Engine land and sea, Multiengine land and sea
C. Lighter than air, Airship, Hot Air Balloon, Gas Balloon
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Definition
B. Single engine land and sea and Multi Engine land and sea. |
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Term
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
A. Normal, Utility, Acrobatic
B. Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider
C. Landplane, Seaplane |
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Definition
A. Normal, Utility, Acrobatic |
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Term
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
A. Normal, Utility, Acrobatic, Limited
B. Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Balloon
C. Transport, Restricted, Provisional |
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Definition
B. Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Balloon |
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Term
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
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Definition
A. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action |
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Term
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
A. On the Airworthiness Certificate
B. In the current FAA Flight Manual, Approved manual material, markings, placards, or any combination thereof
C. In the Aircraft airframe and engine logbooks |
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Definition
B. In the current FAA Flight Manual, Approved manual material, markings, placards, or any combination thereof. |
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Term
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the:
A. direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway
B. Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to to the direction of its motion
C. Downwind wing lowered sufficently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift |
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Definition
B. Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to to the direction of its motion |
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Term
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special Light Sport Airworthiness Certificate?
A. Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate
B. In the current, FAA Approved Flight Manual
C. In the Aircraft airframe and engine logbooks |
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Definition
A. Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate |
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Term
Excessively high engine temperatures will:
A. Cause damage to the heat conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
B. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption and possible permanent internal engine damage
C. Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine |
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Definition
B. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption and possible permanent internal engine damage |
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Term
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating ranges, the pilot may have been operating with:
A. The Mixture set too rich
B. Higher than normal oil pressure
C. Too much power and with the mixture set too lean |
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Definition
C. Too much power and with the mixture set too lean |
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Term
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft is to provide for
A. Improved engine performance
B. Uniform heat distribution
C. Balanced cylinder head pressure |
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Definition
A. Improved engine performance |
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Term
On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxillary electric pump used?
A. In the event engine driven fuel pump fails
B. All the time to aid the engine driven pump
C. Constantly except in starting the engine |
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Definition
A. In the event engine driven fuel pump fails |
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Term
The operating principle of float type carburetors is based on the:
A. Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
B. Difference in the air pressure at the venturi throat and air inlet.
C. Increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure. |
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Definition
B. Difference in the air pressure at the venturi throat and air inlet. |
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Term
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to:
A. Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increased air density
B. Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreased air density.
C. Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air |
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Definition
B. Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreased air density. |
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Term
During the run-up at a high elevation airport, a pilot notices a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
A. Check the Results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture
B. Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check
C. Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation |
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Definition
A. Check the Results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture |
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Term
While cruising at 9500 MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4500 MSL is made without adjusting the mixture?
A. The Fuel/Air Mixture may become excessively lean
B. There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion and the excess fuel will absorb hear and cool the engine
C. The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation. |
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Definition
A. The Fuel/Air Mixture may become excessively lean |
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Term
Which condition is most favorable to the development of Carburetor Icing?
A. Any Temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent
B. Temperature between 32 degrees and 50 Degrees F and low humidity
C. Temperature between 20 degrees and 70 degrees and high humidity |
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Definition
C. Temperature between 20 degrees and 70 degrees and high humidity |
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Term
The possibility of carburetor icing exists when the ambient air temperature is as:
A. High as 70 degrees and the relative humidity is high
B. High as 95 degrees and there is visible moisture
C. Low as 0 degrees and the relative humidity is high |
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Definition
A. High as 70 degrees and the relative humidity is high |
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Term
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed pitch propeller and a float type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
A. A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
B. Engine roughness
C. Loss of RPM |
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Definition
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Term
Applying carburetor heat will
A. Result in more air going through the carburetor
B. Enrich the fuel/air mixture
C. Not affect the fuel/air mixture
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Definition
B. Enrich the fuel/air mixture |
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Term
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
A. A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture
B. The fuel/air mixture becomes richer
C. The fuel/air mixture become leaner |
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Definition
B. The fuel/air mixture becomes richer |
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Term
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to...
A. Decrease engine performance
B. Increase engine performance
C. Have no effect on engine performance
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Definition
A. Decrease engine performance |
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Term
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
A. An increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM
B. A decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication
C. A decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM |
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Definition
C. A decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM |
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Term
With regard to carburetor ice, float type carburetor systems in comparsion to fuel injected systems are generally considered to be...
A. More susceptible to icing
B. Equally susceptible to icing
C. Susceptable to icing only when visible moisture is present |
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Definition
A. More susceptible to icing |
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Term
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause?
A. a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders
B. lower cylinder head temperatures
C. detonation |
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Definition
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Term
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when:
A. the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
B. hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of the normal ignition.
C. the unburned charge in the cylinders explode instead of burning normally. |
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Definition
C. the unburned charge in the cylinders explode instead of burning normally. |
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Term
Detonation may occur at high power settings when:
A. the fuel mixture ignites instantly instead of burning progressively and evenly
B. an excessively rich mixture causes an explosive gain in power
C. the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder |
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Definition
A. the fuel mixture ignites instantly instead of burning progressively and evenly |
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Term
If a pilot suspects that the engine with a fixed pitch propeller is detonating during climb out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to.
A. lean the mixture
B. lower the nose to increase airspeed
C. apply carburetor heat |
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Definition
B. lower the nose to increase airspeed |
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Term
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as:
A. combustion
B. pre-ignition
C. detonation |
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Definition
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Term
Which would be the most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges.
A. Using fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating
B. Using a fuel that has a higher than specified rating
C. operating with a higher than normal oil pressure
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Definition
A. Using fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating |
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Term
What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available.
A. The next higher octane aviation gas
B. The next lower octane aviation gas
C. Unleader automotive gas of the same octane rating. |
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Definition
A. The next higher octane aviation gas |
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Term
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered good procedure because this will
A. Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine
B. prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks
C. prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks. |
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Definition
C. prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks. |
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Term
For internal cooling, reciprocating engines are especially dependent upon
A. a properly functioning thermostat
B. air flowing over the exhaust manifold
C. the circulation of the lubricating oil
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Definition
C. the circulation of the lubricating oil |
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Term
an abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
A. The oil level being too low
B. Operating with too high viscosity oil
C. Operating with an excessively rich mixture
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Definition
A. The oil level being too low |
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Term
What action can a pilot take to air in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb.
A. Reduce the rate of climb and increase airspeed
B. Reduce climb speed and increase RPM
C. Increase climb speed and increase RPM. |
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Definition
A. Reduce the rate of climb and increase airspeed |
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Term
What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating.
A. Enrich the fuel mixture
B. Increase the RPM
C. Reduce the airspeed |
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Definition
A. Enrich the fuel mixture |
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Term
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller.
A. Throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
B. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.
C. the throttle control engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output. |
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Definition
A. Throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM. |
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Term
What is the advantage of a constant speed propeller.
A. permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed
B. permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance
C. provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibration |
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Definition
B. permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance |
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Term
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to
A. avoid high RPM settings with High Manifold pressure settings.
B. avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
C. always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings. |
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Definition
B. avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM. |
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Term
What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine
A. adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
B. Place the magnetos or ignition switch momentarily in the off position to check for proper grounding.
C. Test each brake and the parking brake |
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Definition
A. adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges. |
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Term
Should it become necessary to handprop an airplan engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot
A. Call Contact before touching the propeller
B. be at the controls in the cockpit
C. be in the cockpit and call out all commands. |
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Definition
B. be at the controls in the cockpit |
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Term
Excessively high temperatures either in the air or on the ground will
A. increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat.
B. result in damage to the heat conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans
C. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption and possible internal engine damage.
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Definition
C. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption and possible internal engine damage. |
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Term
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
A. Fuel Strainer drain
B. lowest point in the fuel system
C. fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps. |
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Definition
C. fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps. |
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Term
Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed.
A. V-A
B. V-LO
C. V-NE |
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Definition
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Term
If an altimeter setting is not available before the next flight, to which altitude should be pilot adjust the altimeter
A. The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to MSL
B. The elevation of the departure area
C. The pressue altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature |
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Definition
B. The elevation of the departure area |
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Term
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting
A. The current local altimeter setting, if available or the departure airport elevation.
B. The corrected density altitude of the departure airport
C. The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.
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Definition
A. The current local altimeter setting, if available or the departure airport elevation. |
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Term
If the Pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected.
A. The Altimeter, airspeed indicator and turn and slip indicator.
B. The Altimeter, airspeed indicator and the vertical speed indicator
C. The Altimeter, Attitude indicator and the turn and slip indicator |
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Definition
B. The Altimeter, airspeed indicator and the vertical speed indicator |
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Term
Which instruments will become inoperative if the pitot tube tube becomes clogged.
A. Altimeter
B. Vertical Speed Indicator
C. Airspeed Indicator |
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Definition
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Term
Which instruments will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged.
A. Airspeed Only
B. Altimeter Only
C. Airspeed, Altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator. |
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Definition
C. Airspeed, Altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator. |
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Term
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates:
A. Calibrated altitude at field elevation
B. absolute altitude at field elevation
C. True altitude at field elevation |
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Definition
C. True altitude at field elevation |
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Term
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter.
A. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude
B. Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than the true altitude
C. Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude |
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Definition
A. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude |
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Term
What is true altitude?
A. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level
B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C. The height above the standard datum plane. |
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Definition
A. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level |
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Term
What is absolute altitude?
A. The altitude read directly from the altimeter
B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface
C. The height above the standard datum plane. |
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Definition
B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface |
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Term
What is density altitude?
A. The height above the standard datum plane.
B. The Pressure altitude corrected for non standard tempurature
C. The altitude read directly from the altimeter. |
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Definition
B. The Pressure altitude corrected for non standard tempurature |
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Term
What is pressure altitude?
A. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
B. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92
C. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure. |
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Definition
B. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92 |
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Term
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude
A. If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
B. When at sea level and under standard conditions
C. When at 18000 ft MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92 |
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Definition
B. When at sea level and under standard conditions |
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Term
If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
A. 70 foot increase in indicated altitude
B. 70 foot increase in density altitude
C. 700 foot increase in indicated altitude |
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Definition
C. 700 foot increase in indicated altitude |
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Term
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
A. Altimeter
B. Vertical Speed Indicator
C. Airspeed Indicator
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Definition
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Term
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
A. decrease as the true airspeed decreases
B. decrease as the true airspeed increases.
C. remain the same regardless of altitude |
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Definition
C. remain the same regardless of altitude |
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Term
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
A. Manuevering speed
B. Turbulent or rough air speed
C. Never exceed speed
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Definition
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Term
What is the 'full flap' operating range for the Cessna 172 (no picture avail)
A. 60-100 MPH
B. 60-208 MPH
C. 65-165 MPH |
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Definition
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Term
What is the caution (yellow) range of a Cessna 172
A. 0-60 MPH
B. 100-165 MPH
C. 165-208 MPH |
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Definition
C. 165-208 MPH-- Yellow arc on airspeed indicator |
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Term
What is the maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air.
A. 100 MPH
B. 165 MPH
C. 208 MPH |
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Definition
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Term
Which color identifies the never exceed speed?
A. Lower limit of the yellow arc.
B. Upper limit of the white arc.
C. The red radial line
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Definition
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Term
Which color identifies the power off stalling speed in a specified configuration.
A. Upper limit of the green arc
B. Upper limit of the white arc
C. Lower limit of the green arc |
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Definition
C. Lower limit of the green arc |
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Term
What is the maximum flaps extended speed?
A. 65 MPH
B. 100 MPH
C. 165 MPH
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Definition
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Term
Which color identifies the normal flap operating range.
A. The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc
B. The green arc
C. The white arc |
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Definition
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Term
Which color identifies the power off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing position
A. Upper limit of the green arc
B. Upper limit of the white arc
C. Lower limit of the white arc |
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Definition
C. Lower limit of the white arc |
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Term
What is the maximum structural crusing speed?
A. 100 MPH
B. 165 MPH
C. 208 MPH |
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Definition
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Term
What is an important airspeed indicator that is not color coded on airspeed indicators
A. Never exceed speed
B. Maximum structural cruising speed
C. Manuevering speed |
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Definition
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Term
The turn coordinator provides an indication of the
A. movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis
B. angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30 degrees
C. attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis |
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Definition
A. movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis |
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Term
The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
A. Horizon Bar to the level flight indication
B. horizon bar to the miniature airplane
C. miniature airplane to the horizon bar. |
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Definition
C. miniature airplane to the horizon bar. |
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Term
How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator?
A. By the direction of the deflection of the banking scale
B. By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar
C. by the relationship of the miniature airplane to the deflected horizon bar. |
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Definition
C. by the relationship of the miniature airplane to the deflected horizon bar. |
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Term
Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
A. Presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass
B. difference in the location between true north and magnetic north
C. magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the line of magnetic force. |
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Definition
C. magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the line of magnetic force. |
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Term
In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
A. A left turn is entered from a north heading.
B. a right turn is entered from a north heading.
C. an aircraft is acclerated while on a north heading. |
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Definition
B. a right turn is entered from a north heading. |
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