Term
|
Definition
- frontal plane
- transverse plane
- sagittal plane
|
|
|
Term
List the major subdivisions of the posterior and anterior cavities: |
|
Definition
- Posterior - cranial cavity: brain - spinal cavity: spinal cord
- Anterior - thoracic - abdominopelvic
|
|
|
Term
The thoracic cavity consists of what? |
|
Definition
- right and left pleural cavities (surrounds lungs)
- pericardial cavity (surrounds heart)
- mediastinal (space b/n apex of lungs; contains trachea, esophagus, & major vessels)
|
|
|
Term
The abdominopelvic cavity consists of what? |
|
Definition
- peritoneal (stomach, intestines, spleen, liver, etc)
- peritoneal cavity includes the abdominal cavity (digestive glands & organs) and the pelvic cavity (urinary bladder, reproductive organs, digestive tract)
|
|
|
Term
Characteristics of neuroglia: |
|
Definition
- supporting cells
- protect the neuron
|
|
|
Term
Where do you find neurons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
define multipolar neurons: |
|
Definition
- by far most common or typical structure
- includes interneurons & motor neurons
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- peripheral somatic sensory neurons such as from skin & muscles in limbs
- sensory unipolar carry impulses from receptors (like pain) to CNS (brain or spinal cord)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
restricted to a few special sense organs such as the retina for vision or the olfactory pathway; cell body b/n two axons |
|
|
Term
describe what makes up functional classification: |
|
Definition
- sensory
- motor
- interneuron (only located in CNS, both sensory & motor)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
has many processes but cannot differentiate b/n axons & dendrites |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cell body is off to one side of the axon |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
typically has a single axon & multiple dendrites; most abundant |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- afferent
- sends info from PNS (picks up from receptors) to CNS
- somatic sensory & visceral sensory
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- efferent
- carries info from CNS to effectors of the periphery (like muscle to bring about movement or gland to bring about secretion)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- situated b/n sensory & motor neurons; only in CNS (run up and down)
- analyze sensory input & coordinate motor outputs
- can be excitatory or inhibitory
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the entire process of how neurons function: |
|
Definition
- most have single axon originating from special region of cell body called axon hillock
- axons transmit electrical signals called action potentials from soma toward axon terminal
- when APs reach axon terminal, cause neurotransmitter release
- axons often branch sparsely forming collaterals
- each axon or collateral branches into 10,000 or more terminals ending in synaptic knobs that contain synaptic vesicles (membranous bags of NTs)
|
|
|
Term
A synapse is the junction b/n the axon of one neuron and what else? |
|
Definition
- dendrite of another neuron
- soma of another neuron
- axon of another neuron
- muscle (neuromuscular junction; autonomous)
- gland (sympathetic & parasympathetic)
|
|
|
Term
True or False: Gray and white matter are both located in the PNS and CNS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
gray matter; collections of neuron cell bodies in the PNS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
white matter; bundles of axons in PNS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
gray matter; colelctions of neuron cell bodies in the interior of the CNS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
gray matter on the surface of the brain; CNS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
gray matter; collections of neuron cell bodies in the CNS; each center has specific processing functions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
gray matter; the most complex centers in the brain; CNS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
white matter; bundles of CNS axons that share a common origin & destination |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
white matter; several tracts that form an anatomically distinct mass |
|
|
Term
If you burn your finger, where does the response initially travel? |
|
Definition
the response is felt in a reflex that only travels to the spinal cord; sensation of pain perceived afterward in the brain |
|
|
Term
What are the functions of neuroglia? |
|
Definition
- provide framework for neural tissue
- maintain intercellular environment
- act as phagocytes
- over 100 billion (roughly 5x number of neurons)
- aka glial cells
- have ability to reproduce
|
|
|
Term
List the types of neuroglia cells in the CNS: |
|
Definition
- astrocytes
- oligodendrocytes
- microglia
- ependymal cells
|
|
|
Term
List the types of neuroglia cells in the PNS: |
|
Definition
- satellite cells
- Schwann cells
|
|
|
Term
Satellite cells are comparable and have a similar function to what CNS neuroglia cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Schwann cells are comparable and have a similar function to what CNS neuroglia cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the function of astrocytes: |
|
Definition
- maintain blood-brain barrier
- provide structural support
- regulate ion, nutrient, & dissolved-gas concentrations (control chemical content of interstitial environment)
- absorb & recycle neurotransmitters
- form scar tissue after injury
- large number of cytoplasmic processes
- isolate neurons from general circulation
- most abundant CNS neuroglia
|
|
|
Term
Describe the function of oligodendryocytes: |
|
Definition
- myelinate CNS axons (cytoplasmic extensions tie axons together in sheath of myelin)
- provide structural framework
- cytoplasmic extensions contact somas or axons
|
|
|
Term
Describe the function of microglia: |
|
Definition
- remove cell debris, wastes, & pathogens by phagocytosis
- smallest cells
- defensive cells in CNS
|
|
|
Term
Describe the function of ependymal cells: |
|
Definition
- line ventricles (brain) & central canal (spinal cord) -continuous and communicate, filled with CSF
- assist in producing, circulating, & monitoring cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
- in contact with nerve tissue & contribute to secretion of constantly circulating fluid (line CSF-filled cavities)
|
|
|
Term
Describe the function of satellite cells: |
|
Definition
- surround neuron cell bodies in ganglia
- regulate O2, CO2, nutrient, & neurotransmitter levels around neurons in ganglia (regulate exchange of material b/n cell body & environment)
|
|
|
Term
Describe the function of Schwann cells: |
|
Definition
- surround all axons in PNS
- responsible for myelination of peripheral axons
- participate in repair process after injury
- aka neurolemmocytes
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- capillary
- neuron
- astrocyte
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- myelin sheath
- process of oligodendrocyte
- nerve fibers
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- satellite cells
- cell body of neuron
- Schwann cells (forming myelin sheath)
- nerve fiber
|
|
|
Term
Besides their location in the nervous system, differentiate between oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells: |
|
Definition
- oligodendrocytes have processes that form myelin sheaths around CNS nerve fibers
- Schwann cells only contribute to one axon
- Schwann cells wrap entirely around (even nuclei) while oligodendrocytes do not
|
|
|
Term
Describe the blood brain barrier with respect to permeability: |
|
Definition
the blood barin barrier is selectively permeable |
|
|
Term
Where are nerves located? Tracts? |
|
Definition
nerves located in PNS & tracts located in CNS |
|
|
Term
Nerves vs. Tracts: Characteristics of Nerves: |
|
Definition
- bundles of neurons forming discrete white flat or circular threads visible to naked eye in periphery or PNS
- usually large visible nerves contain both sensory & motor fibers w/n nerve
|
|
|
Term
Nerves vs. Tracts: Characteristics of Tracts: |
|
Definition
- comparable structure to nerves except run w/n CNS
- composed of bundles of axons of interneurons
|
|
|
Term
With respect to directionality, where do nerves run? |
|
Definition
- go in all directions since they can be a mix of sensory & motor nerves
|
|
|
Term
With respect to directionality, where do tracts run? |
|
Definition
- tracts are usually either ascending or descending because they are either sensory or motor
- all fibers w/n are carrying action potential impulses in the same direction
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- sensory
- deliver information to the brain
|
|
|
Term
define descending tracts: |
|
Definition
- motor
- deliver information to the periphery
|
|
|
Term
Describe how tracts are named if the tract name begins with "spino" (as in spinocerebellar): |
|
Definition
the tract is a sensory tract delivering information from the spinal cord to the cerebellum |
|
|
Term
Describe how tracts are named if the tract name ends with "spinal" (as in vestibulospinal): |
|
Definition
the tract is a motor tract that delivers information from the vestibular apparatus to the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
The posterior columns deliver what kind of information? Where does it occur? |
|
Definition
- deliver fine-touch, vibration, pressure, & proprioception info to the primary sensory cortex of the cerebral hemisphere on the opposite side of the body
- crossover occurs in the medulla after a synapse in the nucleus gracilis or nucleus cuneatus
|
|
|
Term
The CNS transmits motor commands in response to sensory information. These motor commands are delivered by what? |
|
Definition
- somatic nervous system (SNS)
- autonomic nervous system (ANS)
|
|
|
Term
The somatic nervous system directs what? |
|
Definition
- directs contraction of skeletal muscles
- corticospinal or pyramidal tracts (if something starts in the cortex it is implied that you have control over it)
|
|
|
Term
the autonomic nervous system directs what? |
|
Definition
- directs the activity of glands, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle
- subconscious motor tracts
|
|
|
Term
Everything you feel/do on purpose originates where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the SNS, an upper motor neuron in the CNS controls a ________________ in the brain stem/spinal cord. The axon of the lower-motor neuron has direct control over ________ __________ fibers. Stimulation of the lower- motor neuron always has an _________ effect on the skeletal muscle fibers. |
|
Definition
In the SNS, an upper motor neuron in the CNS controls a
lower-motor neuron in the brain stem/spinal cord. The axon of the lower-motor neuron has direct control over skeletal muscle fibers. Stimulation of the lower- motor neuron always has an excitatory effect on the skeletal muscle fibers |
|
|
Term
In the ANS, the axon of a preganglionic neuron in the CNS controls ______________ in the periphery. Stimulation of
the ganglionic neurons may lead to _________ or _________ of the visceral effector innervated. |
|
Definition
In the ANS, the axon of a preganglionic neuron in the CNS controls ganglionic neurons in the periphery. Stimulation of the ganglionic neurons may lead to excitation or inhibition of the visceral effector innervated. |
|
|
Term
Each peripheral nerve consists of what connective tissue layers (from outermost to innermost)? Describe each. |
|
Definition
- Epineurium - outer layer that becomes continuous with dura mater
- Perineurium - layer surrounding a fascicle
- Endoneurium - layer surrounding a single axon
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following divisions of the nervous system
carries motor commands to muscles and glands?
1. the afferent division of the central nervous system
2. the afferent division of the peripheral nervous system
3. the efferent division of the central nervous system
4. the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system |
|
Definition
4. the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system |
|
|
Term
Which of the following structures provide pressure,
pain, and temperature sensations?
1. special sensory receptors
2. visceral sensory receptors
3. sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
4. somatic sensory receptors |
|
Definition
4. somatic sensory receptors |
|
|
Term
Sensory neurons of the peripheral nervous
system, which may be myelinated, are usually:
1. multipolar. 2. anaxonic. 3. pseudounipolar. 4. bipolar. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a function of
astrocytes?
1. They perform repairs in damaged neural tissue and contribute to the selective permeability of CNS vasculature.
2. They are phagocytic cells of the CNS, which engulf cellular debris, waste products, and pathogens.
3. They produce myelin, which wraps around axons and functions as an insulator.
4. They are cuboidal cells, which participate in the secretion of cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricles |
|
Definition
1. They perform repairs in damaged neural tissue and contribute to the selective permeability of CNS vasculature. |
|
|
Term
A synapse between neurons may involve a
synaptic terminal and which of the following
structures?
1. dendrite
2. an axon
3. a cell body
4. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the major regions & landmarks of the brain: |
|
Definition
- medulla oblongata
- pons
- cerebellum
- midbrain (mesencephalon)
- diencephalon
- cerebrum (telencephalon)
|
|
|
Term
What portion of the brain is responsible for auditory & visual reflexes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What functions is the cerebrum/telencephalon responsible for? |
|
Definition
- conscious thought processes & intellectual functions
- memory storage & processing
- conscious/subconscious regulation of skeletal muscle contractions
*only conscious portion of the brain* |
|
|
Term
List the subdivisions of the Diencephalon: |
|
Definition
- thalamus
- hypothalamus
- epithalamus
|
|
|
Term
What functions is the thalamus responsible for? |
|
Definition
- relay & processing centers for sensory information
- relays info to cerebrum
|
|
|
Term
What functions is the hypothalamus responsible for? |
|
Definition
- centers controlling emotions
- autonomic functions
- hormone production
- thirst, limbic system, & temperature regulation
- some habitual activity
|
|
|
Term
What functions is the epithalamus responsible for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the subdivisons of the brain stem: |
|
Definition
- mesencephalon/midbrain
- pons
- medulla oblongata
|
|
|
Term
What functions is the midbrain/mesencephalon responsible for? |
|
Definition
- processing of visual & auditory data
- generation of reflexive somatic motor responses
- maintenance of consciousness & alertness
|
|
|
Term
What functions is the pons responsible for? |
|
Definition
- relays sensory info to cerebellum & thalamus
- subconscious somatic & visceral motor centers
|
|
|
Term
What functions is the medulla oblongata responsible for? |
|
Definition
- relays sensory info to thalamus & to other portions of the brain stem
- autonomic centers for regulation of visceral function (cardiovascular, respiratory, & digestive system activities)
|
|
|
Term
What functions is the cerebellum responsible for? |
|
Definition
- coordinates complex somatic motor patterns
- adjusts output of other somatic motor centers in brain & spinal cord (results in smooth operation)
- balance, coordination, posture; key role in fine movements
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- cerebrum
- diencephalon
- thalamus
- hypothalamus
- mesencephalon
- pons
- medulla oblongata
- cerebellum
- fissures
- sulci
- gyri
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inner accummulation of gray matter (neuronal cell bodies) |
|
|
Term
Describe gray & white matter in the cerebrum: |
|
Definition
- inner accummulation of gray matter (basal)
- surrounded by tracts of white matter
- outer region of gray matter (cerebral cortex)
|
|
|
Term
What are the ventricles of the brain filled with? |
|
Definition
filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) |
|
|
Term
What are the names of the four ventricles? Where are they located? |
|
Definition
- Ventricles 1 & 2 (lateral ventricles): in cerebral hemispheres & communicate w/ third ventricle through interventricular foramen
- third ventricle: in diencephalon
- fourth ventricle: lies b/n pons & cerebellum & continues in spinal cord as central canal
aqueduct communicates w/ 3rd & 4th ventricles |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- anterior horns of lateral ventricles
- pons
- medulla oblongata
- cerebellum
- fourth ventricle
- inferior horns of lateral ventricles
- posterior horns of lateral ventricles
- third ventricle
- lateral ventricles
|
|
|
Term
List the protection & support structures of the brain: |
|
Definition
- bones of the skull (parietal, frontal, occipital, & temporal)
- cranial meninges (dura mater, arachnoid mater, & pia mater)
- cerebrospinal fluid
- blood-brain barrier
|
|
|
Term
The Dura Mater consists of what two layers? Describe each. |
|
Definition
- outer endosteal layer (closer to bone): layer felt w/n anterior fontanel (bregma) in an infant
- inner meningeal layer (closer to brain): space b/n 2 layers forms dural sinuses
|
|
|
Term
What types of folds (or reflections) are in the meningeal layer of the dura mater? What is their purpose? |
|
Definition
- falx cerebri
- tentorium cerebelli - roof of cerebellum
- falx cerebelli - separates both hemispheres of cerebellum
- diaphragma sellae
anchorage & support for brain structures |
|
|
Term
Define falx cerebri and its points of attachment: |
|
Definition
- meningeal layer that extends into longitudinal fissure
- inferior/anterior portion attaches tp crista galli
- inferior/posterior portion attaches to internal occipital crest & tentorium cerebelli
|
|
|
Term
Define tentorium cerebelli and its location: |
|
Definition
- separates the cerebellular hemispheres from the cerebral hemispheres
- extends across the cranium at right angles to the falx cerebri
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- extends from the tentorium cerebelli to separate the cerebellar hemispheres
|
|
|
Term
Define diaphragma sellae and its location: |
|
Definition
- lines the sella turcica of sphenoid bone
- it anchors the dura mater to sphenoid bone
- it encases the pituitary gland (hypophysis)
|
|
|
Term
Define arachnoid granulations: |
|
Definition
- projections of the arachnoid mater
- CSF flows through these to enter into blood circulation (through superior sagittal sinus)
|
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of the weblike material underlying the arachnoid layer? |
|
Definition
- the collagenous fibers help anchor cerebral blood vessels
|
|
|
Term
Define pia mater and give its characteristics/function: |
|
Definition
- attached to the surface of the brain (cannot be separated)
- very delicate structure firmly attached nerve tissue
- follows sulci & gyri of brain
- helps to anchor larger blood vessels of cerebrum
|
|
|
Term
What is the function of CSF? |
|
Definition
- provides protection of the brain & spinal cord
- provides support
- transports nutrients to CNS tissue
- transports waste away from CNS
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- produced in brain ventricles by the ependymal cells of choroid plexus
- circulates from ventricles to subarachnoid space & then to superior sagittal sinus (arachnoid granulations) to enter systemic circulation
|
|
|
Term
How do ependymal cells contribute to the function of the choroid plexus? |
|
Definition
- the ependymal cells are selective barrier, actively transporting nutrients, vitamins, & ions into CSF
- cells also actively remove ions or compounds from CSF to stabilize its composition
|
|
|
Term
List the entire step by step process of how CSF is circulated: |
|
Definition
- CSF from choroid plexus of lateral ventricles
- flows through interventricular foramen
- flows into third ventricle
- flows into aqueduct of midbrain
- flows into fourth ventricle
- through lateral aperature & median aperature & central canal of spinal cord
- flows into subarachnoid space
- flows around brain & spinal cord eventually enters circulation via arachnoid granulations
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- superior sagittal sinus
- arachnoid granulation
- falx cerebri
- subarachnoid space
- pia mater
- dura mater
|
|
|
Term
The lining of the blood vessels consists of _________ cells that are highly interconnected by ______ _________. |
|
Definition
endothelial; tight junctions |
|
|
Term
What is the function of the blood brain barrier? |
|
Definition
- restricts the type of substances that can pass from the blood to the CNS (lipids by diffusion & hydrophilic through specific transport systems)
- protects brain from many hormones & circulating chemicals
|
|
|
Term
What do the astrocyte food processes secrete? |
|
Definition
paracrines that promote tight junction formation |
|
|
Term
Tight junctions prevent...? |
|
Definition
solute movement b/n endothelial cells |
|
|
Term
Describe the process that occurs when a conscious decision is made to perform a specific movement: |
|
Definition
Information is relayed from frontal lobes to motor association areas, which in turn relay info to cerebellum & basal nuclei |
|
|
Term
Describe the process that occurs when the movement of information occurs: |
|
Definition
motor association areas send instructions to primary motor cortex --> feedback from basal nuclei & cerebellum modifies commands --> output along conscious & subconscious pathways direct involuntary adjustments |
|
|
Term
All communication b/n the brain & spinal cord passees through what? |
|
Definition
the medulla oblongata (which is continuous with the spinal cord to the brain stem) |
|
|
Term
Nuclei in the medulla oblongata are: |
|
Definition
relay stations for sensory or motor pathways |
|
|
Term
The medulla oblongata contains sensory & motor nuclei of what cranial nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The major centers of autonomic nuclei for the medulla oblongata include what? |
|
Definition
- cardiovascular centers (cardiac & vasomotor)
- respiratory centers (rhythmic breathing)
|
|
|
Term
What is the pons and where is it located? |
|
Definition
the pons is a prominent bulge superior to the medulla oblongata |
|
|
Term
The pons contains which sensory & motor nuclei for cranial nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pons contains nuclei that relay cerebellar commands through what? |
|
Definition
through the cerebellar peduncles (tracts going in and out; going into cerebellum) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- descending tracts
- ascending tracts
- medulla oblongata
- reticular formation
- fourth ventricle
- cerebellum
|
|
|
Term
The two pairs of nuclei located in the mesencephalon are collectively called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The midbrain has nuclei from what cranial nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Besides the corpora quadrigemina & the cranial nerves III & IV nuclei, what are some other important structures of the midbrain? |
|
Definition
reticular formation, red nucleus, substantia nigra, & cerebral peduncles |
|
|
Term
The Corpora quadrigemina is responsible for what type of processing? Where does each type occur? |
|
Definition
- Responsible for processing auditory and visual stimuli
- Auditory processing occurs in the inferior colliculus
- Visual processing occurs in the superior colliculus
|
|
|
Term
Reticular formation is involved in what? |
|
Definition
involved in maintaining alertness |
|
|
Term
Cerebral peduncles have ascending fibers that synapse in the _________ and descending fibers of the ___________ __________. |
|
Definition
Cerebral peduncles have ascending fibers that synapse in the thalamus and descending fibers of the corticospinal pathway. |
|
|
Term
The epithalalmus forms the roof what ventricle and contains which gland? |
|
Definition
- forms roof of third ventricle
- contains pineal gland
|
|
|
Term
What is the function of the pineal gland in the epithalamus? |
|
Definition
- produces the hormone melatonin
- regulates our day/night cycles
|
|
|
Term
The thalams forms the walls of what ventricle? How are its nuclei shaped? |
|
Definition
- Forms the walls of the third ventricle
- There is a right and a left thalamus
- Thalamic nuclei are egg-shaped
thalamus relays info to cerebrum & processes sensory info
|
|
|
Term
In which two locations of the brain is the blood-brain barrier NOT functioning? Why? |
|
Definition
- the hypothalamus & the choroid plexus where CSF is secreted
- the hypothalamus has to be able to sense different types of blood composition & be able to insert various components into the blood
|
|
|
Term
The hypothalamus forms the floor of what ventricle and consists of numerous nuclei that control what kinds of functions? |
|
Definition
- Forms the floor of the third ventricle
- controls different autonomic functions (heart rate, blood pressure, temp.)
- also involved in emotions, thirst, some "habitual" activity
|
|
|
Term
The hypothalamus connects to the pituitary gland through what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The two hemispheres of the cerebellum are separated by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cerebellum also conists of what significant structures? |
|
Definition
- Folia (folds similar to gyri of the cerebrum)
- Anterior and posterior lobes
- Flocculonodular lobes
- Arbor vitae
- Cerebellar peduncles
|
|
|
Term
What type of cells are large neurons found in the cerebellar cortex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cerebellar cortex is responsible for what? |
|
Definition
subconscious coordination of movements |
|
|
Term
The Arbor vitae connects what two structures? |
|
Definition
the cerebellar cortex with cerebellar peduncles (peduncles can be superior, middle, or inferior) |
|
|
Term
The cerebrum consists of two hemispheres (right & left) separated by what structure and communicated by the...? |
|
Definition
separated by the longitudinal fissue & communicated by the corpus callosum |
|
|
Term
What are the four lobes of the cerebrum that are "defined" by sulci and responsible for different functions? |
|
Definition
- frontal
- parietal
- occipital
- temporal
|
|
|
Term
The cerebrum has protuberances and indentations. What are these called? |
|
Definition
- protuberances - gyri
- indentations - sulci
|
|
|
Term
Which lobe is not seen from the surface of the cerebrum and is known as the "5th" cerebral lobe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three sulci of the cerebrum? What does each separate or define? |
|
Definition
- Central sulcus: separates frontal and parietal lobes
- Lateral sulcus: define temporal lobes
- Parieto-occipital sulcus: define occipital lobe
|
|
|
Term
function of the frontal lobe: |
|
Definition
conscious (motor) control of skeletal muscles |
|
|
Term
function of occipital lobe: |
|
Definition
perception of visual stimuli |
|
|
Term
function of parietal lobe: |
|
Definition
conscious perception of touch, pressure, vibration, pain, temperature, & taste (sensory cortex) |
|
|
Term
function of temporal lobe: |
|
Definition
conscious perception of auditory and olfactory stimuli |
|
|
Term
Describe the function and location of the precentral gyrus: |
|
Definition
- primary motor cortex; neurons direct voluntary movements
- located in the frontal lobe
- anterior to central gyrus
|
|
|
Term
Describe the function and location of the postcentral gyrus: |
|
Definition
- primary sensory cortex; neurons receive somatic sensory info for touch, pressure, pain, taste, & temp.
- located in the parietal lobe
- posterior to central gyrus
|
|
|
Term
The cerebral hemispheres contain what three basic regions? |
|
Definition
- superficial cerebral cortex of gray matter
- internal white matter
- basal nuclei
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
islands/masses of gray matter situated deep within the white matter inferior to the lateral ventricles \ |
|
|
Term
Primary sensory areas receive a specific sensory information and ________ ______ integrate this information to interpret the received sensory information (i.e. learning). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of association areas? |
|
Definition
initiate our conscious wishes; integrate sensory & motor information for learning & planning |
|
|
Term
The left hemisphere specializes in...? |
|
Definition
speech, writing, language, mathematics |
|
|
Term
The right hemisphere specializes in...? |
|
Definition
analysis by touch, spatial visualization |
|
|
Term
What are the three types of white matter in the CNS? |
|
Definition
- association fibers
- commissural fibers
- projection fibers
(all consist of bundles of axons)
|
|
|
Term
Define association fibers: |
|
Definition
- tracts that interconnect areas of neural cortex within a hemisphere
- examples: arcuate fibers and longitudinal fasciculi
|
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|
Term
Define commissural fibers: |
|
Definition
- tracts that connect the two hemispheres
- examples: anterior commissure and corpus callosum
|
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|
Term
Define projection fibers: |
|
Definition
- tracts that link the cerebrum with other regions of the brain and spinal cord
- example: corticospinal tracts
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of the limbic system? |
|
Definition
- includes several functionally & anatomically interconnected structures from diencephalon & cerebrum
- establishes emotional states (behavior)
- links conscious functions w/ unconscious autonomic functions
- faciliates memory storage & retrieval
- instinct & reaction
|
|
|
Term
List the components of the limbic system: |
|
Definition
- Thalamus
- Hypothalamus
- Cingulate gyrus
- Amygdala
- Hippocampus
- Basal Ganglia
|
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements regarding cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is true?
1. The microglial cells secrete CSF into the ventricles.
2. The ependymal lining is freely permeable throughout the entire CNS
3. Although CSF is derived from plasma, it is not merely a simple filtrate of blood. |
|
Definition
3.
ependymal cells secrete CSF; ependymal lining not freely permeable throughout entire CSF b/c choroid plexus has tight junctions |
|
|
Term
The cerebral cortex is linked to the diencephalon, brain stem, cerebellum, and spinal cord through which of the following
structures?
1. association fibers
2. projection fibers
3. commissural fibers
4. longitudinal fasciculi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which lobe of the cerebrum is the primary motor cortex?
1. frontal lobe
2. parietal lobe
3. temporal lobe
4. occipital lobe |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements regarding the postcentral gyrus are true? (Select 2)
1. It is found in the frontal lobe. 2. It is found in the parietal lobe. 3. Its surface contains the primary motor cortex. 4. Its surface contains the primary sensory cortex.
|
|
Definition
2. It is found in the parietal lobe.
4. Its surface contains the primary sensory cortex. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following functional deficits may occur in an individual with a damaged visual association area?
a. Letters appear extremely blurry, but the person can read with corrective lenses.
b. Written letters and words can be understood, but the person cannot read.
c. An individual can scan the lines of a printed page, and see rows of clear symbols that convey no meaning.
d. The eyes cannot follow the lines on a printed page. |
|
Definition
c. An individual can scan the lines of a printed page, and see rows of clear symbols that convey no meaning. |
|
|
Term
Which thalamic structure(s) projects visual information to the visual cortex of the occipital lobe?
- corpus callosum
- lateral geniculate nuclei
- ventral posterior nuclei
- basal ganglia
|
|
Definition
2. lateral geniculate nuclei |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements regarding the epithalamus is true?
a. It is the site of concentration of most of the neural tissue in the diencephalon.
b. The interthalamic adhesion (massa intermedia) extends into the third ventricle from the epithalamus on either side.
c. The posterior portion of the epithalamus contains the pineal gland, an endocrine structure that secretes melatonin.
d. It controls heart rate and blood pressure via regulation of autonomic centers in the medulla oblongata. |
|
Definition
c. The posterior portion of the epithalamus contains the pineal gland, an endocrine structure that secretes melatonin. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a function of the mesencephalon (or midbrain)?
a. It is responsible for the conscious control of skeletal muscles.
b. It modifies the output of respiratory centers in the medulla oblongata.
c. It contains centers involved with emotions and visceral processes, and controls autonomic function.
d. It processes visual and auditory information and generates reflexive responses to these stimuli (corpora quadrigemina). |
|
Definition
d. It processes visual and auditory information and generates reflexive responses to these stimuli (corpora quadrigemina). |
|
|
Term
List the parasympathetic cranial nerves: |
|
Definition
oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), &
vagus (X) |
|
|
Term
What are the 12 cranial nerves responsible for? |
|
Definition
- nerves innervate the periphery emerging from brain (CN XI has cranial & spinal roots)
- can be visualized on ventrolateral surface of brain
- numbered from 1 to XII beginning at anterior aspect of brain (olfactory I)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- olfactory bulb (termination of CN I)
- olfactory tract
- optic chiasm
- optic nerve (CN II)
- oculomotor nerve (CN III)
- trochlear nerve (CN IV)
- trigeminal nerve (CN V)
- abducens nerve (CN VI)
- facial nerve (CN VII)
- vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
- glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
- vagus nerve (CN X)
- hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
- accessory nerve (CN XI)
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the olfactory nerve (I)? |
|
Definition
- function: sensory (smell)
- origin: olfactory epithelium
- foramen: olfactory foramina (cribiform plate ethmoid bone)
- destination: olfactory bulbs
|
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|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the optic nerve (II)? |
|
Definition
- function: special sensory; vision
- origin: retina
- foramen: optic canal (sphenoid bone)
- destination: diencephalon (from lateral geniculate nucleus in thalamus) to visual cortex (occipital lobe)
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the oculomotor nerve (III)? |
|
Definition
- function: controls extra-ocular eye muscles & intrinsic muscles of eye
- origin: mesencephalon (parasympathetic nucleus & somatic subnuclei)
- foramen: superior orbital fissure
- destination: extra-ocular eye muscles, ciliary body, iris sphincter
|
|
|
Term
Which extra-ocular muscles & intrinsic muscles of the eye is the oculomotor nerve responsible for? |
|
Definition
- motor function (also proprioceptive; sensory)
- superior, inferior, & medial rectus
- inferior oblique
- levator palpebrae superioris
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the trochlear nerve (IV)? |
|
Definition
- function: control SO EOM (motor function, also proprioceptive; sensory)
- origin: nucleus in mesencephalon; exits midbrain from dorsal aspect
- foramen: enters orbit through superior orbital fissure
- destination: SO EOM
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the first branch of the trigeminal nerve (V1)?
(CN V has a mixed sensory & motor function) |
|
Definition
OPHTHALMIC
- function: sensations from forehead, eyelids, & nose
- origin: semilunar ganglion (sensory from 3 branches)
- foramen: exits through superior orbital fissure
- destination: pons (from semilunar sensory ganglion)
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the second branch of the trigeminal nerve (V2)?
(CN V has a mixed sensory & motor function) |
|
Definition
MAXILLARY
- function: sensations from lower eyelid, upper lip, & cheek
- origin: semilunar ganglion (sensory from 3 branches)
- foramen: foramen rotundum
- destination: pons (from semilunar sensory ganglion)
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the third branch of the trigeminal nerve (V3)?
(CN V has a mixed sensory & motor function) |
|
Definition
MANDIBULAR
- function: sensory & motor (muscles of mastication)
- origin: motor nucleus in pons (for motor branch in mandibular)
- foramen: foramen ovale
- destination: mandibular muscles
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the abducens nerve (VI)? |
|
Definition
- function: abducts eye (move away from midline); motor function (proprioceptive; sensory)
- origin: motor nucleus in pons (exits brain stem b/n pons & medulla)
- foramen: superior orbital fissure
- destination: innervates LR EOM
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the sensory portion of the facial nerve (VII)? |
|
Definition
- function: sensory - sensations from face/taste anterior 2/3rds of tongue.
- origin: sensory - taste buds > geniculate ganglion > nucleus solitarious (pons) > thalamus > cerebral cortex (temporal lobe)
- foramen: internal acoustic meatus (together w/ CN VIII); exits cranium through stylomastoid foramen
- destination: sp. sensory - (taste); pons (n. solitarious).
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the motor & parasympathetic portions of the facial nerve (VII)? |
|
Definition
- function: motor - controls muscles of facial expression...parasymp. fibers - lacrimal gland & others
- origin: motor - nucleus in pons
- foramen: internal acoustic meatus (together w/ CN VIII); exits cranium through stylomastoid foramen
- destination: motor - muscles of facial expression...motor visceral - lacrimal gland (pteriogopalatine-ps ganglion) or sublingual & submandibular salivary glands (submandibular-ps ganglion)
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, & foramen of the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)? |
|
Definition
- Function: Special sensory: balance (vestibular) and hearing (cochlear)
- Origin: receptors of the vestibule & cochlea in inner ear
- Foramen: internal acoustic meatus
|
|
|
Term
What is the destination of the vestibular nucleus and cochlear nucleus of the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)? |
|
Definition
destination: pons and medulla
- Vestibular nucleus: pons & medulla oblongata > cerebellum/CN VI nucleus/midbrain (including CN III & IV & superior colliculus) > eventually will reach cerebral cortex
- Cochlear nucleus: in medulla > sup. olivary nucleus (medulla) > inferior colliculus (midbrain) > thalamus > cerebral cortex (temporal lobe)
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the sensory & carotid body/sinus portions of the Glossopharyneal nerve (CN IX): |
|
Definition
- Function: Mixed (sensory and motor) - Sensory function: tongue pain and taste...Carotid body & sinus -(blood pressure and gas content)
- Origin: Sensory - posterior 1/3 of the tongue...carotid body & sinus - common carotid (artery) bifurcation
- Foramen: exits through jugular foramen (together with CNs X and XI and internal jugular vein)
- Destination: Sensory - nuclei in medulla oblongata
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the motor portion of the Glossopharyneal nerve (CN IX): |
|
Definition
- function: motor function - swallowing...Visceral motor - parasympathetic
- origin: Motor - nuclei in the medulla oblongata
- foramen: exits through jugular foramen (together with CNs X and XI and internal jugular vein)
- destination: Visceral motor: parotid salivary gland (otic-parasympathetic-ganglion)...Somatic motor - pharyngeal muscles for swallowing
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the sensory portion of the vagus nerve (X)? |
|
Definition
- function: visceral sensory- info from organs & from different regions in head and neck (including taste)
- origin: sensory- from most organs in thoracic & abdominal cavities, tongue, pharynx
- foramen: exits the skull through jugular foramen
- destination: visceral sensory - autonomic centers of the medulla oblongata
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the motor portion of the vagus nerve (X)? |
|
Definition
- function: motor visceral (ps) - sends info to organs (respiration, cardiovascular, digestive, excretory)...somatic motor - to pharynx and palate (deglutition)
- origin: motor - nucleus in medulla oblongata
- foramen: exits the skull through jugular foramen
- destination: somatic motor - muscles of palate & pharynx...visceral motor - respiratory, cardiovascular, & digestive organs
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the accessory nerve (XI)? |
|
Definition
- function: motor - controls the sternocleidomastoid, trapezius, palate, pharynx, & larynx muscles
- origin: spinal cord & medulla oblongata (internal)
- foramen: exits through jugular foramen
- destination: internal branch - muscles of palate, pharynx, & larynx...external branch - sternocleidomastoid & trapezius
|
|
|
Term
What is the function, origin, foramen, & destination of the hypoglossal nerve (XII)? |
|
Definition
- function: motor - controls tongue movement
- origin: motor nucleus in medulla oblongata
- foramen: exits skull through hypoglossal canal
- destination: tongue muscles
|
|
|
Term
Which nerves are "purely" sensory? Motor? Mixed? |
|
Definition
- sensory: I, II, and VIII
- motor: III, IV, VI, XI, and XII
- mixed: V, VII, and IX
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|
|
Term
Which nerve is the only nerve to leave the head & neck region? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cranial nerve mediates (i.e. efferent pathway) for pupil constriction & lens accommodation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cranial nerves contain their motor nuclei in the midbrain? (select two) |
|
Definition
oculomotor (III) and trochlear (IV) |
|
|
Term
if someone could not produce tears, which CN may be damaged? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which CN carries the afferent component of the pupillary light reflex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which CN is responsible for mastication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Damage to these 2 nerves could cause impairment in swallowing and taste. (Select 2) |
|
Definition
glossopharyngeal (IX) and vagus (X) |
|
|
Term
Which ganglion is located posterolateral to the optic nerve inside the orbit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The facial nerve (N VII) carries preganglionic autonomic fibers to the ______ ganglion, from which postganglionic fibers leave to innervate some of the salivary glands. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- ciliary ganglion
- submandibular ganglion
- pterygopalatine ganglion
- otic ganglion
- semilunar ganglion
|
|
|
Term
Which cranial nerve passes through the foramen ovale of the skull? |
|
Definition
mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (N V) |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements regarding the accessory nerve (N XI) is true? |
|
Definition
It differs from other cranial nerves in that some of its motor fibers originate in the cervical region of the spinal cord. |
|
|
Term
Which cranial nerve has its origin in the motor nuclei of the medulla oblongata? |
|
Definition
hypoglossal nerve (N XII) |
|
|
Term
The information from the receptors of the carotid bodies travels via which cranial nerve to trigger reflexive adjustments in respiratory and cardiovascular activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Regarding olfactory pathways, axons of which neurons in the olfactory bulb travel within the olfactory tract to reach the olfactory cortex, the hypothalamus, and portions of the limbic system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is (are) a function(s) of the two vestibular nuclei? |
|
Definition
They integrate sensory information concerning balance and equilibrium arriving from each side of the head. |
|
|
Term
Which cranial nerves pass through the jugular foramen of the skull, between the occipital and temporal bones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are the brain and spinal cord comparable? |
|
Definition
- make up the CNS
- both integrate & process information
- can function w/ each other or independently
|
|
|
Term
What are the major features of the spinal cord? |
|
Definition
- 45 cm in length
- passes through foramen magnum
- extends from end of medulla oblongata to first lumbar vertebra (L1)
|
|
|
Term
The spinal cord is divided into what 5 regions? |
|
Definition
- cervical region
- thoracic region
- lumbar region
- sacral region
- coccygeal region
|
|
|
Term
In each of the spinal cord regions, there are significant features present. Name these defining features. |
|
Definition
- cervical enlargement
- lumbosacral enlargement
- conus medullaris
- filum terminale
- posterior median sulcus & anterior median fissure
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- dorsal root
- dorsal root ganglion
- central canal
- spinal nerve
- ventral root
- gray matter
- white matter
C3 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the end of the spinal cord? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
"bunch of nerves"; continuation of the cord inferior to the conus medullaris |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
fibrous tissue strand that extends from the apex of the conus medullaris and along the vertebral canal (becomes a component of the coccygeal ligament) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- conus medullaris of spinal cord
- cauda equina
- sacrum
- filum terminale
|
|
|
Term
From a transverse view, what are the features of the spinal cord? |
|
Definition
- White matter
- Gray matter
- Central canal
- Dorsal root & ventral root - merge to form a spinal nerve
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- sensory
- axons extend from the neuron cell body located in the dorsal root ganglion
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- composed of motor axons that extend from nuclei located in the (spinal) ventral & lateral horns
|
|
|
Term
true or false: spinal nerves are mixed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the sensory & motor components of the spinal nerves? |
|
Definition
Sensory components (afferent fibers from dorsal roots)
- Transmit impulses toward the spinal cord
Motor components (efferent fibers from ventral roots)
- Transmit impulses from spinal cord to periphery (muscles, blood vessels and glands)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Specialized membranes that provide protection, physical stability, and shock absorption to the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of the spinal meninges: |
|
Definition
- continuous with cranial (cerebral) meninges
- help anchor the spinal cord in position
- made of three layers
|
|
|
Term
What are the three layers of the spinal meninges? |
|
Definition
- Dura mater: tough, fibrous outermost layer
- Arachnoid mater: middle layer
- Pia mater: innermost layer
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- loose CT & periosteum of cranium
- epicranial aponeurosis
- scalp
- cerebral cortex (covered by pia mater)
- arachnoid mater
- subarachnoid space
- dura mater
- cranium
|
|
|
Term
Where is gray matter located and what does it conist of? |
|
Definition
- central canal
- consists of somas (cell bodies) surrounding the central canal
|
|
|
Term
Where is white matter located, what does it consist of, and what is it organized into? |
|
Definition
- located outside the gray matter area
- consists of axons
- nerves are organized into tracts or columns
|
|
|
Term
Somas (gray matter in the spinal cord) are organized into groups called what? What are its two types? |
|
Definition
somas are organized into groups called nuclei (either sensory or motor) |
|
|
Term
What gray matter would you find if a transverse view of the spinal cord were to be taken? What kind of nuclei makes up each of these parts? |
|
Definition
- posterior (dorsal) gray horns: somatic sensory & visceral nuclei
- lateral gray horns: visceral motor nuclei
- anterior (ventral) gray horns: somatic motor nuclei
- gray commissure: encloses central canal & connects gray matter on both sides of cord
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|
|
Term
Columns convey one of two types of tracts. What are these tracts? |
|
Definition
- sensory tracts (ascending tracts)
- motor tracts (descending tracts)
|
|
|
Term
Damage to the dorsal root of the T1 spinal nerve will interfere with which of the following?
1. Innervation of skeletal muscles in the upper limb
2. Innervation of sweet glands upper limb
3. General sensory innervation of the upper limb
4. All the above |
|
Definition
3. General sensory innervation of the upper limb |
|
|
Term
What is found inside a dorsal root ganglion of a spinal nerve? (Select 2 answers)
1. Astrocytes
2. Cell bodies of unipolar sensory neurons
3. Cerebrospinal fluid
4. Ependymal cells
5. Oligodendrocytes
6. Satellite cells |
|
Definition
2. Cell bodies of unipolar sensory neuron
6. Satellite cells |
|
|
Term
How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? |
|
Definition
31 pairs of spinal nerves
- 8 cervical
- 12 thoracic
- 5 lumbar
- 5 sacral
- 1 coccygeal
|
|
|
Term
All spinal nerves have what two branches? The exceptions to this rule are which spinal nerves? What do they have in addition to the two branches? |
|
Definition
- all spinal nerves have dorsal ramus & ventral ramus
- spinal nerves from T1-L2 have four branches: dorsal ramus, ventral ramus, white ramus, & gray ramus
|
|
|
Term
Differentiate between the rami communicantes of white ramus and gray ramus: |
|
Definition
white ramus: sympathetic preganglionic & myelinated fiber that leaves the spinal nerve & enters paravertebral sympathetic ganglionic chain
gray ramus: sympathetic postganglionic & unmyelinated fiber that returns to the spinal nerve from the sympathetic ganglion
|
|
|
Term
What is the difference between postganglionic and preganglionic fibers: |
|
Definition
- postganglionic fibers: has capability to do something
- preganglionic fibers: must make synapse in ganglion; can't secrete, contract, etc.
|
|
|
Term
What is the difference between the dorsal ramus and the ventral ramus? |
|
Definition
the dorsal ramus
- supplies back; mixed (note: sensory dorsal roots)
- sensory innervation from afferent & motor innervation to efferent regions in neck and back
the ventral ramus
- supplies ventral aspects of body; mixed (note: motor ventral roots)
- sensory innervation from & motor commands to regions in ventrolateral body surface, body wall, & limbs
|
|
|
Term
Where are the white and gray ramus located? What are they collectively called? What do they contain/innervate? |
|
Definition
- spinal nerves T1-L2
- white and gray ramus are collectively called rami communicantes
- contain motor sympathetic fibers to innervate smooth muscles & glands in limbs & body walls
- sympathetic innervation to viscera in body cavities will be through splanchnic nerves
|
|
|
Term
List the entire pathway that a somatic motor command travels: |
|
Definition
somatic motor > ventral root > spinal nerve > white ramus ...
(a) preganglionic fiber to sympathetic ganglia innervating abdominopelvic viscera
(b) sympathetic ganglion > ...
(1) postganglionic fibers to smooth muscles, glands, visceral organs in thoracic cavity
(2) gray ramus to postganglionic fibers to smooth muscles, glands, etc. of back or body wall & limbs |
|
|
Term
List the entire pathway that a visceral motor command travels: |
|
Definition
visceral motor > ventral root > spinal nerve > ...
(a) ventral ramus > to skeletal muscles of body wall & limbs
(b) dorsal ramus > to skeletal muscles of back |
|
|
Term
List the entire pathway a sensory visceral sensation travels: |
|
Definition
(a) from interoceptors of visceral organs > rami communicantes > dorsal root ganglion > dorsal root > somatic sensory
(b) from interoceptors of body wall, limbs > ventral ramus > dorsal root ganglion > dorsal root > somatic sensory
(c) from interoceptors of back > dorsal ramus > dorsal root ganglion > dorsal > somatic sensory
|
|
|
Term
List the entire pathway a sensory somatic sensation travels: |
|
Definition
(a) from exteroceptors, peoprioceptors of boday wall, limbs > ventral ramus > dorsal root ganglion > dorsal root > somatic sensory
(b) from exteroceptors, proprioceptors of back > dorsal ramus > dorsal root ganglion > dorsal root > somatic sensory |
|
|
Term
Sensory impulses travel in the spinal nerve through the _____ ______ to the spinal cord. |
|
Definition
Sensory impulses travel in the spinal nerve through the dorsal root to the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
Dorsal root ganglia contain the cell bodies of what kind of unipilar neurons? Axons from these neurons enter the cord to...? |
|
Definition
- Dorsal root ganglia contain the cell bodies of (unipolar) somatic & visceral sensory neurons
- axons from these sensory neurons enter the cord to:
(a) synapse in sensory nuclei present in gray matter of spine
(b) enter afferent spinal tracts (white matter) to reach brain |
|
|
Term
The posterior columns deliver what information to where? |
|
Definition
The posterior columns deliver fine-touch, vibration, and proprioception information to the primary sensory cortex of the cerebral hemisphere on the opposite side of the body. |
|
|
Term
Since the posterior columns deliver information to the primary sensory cortex of the cerebral hemisphere on the opposite side of the body, a crossover must occur. Where does this crossover occur? |
|
Definition
The crossover occurs in the medula, after a synapse in the nucleus gracilis or nucleus cuneatus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
each pair of spinal nerves collects sensory information from specific surface areas |
|
|
Term
Why are dermatomes clinically important areas? |
|
Definition
- basis for referred pain
- herpes zoster manifestation
- loss of sensation associated to nerve injury or anesthesia during surgery
|
|
|
Term
What are the cell bodies (gray matter) in the spinal cord (aka list the types of horns): |
|
Definition
- dorsal horns: sensory neurons
- lateral horns: visceromotor - thoracolumbar (sympathetic) or sacral (parasympathetic)
- ventral horns: somatic motor
|
|
|
Term
Differentiate b/n dorsal roots & dorsal rami: |
|
Definition
- dorsal roots - sensory (somatic & visceral) afferent information
- dorsal rami (of spinal nerve) - sensory & motor to the posterior aspects of the body
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Term
Differentiate b/n ventral roots & ventral rami: |
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Definition
- ventral roots: motor (somatic & visceral) efferent commands
- ventral rami (of spinal nerve): sensory & motor to the anterior aspects of the body
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Term
Define rami communicantes: |
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Definition
sympathetic fibers leaving (white) & re-entering (gray ramus) the spinal cord |
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Term
What are the four nerve plexuses? |
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Definition
- cervical plexus
- brachial plexus
- lumbar plexus
- sacal plexus
(sometimes lumbar & sacral combined to form lumbosacral plexus) |
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Term
What does the cervical plexus consist of and what does the cutaneous portion innervate? |
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Definition
- C1-C5
- consists of cutaneous & muscular branches
- cutaneous branches innervate head, neck, & chest
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Term
What do the muscular branches of the cervical plexus innervate? |
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Definition
- Omohyoid, sternohyoid, geniohyoid, thyrohyoid
- Sternothyroid
- Scalenes
- Sternocleidomastoid
- Levator scapulae
- Trapezius
- Diaphragm (controlled by the phrenic nerve of the cervical plexus)
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Term
Summarize the spinal nerves by listing what each section emerges from: |
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Definition
- cervical spinal nerves emerge from C1-C8
- thoracic s.n. emerge from T1-T12
- lumbar s.n. emerge from L1-L5
- sacral s.n. emerge from S1-S5
- coccygeal s.n. emerge from Co1
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Term
|
Definition
- cervical plexus
- brachial plexus
- lumbar plexus
- sacral plexus
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Term
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Definition
an immediate involuntary response |
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Term
|
Definition
- the neural "wiring" of a single reflex
- begins at sensory receptor & ends @ peripheral receptor
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Term
List the complete pathway of a reflex arc: |
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Definition
- arrival of stimulus & activation of sensory receptor
- relay of info to CNS & activation of sensory neuron
- information processing in CNS
- activation of motor neuron
- response by effector
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Term
Reflexes can by classified by what four things? |
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Definition
- development
- response
- complexity of circuit
- processing site
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Term
What are the two subdivsions of the development classification for reflexes? |
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Definition
- innate reflexes: genetically determined
- acquired reflexes: learned
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Term
What are the two subdivsions of the response classification for reflexes? |
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Definition
- somatic reflexes: control skeletal muscle contractions & include superficial & stretch reflexes
- visceral (autonomic) reflexes: control actions of smooth & cardiac muscles & glands
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Term
What are the two subdivsions of the complexity of circuit classification for reflexes? |
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Definition
- monosynaptic: one synapse
- polysynaptic: multiple synapses (two to several hundred)
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Term
What are the two subdivsions of the processing site classification for reflexes? |
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Definition
- spinal reflexes: processing in the spinal cord
- cranial reflexes: processing in the brain
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Term
Which structure of the spinal cord contains somatic and visceral sensory nuclei?
1. anterior (ventral) gray horn
2. lateral white column
3. posterior (dorsal) gray horn
4. posterior white column |
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Definition
3. posterior (dorsal) gray horn |
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Term
What is the function of the autonomic nervous system? |
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Definition
- regulates body temperature
- coordinates cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, excretory, & reproductive functions
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Term
Where does the ANS function? |
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Definition
the ANS functions outside of our conscious awareness & makes routine adjustments in our body's systems |
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Term
Compare/Contrast the Autonomic vs. Somatic nervous systems: |
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Definition
Autonomic NS
-axons innervate visceral organs, smooth muscle, & glands
-has afferent & efferent neurons
-afferent pathways originate in visceral receptors
Somatic NS
-axons innervate skeletal muscles (motor)
-has afferent & efferent neurons
-afferent pathways originate in skeletal muscles, skin, mucosal membranes, etc. |
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Term
The ANS conisists of what two major subdivisions? Describe each. |
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Definition
- sympathetic division - also called thoracolumbar division; known as "fight or flight" system
- parasympathetic division - also called craniosacral division; known as "rest & repose" system
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Term
At the thoracic and lumbar levels, the visceral efferent fibers that emerge form the ____________ division. |
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Definition
At the thoracic and lumbar levels, the visceral efferent fibers that emerge form the sympathetic division. |
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Term
At the cranial and sacral levels, the visceral efferent fibers from the CNS form the ______________ division. |
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Definition
At the cranial and sacral levels, the visceral efferent fibers from the CNS form the parasympathetic division. |
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Term
Where are the sympathetic ganglion located and what does sympathetic activation result in? |
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Definition
- Thoracic and upper lumbar nerves synapse in ganglia near the spinal cord (paravertebral sympathetic ganglia/sympathetic trunk0
- sympathetic activation results in increased metabolism & alertness
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Term
The parasympathetic ganglia are located where and what does parasympathetic activation result in? |
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Definition
- ganglia are located near the target organ
- parasympathetic activation results in energy conservation
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Term
Compare & Contrast the preganglionic & postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic & parasympathetic divisions of the ANS: |
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Definition
- for both - all preganglionic fibers release acetylcholine (stimulatory effects)
- Sympathetic division - most postganglionic fibers release norepinephrine (stimulatory effects)
- Parasympathetic division - postganglionic fibers release acetylcholine (inhibitory effects)
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Term
List the entire process a parasympathetic impulse would travel: |
|
Definition
craniosacral division > preganglionic neurons in brain stem & in lateral portion of anterior gray horns S2-S4 > ganglia in or near target organs (preganglionic fibers release excitatory ACh stimulating ganglionic neurons > target organs (all postganglionic fibers release ACh at neuroeffector junction > "rest & repose" response |
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Term
List the entire process a sympathetic impulse would travel: |
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Definition
thoracolumbar division > preganglionic neurons in lateral gray horns of spinal segments T1-L2 > ganglia near spinal cord (preganglionic fiber release excitatory ACh stimulating ganglionic neurons) > target organs (most postganglionic fibers release NE at neuroeffector junctions) > "fight or flight" response |
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Term
Describe all the neurons that the sympathetic division consists of: |
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Definition
- preganglionic neurons b/n T1-L2 spinal cord segments
- 2 types of ganglionic neurons near vertebral columns: sympathetic chain ganglia (bilateral to vertebral column) & collateral ganglia (anterior to vertebral column)
- specialized neurons ("modified sympathetic ganglion"); chromaffin cells in medulla of adrenal glands
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Term
What is the difference between an acute and a chronic response: |
|
Definition
- acute response: neurotransmitters acting in synapse (in sympathetic)
- chronic response: associated with same ganglia but acting as hormones
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Term
Describe the preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division: |
|
Definition
- cell bodies are in the lateral gray horns
- axons enter ventral roots of spinal nerves (rami communicantes; white & gray)
- sympathetic chain ganglia (aka paravertebral ganglia or sympathetic trunk)
- SCG control effectors in body wall, head, neck, limbs, & thoracic cavity (heart, lungs, blood vessels)
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Term
Major effects produced by sympathetic postganglionic fibers in spinal nerves: |
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Definition
- Constriction of cutaneous blood vessels, reduction in circulation to skin & to most other organs in body wall
- Acceleration of blood flow to skeletal muscles & brain
- Stimulation of energy production & use by skeletal muscle tissue
- Release of stored lipids from subcutaneous adipose tissue
- Stimulation of secretion by sweat glands
- Stimulation of arrector pili
- Dilation of the pupils & focusing for distant objects
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Term
Major effects produced by postganglionic fibers entering the thoracic cavity in sympathetic nerves are: |
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Definition
- Acceleration of heart rate & increasing the strength of cardiac contractions
- Dilation of respiratory passageways
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Term
Define collateral ganglia: |
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Definition
- "prevertebral ganglia"
- neurons innervate effectors in the abdominopelvic cavity
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Term
Define specialized neurons: |
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Definition
- modified sympathetic ganglion in the suprarenal gland
- neurons (chromaffin cells) release NTs that act like hormones (longer effect than NTs released at sympathetic synapses)
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Term
List the three pathways sympathetic fibers can travel from preganglionic neurons to ganglionic neurons to target organs: |
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Definition
- preganglionic: lateral gray horns of spinal segments T1-L2 > ganglionic neurons: sympathetic chain ganglia (paired) to innervation by postganglion fibers > target organs: visceral effectors in thoracic cavity, head, body wall, & limbs
- preganglionic: lateral gray horns of spinal segments T1-L2 > ganglionic neurons: collateral ganglia (unpaired) to innervation by postganglion fibers > target organs: visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity
- preganglionic: lateral gray horns of spinal segments T1-L2 > ganglionic neurons: suprarenal medullae (paired) through release of hormones into circulation > target organs: organs & systems throughout body (medulla in adrenal gland)
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Term
|
Definition
- sympathetic chain ganglia (paired)
- collateral ganglia (unpaired)
- suprarenal medullae (paired)
- visceral effectors in thoracic cavity, head, body wall, & limbs
- visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity
- organs & systems throughout body
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Term
Describe the process collateral ganglia go through: |
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Definition
- Preganglionic neurons originate in inferior thoracic & superior lumbar segments of the spinal cord
- Fibers pass through sympathetic chain ganglia w/o synapsing
- Converge to form greater, lesser, & lumbar splanchnic nerves
- Splanchnic nerves converge & synapse on collateral ganglia. These postganglionic fibers will reach their targets in the abdominopelvic cavity
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Term
What are the functions of the sympathetic system (via the paravertebral ganglia)? |
|
Definition
- Reduces blood supply to the skin
- Increases blood supply to skeletal muscles
- Stimulates energy production by skeletal muscles
- Increases triacylglycerol catabolism
- Stimulation of arrector pili muscles
- Dilation of pupils (mydriasis)
- Increases heart rate
- Dilation of respiratory tree (bronchodilator)
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Term
What are the functions of the collateral ganglia (through splanchnic nerves) abdominopelvic? |
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Definition
- Reduction of blood flow to the visceral organs
- Decreases activity of the digestive organs
- Stimulation of glycogen degradation in the liver
- Stimulates adipose cells to release energy reserves
- Relaxation of smooth muscles in the urinary bladder
- Cause ejaculation in males
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Term
Describe the anatomy of the collateral ganglia: what do the preganglionic fibers synapse in and where do the postganglionic fibers leave? |
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Definition
- Preganglionic fibers in splanchnic nerves synapse in: Celiac ganglion, Superior mesenteric ganglion, & Inferior mesenteric ganglion
- Postganglionic fibers leave those ganglia to innervate target organs in abdomen/pelvis
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Term
Define suprarenal medullae: |
|
Definition
- preganglionic fibers pass through sympathetic chain & celiac ganglion w/o synapsing
- these fibers proceed to suprarenal medulla & synpase on modified neurons that, when stimulated, will release NTs that act as hormones (epinephrine & norepinephrine)
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Term
What is the major effect produced by preganglionic fibers innervating the suprarenal medullae: |
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Definition
- release of epinephrine & norepinephrine into the general circulation
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Term
Differentiate b/n the location of the pre- & postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic system: |
|
Definition
- preganglionic neurons: in brain stem & sacral segments
- postganglionic neurons: close to or w/n target organ
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Term
Preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division leave the brain stem via what cranial nerves? |
|
Definition
CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CNX |
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Term
Preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division leave the brain stem via CN III to go to what target organs? What ganglionic neurons are associated with CN III? |
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Definition
- go to the intrinsic eye muscles, pupil, and lens
- ciliary ganglion
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Term
Preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division leave the brain stem via CN VII to go to what target organs? What ganglionic neurons are associated with CN VII? |
|
Definition
- go to the lacrimal glands, salivary glands, nasal glands
- pterygopalatine & submandibular ganglia
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Term
Preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division leave the brain stem via CN IX to go to what target organs? What ganglionic neurons are associated with CN IX? |
|
Definition
- go to the parotid salivary glands
- otic ganglion
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Term
Preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division leave the brain stem via CN X to go to what target organs? What ganglionic neurons are associated with CN X? |
|
Definition
- go to the visceral organs of the thoracic cavity & abdominal cavity; visceral organs of neck
- intramural ganglia
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Term
Preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division leave the sacral region (nuclei in spinal cord S2-S4) via what nerves? Where do they go? What ganglionic neurons are associated with them? |
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Definition
- leave via the pelvic nerves
- go to visceral organs in the inferior portion of the abdominopelvic cavity
- intramural ganglia
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|
Term
|
Definition
- ciliary ganglion
- pterygopalatine & submandibular ganglia
- otic ganglion
- intramural ganglia
- intramural ganglia
- intrinsic eye muscles (pupil & lens shape)
- nasal, tear, & salivary glands
- parotid salivary gland
- visceral organs of neck, thoracic & abdom. cavities
- visceral organs in inferior portion of abdominopelvic cavity
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Term
List 9 functions of the parasympathetic division:
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|
Definition
Para. Sympathetic Division Honestly Lets
Us Do a Range of Stuff
- pupil constriction & lens accommodation
- inc. smooth muscle activity for digestive system
- secretion of digestive enzymes for digestive glands
- reduced heart rate
- increase lacrimal & salivary gland secretion
- contraction of urinary bladder
- stimulation & coordination of defecation
- constriction of respiratory passages
- sexual arousal
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|
Term
Location of parasympathetic nuclei? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What NT is released by the parasympathetic division? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the relationship b/n the sympathetic & parasympathetic divisions? |
|
Definition
- most vital organs are innervated by both symp.& parasym. nerves
- two often oppose or are "complementary" of each other
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Term
Which fibers are longer, parasympathetic or sympathetic? Why? |
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Definition
Parasympathetic fibers have longer preganglionic fibers so the postganglionic fibers can be located closer to the target organs. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
connetive or network; connects b/n nerves or blood vessels |
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Term
What are collateral ganglion? |
|
Definition
sympathetic; apply viscera & do not synapse in chain
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Term
Which of the following systems have both afferent & efferent neurons?
- ANS only
- SNS only
- both ANS and SNS
- neither ANS nor SNS
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|
Definition
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|
Term
True or False:
The axons of a visceral motor neuron in the CNS synapses w/ a second neuron located in a peripheral ganglion. |
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Definition
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Term
True or False:
All postganglionic autonomic fibers release acetylcholine (ACh), whose effects are always stimulatory. |
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Definition
FALSE.
sympathetic postganglionic releases NE (which is also stimulatory) |
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|
Term
|
Definition
- sympathetic
- parasympathetic
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Term
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons are limited to spinal segments...? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which accurately describes collateral (celiac) ganglion?
- They lie posterior to the vertebral column.
- They contain neurons that innervate visceral effectors in the body wall & thoracic cavity.
- They are paired structures that lie anterior to the verteral column.
- They innervate visceral effectors in the abdominopelvic cavity.
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Definition
- They innervate visceral effectors in the abdominopelvic cavity.
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|
Term
Which is an effect produced by symp. postganglionic fibers in spinal nerves?
- release of stored lipids from subcutaneous adipose tissue
- decreased heart rate
- reduction of pupillary diameter & focusing for close obj.
- release of epinephrine & NE into general circulation
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|
Definition
- release of stored lipids from subcutaneous adipose tissue
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|
Term
Which pairing of parasympathetic ganglia & target organs is correct?
- pterygopalatine ganglia; sweat glands
- pelvic nerves intramural ganglia; visceral organs of neck & thoracic cavity
- otic ganglion; visceral organs in inferior portion of abdominopelvic cavity
- otic ganglion; parotid salivary gland
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|
Definition
- otic ganglion; parotid salivary gland
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Term
Which of the following are functions of the parasympathetic division of the ANS? (Select two)
- lens accommodation
- dilation of pupils (mydriasis)
- reduction of heart rate & force of contraction
- bronchodilation
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|
Definition
- lens accommodationm 3.reduction of heart rate & force of contraction
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|
Term
Preganglionic axons of CN X synapse to which ganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic division of the ANS? |
|
Definition
intramural ganglia located w/n the target |
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|
Term
In both divisions of the ANS, their _____________ fibers release ____________. |
|
Definition
their preganglionic fibers release ACh |
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Term
Sympathetic innervation reaches the same peripheral destinations as parasympathetic fibers fround in CNs by traveling directly from which ganglia of the sympathetic chain? |
|
Definition
superior cervical ganglia |
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|
Term
The preganglionic axons of CN III synapse in the ________ ganglion, & the postsynaptic axons target the ________________. |
|
Definition
ciliary; intrinsic eye muscles |
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|
Term
|
Definition
- blood vessels
- epineurium covering peripheral nerve
- perineurium (around one fascicle)
- endoneurium
- schwann cell
- myelinated axon
- fascicle
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|
Term
What is the correct anatomical position of the orbitomeatal plane? |
|
Definition
inferior orbital borders & superior borders of external meatus are in the same horizontal plane |
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Term
The head is made up of a series of interconnected compartments. What are these compartments and their components? |
|
Definition
- cranium - brain & meningeal coverings
- orbits - eye, EOMs, lacrimal gland, orbital fat
- nasal cavities & paranasal sinuses
- ears (hearing & balance)
- oral cavity
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|
Term
The neck is made up of concentric-like compartments defined by what kind of layers that conduit structures from the headd to the thorax? List these compartments. |
|
Definition
defined by fascia layers
- musculofascial -(platysma, SCM, trapezium, infrahyoid ms)
- visceral -(upper respiratory & digestive tracts & glands; thyroid, parathyroid, thymus)
- neurovascular -(carotid sheaths)
- prevertebral -(vertebra & associated paravertebral muscles)
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Term
What is the glabella & where is it located? |
|
Definition
- smooth midline prominence on frontal bone
- located above root of nose b/n supraorbital margins
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Term
What is the zygomatic arch? (What does it form & palpate?) |
|
Definition
- forms prominence of cheek
- can palpate superficial temporal artery @ lateral end
- prone to fractures in facial trauma
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|
Term
What is the mastoid process? |
|
Definition
- bony prominence posterior to external acoustic meatus
- site of proximal attachment sternocleidomastoid muscle
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
prominent point of external occipital protuberance at back of head |
|
|
Term
What is the auricle part of and what are its features? |
|
Definition
- part of external ear
- skin-covered cartilage (except for lobule)
- features include pinna, tragus, antitragus & helix
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
midline infranasal depression of upper lip |
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|
Term
What are the Five layers of the SCALP? |
|
Definition
- skin
- connective tissue (fibrous/dense)
- aponeurosis of occipitofrontalis muscle
- loose (areolar) connective tissue
- pericranium
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Term
Why do injuries at the connective tissue layer of the scalp (superficial fascia) bleed profusely? |
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Definition
b/c the fibrous nature of this layer of the scalp prevents vasoconstriction |
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|
Term
What layer of the scalp is a risk for intracranial transmission of infections? |
|
Definition
loose CT layer b/n epicranial aponeurosis & pericranium; contains emissary veins that connect scalp veins w/ diploic veins & dural sinuses |
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|
Term
The pericranium or periosteum becomes continuous with what? |
|
Definition
with the endocranium (periosteal dura) @ sutures |
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Term
Innervation of scalp & face: The subcutaneous tissue of the face contains sensory (afferent) branches of what nerve and motor (efferent) branches of what nerve? |
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Definition
- contains sensory branches of trigeminal (V) nerve
- upper cervical spinal nerves (C2-C3)
- motor branches of facial nerve (VII) & trigeminal (V)
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|
Term
What are the five main branches of the facial nerve (CN VII)? |
|
Definition
- temporal
- zygomatic
- buccal
- marginal mandibular
- cervical
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Term
What are the 3 parts of the orbicularis oculi? What is the function of each? |
|
Definition
- lacrimal - draws eyelids & lacrimal puncta medially to drain tears
- palpebral - gently closes eyelids (blinking)
- orbital - tightly closes eyelids (squinting)
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|
Term
What is the function of the corrugator supercilii? |
|
Definition
- draws medial end of eyebrow medially & inferiorly for a concerned look
- wrinkles skin of forehead
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|
Term
What is the function of the frontalis portion of the occipitofrontalis? |
|
Definition
- elevates the eyebrows for a surprised look
- wrinkles the forehead
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|
Term
What is the chief vascular supply to the face and scalp? |
|
Definition
- chiefly through branches from external carotid arteries
- some contribution from internal carotid
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Term
The external carotid artery may be divided into what four branches? |
|
Definition
- anterior -superior thyroid, lingual, facial arteries
- posterior -occipital, posterior auricular arteries
- ascending -ascending pharyngeal artery
- terminal -superficial temporal, maxillary arteries
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|
Term
What are the 8 major branches of the external carotid? |
|
Definition
- superior thyroid artery
- ascending pharyngeal artery
- lingual artery
- facial artery
- occipital artery
- posterior auricular artery
- maxillary artery (largest branch) - middle meningeal
- superficial temporal artery - transverse facial
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|
Term
What are the external carotid branches that supply the face and scalp? |
|
Definition
- facial artery
- superficial temporal artery
- transverse facial artery
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|
Term
Characteristics of facial artery: |
|
Definition
- major arterial source for face
- arises from external carotid artery, crosses mandible & traverses face to medial angle of eye
- branches to upper & lower lip & nose
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|
|
Term
Characteristics of the superficial temporal artery: |
|
Definition
- terminal branch of external carotid
- enters temporal fossa & ends in scalp as 2 main branches (frontal & parietal)
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|
|
Term
Characteristics of transverse facial artery: |
|
Definition
- from superificial temporal
- crosses face below zygomatic arch
|
|
|
Term
What is anastomosis? What is it between and what does it allow? |
|
Definition
- reconnection of previously branched blood vessels
- b/n facial artery (external carotid branch) & cutaneous branches of ophthalmic (branch from internal carotid) at middle angle of eye
- allows communication b/n both circuits (collateral supply to intracranial structures if needed)
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|
Term
What are the internal carotid arteries related to and what are the three branches? |
|
Definition
- related to the orbit
- lacrimal artery, supratrochlear artery, & supraorbital artery
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|
Term
What are the veins related to the orbit? What does each descend from or join? |
|
Definition
- supratrochlear vein - descends from forehead to nose; joins supraorbital to form angular vein
- supraorbital vein - begins in forehead & passes medially to join supratrochlear vein; sends branch through supraorbital notich to join superior ophthalmic vein
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|
Term
Why must you check for cavernous sinus thrombosis if there is an infection of the eyelid or orbital cellulitis? |
|
Definition
- is part of danger triangle of face b/n eye & upper lip
- can cause ophthalmoplegia
- fatal if untreated
|
|
|
Term
What two veins provide the main veous drainage of the face and scalp? |
|
Definition
- facial vein
- retromandibular vein
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Musculofascial collar (investing fascia)
- visceral compartment
- vascular compartment
- vertebral compartment
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
pterygoid plexus is the cluster of veins that enters sinuses; regulates infections intracraniallly |
|
|
Term
The facial vein follows what course? Where does it drain? What does it communicate with? |
|
Definition
- follows course of facial arteries
- drains directly/indirectly into internal jugular vein
- communicates with pterygoid venous plexus & cavernous sinus (via superior & inferior ophthalmic veins)
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|
Term
What does the retromandibular vein descend through and join? |
|
Definition
- is a continuation of superficial temporal vein but changes when facial vein drains in & binds w/ maxillary
- descends through parotid gland
- sends branch to fasial vein
- joins posterior auricular vein to form external jugular vein
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|
|
Term
What additional vein helps to drain the scalp & forehead? What does it collect from and unite with? |
|
Definition
superficial temporal vein
- collects from transverse facial vein
- unites with maxillary vein to form retromandibular vein
|
|
|
Term
A 46 year old man is asked to keep his eyelids closed while the examining physician tries to open them. This procedure test which cranial nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 63 yo man has thrombosis of the cavernous sinus. Three days earlier, he developed an infection after the extraction of an upper molar tooth. The most likely route through which the infection reached the sinus is through what venous channel? |
|
Definition
pterygoid plexus of veins |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- encloses, supports, & protects brain & meninges (neurocranium)
- contains foramina for transmission of nerves & vessels
- forms foundation for face (viscerocranium)
- contains specialized cavities/openings for sense organs
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|
|
Term
The skull is composed of 22 bones in total. Which forms...?
a. superolateral portion of neurocranium
b. inferoposterior portion of neurocranium
c. three walls of the nasal cavity
d. lower part of nasal septum
e. lateral nasal wall, nasal septum, & hard palate |
|
Definition
a. parietal bone
b. occipital bone
c. ethmoid bone
d. vomer
e. palatine |
|
|
Term
What bones contribute to the orbital roof? |
|
Definition
frontal & sphenoid (lesser wing) |
|
|
Term
What bones contribute to the orbital floor? |
|
Definition
maxillary, zygomatic, & palatine bones |
|
|
Term
What bones contribute to the orbital apex? |
|
Definition
Lesser wing of sphenoid
- contains optic canal w/ optic nerve & ophthalmic artery
- also entry site of all nerves & blood vessels to eye & all EOMs except IO
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|
Term
What bones contribute to the orbital lateral wall (thickest)? |
|
Definition
sphenoid (greater wing) & zygomatic bones |
|
|
Term
What bones contribute to the orbital medial wall (thinnest)? |
|
Definition
ethmoid, lacrimal, frontal, & maxillary bones |
|
|
Term
Where do orbital fractures most often occur? What bone in particular is most commonly broken? |
|
Definition
orbital fractures most commonly occur at the orbital floor with the breakage of the maxilla |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Pterion
- frontal
- greater wing of sphenoid
- lacrimal bone
- nasal bone
- zygomatic bone
- maxilla
- mandible
- occipital
- parietal
- temporal
|
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Term
Name three significant sutures of the skull and the location of each: |
|
Definition
- coronal: b/n frontal & 2 parietal
- sagittal: b/n 2 parietal bones
- lambdoid: b/n occipital & 2 parietal bones
|
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|
Term
point at which frontal & nasal bones meet |
|
Definition
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|
Term
point at which coronal & sagittal sutures meet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
point at which sagittal & lambdoid sutures meet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
point at which temporal, parietal, & occipital bones meet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
external occipital protuberance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the point at which the frontal, sphenoid, temporal, & parietal bones meet? What lies beneath this region? |
|
Definition
- pterion
- middle meningeal artery lies beneath this region
- fragile; prone to fractures
|
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Term
The Calvaria (or dome-like roof of the neurocranium) is composed of what four bones? |
|
Definition
- frontal bone anteriorly
- occipital bone posteriorly
- two parietal bones laterally
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|
Term
Damage to what structure can lead to a epidural hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The cranial base of the neurocranium is formed from what bones? |
|
Definition
- ethmoid
- sphenoid
- parts of frontal, occipital, & temporal bones
|
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Term
Characteristics and bones of the auditory ossicles (middle ear): |
|
Definition
- malleus, incus, & stapes
- found spanning tympanic cavity
- first bones to completely ossified during development
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|
Term
What bone is suspended from the skull by the stylohyoid ligaments? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Each bone consists of external & internal tables of compact bone & a middle spongy layer of diploe. What are the skull bones layered by externally and internally? |
|
Definition
- layered by periosteum (pericranium) externally
- layered by endocranium (endosteal layer of dura mater) internally
both CT layers are continuous at the sutures |
|
|
Term
What connects diploic vessels with intracranial dural sinuses? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Skull fractures can occur as a result of direct trauma to the head. What three classifications can they be divided into? |
|
Definition
- depressed - bone displacement onto brain
- linear - most frequent
- comminuted
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|
Term
Characteristics of a coup/contre-coup brain injury: |
|
Definition
- may be no fracture at impact site (coup)
- brain impacts opposite side of skull & rebounds to site of impact (contre-coup) w/ resulting bruising
- aka shaking baby syndrome
|
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|
Term
Characteristics of pterion fracture brain injuries: |
|
Definition
- may damage middle meningeal artery & cause extradural hematoma
- vein less noticeable than artery bc leakage happens quicker
|
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|
Term
Very serious fractures of the cranial base are known as what? What are two well known types of these fractures? |
|
Definition
- basilar (skull) fractures
- anterior - sphenoid or ethmoid
- posterior - temporal or occipital
|
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Term
What are the key landmarks in the midline of the neck and their significance? |
|
Definition
hyoid bone
-talk, breathe, swallow, etc.
-lies at C3 vertebra; U-shaped; doesn't articulate w/ another bone
-suspended from styloid process (stylohyoid ligament)
thyroid cartilage
-4th & 5th cervical vertebrae
-midline fusion of 2 laminar plates
-laryngeal prominence (Adam's apple) |
|
|
Term
The C4 vertebral level is a bifurcation of what arteries? It is also the site of what sinus? |
|
Definition
- bifurcation of common carotid artery into external & internal carotid arteries
- site of carotid sinus (baroreceptor) & carotid body (chemoreceptor)
|
|
|
Term
Where can the following pulse be felt?
(a) temporal pulse (superior temporal artery)
(b) temporal pulse (anterior branch of sup. temp)
(c) facial pulse
(d) carotid pulse
|
|
Definition
(a) temporomandibular joint
(b) zygomatic process of frontal bone
(c) anterior margin of masseter
(d) anterior triangle; border of sternocleidomastoid (C5 vert.) |
|
|
Term
What is the only complete ring cartilage in the respiratory tract that is the site for emergency penetration if there are obstructed pathways? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the junction of the larynx & trachea where the vertebral artery (1st branch of subclavian artery) enters foramen transversarium to ascend to the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- temporal pulse (superior temporal artery)
- temporal pulse (anterior branch of s.t.a.)
- facial pulse
- carotid pulse
|
|
|
Term
What is the unpaired bone of the lower jaw that articulates with the temporomandibular joint? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the two processes at the superior end of the mandible? |
|
Definition
coronoid process & condylar process |
|
|
Term
Where are the cornoid process, condylar process, and mandibular notch located? |
|
Definition
- coronoid - attachment of temporalis
- condylar - part of temporomandibular joint
- mandibular - concavity b/n condylar & cornoid
|
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Term
Characteristics of the temporomandibular joint: |
|
Definition
- articulation b/n condylar process of mandible, articular tubercle of temporal bone, & mandibular fossa
- hinge-type synovial joint (very mobile)
- fibrocartilagious disc divides cavity into 2 parts
|
|
|
Term
Describe the 2 functional compartments of the TMJ: |
|
Definition
- upper/superior- protrusion & retraction; gliding moves
- lower/inferior - depression & elevation; opening/closing the mouth
|
|
|
Term
The TMJ is stabilized by what three ligaments? |
|
Definition
- stylomandibular
- sphenomandibular
- lateral temporomandibular
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- lateral pterygoid
- medial pterygoid
- posterior fibers of temporalis
- deep part of masseter
- geniohyoid & digastric
- temporalis
- masseter
- medial pterygoid
- digatric
- geniohyoid
- mylohyoid muscles
|
|
|
Term
The muscles of mastication are all innervatd by branches of what nerve and supplied by branches of what artery? |
|
Definition
- all innervated by branches of mandibular nerve CN V3
- all supplied by branches of the maxillary artery
|
|
|
Term
Where do the temporalis and masseter insert on? |
|
Definition
- temporalis inserts on coronoid process of mandible
- masseter is deep to parotid gland, crossed by parotid duct, and inserts on entire lateral surface of ramus of mandible except for condylar process
|
|
|
Term
What are the lateral pterygoid and medial pterygoid covered with and where do they run? |
|
Definition
lateral pterygoid
-deep to temporal & covered w/ dense pterygoid plexus of veins
-runs horizontally backwards from infratemporal fossa & lateral pterygoid plate to insert on mandible
medial pterygoid
-covered by inferior fibers of lat. pterygoid muscle
-runs from inner surface of lat. pterygoid plate inferiorly to inner surface of ramus of mandible |
|
|
Term
62 yo woman has a parotidectomy. After procedure she has trouble chewing food. Tests reveal her trigeminal nerve isn't damaged, but the innervation to which muscle was damaged?
a) temporalis
b) medial pterygoid
c) masseter
d) lateral pterygoid
e) buccinator |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
31 yo woman been unable to chew food since injury to upper mandible & infratemporal fossa in car accident. Examination shows malocclusion. Most likely cause is disruption of nerve?
a) vagus
b) trigeminal
c) hypoglossal
d) glossopharyngeal
e) facial |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of the salivary glands? |
|
Definition
- moisten & lubricate food & begin digestion of starches
- amylase, salivary lysozyme, IgA & antibacterial to protect against caries & oral cavity infections
- ability to taste & speech
|
|
|
Term
the combined secretion of what forms saliva? |
|
Definition
- parotid (largest salivary gland); serous secretion
- submandibular
- sublingual
- minor glands in tongue, lips, cheeks, & palate
|
|
|
Term
The parotid is the largest/main salivary gland that contacts what muscles and contains what vessels? |
|
Definition
- contacts masseter, SCM, & digastric muscles
- contains superficial temporal, maxillary, external carotid, & retromandibular vessels
- main duct runs over masseter & then pierces buccinator to drain at 2nd superior molar
|
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|
Term
In surgical intervention of parotid gland, there is a risk of what kind of injury? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the sensory & secretomotor innervatioin of the parotid gland? |
|
Definition
- sensory innervation: C2 & C3 spinal nerves
- secretomotor innervation: parasympathetic from CN IX (@ otic ganglion) & sympathetic from external carotid plexus
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|
Term
What gland is the second largest salivary gland that is divided into superficial & deep parts by mylohyoid muscle? |
|
Definition
submandibular
- submandibular duct travels medially to end at sublingual papilla
|
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|
Term
What gland is the smallest & deepest of the main salivary gland and where is it located? |
|
Definition
sublingual gland
- located under mucous membrane of floor of mouth & marks sublingual fossa of body of mandible
- many (about 10) ducts per gland
|
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|
Term
What is the parasympathetic innervation of the submandibular & sublingual glands that has fibers that synapse in submandibular ganglion and increase gland secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the sympathetic innervation (vasoconstrictor effect) of the submandibular & sublingual glands? |
|
Definition
from external carotid plexus (superior cervical ganglion) |
|
|
Term
What is the blood supply of the submandibular & sublingual glands? |
|
Definition
blood supply is through branches of external carotid (facial & lingual arteries) |
|
|
Term
What is the basic histology of the salivary gland? |
|
Definition
- composed of terminal acini
- intercalated, striated, & excretory ducts
- myoepithelial cells
|
|
|
Term
Acinar cells can be either...? |
|
Definition
- serous cells: produce a thin watery secretion (parotid)
- mucous cells: produce a more viscous secretion (sublingual)
|
|
|
Term
List salivary gland pathologies: |
|
Definition
- Sialolithiasis (most common disease; mainly sublingual)
- infections (mainly parotid)
- tumors
- immunological disorders: Sjogren's Syndrome
|
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|
Term
What is the most common immunologic disorder associated with salivary gland disease that is characterized by a lympocyte-mediated destruction of exocrine glands leading to xerostomia & keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye syndrome.) |
|
Definition
Sjogren's Syndrome
- 90% cases occur in women; avg onset is 50 yrs
|
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|
Term
What are the 2 forms of Sjogren's syndrome? |
|
Definition
- primary: involves exocrine glands only
- secondary: associated w/ autoimmune disease, usually rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, scleroderma
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|
Term
Damage along the course of facial nerve results in acute unilateral palsy of facial muscles with no other symptoms. Which of the following points along the pathway of the facial nerve will be the most probably site for nerve injury?
A) Chorda tympani in the middle ear
B) Geniculate ganglion
C) Greater petrosal nerve
D) Internal acoustic meatus
E) Stylomastoid foramen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the four major landmarks of the back? |
|
Definition
- vertebra prominens
- scapula
- iliac crests
- posterior superior iliac spines
|
|
|
Term
Where are each of the four major landmarks located? |
|
Definition
- vertebra prominens: C7
- scapula: supports upper limb
- iliac crest: imaginary line b/n them passes through spinous processes of L4 & L5 intervertebral disc; valuable landmark for lumbar puncture
- posterior superior iliac spines: imaginary line b/n both of them passes through spinous processes of 2nd sacral vertebra (S2); end point of dural sac (filum terminale externum)
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|
Term
The vertebral column is the central axis of the human body that is approximately 72-75 cm long and contains how many vertebrae? |
|
Definition
33 vertebrae
- 7 cervical
- 12 thoracic
- 5 lumbar
- 5 sacral
- 4 coccygeal
|
|
|
Term
The anatomy of a typical vertebra contains what? |
|
Definition
- body
- vertebral arch (formed by 2 laminae & 2 pedicles)
- vertebral foramen (b/n body & arch)
- spinous (1), transverse (2), & articular (4) processes
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following levels go to what corresponding structure?
-C2-C3
-C3 -C4-C5 -C6 -C7 -T3 -L1 -L4/L5 -S2 |
|
Definition
C2-C3: Mandible
C3: Hyoid bone
C4-C5: Thyroid cartilage
C6: Cricoid cartilage
C7: Vertebra prominens
T3: Spine of scapula
L1: End of spinal cord
L4/L5: Iliac crest
S2: End of dural sac
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|
Term
Fibrocartilaginous intervertebral discs form the symphysis b/n 2 adjacent vertebral bodies & allow certain movement in cervical, thoracic, & lumbar regions. What are its two parts? |
|
Definition
- anulus fibrosus (external ring)
- nucleus pulposus (central semigelatinous region)
|
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|
Term
Where are fibrocartilaginous intervertebral discs absent from? |
|
Definition
absent b/n occipital bone & C1 & b/n C1 & C2 vertebrae (high movable synovial joints) |
|
|
Term
The vertebral column has ______________ curvatures that may be classified as ___________ (arise in fetus) or ___________ (are acquired post-birth). |
|
Definition
The vertebral column has anteroposterior curvatures that may be classified as primary (arise in fetus) or secondary (are acquired post-birth). |
|
|
Term
Are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, & sacral anterior regions primary or secondary curvatures? |
|
Definition
- cervical anterior convexity - seconday curvature
- thoracic anterior concavity - primary curvature
- lumbar anterior convexity - secondary curvature
- sacral anterior concavity - primary curvature
|
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|
Term
What are three abnormal curvatures of the spine? |
|
Definition
- Kyphosis - excessive upper thoracic curvature
- Lordosis - excessive lumbar curvature
- Scoliosis - lateral curvature of thoracic or lumbar spine accompanied by rotation of vertebrae
|
|
|
Term
The body & arch are separated by ____________________ & the sequence of all of these form the _________________ that houses spinal cord & its meningeal coverings. |
|
Definition
The body & arch are separated by vertebral foramen & the sequence of all of these form the vertebral canal that houses spinal cord & its meningeal coverings. |
|
|
Term
What are the three kinds of vertebral processes? |
|
Definition
transverse, spinous, & articular |
|
|
Term
Vertebral notches are superior & inferior in the vertebral body and define what? |
|
Definition
define intervertebral foramina; openings for spinal nerves & associated vessels |
|
|
Term
Transverse foramina are only in what kind of vertebra? |
|
Definition
cervical
- two per vertebra (located in transverse processes)
- for right & left vertebral arteries & veins
|
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|
Term
Characteristics of cervical vertebrae: |
|
Definition
- C1-C7; very mobile that permits fwd/lateral flexion, extension, & rotation
- transverse processes w/ anterior & posterior tubercles & foramina which transmit vertebral arteries, veins, & sympathetic nerve plexuses
- triangular vertebral foramen
|
|
|
Term
The C1 atlas lacks what and articulates with what? It contains two grooves for what? |
|
Definition
- lacks body & spinous process but has foramen transversarium
- articulates w/ occipital condyles via paired lateral masses w/ superior articular facets & dens of axis
- contains 2 grooves on superior aspect of posterior arch for vertebral arteries & dorsal ramus of C1 spinal nerve
- 8 pairs of cervical spinal nerves!
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characteristics of C1 (atlas): |
|
Definition
- lack body & spinous process but has foramen transversarium
- art. w/ occipital condyles via lateral masses & w/ superior articular facets & dens of axis
- 2 grooves on sup. aspect of post. arch for vertebral arteries & dorsal ramus of C1 spinal
|
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|
Term
Characteristics of C2 (Axis): |
|
Definition
- dens (odontoid process), foramen transversarium, & bifid spinous process
- larger superior articular facets for C1
- arts. w/ C1 via sup. articular facets & odontoid process (dens) of the axis
|
|
|
Term
Anterior tubercle of C6 is the ________________, which the carotid artery can be compressed against to control bleeding |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
long (nonbifid) spinous process; small transverse foramina that transmits accessory vertebral veins but NOT vertebral artery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characteristics of thoracic vertebrae: |
|
Definition
- T1-T12; relatively rigid, mainly allow rotation of trunk
- long transverse processes that extend posterolaterally & facets for rib articulation in body & transverse processes
|
|
|
Term
At what level of the vertebrae can you puncture a patient & inject anesthetic agents (epidural anesthesia)? What is the purpose of this puncture? |
|
Definition
- LUMBAR (b/n L4 & L5)
- to obtain sample of CSF & assess CSF pressure
- spinal cord ends @ L2 but not dural sac; wide space b/n adj. laminae
|
|
|
Term
Characteristics of sacral vertebrae: |
|
Definition
- composed of 5 vertebrae that fuse @ about 20 yrs of age, inferior portion is non-weightbearing
- arts. w/ hip bones @ sacroiliac joints; concave pelvic surface; wider in females than males
|
|
|
Term
What features can be found in the sacrum? |
|
Definition
- sacral canal contains cauda equine (L2-S2) & sacral cornuae that proj. inf. on either side of sacral hiatus
- anterior/ventral & posterior/dorsal sacral foramina for sacral nerves
- sacral hiatus (end of sacral canal) contains filum terminale externum
- median crest (fused) & paired median crest
- paired lateral crest
|
|
|
Term
Characteristics of coccygeal vertebrae: |
|
Definition
- consists of 3-5 coccygeal vertebrae, inferior 3 fuse as coccyx in midlife
- coccygeal cornuae arts. w/ sacral cornuae
- joined to sacrum by sacrococcygeal symphysis
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the four main movements of the spine? |
|
Definition
rotation, lateral flexion, flexion & extension |
|
|
Term
What are atlanto-occipital & atlantoaxial joints? What are each responsible for? |
|
Definition
synovial joints that allow relative wide range of motion
- atlanto-occipital: nodding movements (yes, yes)
- atlantoaxial: side to side movements (no, no)
|
|
|
Term
Why are cervical vertebral injuries very serious? |
|
Definition
- associated neurological impairment or could affect ligament and/or vertebrae integrity
- atlantoaxial subluxation = transverse ligament of atlas
- atlanto-occipital dislocation = disruption of all ligaments; FATAL
- dens fracture = tip, base, or body of axis; unstable fractures accompanied by neurological defects
|
|
|
Term
Location/connections of the following:
- anterior longitudinal
- posterior longitudinal
- intertransverse ligaments
- interspinous ligament
- ligamentum nuchae
- supraspinous ligament
- ligamenta flava
|
|
Definition
- ant. long: b/n vertebral bodies & intervertebral discs anteriorly outside vertebral canal
- post. long: b/n vertebral bodies & intervertebral discs posteriorly inside vertebral canal
- intertransverse: connecting transverse processes
- interspinous: b/n adj. spinous processes
- lig. nuchae: connects vertebra prominens (C7) & occipital bone
- supra. liga.: continuation of liga. nuchae; connects all tips of spinous processes
- liga. flava: connects adj. laminae (yellow)
|
|
|
Term
A typical vertebra has six joints with adjacent vertebrae: four ______ joints and two _________. |
|
Definition
A typical vertebra has six joints with adjacent vertebrae: four synovial joints and two symphyses
- joints b/n vertebral bodies = symphysis
- joints b/n vertebral articular processes = synovial or zygapophyseal
|
|
|
Term
- How many pairs of cervical spinal nerves are there?
- Which two are the most mobile regions of the spine?
- Why is the horizontal line connecting the iliac crests clinically important?
- Fusion of which parts of the vertebrae forms the spinous processes?
- Which ligament is the continuation of the ligamentum nuchae?
- Where do the filum terminale (internum and externum) start and end?
|
|
Definition
- eight
- cervical & lumbar
- spinal tap; access dural sac w/ little risk to cord (CSF)
- lamina
- supraspinal
- starts L1 and ends dural sac
|
|
|
Term
What are the three major parts of the nasal region? |
|
Definition
- External nose
- nasal cavities (2)
- paranasal sinuses
|
|
|
Term
The external nose has what 3 parts? What is it composed of? What are the nares? |
|
Definition
- root, dorsium, apex
- composed of bone & hyaline cartilage (frontal process of maxilla & nasal part of frontal)
- nares/nostrils: airway entry into nasal vestibule
|
|
|
Term
The nasal cavity extends from where to where? What are they continuous with? What are the 3 regions its divided into? |
|
Definition
- extends from nostrils (in front) to posterior nasal aperatures (or choanae)
- NC continuous w/ nasopharynx @ choanae
- nasal vestibule, respiratory region, & olfactory region
|
|
|
Term
Break down & differentiate b/n the 3 subdivisions of the nasal cavities: |
|
Definition
nasal vestibule
-contains skin & hair follicles (no mucosa)
respiratory region: largest part
-mucosa lined w/ respiratory epithelium
-rich nervous & vasucalr supply
olfactory region: smallest
-located @ apex; mucosa lined by olfactory epi; olfactory receptors & bipolar sensory neurons |
|
|
Term
The nasal cavities are divided into right & left chambers by what? What is this made up of? |
|
Definition
nasal septum
- made up of cartilage & bone
- bony part = posterior 2/3; vomer & perpendicular plate of ethmoid
- septal cartilage = anterior 1/3
|
|
|
Term
The floor of the nasal cavity is formed by what? |
|
Definition
by palatine process of maxilla & horizontal plate of palatine bone (palate) |
|
|
Term
The roof of the nasal cavity is formed by what? |
|
Definition
- roof is narrow & formed by cartilage & bone
- nasal & frontal bones & cribiform plate of ethmoid
- posterior region of roof is spheno-ethmoidal recess that contains opening of sphenoidal sinus
|
|
|
Term
The lateral wall of the nasal cavity is formed by what? |
|
Definition
- three projections of bone called superior, middle, & inferior nasal conchae
- space below concha = meatus (3-superior, middle, infer.)
|
|
|
Term
What is the small area about the superior concha that allows surgical access to the hypophysis (pituitary gland)? |
|
Definition
sphenoethmoidal recess
(also receives opening of sphenoid air sinus) |
|
|
Term
Where do the superior & inferior meatuses lie and what do they receive? |
|
Definition
- superior: lies below superior concha & receives openings of posterior ethmoid sinus
- inferior: lies below inferior concha & receives opening of lower end of nasolacrimal duct (guarded by fold of mucous membrane)
|
|
|
Term
What lies below the middle concha that has a rounded swelling called the bulba ethmoidalis formed in the middle ethmoidal air sinuses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The __________ sinus opens into the middle meatus through the hiatus semilunaris.
The ___________ sinus drains in the infundibulum (part of the hiatus semilunaris). |
|
Definition
The maxillary sinus opens into the middle meatus through the hiatus semilunaris.
The frontal sinus drains in the infundibulum (part of the hiatus semilunaris). |
|
|
Term
The medial wall of the nasal cavity is formed by the ________ ________. The upper & anterior parts are formed by what? |
|
Definition
- medial wall formed by the nasal septum
- upper part formed by vertical plate of ethmoid & vomer
- anterior part formed by septal cartilage
|
|
|
Term
The septum rarely lies in __________ (i.e. it is deviated), thus increasing the size of one half of the nasal cavity and decreasing the size of the other. |
|
Definition
The septum rarely lies in the midline (i.e. it is deviated), thus increasing the size of one half of the nasal cavity and decreasing the size of the other |
|
|
Term
The presence of mucus secreting cells in the mucosa lining the surfaces of the conchae traps foreign particles in the inspired air. These particles are pushed posteriorly through what and directed to what? |
|
Definition
- pushed posteriorly through active ciliary motion
- directed to nasopharynx for deglutition
|
|
|
Term
A large plexus of veins in the submucous connective tissue is present in the respiratory region. The presence of blood in the venous plexuses serves to do what? |
|
Definition
warm & moist the incoming air as it enters the repiratory system |
|
|
Term
Extreme, localized congestion and edema of
the mucous membrane of middle meatus of the
nasal cavity will, most likely, affect the
drainage of the: (select 2)
- frontal sinus
- maxillary sinus
- nasolacrimal duct
- posterior ethmoidal air cells
- sphenoidal sinus
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Definition
- frontal sinus
- maxillary sinus
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Term
The nasolacrimal duct, which transports tear
fluid away from the lacrimal sac, empties
directly into the:
- sphenoethmoidal recess
- superior meatus
- middle meatus
- inferior meatus
- vestibule of the nasal cavity
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|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is the sphenoethmoidal recess clinically important? |
|
Definition
this is where a surgeon can access the pituitary gland |
|
|
Term
The olfactory nerves (CN I) from the olfactory mucous membrane ascend through the ____________ of the ethmoid bone and synapse with _________ neurons within the olfactory bulbs. |
|
Definition
The olfactory nerves (CN I) from the olfactory mucous membrane ascend through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone and synapse with second –order neurons within the olfactory bulbs |
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Term
List the nerve supply innervation to the nasal: |
|
Definition
- sensory nerves are branches of ophthalmic division & maxillary (CN V1 & 2)
- parasympathetic from facial nerve
- sympathetic from carotid plexus
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Term
The arterial supply to the nasal cavity is from what (which is one of the terminal branches of the external carotid artery)? What is the most important branch? |
|
Definition
- the arterial supply to the nasal cavity is from branches of the maxillary artery
- the most important branch is the sphenopalatine artery
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Term
Describe the venous blood drainage of the nasal cavity (where does it drain & what is there a risk for?) |
|
Definition
- The submucous venous plexus is drained by veins that accompany the arteries
- Drain into pterygoid plexus, facial vein and cavernous sinus (through superior ophthalmic veins)
- risk for intracranial propagation of infections
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Term
The lymph vessels draining the vestibule of the nasal cavity endswhere? The remainder of the nasal cavity is drained by vessels that pass to what? |
|
Definition
- The lymph vessels draining the vestibule of the nasal cavity end in the submandibular nodes
- The remainder of the nasal cavity is drained by vessels that pass to the upper deep cervical nodes
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|
Term
The cell bodies of primary olfactory
sensory cells are located in the:
1. Olfactory bulb
2. Olfactory tract
3. Olfactory epithelium of the superior nasal concha
4. Semilunar (a.k.a. trigeminal) ganglion |
|
Definition
3. Olfactory epithelium of the superior nasal concha |
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Term
The paranasal sinuses are _______ found in the interior of the what bones? What are they lined with and what do they communicate with? |
|
Definition
cavities
- maxilla, frontal, sphenoid, & ethmoid bones
- lined with respiratory mucosa (ciliated & secretes mucus) & filled with air
- communicate with nasal cavity through relatively small aperatures
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Term
What are the two major functions of the paranasal sinuses? |
|
Definition
- act as resonators to the voice
- reduce the weight of the skull
(when aperatures of sinuses are blocked/filled with fluid the quality of voice is changed) |
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Term
The maxillary sinus is pyramidal in shape and located within the body of the maxilla behind the skin of the cheek. What is the roof formed by and what does the maxillary sinus open into? |
|
Definition
- roof is formed by the floor of the orbit & floor is related to the roots of the premolars & molar teeth
- maxillary sinus opens into middle meatus of nasal cavity through hiatus semilunaris
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Term
Each sinus is roughly triangular, extending upward above the medial end of the ______ and backward into the medial part of what? |
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Definition
Each sinus is roughly triangular, extending upward above the medial end of the eyebrow and backward into the medial part of the roof of the orbit |
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Term
The two sphenoidal sinuses lie within the body of the sphenoid bone & each sinus opens into the __________________ above the superior concha. |
|
Definition
Each sinus opens into the sphenoethmoidal recess above the superior concha. |
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Term
The ethmoidal sinuses are anterior, middle, and posterior and they are contained within the ethmoid bone between what? Why do infections easily spread from these sinuses into the orbit? |
|
Definition
- contained within the ethmoid bone between the nose & orbit
- separated from orbit by thin layer of bone (lamina papyracea) which is paper thin so it allows the bacteria to spread
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Term
What disease presses against the optic nerve and can cause meningitis, brain abscess, or loss of vision & is common in children under 10? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following bones contribute to the
medial wall of the orbit? (Select 3 answers)
1. Ethmoid 2. Frontal 3. Lacrimal 4. Maxillary 5. Nasal 6. Temporal 7. Sphenoid
8. Zygomatic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is epistaxis, why is it common, and what is it associated with in older people? |
|
Definition
- nose bleed
- common due to rich vascular supply to nasal region
- in older ppl associated with hypertension
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|
Term
What is sinusitis and why is it risky? |
|
Definition
- inflammation of paranasal sinuses
- acute or chronic
- accumulation of secretion in sinuses --> infection
- deviated septum or dental or upper respiratory infections
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Term
A 38 yo consulted her physician about a persistent cough, nasal congestion, & pain in her left cheek & superior molar teeth. After examination, the physician told her she had acute paranasal sinusitis. W/ your knowledge in anatomy, what will be the cause of the patient's symptoms?
1. Acute ethmoidal sinusitis
2. Acute sphenoidal sinusitis
3. Acute maxillary sinusitis
4. Acute frontal sinusitis |
|
Definition
3. Acute maxillary sinusitis |
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Term
A Blowout fracture is an ocular trauma caused by what? What are the critical signs? |
|
Definition
- caused by trauma to orbit; maxillary bone easiest to break
- critical signs are restricted EOM, subcutaneous emphysema, & globe displacement
|
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|
Term
- The bony part of nasal septum formed by which bones?
- Which wall of the nose contains the conchae?
- Which region of the nasal cavity allows access to the pituitary gland (hypophysis)?
- The superior nasal concha is part of what bone?
|
|
Definition
- perpendicular plate of ethmoid & vomer
- lateral
- recess
- ethmoid
|
|
|
Term
- Why are ocular movements frequently impaired in blowout fractures?
- State two important functions of paranasal sinuses
- Name a direct branch of external carotid artery that supplies the nasal cavities
- Name a route that may allow intracranial spread of infections from the nasal region
|
|
Definition
- EOM is trapped under breakage
- make skull lighter, resonator of voice, & condition air
- maxillary
- pterygoid plexus
|
|
|
Term
What are the two major functions of the ear? |
|
Definition
equilibrium (balance) & hearing |
|
|
Term
What are the major components of the external, middle, & inner ear? |
|
Definition
- external - auricle, external acoustic meatus, & tympanic membrane
- middle - tympanic cavity & epitympanic recess
- inner - vestibulocochlear organ, membranous labyrinth, & bony labyrinth
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|
Term
Characteristics of auricle (pinna) of outer ear: (What is its function, features, & sensory innervation?) |
|
Definition
- skin-covered elastic cartilage (fat & intrinsic muscles)
- collects sounds & directs it to external acostic meatus
- features include helix, antihelix, tragus, antitragus, concha, lobule, & concha
- innervated by V3, X, VII (tympanic also has IX)
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|
Term
What extends from concha to tympanic membrane (eardrum) as a canal lined by skin containing sebaceous glands, hair, and ceruminous glands? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The blood supply to the ear consists of what? |
|
Definition
- different branches from external carotid arteries to auricle & external auditory meatus
- posterior auricular
- superficial temporal
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|
Term
The tympanic membrane separates what? What does it consist of? |
|
Definition
- separates external & middle ear
- consists of fibrocartilaginous ring (attachment to temporal bone); connective tissue core, lateral surface, & medial surface
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Term
Characteristics of tympanic membrane: |
|
Definition
- cone of light seen otoscopically (cone-like depression)
- umbo = point of malleus attachment
- pars tensa = below handle of malleus that contains circular & radial fibers
- pars flaccida = above handle of malleus; no fibers
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Term
Tympanic membrane vibrates due to what? |
|
Definition
sounds & vibrations transmitted to auditory ossicles of middle ear via handle of malleus |
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|
Term
Middle ear is connected anteriorly with nasopharynx through what? What does this allow? |
|
Definition
- connected through pharynotympanic tube
- allows equalisation of atmospheric pressure in middle ear
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|
Term
Describe the boundaries of the tymanic cavity for the following walls: roof, floor, anterior, posterior, medial, & lateral |
|
Definition
- roof: tegmental/tegmen tympani; lower part petrous of temporal; sep. tympanic cavity from middle cranial fossa
- floor: jugular fossa; sep. tympanic cavity from superior bulb of internal jugular vein
- anterior: sep. tympanic cavity from carotid canal; opening of pharingotympanic tube & canal for tympani muscle
- posterior: opening to mastoid antrum connects middle ear w/ mastoid air cells; infections; pyramidal eminence
- medial: sep. tympanic cavity from inner ear
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Term
What contents make up the medial (labyrinthine) wall? |
|
Definition
- prominences lateral semicircular canal & facial nerve
- promontory is round proj. overlying basal turn cochlea
- oval window
- round window/fenestra cochlea
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|
Term
What contents make up the lateral (membranous) wall? |
|
Definition
- tympanic membrane
- lateral wall of epitympanic recess
- handle of malleus
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Term
What are the 3 auditory ossicles of the middle ear? What other contents makes up the middle ear? |
|
Definition
- auditory ossicles = malleus, incus, & stapes
- chorda tympani nerve (CN VII)
- tympanic plexus
- muscle to stapedius & tensor tympani muscle
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Term
What muscles are related to the auditory ossicles that dampen loud noises upon contraction? |
|
Definition
- muscle to stapedius
- tensory tympani muscle
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|
Term
Characteristics of muscle to stapedius: |
|
Definition
- from pyramidal eminence on posterior tympanic cavity wall
- attaches to neck of stapes
- innervated by branch of facial nerve
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|
Term
Characteristics of tensor tympani: |
|
Definition
- lies in bony canal superior to pharyngotympanic tube & attaches to handle of malleus
- innervation through branch from mandibular
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
1.Chorda tympani nerve
2.Nerve to stapedius muscle
3.Tympanic nerve plexus
4.Lesser petrosal nerve |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of nerves of middle ear: |
|
Definition
- chorda tympani: (taste anterior 2/3 tongue; parasy. innervation to submandibular & sublingual salivary; CN 7)
- tympanic nerve plexus: (from CN 9 sensory & parasym. fibers & internal carotid plexus; sympathetic fibers)
- lesser petrosal:(branch of tympanic; parasy innervation to parotid)
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|
Term
The middle ear has venous drainage to where? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Communication between middle ear and nasopharynx is conducted through what? What is this normally closed tube opened by and what does it relate to? |
|
Definition
pharyngotympanic tubule
- bony part = proximal 1/3; also cartilaginous part
- tube opened by tensor veli palatine & closed by elasticity
- relation to middle ear infections
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|
Term
Clinical diagnosis: Most common in kids <3; secondary to bacteria or virus infection; infant pharingotympanic tube; otoscopic examinations find loss of cone of light, fluid accumulation in middle ear, & bulging tympanic membrane. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Clinical diagnosis: usually secondary to middle ear infection; bacteria may get into cells through aditus; potential complications include osteomyelitis & meningitis |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Two major parts of inner ear: |
|
Definition
- osseous labyrinth filled with perilymph
- membranous labyrinth filled with endolymph
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|
Term
Characteristics of inner ear: |
|
Definition
- located w/n petrous part of temporal bone
- b/n middle ear & internal acoustic meatus
- transforms vibrations into electrical impulses that are sent to brain through CN VIII
- maintenance of balance (vestibular portion)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
bony core of cochlea that defines scala vestibuli & scala tympani |
|
|
Term
Describe the entire process of how sound is propagated: |
|
Definition
- initiated by sound waves, transmitted as vibrations by ossicles
- stapes vibrates in oval window & waves of pressure in perilymph of vestibule are created
- waves ascend in spiral canal in scala vestibule
- transfer to scala tympani at helicotrema
- pass down scala tympani to round window
- dissipated via secondary tympanic membrane in round window to air of middle ear cavity
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|
Term
Describe the reception of sound: |
|
Definition
- deformation of cochlear duct by pressure waves in perilymph
- stimulates hair cells of spiral organ embedded in tectorial membrane
- base of spiral organ receives high freq. sounds & apex receives low freq. sounds
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Term
What is the internal auditory (acoustic meatus)? |
|
Definition
- 1 cm long small canal in petrous ridge of temporal bone
- opening in posteromedial aspect of ridge in posterior cranial fossa
- transmits CN 7 & 8 nerves & labyrinthine artery
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|
Term
The oral cavity is lined with a mucous membrane that has stratisfied squamous epithelium (non-keratinized). What two areas does it consist of? |
|
Definition
- vestibule - space b/n teeth & inner mucosal lining of lips & cheeks (size controlled by orb. oris, buccinator, risorious & muscles controlling lips; contains frenula)
- oral cavity proper - space contained w/n upper & lower dental arches (space occupied by tongue)
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Term
What are the main functions of the tongue? What is the main motor innervation? |
|
Definition
- functions: pressing food into pharynx during swallowing & assisting in formation of words during speech
- motor innervation = CN XIII (hypoglossal)...supplies all but palatoglossus muscle
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|
Term
List & describe all sensory innervation to the tongue: |
|
Definition
- Mandibular division CN V: general sensation ant. 2/3rd
- Facial nerve (through chorda tympani): taste ant. 2/3rds
- Glossopharyngeal: general sensation & taste post. 1/3rd
- Vagus: general/special sensation & taste base of tongue
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Term
What special sensory pathway for taste goes directly to the cortex and bypasses the thalamus? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Destruction of which of the following would
result in loss of pain from the anterior 2/3 of
the tongue?
1. pterygopalatine ganglion
2. otic ganglion
3. trigeminal ganglion
4. geniculate ganglion
5. inferior ganglion of the glossopharyngeal nerve |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which arch is actually part of the cranium, is fixed, & not capable of movement. Which arch is capable of movement through the action of the temporomandicular joint? |
|
Definition
- fixed & immovable: maxillary arch
- capable of moving: mandibular arch
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|
Term
Differentiate b/n eruption & exfoliation: |
|
Definition
- Eruption = movement tooth through surrounding tissues so that more of the tooth becomes visible in the mouth
- Exfoliation = process by which roots of baby tooth are resorbed and dissolved until so little root remains that the baby tooth falls out
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
the relationship of the mandibular and maxillary teeth when closed or during excursive movements of the mandible; when the teeth of the mandibular arch come into contact with the teeth of the maxillary arch in any functional relationship |
|
|
Term
Define:
•Anatomical crown
•Clinical crown
•Root
•Apex
•Apical foramen
•Enamel
•Dentin
•Cementum
•Pulp |
|
Definition
•Anatomical crown: portion of tooth covered by enamel
•Clinical crown: visible part of tooth above gumline
•Root: tooth embedded in alveolar process & covered by cementum
•Apex: tapered end of root tip
•Apical foramen: opening @ root tip
•Enamel: hardest material in body, incapable of remodeling/repair
•Dentin: tooth bulk, sensitive to cold/hot/air/touch
•Cementum: covers root of tooth; overlies dentin; anchors tooth to bony socket
•Pulp: blood vessels & nerves entering through apical fora. |
|
|
Term
What is periodontium? What are its 3 parts? |
|
Definition
attachment apparatus that supports the tooth in the bone
- alveolar process: bone extensions of maxilla & mandible that supports teeth
- periodontal ligaments: dense CT connects teeth to alveolar bone; protect from normal shock
- gingiva: soft tissue surrounds teeth & covers alveolar process
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Term
Blood supply & drainage of oral cavity: |
|
Definition
- branhces from maxillary
- drainage to pterygoid plexus
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|
|
Term
What are the four visceral compartments of the neck? |
|
Definition
- pharynx --> esophagus
- larynx --> trachea
- thyroid gland
- parathyroid
|
|
|
Term
What are the three parts of the pharynx & its two "valves"? |
|
Definition
- nasopharynx, orthopharynx, & laryngopharynx
- valves = solft palate (b/n naso.x & oroph.) & epiglottis (larynx inlet; b/n oroph. & laryngo.)
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|
Term
What is the fibromuscular tube that is deficient anteriorly as a result of openins in teh nasal & oral cavities & larynx; is posterior to nasal & oral cavities & continuous w/ esophagus & larynx? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The pharynx consists of the what layers from innermost to outermost? |
|
Definition
- mucous membrane continuous w/ auditory tubes & nasal, oral, and laryngeal cavities;
- fibrous coat: thickest insuperior extent & forms a median raphe posteriorly
- muscular layer
- fascial layer (a.k.a. buccopharyngeal fascia): covers outer surface of pharyngeal muscles
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|
Term
In the pharynx b/n the fascial layers of the neck there may be spaces that provide a conduit for the spread of infections from the neck to the mediastinum. What are they? |
|
Definition
- Pretracheal space
- Retropharyngeal space - part of prevertebral fascia; potential space b/n the buccopharyngeal fascia & prevertebral fascia
- space w/n prevertebral layer
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|
Term
Characteristics of nasopharynx: |
|
Definition
- posterior to nasal cavities & above soft palate
- lined w/ respiratory ciliated epithelia
- contains openings of auditory/pharyngotympanic tubes for communication w/ middle ear
- contains abundant muscosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
- lymphoid tissue aggregates in pharyngeal & tubal tonsils
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|
|
Term
Characteristics of oropharynx: |
|
Definition
- extends from soft palate to sup. aspect of epiglottis
- MALT in lingual & palatine tonsils
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|
Term
Characteristics of laryngopharynx: |
|
Definition
- from superior border of epiglottis to inferior border of cricoid cartilage
- lined w/ stratified squamous epithelium
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|
Term
The muscles of the pharynx participate in ________. They contract sequentially from superior to inferior in order to push bolus from oropharynx and laryngopharynx into esophagus. What muscles do this? |
|
Definition
deglutition; Constrictor pharyngeal muscles
- superior, inferior, & middle
- innervation by vagal branches from pharyngeal plexus
- other muscles of pharynx include longitudinal muscles (salpingopharyngeus & stylopharyngeus) & palatopharyngeus muscle
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|
Term
What is the blood supply to the pharynx? |
|
Definition
mainly branches from external carotid arteries
- Ascending pharyngeal artery
- facial artery branches
- different branches of maxillary & lingual arteries
- inferior thyroid arteries (thyrocervical trunk from subclavian artery) for inferior parts of pharynx
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|
|
Term
Venous Drainage of Pharynx: |
|
Definition
venous drainage of pharynx is to either
- pterygoid plexus (superior aspects)
- facial & internal jugular veins (inferior aspects)
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|
|
Term
Motor & sensory innervation to pharynx is through the pharyngeal plexus formed by branches from...? |
|
Definition
- Glossopharyngeal (motor to stylopharyngeus & sensory to oropharynx; afferent limb of gag reflex)
- Vagus (motor to 5 pharyngeal muscles & sensory to larynogopharynx)
- Post-ganglionic sympathetic (superior cervical ganglion)
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|
|
Term
A gag reflex overcomes your patient as you
lightly swab an area of the oropharynx. What
nerve carries the sensory fibers of this reflex?
1. mandibular
2. maxillary
3. facial
4. glossopharyngeal
5. vagus |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The palatine tonsils drain into the __________ (tonsillar) lymph nodes |
|
Definition
The palatine tonsils drain into the jugulodigastric (tonsillar) lymph nodes
...from there drain into deep cervical nodes |
|
|
Term
Deglutition occurs in what 3 stages? |
|
Definition
- Buccal (voluntary: food masticated & bolus pushed into oropharynx)
- pharyngeal (involuntary: nasopharynx closed off to prevent reflux of food into nose, larynx elevated, epiglottis closed, bolus propelled)
- esophageal (involuntary: 3 constrictors, food enters esophagus
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|
Term
What part of the respiratory system is involved in vocalization (phonation) & connects the inferior part of the pharynx w/ the trachea? Where does it begin and end? |
|
Definition
Larynx
- begins at level of vertebrae C4 or C5
- ends at level of C7
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|
Term
What are the 3 single & 3 paired cartilages of the larynx? |
|
Definition
- 3 single: thyroid, cricoid, & epiglottic
- 3 paired: arytenoid, corniculate, & cuneiform
|
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|
Term
Differentiate b/n intrinsic & extrinsic ligaments: |
|
Definition
- intrinsic ligaments connect larynx cartilages; closure of larynx inlet & regulate tension of phonation
- extrinsic ligaments connect larynx w/ hyoid bone & trachea; maintain, elevate, or depress larynx
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|
Term
Except for the cricohyoid muscle, all the other intrinsic muscles are innervated by what nerves (that are branches of the Vagus)? |
|
Definition
recurrent laryngeal nerves (R & L) |
|
|
Term
Clinical Diagnosis: enlarged pharyngeal tonsils due to recurrent infections; may block airway & problems breathing through nose; obstruction to pharynotympanic tube causes inc. risk of ear infections & spread into paranasal sinuses --> sinusitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Clinical diagnosis: commonly called "sore throat"; caused by viral infection like Streptococcus pyogenes in children; can lead to predisposed otitis media; throat can be reddened & cervical lymph nodes may be enlarged (jugulodigastric). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
surgical removal of palatine & lingual tonsils; advised if pt has recurrent attacks of tonsillitis, airway obstructions & hearing difficulties |
|
|
Term
8 year old boy has tonsillectomy. After, complains that the back of his mouth feels funny. After examination, his pediatrician determines that he has lost taste and sensation on posterior third of his tongue. Which of the following nerves has most likely been injured during the surgical removal of his tonsils?
a)Facial
b)Glossopharyngeal
c)Hypoglossal
d)Lingual
e)Vagus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the blood supply to the thyroid: |
|
Definition
- superior thyroid of external carotid artery
- inferior thyroid of thyrocervical artery (subclavian)
- both anastomose extensively to ensure blood supply to gland & provide potential collateral circulation b/n subclavian & ECA
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|
Term
Venous & Lymphatic drainage of the thyroid: |
|
Definition
- venous: superior thyroid .> internal jugular vein; middle thyroid > internal jugular vein; inferior thyroid > brachiocephalic vein
- lymphatic: to superior & inferior deep cervical nodes
|
|
|
Term
Innervation of the thyroid gland: |
|
Definition
- sympathetic fibers from superior, middle, & inferior cervical ganglion
- vasomotor effects (blood vessels)
|
|
|
Term
What is goiter and its causes? |
|
Definition
- thyroid pathology in which there is a chronic enlargement of the thyroid gland (not due to neoplasm)
- caused by Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Grave's disease, diet, or medications
|
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms & signs of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
- symptoms: fatigability, coldness, weight gain, constipation, low voice
- signs: cool, dry skin, swlling of face/hands/lefs, slow reflexes, myxedema...in newborns possible retardation, short stature, swelling or deafness & frequent in middle aged women
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|
Term
What are the 4 types of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
- primary: thyroid gland failure
- secondary: pituitary failure
- tertiary: hypothalamic failure
- peripheral resistance: mutation in hormone receptors
|
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|
Term
What is hyperthyroidism & its symptoms? |
|
Definition
- heat intolerance, weight loss, increased GI activity, tremor & palpitations, diaphoresis & inc. sweating, atrial fibrillation
- lid retraction & lid lag; exophthalmos, goiter
|
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|
Term
Where are the parathyroid glands located? What is the arterial supply, venous drainage, & lymphatic drainage? |
|
Definition
- 2 pairs of small, oval endocrine glands; superior = above entrance of inferior thyroid arteries & inferior = below entrance of inferior thyroid arteries
- arterial supply: superior thyroid artery, infer. thyroid artery, & thyroid artery
- venous drainage: parathyroid veins > thyroid plexus of veins > sup, mid, & inf. thyroid veins
- lymphatic drainage: paratracheal & deep cervical lymph nodes
|
|
|
Term
Following surgery on the upper pole of the right lobe
of the thyroid gland, a patient complains of
hoarseness and weakness of voice. What nerve may
have been injured?
1. Ansa cervicalis
2. External branch of the superior laryngeal
3. Inferior laryngeal
4. Internal branch of the superior laryngeal
5. Recurrent laryngeal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 4 neck fascial compartments? What makes up each compartment? |
|
Definition
- Musculofascial - platysma, trapezius, SCM, infrahyoid
- visceral - upper respiratory & digestive tract structures & glands (thyroid, parathyroid)
- neurovascular - common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, vagus nerve
- prevertebral - vertebra & associated prevertebral muscles (rectus & longus capitis, scalenes)
|
|
|
Term
What is the origin, motor innervation, & action of the platysma? |
|
Definition
- origin is from subcutaneous tissue of area of clavicle
- motor innervation is by cervical branch of facial
- one action is to tighten skin in neck
- actually classified as facial expression muscle
|
|
|
Term
Origin, insertion, motor innervation, & actions of Sternocleidomastoid: |
|
Definition
- origins are manubrium of sternum & clavicle
- insertion is to mastoid process & superior nuchal line
- motor innervation through accessory nerve CN XI
- actions: unilaterally rotate head & bilaterally flex head to chest
|
|
|
Term
What are the origins, insertions, motor innervation, & action of the trapezius/back muscle? |
|
Definition
- origins: superior nuchal line, external occipital protuberance, & spinous processes of C7 & thoracic vertebrae
- insertions: scapula & clavicle
- motor innervation: CN XI (acessory)
- action: elevate scapula when shrugging shoulder
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|
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Term
Several cranial and peripheral nerves pass through and/or send branches to neck structures. What are these cranial nerves & what are the cervical plexuses integrated by? |
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Definition
- CN: 7, 9, 10, 11, 12
- cervical plexus integrated by ventral rami of C1-C4 which provide w/ motor innervaation to most muscles in neck & sensory innervation to anterior & lateral aspects
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Term
What are the five plexuses & therir locations? |
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Definition
- Cervical Plexus (C1-C4)
- Brachial Plexus (C5-T1)
- Thoracic spinal nerves T2 - T12 (no plexus)
- Lumbar Plexus (L1-L4)
- Sacral Plexus (L4-S4)
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Term
The cervical plexus has the superior & inferior roots of ansa cervicalis & the phrenic nerve. Which cervical plexuses from the phenic nerve keep the diaphragm alive? |
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Definition
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Term
Trauma to the anterolateral aspects of the neck
results in weakened function of infrahyoid muscles
and deglutition difficulty. Lesion of which of the
following nerves may account for these problems?
1. Accessory
2. Ansa cervicalis
3. Hypoglossal
4. Mandibular
5. Phrenic
6. Vagus |
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Definition
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Term
20 yo man was slashed in right anterior cervical region (anterior triangle). He was bleeding from the external jugular vein. Once the hemorrhage was controlled he was taken to an emergency room for physical examination. When the patient was asked to protrude his tongue, its apex was turned to the right side. The physician concluded that there was a nerve lesion. Which would be the most likely cause for this deviation of the tongue?
a)Injury of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
b)Injury of the pharyngeal plexus of nerves
c)Injury of the right hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
d)Injury of the transverse cervical nerve (C2 and C3) |
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Definition
c)Injury of the right hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) |
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Term
What is the blood supply to the neck? |
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Definition
- arterial supply is through branches of subclavian (subdivided by anterior scalene muscle into 3 parts)
- also contribution from external carotid
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Term
List/describe the three parts of the subclavian: |
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Definition
- before anterior scalene; contains (1) vertebral artery that ascends up neck to skull (2) thyrocervical trunk supplies mostly thyroid gland (3) internal thoracic descends into thorax
- posterior to ant. scalene; contains costocervical trunk
- lateral to ant. scalene; dorsal scapular
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Term
When you ask your patient to shrug their
shoulders, which cranial nerve are you
evaluating?
1. Vagus
2. Glossopharyngeal
3. Spinal accessory
4. Hypoglossal
5. Trigeminal |
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Definition
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Term
For description purposes, the neck is divided into 2 anterior & 2 posterior triangles. What are the 4 subdivisions of the anterior triangle & the 2 subdivisions of the posterior triangle? |
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Definition
Anterior triangles:
-submandibular (R & L)
-carotid (R & L)
-muscular (R & L)
-submental (1 triangle)
Posterior triangles:
-occipital
-supraclavicular |
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Term
What is the anterior triangle defined by (borders)? |
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Definition
defined by anterior border of SCM, inferior bordre of mandible & midline of neck |
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Term
Where is the submandibular triangle & what does it contain? |
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Definition
- b/n inferior border of mandible & anterior & posterior bellies of digastric muscle
- contains submandibular gland, submandibular duct, submandibular lymph nodes, CN XII
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Term
Where is the submental triangle (1) located & what does it contain? |
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Definition
- b/n body of hyoid bone & R & L anterior bellies of digastric muscles
- contains submental lymph nodes
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Term
Where is the muscular triangle & what does it contain? |
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Definition
- bounded by anterior border of SCM, superior belly of omohyoid, midline of neck
- contains infrahyoid muscles, thyroid, & parathyroid glands
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Term
Where is the carotid triangle & what does it contain? |
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Definition
- bounded by superior belly of omohyoid, posterior belly of digastric, & anterior border of SCM
- contains carotid sheath (common carotid artery, internal jugular vein & vagus nerve); bifurcation of common carotid into internal & external carotid arteries; carotid sinus & carotid body
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Term
What is the posterior triangle defined by (borders)? |
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Definition
defined by posterior border of SCM, anterior border of trapezius & middle third of clavicle |
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Term
What is the occipital triangle crossed by? |
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Definition
- larger triangle superiorly
- crossed by accessory nerve (CN XI)
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Term
What does the supraclavicular triangle contain? |
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Definition
- smaller inferior triangle
- contains external jugular vein & subclavian artery (third part) & vein
- brachial plexus
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Term
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Definition
- area just above the superior surfaces of first ribs, manubrium of sternum, & body of first thoracic vertebra
- higher posteriorly than anteriorly
- contains structures passing b/n neck, thorax & upper limb
- contains cervical pleura & a portion of lung apex
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Term
What are the key structures of the neck root? What are the components of each? |
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Definition
- arteries: brachiocephalic, common carotids, subclavian
- veins: tributaries of brachiocephalic veins (internal jugular & subclavian)
- nerves: phrenic, vagus, laryngeal recurrent, cervical part of sympathetic trunk, brachial plexus
- lymphatics: ends of thoracic duct; jugular, subclavian, & bronchomediastinal trunks
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Term
Describe the head & neck lymphatic drainage: |
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Definition
- superficial lymph nodes of head & submental triangle
- superficial lymph nodes of neck along anterior jugular vein, along transverse cervical vessels, along CN XI, & along external jugular
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Term
1. All head-neck lymph from superficial lymph nodes eventually enters _________________.
2. Deep cervical nodes (superior and inferior) follow and adhere to ________________. |
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Definition
1. All head-neck lymph from superficial lymph nodes eventually enters deep cervical nodes
2. Deep cervical nodes (superior and inferior) follow and adhere to internal jugular veins |
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Term
Schematic of Lymphatic Drainage: The right side drains into the right ____________, and the left side drains into the ____________ at vein junction of (right/left) internal jugular with subclavian veins (venous angle) |
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Definition
The right side drains into the right lymphatic duct, and the left side drains into the thoracic duct at vein junction of (right/left) internal jugular with subclavian veins (venous angle) |
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Term
The thoracic duct (or left lymphatic
duct) usually drains into the:
1. left external jugular vein
2. left subclavian artery
3. junction of the left internal jugular & subclavian veins
4. superior vena cava
5. junction of the right internal jugular & subclavian veins |
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Definition
3. junction of the left internal jugular & subclavian veins |
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Term
Clinical diagnosis: Caused by compression of subclavian artery, vein, & roots of the brachial plexus as they emerge from the root of the neck; pt complains of pain, paresthesia in arm; pallor, coldness, & swelling in arm due to dec. venous & lymphatic drainage. |
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Definition
Thoracic outlet syndrome
(common cause of C7 cervical rib & frequent in weight lifters) |
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Term
The blood supply to most of the dura mater & to the bony cranium is due to what? Where does it enter? |
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Definition
- middle meningeal artery (branch of maxillary; external carotid)
- enters middle cranial fossa through foramen spinosum & subdivides into frontal (anterior) & parietal (posterior) branches
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Term
Which of the following are true regarding blood supply to the brain? (select 3)
1. collateral blood supply through anastomosis b/n ica & ECA branches
2. vertebral arteries supply posterior aspects
3. ECA supplies most of the frontal lobe
4. collateral blood supply through anastomosis b/n ICA & vertebral branches |
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Definition
1. collateral blood supply through anastomosis b/n ica & ECA branches
2. vertebral arteries supply posterior aspects
4. collateral blood supply through anastomosis b/n ICA & vertebral branches |
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Term
The blood supply to the brain is through what two arteries? |
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Definition
internal carotid arteries & vertebral arteries (from subclavian) |
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Term
What are the eight external carotid branches? Which originate in the carotid triangle or in boundaries of the carotid triangle? |
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Definition
- superior thyroid*
- ascending pharyngeal*
- lingual*
- facial*
- occipital*
- posterior auricular
- superficial temporal
- maxillary
* = originates in carotid |
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Term
Internal/external communication is due to the angular artery anastomosis with the dorsal nasal (branch of the ophthalmic artery.) What branch of the external carotid does this occur in? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the largest & most complex terminal branch of the external carotid? Describe the 3 parts it is divided into. What is it responsible for? |
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Definition
maxillary artery
- 1st: medial to neck of mandible & inside infratemporal fossa
- 2nd: ascends obliquely near lateral pterygoid muscle of infratemporal fossa
- 3rd: in pterygopalatine fossa
- blood supply to oral cavity, nasal cavity, muscles of mastication, teeth, & most of dura
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Term
What are the three important branches of the first part of the maxillary artery & what do they do? |
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Definition
- inferior alveolar: enters mandibular foramen to supply lower teeth & comes out on chin @ mental foramen as mental artery
- acessory meningeal: to cranium via foramen ovale; supplies dura
- middle meningeal: to cranium via foramen spinosum; supplies dura; can be damaged during pterion fractures
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Term
Clinical diagnosis: injury in middle meningeal artery due to pterion fracture; collection of blood b/n periosteal dura & calvaria; neurological impairment due to compression of intracranial structures |
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Definition
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Term
A branch from middle meningeal going towards superior orbital fissure anastomoses with recurrent meningeal of lacrimal artery (branch of ophthalmic).
internal carotid branches = ?
external carotid branches = ? |
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Definition
internal carotid branches = ophthalmic
external carotid branches = maxillary & facial |
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Term
The blood supply to dura mater and to the bony cranium is mainly due to what? |
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Definition
middle meningeal artery (branch of maxillary) |
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Term
The internal carotid artery branches off the common carotid at what level to enter the cranium through the carotid canal? What are its functions? |
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Definition
- branches off common carotid at C3/C4 level
- supplies blood to brain, orbit, or ear
- provides pathway for post-synaptic (post-ganglionic) sympathetic fibers from superior cervical ganglion to reach orbit, ear, salivary glands
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Term
What nerves from the ophthalmic artery enter the eye to regulate pupil size, secrete aqueous, accommodate, receive sensory information, etc.? |
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Definition
long & short ciliary nerves |
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Term
Clinical diagnosis: sympathetic lesion that can be either preganglionic or postganglionic & relates to the superior cervical ganglion. |
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Definition
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Term
What are the 5 subdivisions of the internal carotid? |
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Definition
- cervical
- petrous
- cavernous
- supraclinoid
- terminal branches
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Term
Differentiate b/n the cervical & petrous parts of the IC: |
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Definition
- Cervical part = no branches & runs past skull level to end at posterior (or lower) end of carotid canal of petrous
- Petrous part= runs medially in petrous bone's carotid canal whose anterior (or upper) end is at middle cranial fossa next to cartilage of foramen lacerum
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Term
Clinical diagnosis: lesions in internal carotid artery due to certain traumatisms causes flow of high pressure blood into certain sinus; clinical findings include orbital bruit, exophthalmos, & EOM palsies of CN III, IV, & VI. |
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Definition
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Term
What are the three branches of the supraclinoid segment? Which of these anastomoses with maxillary artery branches? What are the two arteries of the terminal branches of the IC? |
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Definition
- (1) ophthalmic artery (2) posterior communicating artery (3) anterior choroidal artery
- branches of ophthalmic artery anastomose w/ maxillary
- terminal branches = anterior & middle cerebral arteries
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Term
What is the location of the vertebral arteries? What foramen does it go through to get to C6/C1 and which for intracranial? The right & left vertebral arteries fuse together to form what? |
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Definition
- from subclavian to C6 level
- goes into transverse foramina @ C6/C1
- gets intracranial through foramen magnum
- R & L fuse to form basilar artery
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Term
What are the 4 branches of the basilar artery? Which is the main source of blood supply to the occipital (visual) cortex that contributes to the cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis)? |
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Definition
- anterior & posterior spinal arteries
- cerebellar arteries
- pontine arteries
- posterior cerebral arteries -blood supply to occipital & contribute to circle of Willis through posterior communicating arteries
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Term
Large venous channels are formed by reflections of the dura.
These dural sinuses drain blood from the brain into what? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the main dural sinuses? |
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Definition
- Superior sagittal sinus
- Inferior sagittal sinus
- Straight sinus
- Confluence of sinus
- Transverse sinus
- Sigmoid sinus
- Cavernous sinus
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Term
The cavernous sinus is very important clincally because it contains key structures & connections. What veins in particular does it communicate with? What arteries & cranial nerves are related to it? |
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Definition
- ophthalmic veins (risk for spread of infections)
- pterygoid plexus of veins (through emmisary veins; risk for spread of infections)
- related to internal carotid artery, CN 3, 4, 5 (1 & 2 divisions) & 6
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Term
A patient has sustained a fracture to the middle cranial fossa following a fall from a height. Which of the following nerves may be injured? Select 4 answers.
a.Trigeminal b.Oculomotor c.Abducens d.Trochlear
e.Hypoglossal |
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Definition
a.Trigeminal b.Oculomotor c.Abducens d.Trochlear |
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Term
Which of the following blood vessels form the arterial cerebral circle (of Willis)? Select 2 answers.
a.Anterior cerebral arteries
b.Internal carotid arteries
c.Middle meningeal arteries
d.Superior cerebral veins
e.Vertebral arteries |
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Definition
a.Anterior cerebral arteries
b.Internal carotid arteries |
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