Term
What is the most common cause of acute viral hepatitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mild prodrome, days later dark urine, days later jaundice and pale faeces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the most common modes of transmission for Hepatitis B in Australia vs underdeveloped countries |
|
Definition
Australia = IVDU and sexual contact Underdeveloped = 90% neonate and infant transmission |
|
|
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of an acute hepatitis B infection |
|
Definition
Fever, malaise, N/V, RUQ pain, jaundice, dark urine, pale stools |
|
|
Term
What is the rate of conversion from acute to chronic hepatitis B for infant vs adult infections |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the possible complication pathways of chronic hepatitis B infection |
|
Definition
Cirrhosis leading to either HCC or liver failure |
|
|
Term
What is the serological definition of Chronic Hepatitis B |
|
Definition
the presence of HBsAg detectable for >6/12 |
|
|
Term
Describe serological evidence of an acute Hepatitis infection |
|
Definition
HBsAg +ve, HBc IgM Ab +ve, HBsAb -ve |
|
|
Term
Describe serological evidence of chronic Hepatitis B infection |
|
Definition
HBsAg +ve, HBc IgG Ab +ve, HBsAb -ve |
|
|
Term
Describe serological evidence of a resolved Hepatitis B infection |
|
Definition
HBsAg -ve, HBc IgG Ab +ve, HBsAb +ve |
|
|
Term
Describe seroligcal evidence of a patient vaccinated against Hepatitis B |
|
Definition
HBsAg -ve, HBc IgM Ab -ve, HBsAb +ve |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment approach for Hepatitis B |
|
Definition
Acute infection = supportive Chronic infection = viral suppressive therapy to try prevent conversion to cirrhosis and HCC |
|
|
Term
What are the possible natural progressions of Hepatitis C |
|
Definition
25% clear spontaneously 75% chronic infection -> cirrhosis -> decompensation / HCC |
|
|
Term
What risk factors are associated with a faster disease progression of chronic Hep C |
|
Definition
HIV, Hep B
ETOH, THC
obese, male, >40yo |
|
|
Term
how many patients are symptomatic of acute hepatitis C infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of an acute hepatitis C infection |
|
Definition
Fever, malaise, N/V, RUQ pain, jaundice, dark urine, pale stools |
|
|
Term
Describe the pathophysiology of haemochromatosis |
|
Definition
An autosomal genetic mutation of hepcidin production resulting in inappropriately increased iron absorption |
|
|
Term
Which genetic mutation combinations are associated with haemochromatosis |
|
Definition
C282Y homozygous (90% of clinically relevant cases) C282Y:H63D compound; unlikely to be associated with clinically relevant iron elevations C282Y carrier and H63D homozygous have no increased risk of iron overload |
|
|
Term
What is the age of onset for haemochromatosis symtpoms |
|
Definition
30-60, earlier with men and later with women due to menstruation and pregnancy |
|
|
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of haemochromatosis |
|
Definition
Early; lethargy, arthalgia, loss of libido Progressive; skin hyperpigmentation, arthritis, dilated cardiomyopathy, liver cirrhosis, diabetes, testicular atrophy |
|
|
Term
Diabetes, testicular atrophy, arthropathy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A hormone synthesised by the liver which functions to decrease total blood iron levels by 1) decreasing intestinal uptake 2) inhibiting red blood cell breakdown |
|
|
Term
What is the target ferritin for patients with haemachromatosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
characterise the progressive stages of non alcoholic fatty liver disease |
|
Definition
1) evidence of fatty liver without evidence of inflammation 2) with inflammation characterised by ALT elevation 3) with fibrosis 4) with cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
What is the major cause of death in patients with NAFLD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary investigation for NAFLD |
|
Definition
USS; specificity 95%, sensitivity 85% |
|
|
Term
Name the four primary domains of management for NAFLD |
|
Definition
Weight loss; strongest evidence base HMgCo-A reductase inhibitors Insulin resistant; wt loss and metformin Avoidance of all ETOH |
|
|
Term
What precautions need be given about weight loss in NAFLD |
|
Definition
>1kg / week may accelerate the progression of NAFLD |
|
|
Term
What action needs to be undertaken if an initiation of HMg-CoA reductase inhibitor results in an increase in LFTs |
|
Definition
moderate elevations in liver enzymes due to the use of statins should be tolerated and treatment continued severe elevations more than 10 times the upper limit of normal should prompt cessation of the medication and reassessment |
|
|
Term
What is an appropriate management pathway for NAFLD |
|
Definition
If USS shows no evidence of cirrhosis or portal HTN then a 6/12 of first line measures is appropriate (weight loss, HMg-CoA reductase inhibitors, metformin if insulin resistance and ETOH cessation) Reassess in 6/12 with USS and LFTs. If improvement continue, if worsening then refer |
|
|
Term
Why do only 10% of alcoholics have cirrhosis at autopsy |
|
Definition
Multiple polymorphisms of genetic coding sites for Alcohol dehydrogenase and Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase causing variable alcohol elimination rates |
|
|
Term
Dupuytren contracture + parotidomegaly + proximal myopathy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the non hepatic clinical findings for a patient with chronic alcoholism |
|
Definition
- Wernickes
- Parotidomegaly
- Proximal myopathy
- Hypertension
- Dupuytren contracture
- Cardiomyopathy
- Exocrine pancreatic failure; steatorrhoea
|
|
|
Term
Name two blood findings that would suggest chronic alcoholism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What treatment is used to prevent Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the important etiological factors of Autoimmune Hepatitis |
|
Definition
1) predominantly whites of european descent 2) 1:4 = M:F 3) bimodal distribution of onset; 10-20 and 45-70 |
|
|
Term
How do patients with Autoimmune Hepatitis present |
|
Definition
May present insidiously with fatigue, anorexia and jaundice 30% present as acute hepatitis with fever, hepatic tenderness and jaundice a small amount present with acute hepatic decompensation |
|
|
Term
What tests are diagnostic for Autoimmune Hepatitis |
|
Definition
Elevated LFTs with other causes ruled out and Smooth Muscle Antibodies positive |
|
|
Term
What is the prognosis of Autoimmune Hepatitis in patients with out without treatment |
|
Definition
Without; 5 year survival of 50% and 10 year survival of 0% With; 90% survival rate at 10 years (80% remission with corticosteroids, 20% need liver transplant) |
|
|
Term
What are the three ways in which Wilson disease presents |
|
Definition
Hepatitis, CNS signs or Kayser-Fleischer rings |
|
|
Term
How is Wilson disease diagnosed |
|
Definition
Any combination of decreased ceruloplasmin, elevated urine copper or Kayser-Fleisher rings (Liver biopsy or penacillamine test may be required in equivocal cases) |
|
|
Term
Perform a clinical examination to rule out the DDx of depression |
|
Definition
obs (? infective delirium)
mental state; delerium, psychosis, mania, withdrawal states
gen med; anaemia, hypothyroid, B12; angular cheilitis
neuro; intracerebral mass, Parkinson, dementia |
|
|
Term
What are the International Classification of Disease 10 questions for depression and how is it scored |
|
Definition
Mood, Anhedonia, Energy Concentration, Self esteem, Worthlessness, Future, Sleep, Appetite, Suicidality
1+3, 6, 8 (mild, mod, severe) |
|
|
Term
What is PHQ-2 and what does the scoring indicate |
|
Definition
- Patient Health Questionnaire; a two question depression screening tool
- 1) mood 2) anhedonia over 2 weeks
- 0, 1 (some), 2 (half), 3 (most)
- 3 = +ve
|
|
|
Term
What are the co contributing causes of depression |
|
Definition
Genetic; F>M, FHx
Biological; neurohormonal, peripartum, drugs (COCP, CS, B blocker), medical (psych, Parkinson, Dementia, thyroid, post infective states)
Environmental; stressors, seasonal |
|
|
Term
What are the different classes of antidepressants |
|
Definition
1) enzyme inhibitors - MOAI; moclobemide 2) reuptake inhibitors - NADI; bupropion - NRI; raboxetine - SNRI; venlafaxine, duloxetine, amitriptyline - SSRI; fluoxetine, citalopram, sertraline 3) receptor modulators - NaSSA; mirtazapine |
|
|
Term
Outline the considerations with antidepressant use in
- adolescents
- 18-25yo
|
|
Definition
- generally not utilised unless depression is severe
- risk vs benefit ratio is equivocal as may experience a worsening of symptoms — in particular, suicidal ideation
|
|
|
Term
What are the precautions for TCAs |
|
Definition
- epilepsy; lowers seizure threshold
- psychiatric; overdose carries high risk of fatality acute
- cardiovascular;
- proarrythmic (QT prolongation)
- chornotropic (may precipitate angina)
- orthostatic hypotension is likely to be exacerbated
- prostatic hypertrophy; risk of precipitating urinary retention
|
|
|
Term
What is the link between antidepressants and bleeding |
|
Definition
platelets require serotonin to function. SSRIs thus inhibit this uptake and increase risk (absolute risk is low) of bleeding (especially GIT). Need to contextualise with other bleeding risk factors |
|
|
Term
What are the three primary sites of action and associated functions of serotonin |
|
Definition
90% GIT; regulates intestinal movements 10% CNS; mood, appetite, sleep platelets; some GIT secreted serotonin taken up by platelets and then released when platelets bind to a clot to promote vasoconstriction and clot homeostasis |
|
|
Term
Name five agents that could contribute to serotonin syndrome |
|
Definition
TCA, SSRI, MAOi, triptans, St Johns Wart |
|
|
Term
What are the eight clinical features to assess when diagnosing serotonin syndrome |
|
Definition
1) agitation 2) temperature 3) diaphoesis 4) ocular clonus 5) tremor 6) peripheral clonus (spontaneous or inducible) 7) hypertonism 8) hyperreflexia
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is used to treat serotonin syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Outline the duration of antidepressant therapy for different scenarios |
|
Definition
1) first time; 2 weeks for onset, up to 6 weeks for full effect 2) first time with benefit; continue for 6-12 months 3) relapse of depression; likely required for 3 - 5 years |
|
|
Term
Outline the features of antidepressant discontinuation syndrome and steps to prevent it |
|
Definition
symptoms may include insomnia, postural imbalance, sensory disturbances, hyperarousal, nausea and flu-like symptoms are mild, last 1 to 2 weeks, and are rapidly extinguished with reinstitution of the antidepressant Prevent via tapering by halving dose weekly |
|
|
Term
In a presentation of a depressed patient what are the seven different mood disorders that need be considered |
|
Definition
Major Depressive Episode Post partum blues / depression / psychosis Bipolar disorder Dysthymic disorder; low or irritable mood in a young person for most days over 1 year Cyclothymia Adjustement disorder with depressed mood Secondary causes for depression |
|
|
Term
What are the indications for a child or adolescent to be referred to a mental health service |
|
Definition
- moderate to severe depression - complicated depression; suicidality, substance abuse - diagnostic uncertainty - before starting antidepressants |
|
|
Term
What are the two distinct age of onsets for Bipolar disorder and the aetiological factors associated with each |
|
Definition
- Early adulthood = genetic ("primary")
- >40yo for first episode = more likely to be secondary to
- drugs (CS, antiparkinsonian)
- medical (stroke, tumour, hyperthyroidism)
|
|
|
Term
differentiate mania and hypomania |
|
Definition
mania = elevated mood that affects function lasting >7 days hypomania = mania but lasting between 4 and 7 days |
|
|
Term
differentiate between Bipolar I and II |
|
Definition
I = has experienced at least one episode of mania II = has only experienced hypomania |
|
|
Term
Describe four domains of mania behaviour |
|
Definition
- Sleep; perceived lack of need for sleep
- Goal directed activity; promiscuity, gambling, excessive spending
- Risk taking activity
- Enhanced perceptual experience; colours are more vivid, music more meaningful
|
|
|
Term
Describe prominent thought patterns in mania |
|
Definition
Racing thoughts / flight of ideas Reduced ability to focus and complete tasks (despite having many grandiose plans) |
|
|
Term
Name three clinical features that can help to differentiate Bipolar depression from unipolar |
|
Definition
Psychomotor retardation Hyperphagia Hypersomnia |
|
|
Term
Discuss the three pharmacological treatment domains of bipolar disorder |
|
Definition
Usual regime is antipsychotic and mood stabiliser. Antipsychotics; good efficacy for mania Mood stabilisers; lithium most commonly used Antidepressants; can induce 'switching' to a manic episode and should not be used without a mood stabiliser concomittantly |
|
|
Term
How is lithium excreted and what can decrease this |
|
Definition
renal fluid status; illness, fluid loss, diuresis drugs; NSAIDs, diuretics |
|
|
Term
At what time of the day should lithium levels be measured |
|
Definition
8-12 hours after last dose |
|
|
Term
With a patient stable on lithium therapy what bloods need testing regularly and how frequently |
|
Definition
Lithium levels; 3-6 monthly Thyroid function; 6 monthly Calcium; annually with hyperparathyroid screen if it is raised |
|
|
Term
What is lithiums effect on the thyroid and how should it be treated |
|
Definition
Hypothyroidism, responds to thyroxine whilst lithium is still required |
|
|
Term
What is the link between lithium and calcium |
|
Definition
Long term lithium therapy can cause hyperparathyroidism and thus calcium levels should be measured annually and if elevated PTH levels added on |
|
|
Term
Describe the lithium toxidrome including toxic dose |
|
Definition
Acute overdose rarely results in toxicity (even up to 25g) as it is readily excreted renally. Overdose is more commonly due to chronic use in the setting of decreased excretion (fluid status decreased or concomittant NSAID use)
Toxidrome = neuro (ataxia, tremor, dysarthria), GIT (vomiting), muscle twitches and AKI |
|
|
Term
what are the clinically relevant lithium serum levels |
|
Definition
therapeutic usually = 0.6-0.8 mmol/L some may need 0.8-1.0 or 0.4-0.6 mmol/L toxicity usually only occurs over 1.5 mmol/L (in the setting of normal renal function) |
|
|
Term
what is the definition of post natal depression |
|
Definition
MDE criteria at any time within 12 months post partum |
|
|
Term
outline the timeframe for post baby blues |
|
Definition
depressive sxs peaking at day 5 post partum and resolving by day 10 |
|
|
Term
What is the screening tool used for post natal depression |
|
Definition
Edinburgh Post Natal Depression Scale |
|
|
Term
What is the most important question to ask a post natally depressed patinet |
|
Definition
thoughts of self or infant harm needs immediate action (suicide is the leading cause of maternal death in the perinatal period in developed countries) |
|
|
Term
What are three important conditions that need to be ruled out when suspecting post natal depression |
|
Definition
Post partum psychosis Anaemia Hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
What is the pharmacological mx of post natal depression |
|
Definition
same as for normal depression all antidepressants are taking up into breast milk and only case reports are available for its saftey profile thus risk vs benefits need consideration |
|
|
Term
What is the prevalence of post natal depression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the mechanism of action for St Johns Wart and what is a life threatening risk it is associated with |
|
Definition
functions similar to SSRIs risk of serotonin syndrome |
|
|
Term
what three areas define anxious behaviour as becoming pathological |
|
Definition
disproportionate; fear is greatly out of proportion to risk or threat continuing; response continues beyond existing threat dysfunction; social or occupational function is impaired |
|
|
Term
define panic attack disorder |
|
Definition
recurrent, unexpected panic attacks with at least one month of persistent concern about next attack or suffered significant behavioral change panic attack = a discrete episode of intense fear in which anxiety symptoms develop abruptly and peak within 10 mins |
|
|
Term
what are the diagnostic features of Generalised Anxiety Disorder |
|
Definition
excessive uncontrollable anxiety and worrying for at least six months about a number of events and activities (eg money, job security, health) three or more of the following (BE SKIM) Blank mind, difficulty concentrating Easy fatigability Sleep disturbance Keyed up, on edge or restless Irritability Muscle tension |
|
|
Term
What are the three diagnostic criteria for obsessive compulsive disorder |
|
Definition
1) obsession and / or compulsion 2) recognition that they are excessive / unreasonable 3) result in dysfunction |
|
|
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for PTSD |
|
Definition
1) exposure to a traumatic event 2) persistent re-experiencing of the event 3) three of; emotional numbing, anhedonia, amnesia, avoidance (of reminding thoughts / activities) 4) two or more persistent feelings of arousal; insomnia, irritability, difficulty concentrating, hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response 5) present for > 1 month |
|
|
Term
Hightlight two features that differentiate grief and depression |
|
Definition
Fluctuance; in grief negative feelings come in waves, in depression they are comparatively constant Self esteem; generally not affected in grief |
|
|
Term
What defines complicated grief |
|
Definition
> 6 months
OR
intense grief associated with impaired function |
|
|
Term
What are the five stages of grief |
|
Definition
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance |
|
|
Term
Differentiate affect and mood |
|
Definition
Affect = immediate expression of current emotion Mood = emotional experience over a more prolonged period of time |
|
|
Term
Outline the features of a mental state exam |
|
Definition
ABS always takes Jennys income
- Appearance; dressed ^, groomed ^
- Behaviour; ^ppropriate, relaxed / agitated, cooperative
- Speech; ^ rate, ^ volume, prosody is present (emotional inflection exists)
- Affect; low/ euthymic/ elevated, congruent
- Thought; ^ obsessions / delusions / hallucinations
- Judgement; “if you went home and couldn’t find keys to get into house what would you do?”
- Insight; ^ perception of disease process and need for treatment
|
|
|
Term
What is the average age of onset for schizophrenia |
|
Definition
young adulthood - mid 20's for women - younger for men (40% have first episode before 20yo) |
|
|
Term
Describe the four temporal stages of schizophrenia |
|
Definition
Premorbid; no sxs -> social, cognitive, perceptual disturbances Prodromal; sudden or insidious onset of delusions / hallucinations Middle; 5 years -> constant or fluctuant hallucinations / delusions with worsening functional components Late; established illness pattern with functional compromise either stabilising or resolving |
|
|
Term
What are the four domains of schizophrenia symptoms |
|
Definition
Positive; hallucinations / delusions Negative; decreased emotional range, anhedonia Cognitive; memory, concentration, executive function Mood; often seem happy or sad in a way that is difficult to comprehend |
|
|
Term
What is the main cause of premature death in people with schizophrenia |
|
Definition
Suicide (5% with a 20% attempt rate and higher ideation rate) |
|
|
Term
What is the link between schizophrenia and cardiovascular disease |
|
Definition
up to 5 times higher risk of metabolic syndrome with higher risk of smoking, obesity, hyperglycaemia and hyperlipidaemia |
|
|
Term
What is the recurrence rate with antipsychotics vs without and what is the general overall sucess rate of their use |
|
Definition
80% recurrence vs 20% when using 30% full resolution of sxs, 30% partial with some ongoing dysfucntion, 30% permanent sxs with significant dysfuction |
|
|
Term
Differentiate between first generation and second generation antipsychotics |
|
Definition
First generation
- have higher rate of extrapyramidal side effects
- eg Haloperidol
Second generation
- have higher rate of cariac side effects ie QTc prolongation
- eg olanzapine, respiradone, quetiapine
Importance of distinction is diminishing as efficacy is generally the same between classes and it now primarily reflects the length of time the drugs have been available |
|
|
Term
List common adverse effects that need regular monitoring for patients on long term antipsychotic therapy |
|
Definition
the sleepy fat rhythmic arrhythmic can raise neither head, brain nor droopy breast) sedation increased appetite and rapid weight gain movement disorders (eg extrapyramidal effects, akathisia) prolonged QTc sexual dysfunction (this does not appear immediately) orthostatic hypotension hyperprolactinaemia causing breast enlargement and/or galactorrhoea |
|
|
Term
Differentiate the pyramidal and extra pyramidal tracts by anatomy and function |
|
Definition
Pyramidal = a group of prefrontal cortex motor neurons that run though a specific anatomical aspect of the thalamus to form a triangular bundle. Function to transmit all voluntary skeletal muscle contractions Extrapyramidal = all other motor fibres that do not run through this tract with motor contributions for cerebellum, other cortical (ie non prefrontal cortex) locations and brainstem. Functions to convey automatic motor functions of the skeletal muscle such as gait, posture, coordination and inhibitory / regulatory signals (eg tone) |
|
|
Term
What are the three mechanisms by which the extrapyramidal tract pathologically becomes deficient in dopamine |
|
Definition
1) Dopamine antagonists (most commonly first generation antipsychotics but also antiemetics such as metoclopramide and droperidol) 2) Rapid reduction / cessation of dopamine agonists (eg parkinsons drugs, cocaine, psychotropics, opioids) 3) Degeneration of the dopamine producing cells of the substantia nigra |
|
|
Term
Differentiate the first and second generation antipsychotics |
|
Definition
1st = eg Haloperidol and chlorpromazine. AKA typical antipsychotics. Dopamine antagonists that are more likely to cause extrapyramidal side effects 2nd = eg respiridone, olanzapine, clozapine. AKA atypical antipsychotics. Also function as dopamine antagonists but less likely to cause extrapyramidal side effects and more likely to cause QTc prolongation or weight gain |
|
|
Term
Describe a patient presenting with Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome |
|
Definition
5 to 10 days after a dopamine antagonist a decreased GCS diaphoretic patient will present hyperthermic, tachycardic and hypertensive with lead pipe rigidity, sialorrhoea and possible organ dysfunction. |
|
|
Term
Tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, lead pipe rigidity and siallorhea |
|
Definition
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome |
|
|
Term
Hyperthermia, clonus, tremor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe a patient presenting with an Acute Dystonic Reaction |
|
Definition
Hours to day after a dopamine antagonist a patient will present with a sustained involuntary muscle contraction eg torticollis, oculogyric crisis or tongue protrusion |
|
|
Term
What is an oculogyric crisis |
|
Definition
A type of acute dystonic reaction after use of a dopamine antagonist |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
An extrapyramidal symptom of inner restlessness and compelling need to be in constant motion |
|
|
Term
Restless patient, refusing to stay still, in constant motion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe a patient with Tardive Dyskinesia |
|
Definition
Months to years after intiation of an antipsychotic rapid or gradual onset of repetitive involuntary muscle movements |
|
|
Term
Describe five extrapyramidal motor signs |
|
Definition
bradykinesia
cogwheel rigidity
festinating gait
postural instability
akathesia |
|
|
Term
What are the NHMRC guidelines for ETOH use |
|
Definition
- average no more than 2 standard drinks per day on average to reduce the lifetime risk of ETOH related conditions
- no more than 4 standard drinks in one session to reduce the risk of alcohol related injury
- delay drinking age as late as possible
- no ETOH in pregnancy |
|
|
Term
What are the three main causes of ETOH related deaths |
|
Definition
Trauma, cancer, ETOH liver disease |
|
|
Term
Describe CAGE screening for ETOH |
|
Definition
>1 = positive have you ever felt the need to Cut down have you ever felt Annoyed by peoples criticism of your drinking have you ever felt Guilty about your drinking do you need an Eye opener |
|
|
Term
Describe the three medications available for assistance in chronic alcoholism treatment |
|
Definition
Disulfiram; causes unpleasant and potentially harmful side effects when combined with ETOH Acamprosate; GABA analogue that decreases the neuronal hyperexcitability of alcohol withdrawal Naltrexone; blocks endogenous opioids release on ETOH ingestion thus decreases pleasurable effects of ETOH (but not functional impairment) |
|
|
Term
Agitation, tremor, diaphoresis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What advice should be given to a patient with Hep B (and a high viral load) about their capacity to transmit the virus |
|
Definition
Spread is through blood, sexual contact and open wounds. Kissing, sharing food utensils and general contact has no risk of transmission |
|
|
Term
Describe serological evidence of hepatitis B seroconversion and the implication of this |
|
Definition
- seroconversion refers to the immune control phase (ie Anti ABe +ve and Anti HBsAb +ve with low viral load)
- means that an individual is unlikely to transmit HBV
- it must be remembered that the HBV is never completely eradicated from the liver. In older age or if the patient is immune suppressed, the disease may flare again |
|
|
Term
What age range does Transient Synovitis of the Hip occur most commonly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is transient synovitis of the hip |
|
Definition
A self limiting idiopathic unilateral inflammation of the hip synovium |
|
|
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of transient synovitis of the hip |
|
Definition
3-10 year old with sudden onset hip pain. Can usually walk but with a limp due to pain. Painful limitation of hip movement. Log roll of leg elicits involuntary guardning of hip movements |
|
|
Term
Describe the etiology of Perthes disease |
|
Definition
Family history, M:F = 5:1, age 4-8 |
|
|
Term
Describe the pathophysiology of Perthes disease |
|
Definition
Idiopathic osteonecrosis of the femoral head before skeletal maturity that results in abnormal ossification |
|
|
Term
Describe the common clinical presentation of Perthes disease |
|
Definition
4-8yo male with unilateral gradual onset hip pain and a limp |
|
|
Term
Describe the etiology of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis |
|
Definition
Rare, 10-16yo, M:F = 2:1, associated with obesity |
|
|
Term
Describe the pathophysiology of Slipped Capital Fermoral Epiphysis |
|
Definition
a combination of an abnormally widened epiphyseal growth plate PLUS an abnormally weak structure to the growth plate PLUS a change in the shearing forces during adolesence from horizontal to oblique |
|
|
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis |
|
Definition
Acute, chronic or acute on chronic hip pain with limp and restricted internal rotation. May have knee pain. If severe (ie unstable) will be unable to weight bare |
|
|
Term
What are the three main areas of clinical presentation for Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis |
|
Definition
Arthropathy Uveitits Growth abnormality |
|
|
Term
What two organisms are most commonly implicated in Impetigo |
|
Definition
Strep pyogenes and Staph aureus |
|
|
Term
What are the diagnostic features of ADHD |
|
Definition
at least 6 months, in more than one situation and before the age of 12 of one or more of
- inattention; easy distraction with frequent change of activity
- hyperactivity; excessive movement and restlessness that impairs social functioning
- impulsiveness; acting without reflection |
|
|
Term
Compare age related memory changes vs mild cognitive impairment vs dementia |
|
Definition
Age related changes are a loss of memory comparable to the age cohort with speed of recall being a hallmark feature Mild cognitive impairment is loss of memory and other cognitive function greater than expected for age (50% progression to dementia over 3 years) Dementia is cognitive dysfunction with loss of function |
|
|
Term
What are the three most common forms of dementia |
|
Definition
Alzheimers disease, Vascular Dementia, Lewy Body Dementia |
|
|
Term
Describe the progression of dementia from early to intermittent to advanced via the five domains of symptomatology |
|
Definition
- Early
- cognitive; learning and retaining new information becomes difficult
- function; progressive difficulty with tasks (eg finances) and mechanistic objects (eg phone, remote, CPU)
- psychiatric; increasing mood swings, irritability and anhedonia
- behaviour and physical are not effected
- Intermittent
- cognition; cannot learn new memories, worsening loss of sense of time and space
- function; require help with basic ADLs
- psychiatric; personality changes (often anger or flattened affect), altered perception may culminate in hallucinations / delusions
- behaviour; problems begin (wandering, agitated, uncooperative)
- physical; early loss of physical capacity may begin
- Advanced
- cognition; recent and remote memory is completely lost
- function; cannot walk or perform any ADLs
- psychiatric; perceptual disturbance can worsen
- behaviour; previous problems start to settle as physical capacity declines
- physical; progression to loss of swallow with death often via infection
|
|
|
Term
Outline the diagnostic approach to dementia |
|
Definition
A combination of four components - inclusion criteria 1) memory dysfunction is gradual in onset 2) memory dysfunction is progressive in its deterioration 3) there is a failure of function eg mechanistic objects 4) there is cortical dysfunction; eg dysphasia, dyspraxia - Exclusion criteria; delerium, psychiatric disorder or other secondary causes of cognitive dysfunction - Cognitive assessment tools; GPCOG - frontal lobe assessment; clock face |
|
|
Term
What possible preventative measures can a patient take to avoid dementia |
|
Definition
Optimise CVS risk factors to prevent Vascular Dementia Growing evidence for regular - exercise - social engagement - cognitive stimulation eg sudoku, crosswords |
|
|
Term
What is the approach to management of behavioural difficulties in dementia |
|
Definition
- non pharmacological is always first line given risk of use of antipsychotics
- pharmacological
- second generation antipsychotics (given risk of lewy body dementia)
- start low, go slow
- at least 3 monthly review given natural progression of disease results in decreased behavioural dysfunction
|
|
|
Term
Are antidepressants appropriate for use in dementia patients |
|
Definition
Yes, there is a high risk of depression in patients with dementia and this should be screened for early and treated with antidepressants earlier than would be considered other causes of depression |
|
|
Term
Discuss the benefits of cholinesterase inhibitors for patients with dementia |
|
Definition
do not modify disease progression but can maintain or improve alertness, cognition and function for up to four years |
|
|
Term
What are the most common side effects with the use of cholinesterase inhibitors with dementia patients and how can these be mitigated |
|
Definition
GIT eg anorexia, nausea and vomiting often avoided by low initial dose with slow uptitration |
|
|
Term
What should a doctor diagnosing a patient with dementia inform the patient of with regards to the driving |
|
Definition
It is a reportable disease and thus the patient must inform the driving authorities of the diagnosis |
|
|
Term
What are the three key diagnostic features in a patient with dementia that would suggest Lewy Body Dementia |
|
Definition
Visual hallucinations Parkinsonism (tremor often absent) Significant fluctuations in cognition |
|
|
Term
What are the three classifications of a delerium presentation |
|
Definition
Hyperactive, hypoactive or mixed |
|
|
Term
What is the Australian life time risk for women of developing breast cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the etiologic risk of breast and ovarian cancer associated with a woman with BRCA1 or 2 gene positive status |
|
Definition
- BRCA1 and 2 account for 5% of all breast cancers
- A woman with BRCA 1 or 2 has a
- 60% chance of getting breast cancer
- 40% chance of ovarian cancer
|
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for breast cancer |
|
Definition
Family history BRCA 1 or 2 obesity oestrogen exposure smoking |
|
|
Term
What are the screening recommendations for breast cancer |
|
Definition
2 yearly mammograms from age 50 to 74 |
|
|
Term
At what age does a breast cyst usually appear and how do they present |
|
Definition
>40yo. Firm and mobile, may be tender, may fluctuate with hormonal cycle |
|
|
Term
What percentage of total breast lumps do fibroadenomas account for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the clinical findings of a breast fibroadenoma |
|
Definition
Firm, rubbery, hypermobile often in the upper outer quadrant of the breast. Can change wit hormonal cycle |
|
|
Term
What is the management for breast fibroadenoma |
|
Definition
Generally conservative. Consider surgical intervention if uncomfortable or diagnostic uncertainty |
|
|
Term
Describe the triple test for a breast lump |
|
Definition
a combination of - clinical examination - imaging; USS for <35, either USS / mammogram for 35 - 50, mammogram for >50 - FNA positive if any of the three is suspicious for malignancy positive result indicates further follow up is required (eg excisional biopsy) false +ve rate = 40%, false negative rate = 0.6% |
|
|
Term
What is the accuracy of the triple test for a breast lump excluding malignancy |
|
Definition
False positive rate = 40% False negative rate = 0.4% |
|
|
Term
Describe the two different types of mastalgia |
|
Definition
Cyclical; starts in 20's, begins with PMS sxs, resolves with menstruation, bilateral upper outer quadrant Non cyclical; starts in 30's, uni / bilateral, inner lower quadrant |
|
|
Term
What is the management for primary mastalgia |
|
Definition
Often spontaneous remission after 3/12 so conservative approach is common Bromocriptine, danozol and tamoxifen can give good relief but have significant side effects |
|
|
Term
Differentiate between physiological and pathological nipple discharge |
|
Definition
Physiological; occurs with nipple compression, multiple points of discharge, bilateral, no palpable mass and is clear / white / yellow / green Pathological; occurs spontaneously with single duct of discharge, is unilateral, may have an underlying mass and has the addition of blood to normal colour |
|
|
Term
Define primary amenorrhoea |
|
Definition
absence of periods by age 14 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics or 16 in girls with secondary sexual characteristics |
|
|
Term
How soon after the onset of secondary sexual characteristics do periods usually start |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Outline the causes of abnormal vaginal bleeding into systemic, uterine and cervical |
|
Definition
Systemic
- conditions; renal, hepatic, thyroid, coagulopathy
- drugs; hormonal (HRT, contraception), anticoagulants
- physiological; perimenarche, obesity, PCOS, perimenopausal
Uterine
- IUD
- pregnancy
- growth; myometrium (adenomyosis, fibroid), endometrium (hyperplasia, endometriosis, polyp, cancer)
- infection; endometrium
Cervical
- growth; ectropian, cancer
- infection; chlamydia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
bleeding intervals > 35 days |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Bleeding intervals <21 days |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Normal cycle length but with excessive flow |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Irregular cycle length, duration of flow and volume of flow |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Differentiate between primary and secondary dysmenorrhoea |
|
Definition
Primary has onset within 6 months of menarche. Secondary has onset later in life and is associated with pathology |
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for primary dysmenorrhoea |
|
Definition
Duration of periods, earlier age of menarche
Smoking, obesity, ETOH,
Stressors, mental health |
|
|
Term
Outline the management for primary dysmenorrhoea |
|
Definition
First line = NSAID (if not attempting pregnancy), start 48 hours before sxs if able, continue regularly throughout period Second line = OCP (can combine with NSAID) |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action for NSAIDs in the treatment of dysmenorrhoea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Outline the approach to assessment for secondary dysmennorrhoea |
|
Definition
Same as for causes of abnormal vaginal bleeding |
|
|
Term
Outline the management approach for menorrhagia |
|
Definition
- tranexamic acid; good first line
- NSAID; beware if pregnancy is possible
- oestrogen; consider usual COCP contraindications (DVT, migraines with aura, smoker >40yo)
- consider IUD; excellent efficacy
- is there proven endometriosis; requires GnRH agonist
- is there intermenstrual bleeding; NSAID / tranexamic alone will be ineffectual, need progersterone to atrophy endometrium
- Advanced; hysterectomy, endometrial ablation
|
|
|
Term
What is the treatment regime for diazepam in ETOH withdrawal |
|
Definition
20mg Q2H until improvement of sxs if 60mg reconsider Dx Max 100mg in 24 hours Wean over 2 - 7 days beware use in advance liver disease |
|
|
Term
What is the age distribution of presentations for endometrial cancer |
|
Definition
80% are post menopausal only 5% present <40yo |
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer |
|
Definition
- Elevated serum oestrogen
- adipose tissue
- SERMs (eg Tamoxifen)
- unopposed oestrogen (eg HRT for >5yrs)
- Diabetes and hypertension
- debate as to whether is a cause or result of other RFs (eg obesity)
- Hereditary
- Lynch syndrome
- breast cancer
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
an autosomal dominant genetic mutation causing a cancer susceptibility syndrome for uterine, colorectal and ovarian cancer |
|
|
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of endometrial cancer |
|
Definition
95% present with abnormal vaginal bleeding. Any bleeding at all in post menopausal women needs investigating |
|
|
Term
Discuss endometrial cancer recurrence post hysterectomy |
|
Definition
Most likely in first 5 years post hysterectomy. Occurs in vaginal vault in low risk patients with speculum examination retaining good assessment accuracy. Occurs as distant metastases in high risk patients. |
|
|
Term
What is the contribution of COCP to the risk of endometrial cancer |
|
Definition
It is a protective factor |
|
|
Term
What is chondromalacia patellae |
|
Definition
An overuse syndrome most common in 10-30 yo athletes that presents as generalised knee pain and pain on compression of patella |
|
|
Term
What is Osgood Schlatter disorder |
|
Definition
A traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle in active 10-15 year olds |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between osteochondritis and osteonecrosis |
|
Definition
Osteochondritis = a fragment of cartilage and subchondral bone separative from an articular surface which has normal vascularity In osteonecrosis the bone underlying the fragment is avascular |
|
|
Term
What is osteochondritis dissecans |
|
Definition
An idiopathic disorder in which a fragment of subchondral bone separates from an underlying bone which has normal vascularity |
|
|
Term
Differentiate spontaneous from secondary osteonecrosis of the knee |
|
Definition
Spontaneous is an idiopathic, unilateral, isolated, acute onset of knee pain occurring in >55 year olds and may be associated with osteoporosis or trauma Secondary osteonecrosis of the knee is a bilateral, insidious onset knee pain which will often have other joints invovled, occurs in <55 year olds and is associated with multiple conditions including ETOH, SLE and corticosteroids |
|
|
Term
Describe venous and arterial thrombosis in terms of shear forces and virchows triad |
|
Definition
Blood flow in arteries causes high shear forces (large difference between velocity of flow between lumen and middle of artery). Thrombosis in this setting occurs due to turbulence which activates platelets to form clots. Venous flow is low shear and clots are due to Virchows Triad (abnormalities in endothelium, blood or flow) |
|
|
Term
What is Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome |
|
Definition
A term that has replaced Trochanteric Bursitis and thus recognises that pain over the greater trochanter has a range of causes with an isolated bursitis only being one. The most other prominent cause is a tear of gluteus medius or minimus. It presents more commonly in older people, at night after a day of activity and can mimic spinal nerve root compression and OA of the hip. |
|
|
Term
Describe important etiological factors in adhesive capsulitis |
|
Definition
3% annual incidence generally but increased to 40% with diabetes 70% are women |
|
|
Term
Differentiate between idiopathic and acquired adhesive capsulitis |
|
Definition
Idiopathic = the standard form, associated with age, female, DM and progressing through the usual 3 stages Acquired = as a result of trauma, does not follow the three stages and generally resolves quicker |
|
|
Term
Describe the clinical progression of idiopathic adhesive capsulitis |
|
Definition
Phase 1; freezing phase, characterised by constant pain, worse on movement and at night. Lasts 2-9 months. Phase 2; frozen phase, motion becomes severely limited in all planes but pain abates. Lasts 3-12 months. Phase 3; thawing phase, motion slowly returns but may take up to 2 years |
|
|
Term
Clinically differentiate between adhesive capsulitis and a rotator cuff disorder |
|
Definition
Adhesive capsulitis - pain is constant - stiffness exists in all planes of movement - rotator cuff strength is reserved |
|
|
Term
Outline a classification approach to female dyspareunia |
|
Definition
- Primary vs secondary
- primary; life long, often psychological component
- secondary; acquired condition
- Superficial vs deep
- superficial especially at time of insertion is commonly a learned response
- deep is more likely to be associated with pathology
|
|
|
Term
Outline the risk of PID and infertility in women with chlamydia |
|
Definition
40% untreated will develop PID 10% infertility rate after 1st PID |
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period for chlamydia |
|
Definition
1-2 weeks. Uncommonly up to 12 weeks |
|
|
Term
Describe screening protocols for chlamydia |
|
Definition
- Heterosexual
- opportunistic
- (interval unclear as per Redbook thus case by case determination of interval is appropriate)
- women; self collected vaginal sample > endocervical sample > first pass urine (sensistivity)
- men; first pass urine
- MSM
- annual urine, anorectal and throat testing
- 3 monthly if ongoing exposure to new partners
|
|
|
Term
What methods of emergency contraception are available in which setting is each used and what are there efficacy |
|
Definition
1. Levonorgestrel - a prostegogen which taken at this dose interferes with egg and sperm mobility and disrupts uterine lining to prevent implantation - efficacy = 94% within 24hours, 85% in 48 hours and 60% in 72 hours - can be taken up to 5 days but decreased efficacy may warrant IUD instead
Copper IUD - considered if oral form not appropriate - highly effective - consider risk with STI |
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications to Implanon use |
|
Definition
- cancer
- breast cancer
- MEC 3 with strong FHx
- MEC4 if within last 5 years (only absolute contraindication)
- other sex steroid sensitive malignancies
- liver
- tumours (benign or malignant)
- severe liver disease
- active thromboembolism
- undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
- pregnancy
|
|
|
Term
What are the bleeding rates associated with Implanon use |
|
Definition
1 in 5 get amenorrhoea, 1 in 5 get frequent / prolonged bleeding |
|
|
Term
Describe the timing of insertion for the implanon |
|
Definition
1. traditional; inserting on day 1-5 of a cycle. Provides immediate contraception 2. Quick Start; inserting beyond day 5 of the cycle, need to test for pregnancy at 4 weeks after insertion, need alternative contraception for first 7 days after insertion |
|
|
Term
When can contraception be ceased after menopause |
|
Definition
2 years of amenorrhoea if <50 and 1 year if >50 |
|
|
Term
What factors are associated with an earlier onset of menopause |
|
Definition
smoking, chronic systemic disease |
|
|
Term
Draw a normal menstrual cycle and describe the function of FSH, LH, oestrogen and progesterone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe oestrogen, progesterone, LH and FSH as they apply to menopause |
|
Definition
Decreasing ovarian primordial follicle numbers associated with an increasing resistance to FSH of these follicles results in lower levels of secreted oestrogen. Thus oestrogen negative feedback on GnRH does not occur and increasingly higher levels of FSH and LH are produced (LH has good renal clearance thus FSH levels will be higher). Increasing occurrences of anovulatory cycles result in fewer corpus leteum and thus a lack of cyclical progesterone. |
|
|
Term
When can contraception be ceased with menopause |
|
Definition
After 1 year of amenorrhoea if >50yo or after 2 years if <50yo |
|
|
Term
What defines early onset menopause and premature menopause |
|
Definition
<40 = premature 40-45 = early onset |
|
|
Term
Discuss the symptom profile of menopause |
|
Definition
- Mental health; low mood, depression, anxiety, decreased concentration, irritability
- Vasomotor; flushing and night sweats
- Menstruation; perimenopausal variation in volume and frequency of periods
- Vaginal dryness / dyspareunia
- Decreased libido
- Joint pain
- Poor sleep
- Fatigue
- Formication (ants crawling over skin)
|
|
|
Term
Provide a general outline for possible HRT treatments in menopause |
|
Definition
- Best symptom relief comes from replacing the oestrogen deficit. This can be in oral or transdermal HRT preparations.
- If main sxs are vaginal could consider just topical vaginal oestrogen cream
- If woman has a uterus needs progesterone to counterbalance the endometrial hyperplasia. If within 2 years of menopause this should be cyclical (eg two weeks on, two weeks off) to provide planned bleed and thus avoid irregular bleed
- If contraindications to HRT consider SSRI, SNRI, gabapentin or clonidine all of which have proven benefit for menopausal sxs
|
|
|
Term
If a menopausal woman with vaginal dryness has a uterus and is using vaginal HRT does she need progesterone to prevent endometrial hyperplasia |
|
Definition
No. There is very minimal systemic uptake of vaginal oestrogen preparations |
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications to HRT in menopause |
|
Definition
- Absolute
- cerebrovascular disease
- current breast or endometrial cancer
- active liver disease
- unexplained vaginal bleeding
- current VTE
- active SLE
- Relative
- focal migraine
- past history of breast, endometrial or ovarian cancer
- previous IHD
- increased VTE risk
- hyperlipidaemia
|
|
|
Term
Discuss cardiovascular risk and hormone replacement therapy |
|
Definition
50 to 60 years old
- cardioprotective if no cardiac disease
- increased risk if already has cardiac disease
60+
- increases cardiac risk |
|
|
Term
What four conditions are associated with increased risk with HRT between the ages of 50 and 60 |
|
Definition
Breast cancer (with oestrogen+progesterone only)
VTE
Stroke
Cholecystitis |
|
|
Term
Discuss the risk of breast cancer with HRT |
|
Definition
Baseline risk of 30 per 10 000 woman years is increased to 36 per 10 000 woman years with oestrogen+progesteron HRT. There is no increased risk with oestrogen alone. |
|
|
Term
Does the mirena have a role in HRT for menopause |
|
Definition
Yes. It is an excellent solution to the need for progesterone when using oestrogen. |
|
|
Term
Discuss weight gain as it relates to HRT for menopause |
|
Definition
No causal association has been found. Is more likely related to menopause itself |
|
|
Term
Describe a characteristic migraine |
|
Definition
A unilateral moderately severe pulsating headache that lasts for 4-72 hours, is associated with nausea / vomiting, photo / phono phobia and may be preceeded by a sensory or motor aura |
|
|
Term
What is a Hemiplegic Migraine |
|
Definition
A migraine in which the aura includes motor symptoms |
|
|
Term
Describe a typical migrainous aura |
|
Definition
- usually preheadache
- last for ~ 1/24
- are 'positive' sxs (eg visual loss would be negative)
- 90% are visual, commonly a fortification spectra
- parasthesias are second most common
|
|
|
Term
Outline the pharmacological management approach for migraines |
|
Definition
Acute - first line is NSAID - second line is triptan +/- antiemetic and sedating antihistamine Prophylaxis - use depends on frequency and severity - first line amitriptyline, pizotifen or propranolol |
|
|
Term
Female, post partum, severe headache |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Female, obese, headache, visual change |
|
Definition
Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension |
|
|
Term
What factors differentiate a tension type headache from a migraine |
|
Definition
TTH is bilateral, non pulsatile, not exacerbated by activity, not associated with N/V, is mild to moderate and has no more than one of photophobia or phonophobia |
|
|
Term
Describe characteristic features of a cluster headache |
|
Definition
- severe, unilateral, retroorbital headache lasting 15 - 180 minutes associated with a sense of restlessness / agitation (do not lie down, unable to sit still) and at least one of
- conjunctival injection and/or lacrimation
- nasal congestion and/or rhinorrhoea
- forehead and facial sweating / flushing
- miosis and/or ptosis
- clusters result in attacks from every other day to up to 8 per day
|
|
|
Term
What is the primary differential diagnosis for cluster headache and what definitively differentiates the two |
|
Definition
Paroxysmal hemicrania which has an absolute response to Indomethocin |
|
|
Term
Name three ways in which migraines in children present differently to adults |
|
Definition
- they are shorter - photophobia and phonophobia do not develop until 12 years of age - they are more commonly bilateral |
|
|
Term
What are the indications to proceed with imaging for a patient presenting with a headache |
|
Definition
- new-onset severe headaches
- a change in character or pattern of pre-existing headaches
- headache location is exclusively occipital
- seizures
- signs of neurological dysfunction
- <6 years of age
- a history of neurocutaneous syndrome (e.g. neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis or Sturge–Weber sydrome)
|
|
|
Term
Discuss non pharmacological management of preventing migraines (prophylaxis) |
|
Definition
- Identify triggers and avoid
- hydration
- sleep; same sleep / waking time and consistently 8 hours per day
- caffiene; avoid regular use
- diet; hunger can be a trigger, avoid high sugar and processed foods
- CBT
|
|
|
Term
What are the ICD diagnostic headache criteria for Trigeminal Neuralgia |
|
Definition
Paroxysmal attacks of pain lasting from seconds to minutes affecting one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve and
- attacks are stereotyped in an individual patient
PLUS Either
- is either intense/sharp/stabbing
OR
- reproducible by a trigger (shaving/cold air etc)
|
|
|
Term
What is the pathophysiology of Multiple Sclerosis |
|
Definition
an immune mediated inflammatory disease against myelinated axons in the central nervous system |
|
|
Term
What clinical factors will allow for a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis |
|
Definition
More than one upper motor neurone lesions separated in time and space |
|
|
Term
Does multiple sclerosis present with upper motor neurone lesions, lower motor neurone lesions or both? |
|
Definition
Upper motor neurone lesions |
|
|
Term
What are the most common clinical features that present in Multiple Sclerosis |
|
Definition
- Presents as relapsing and remitting upper motor neurone lesions separated in time and space
- Commonly
- optic neuritis; 20% as first presenting symptom, 40% at some stage of the disease process
- fatigue; 75%, is the major cause of unemployment
- cognitive dysfunction; 40-70%, not correlated to physical dysfunction
- pain; primary (due to demyelinating process), secondary (MSK due to posture, lack of use, spasticity)
- bladder dysfunction
|
|
|
Term
How does optic neuritis present |
|
Definition
Loss of vision with pain on extra ocular movements |
|
|
Term
How is multiple sclerosis diagnosed |
|
Definition
- Clinical diagnosis with support from investigations
- MRI 90% sensitivity
- LP; oligoclonal IgG 90% sensitivity
- visual evoked EEG potentials; 90% sensitivity
|
|
|
Term
Discuss Vitamin D in Multiple sclerosis |
|
Definition
- RACGP Check article says
- Vitamin D decreases relapses and prevents people with FHx from developing MS
- everyone at risk should be on at least 5000IU of vitamin D
- UK MS Society
- summarises all evidence available up to 2016
- Vitamin D seems to have a role to play studies have varied in it's effectiveness safe dose not yet established
- more research needed
- Vitamin D should be given at usual amounts to target Vitamin D deficiency and not MS (ie 1000IU daily if deficient)
|
|
|
Term
What is the pathophysiology of Parkinson disease |
|
Definition
Loss of dopamine producing neurons from the CNS causing loss of automated motor function |
|
|
Term
Outline the important factors to consider when deciding between rate and rhythm control for AF |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three classes of rate control agents in chronic AF and how do they work |
|
Definition
1) beta blocker; inhibits beta adrenergic chronotropy, inotropy and arterial tone 2) calcium channel blocker; inhibits intracellular calcium uptake causing decreased arterial tone, chronotropy and inotropy 3) Digoxin; inhibits Na/K ATPase causing increased intracellular calcium mediated positive inotropy and an increased refractory period of conductive tissue thus membrane stabilisation |
|
|
Term
What are the three main receptors on which Beta blockers act, what is the function of each receptor and give examples of drugs that target them |
|
Definition
- Receptors
- B1; responsible for cardiac inotropy and chronotropy
- B2; responsible for relaxation of smooth muscle in lungs and vasculature
- alpha 1; responsible for vascular smooth muscle constriction
- Different classes
- selective for B1; metoprolol
- non selective B1/2; propanolol
- non selective B1/2 + alpha1; carvedilol, labetalol
|
|
|
Term
What are the two main classes of calcium channel blockers, how do they differ in their clinical effects, what are examples of each |
|
Definition
dyhydropiridine - eg amlodipine - causes peripheral vasodilation without cardiac depression Non-dyhydropiridines - eg Diltiazem and Verapamil - decrease PVR + cardiac depression (negative chronotropy and inotropy) |
|
|
Term
Which cardiovascular drug is associated with gum hypertrophy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Inhibits Na/K ATPase function thus - increased intracellular calcium - decreased conductive refractory period |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of digoxin toxicity |
|
Definition
Can present acutely (eg overdose) or sub acutely (eg intercurrent illness, renal dysfunction)
Clinical
- early; GIT (N/V/D, abdo pain), hyperkalaemia
- progressing to; tachy or brady arrhythmias, hypotension, CNS depression |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of the five antiarrhythmic classes and what are common drugs associated with each |
|
Definition
- Class I;
- prolong depolarisation
- flecainide
- Class II
- Class III
- prolong repolarisation
- amiodarone, sotalol
- Class IV
- calcium channel blockers
- diltiazem, verapamil
- Class V
- variable mechanism
- digoxin, adenosine, magnesium
|
|
|
Term
Discuss the use of flecanide as a first line agent for rhythm control in atrial fibrillation |
|
Definition
- Is a good first line drug if
- no structural heart disease (as it predisposes to ventricular arrhythmia)
- concomittant use of rate control drug (as it predisposes to conversion of atrial flutter into 1:1 conduction)
|
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of sotalol |
|
Definition
Combined action of non-selective B1 and B2 blockade PLUS K+ channel blocker which decreases efflux of intracellular potassium and thus causes prolonged refractory period of cardiac conductile tissue |
|
|
Term
Discuss the use of Sotalol as a first line agent for rhthym control in atrial fibrillation |
|
Definition
Good first line agent in <65yo with good renal function and no other cardiac conduction dysfunction (thus avoiding risk sinister arrhthmia, especially Torsades) |
|
|
Term
Discuss the possible effects of Amiodarone on the thyroid |
|
Definition
Can cause a spectrum of disease from subclinical TFT abnormalities to severe thyroid disease. Can in those with or without underlying thyroid disease Results from amiodarone induced - iodine load from Amiodarone molecule - inhibition of T4 clearance - inhibition of T4 tissue uptake - pituitary induced TSH elevation - direct thyroid follicle toxicity Thyrotoxicosis occurs as - Type 1; due to iodine overload - Type 2; due to destrictive thyroiditis Hypothyroidism is more likely in the setting of Hashimotos |
|
|
Term
Discuss Amiodarone and pregnancy |
|
Definition
Should be stopped 3 months before pregnancy due to potential for thyroid dysfunction in foetus. Do not take whilst breast feeding |
|
|
Term
What effect can Amiodarone have on the lungs |
|
Definition
Two main types of pulmonary toxicity - an acute or delayed inflammatory disorder which is reversible if caught early and may respond to corticosteroids - a chronic fibrotic form due to prolonged exposure with limited reversibility |
|
|
Term
Discuss preinitiation and monitoring investigations for a patient on Amiodarone |
|
Definition
- Preinitiation
- serum electrolytes, liver function and TFTs
- ECG
- lung function
- CXR
- Monitoring
- 6 monthly electrolytes, LFTs, TFTs
- annual CXR and ECG
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Term
What monitoring needs to continue post amiodarone cessation |
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Definition
6 monthly TFTs for 12 months due to delayed onset thyroid disease |
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Term
In what setting is Amiodarone preferred over other antiarrhythmics when treating atrial fibrillation |
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Definition
Heart failure; amiodarone has a relatively low negative inotropy |
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Term
Discuss the risk assessment for AF patients to determine the use of anticoagulation |
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Definition
CHA2DS2-Vasc: -CHD, HTN, Age (65-72 =1, +74=2), DM, VTE/Stroke =2, Vascular disease - if 1 consider anticoagulation, if >1 anticoagulation recommended HAASBLED - HTN, Abn LFT, Abn renal function, Stroke history, Bleeding predisposition, Labile INR, Elderly (Age >65), Drug / ETOH use - score >3 = high bleeding risk - not that this does no preclude from anticoagulation as these are often the patients who will benefit the most. Instead it often highlights areas of optimisation to allow safer use (eg ceasing antiplatelets or controlling HTN) |
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Term
Describe the acuity of action required for a TIA |
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Definition
Is a medical emergency as 5% of patients will have a stroke within 48 hours and 10% within 2 weeks |
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Term
What is the new definition of a TIA and why is the old one inadequate |
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Definition
Old definition = CNS signs lasting <24 hours. MRIs are now showing that many of these are strokes. Furthermore, 80% of neurological changes that last >1hour will have some degree of permanency. New definition is transient CNS ischaemia causing dysfunction but without infarction ("TIA should be heard and not seen") |
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Term
What are the common causes of a TIA |
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Definition
Microvascular (within the brain) Macrovascular (commonly carotid arteries) Cardiac arrhythmia (commonly AF) |
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Term
What is the acronym FAST as applies to TIA |
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Definition
Face, Arm, Speech, Time to act 90% sensitivity |
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Term
Describe the risk stratification of a patient presenting with a TIA and the resultant pathway |
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Definition
ABCD2 score - Age > 60 (1pt) - BP > 140/ OR > /90 (1pt) - Clinical; unilateral weakness (2 pts), speech without weakness (1pt) - Duration; <60mins (1pt), >60mins (2pt) - Diabetes; 1pt
High risk = urgent inpatient referral for comprehensive assessment - ABCD2 >4 OR - AF OR - crescendo TIA (> 1 in one week) - carotid bruit
Lower risk = outpatient assessment and referral - CT brain for space occupying lesion - USS carotid within 48 hours - FBC, electrolytes, renal function, lipids, BSL, ESR - ECG; if AF present apply CHADSVASC. If score is 1 or greater then anticoagulate |
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Term
Outline the drug and risk factor management for a first presentation TIA |
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Definition
Lifestyle modification
Anticoagulate
- CT brain not required before starting as long as there is no ongoing neurological change (as bleed is unlikely to cause a TIA)
- if AF use warfarin / NOAC
- otherwise, start antiplatelet (Clopidogrel 1st line, Assassantin 2nd line but high SE profile or aspirin)
- Nb/ that aspirin has only mild decrease in efficacy so pretty good as first line (NNT 100 before benefit shown for others)
Statin
- even if normal lipids
Antihypertensive
- even if normal aim for asymptomatic decrease by 10mmHg
- harm if started in first 2 weeks so wait until after this
- ACEi good choice generally
Glycaemic control |
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Term
What is the driving advice for TIA |
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Definition
No driving for 2/52 (4/52 for commercial) |
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Term
What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy |
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Definition
Uterine - IUD - previous STI / pelvic infection - endometriosis Tubal - previous tubal surgery - sterilisation - tubal pathology Previous ectopic |
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Term
At what foetal age will transvaginal USS reliably detect uterine pregnancy |
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Definition
5/40 or bHCG > 1500 (6500 if abdominal USS) |
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Term
How is bHCG different in ectopic pregnancy |
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Definition
Rate of increase is significantly lower If >50 000 ectopic is unlikely |
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Term
What are the managment options for an ectopic pregnancy |
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Definition
Medical; methotrexate, if bHCG < 3000 Surgical |
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Term
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Definition
Meningitis (as per Murtagh) |
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Term
What are the contraindications to a lumbar puncture in suspected meningitis |
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Definition
Signs of raised ICP; focal neurology, papilloedema, decreased level of consciousness Coagulopathy Infection; local or sepsis |
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Term
In the setting of suspected menigococcal disease in a child outline the protocol for antibiotic therapy |
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Definition
Third generation cephalosporin before transfer to emergency department (Cefotaxime / Ceftriaxone). IV is preferred to IM as perfusion with sepsis may limit absorption however if unable to site an IV or IO line then IM if preferrable to nothing |
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Term
Discuss chemoprophylaxis in meningococcal meningitis |
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Definition
Aims to eliminate the likely asymptomatic carrier in close (usually household) contacts. Ciprofloxacin and ceftriaxone are first line. |
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Term
What organism causes meningococcal meningitis |
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Definition
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Term
What is the IM dose of adrenaline in anaphylaxis |
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Definition
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Term
What are the four systems primarily affected by anaphylaxis and how do these delineate mild, moderate and severe |
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Definition
Skin, GIT, Respiratory, Cardiovascular
Mild = skin only Moderate = + GIT, Respiratory or Cardiovascular Severe = hypoxia, hypotension or neurological compromise |
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Term
What are the five types of hypersensitivity reactions, what are their primary mediators and what is an example of a disease of this process |
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Definition
Type I; immediate hypersensitivity, IgE mediated mast cell degranulation of vasoactive molecules, anaphylaxis Type II; antibody dependent (antigen binds to a host cell and antibody response thus attacks cell as well as antigen), RHD Type III; immune complex (antibody binds to a free antigen with resultant complex depositing in kidney, joint or muscle), RA and PSGN Type IV; delayed hypersensitivity (memory T cells activated on representation of previously exposed antigen), contact dermatitis V; autoimmune disease, Graves disease |
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Term
In a sibling of a child with anaphylaxis to a certain food at what age should the allergenic food be introduced into their diet |
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Definition
There is no limitation of dietary exposures of relatives to someone with anaphylaxis. General guidelines should thus be followed which indicate that solids be introduced at 4-6 months and not to withhold allergenic foods such as nuts. |
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Term
What is the mortality rate of acute pancreatitis |
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Definition
20% of episodes of pancreatitis are severe and of these the mortality rate is 30% |
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Term
What are the two most common causes of pancreatitis |
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Definition
Gallstones and ETOH (90% of cases) |
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Term
What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis and what delineates it from acute pancreatitis |
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Definition
ETOH (90%) progressive loss of exocrine function |
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Term
What is the clinical presentation of chronic pancreatitis |
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Definition
- Pain; typically epigastric radiating to the back and accompanied by vomiting. May be exacerbated by food or alcohol
- Exocrine insufficiency; hallmark = steatorrhoea due to defective secretion of lipase and bicarbonate, causing fat malabsorption. A 90% loss of exocrine function is needed before steatorrhoea develops
- Weight loss; fat and protein malabsorption
- Glucose intolerance; late and is usually insulin dependent
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Term
Differentiate the glucose intolerance of DM and chronic pancreatitis |
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Definition
In chronic pancreatitis - alpha cells (which secrete glucagon to counter the effects of insulin) are affected as well as beta cells, making patients more predisposed to hypoglycaemic attacks - DKA and end-organ damage (nephropathy or retinopathy) are uncommon |
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Term
What is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, who does it usually affect and what is the mortality rate |
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Definition
- Defined as an ascitic fluid infection without an evident intra-abdominal surgically treatable source
- Primarily occurs in patients with
- advanced cirrhosis
- gross ascites
- Mortality rate from a single episode has been estimated as 10 - 46% (if presentation is late with established sepsis survival is unlikely)
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Term
Discuss the presenting features of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis |
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Definition
Fever; can be low grade as patients with advanced cirrhosis may have a baseline hypothermia Abdominal pain; and associated signs are typically less pronounced than patients with peritonitis from a surgical cause. The separation of the peritoneal surfaces by large volume ascitic fluid prevents the development of a rigid abdomen Confusion Haemodynamic instability |
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Term
In a patient with advanced alcoholic liver disease list 7 different causes were they to present with confusion |
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Definition
- Hepatic encephalopathy
- Wernicke encephalopathy
- Head trauma
- Intracranial event
- Electrolyte disturbance
- Infection (including Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis)
- Alcohol withdrawal
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Term
What are the four domains of schizophrenia symptoms |
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Definition
Positive symptoms; hallucinations, delusions, disorganised speech and behaviour Negative symptoms; decrease in emotional range, poverty of speech, loss of interests and drive (the person with schizophrenia has tremendous inertia) Cognitive symptoms; memory, attention, executive function, abstract, difficulty understanding interpersonal subtleties Mood symptoms; often seem cheerful or sad in a way that is difficult to understand |
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Term
Discuss the pathophysiology and clinical differentiation of a tibial stress reaction and stress fracture in a long distance runner |
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Definition
Is a continuum Stress reaction results in increased bone deposition and is associated with generalised tibial pain on exercise that improves with 'warming' up Stress fracture results from increasing bone stress which tips the balance of bone depostion:resorption into resorption with a resultant fracture. The pain will become increasingly severe, occur at rest / night and will have a localised point tenderness. Hopping (or other jarring activities are often a more prominent inducer of pain) |
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Term
In a patient with a sports related tibial stress fracture who presents with calf pain only on exercise what is the diagnosis |
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Definition
Recurrent Exertional Compartment Syndrome |
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Term
What is the most likely structure to be damaged in an ankle sprain? |
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Definition
The anterior talofibular ligament |
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Term
What are the highest risk populations for syphilis in Australia |
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Definition
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Term
What is a common co-infection with syphilis |
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Definition
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Term
Which organism causes syphilis |
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Definition
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Term
What is the incubation period of syphilis |
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Definition
10-90 days (commonly 3/52) |
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Term
Describe the four stages of syphilis |
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Definition
Primary syphilis; chancre (painless, punched out lesion with rolled edges, highly infectious) Secondary syphilis; 4-10 weeks after the primary lesion, associated with spirochete multiplication. Systemic manifestations include malaise, fever, myalgias, arthralgias, lymphadenopathy. Typical rash present in 80% (symmetrical, generalised, coppery-red, maculopapular, face, trunk, palms, soles, non pruritic, non tender) Latent syphilis; resolution of features of secondary syphilis. May experience recurrence of the infectious skin lesions of secondary syphilis Tertiary syphilis; 30% conversion rate from latent overall, mainly affects the cardiovascular system (80-85%) and the CNS (5-10%), developing over months to years and involving slow inflammatory damage to tissues |
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Term
What are the characteristic features of a syphilis chancre |
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Definition
painless, punched out lesion with rolled edges |
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Term
Describe the rash of secondary syphilis |
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Definition
- symmetrical, generalised, coppery-red, maculopapular - face, trunk, palms, soles - non pruritic, non tender |
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Term
Outline the time based sensitivities of syphilis testing |
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Definition
Chancre swab; immediately positive Serum; may be false negative within first 4 weeks of chancre. Will remain positive if previous infection. |
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Term
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Definition
Intramuscular injection of 1.8 g benzathine penicillin is given weekly for 3 weeks |
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Term
Discuss the main causes of erectile dysfunction |
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Definition
- 80% have an organic cause
- primarily vascular disease and medications
- 20% are psychogenic
- cluster around the begining of sexual experience
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Term
What is the first line therapy for erectile dysfunction and what factors need to be considered before its prescription |
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Definition
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor - are they cardiovascularly fit for sexual activity + the medication - are they taking nitrates |
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Term
What alarm symptoms warrant progression to endoscopy for a patient with GORD |
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Definition
weight loss dysphagia early satiety haematemesis melaena anaemia dyspeptic symptoms unresponsive to 4 weeks of acid-suppression |
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Term
Compare the three non invasive investigations for H. Pylori |
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Definition
Urease breath test has high positive and negative predictive value. Is the most appropriate for post treatment erradication assessment. Serology for H. Pylori IgG. The most accessible test. High titres suggest active infection, low titres suggest previous infection (can remain elevated for 12 months). Thus not useful as post erradication test. Stool antigen. Accurate but least patient preferrential |
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Term
What is the role of glycolysis, gluconeogenesis, glucogenolysis and glycogenesis |
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Definition
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Term
Outline the function of pancreatic acinar cells, Islets of Langerhans, alpha cells and beta cells |
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Definition
Acinar cells; form the bulk of the pancreas, synthesis exocrine digestic enzymes Islets of Langerhans; interspersed between the Acinar cells, contain the alpha and beta cells Alpha cells; synthesize glucagon Beta cells; secrete insulin |
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Term
Where is glucagon produced and what are its three functions |
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Definition
Alpha cells of pancreas Promotes hyperglycaemia via - glycogenolysis; breakdown of glycogen to glucose - gluconeogenosis; synthesis of glucose from lactic acid, fats and amino acids |
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Term
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Definition
Gut; decreases glucose absorption Liver; inhibits gluconeogenesis Cells; sensitises to insulin |
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Term
What are the side effects of metformin |
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Definition
GI; nausea, diarrhoea Lactic acidosis decreased B12 absorption |
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Term
How do sulfonylureas work |
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Definition
Stimulate beta cell release of insulin |
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Term
What are the side effects of sulfonylureas |
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Definition
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|
Term
Name some common drugs of the sulfonylurea class |
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Definition
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Term
What are incretins and how does it work |
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Definition
Incretins are hormones released by the L-Cells of the small intestine in response to a carbohydrate load. They comprise of Glucagon Like Peptide (GLP) and Glucose-dependant Insulinotropic Peptide (GIP).
They function to - Gut; decrease gastric motility thus promoting satiety - Pancreas; inhibit alpha cell glucagon release - Pancreas; stimulate beta cell insulin release - Brain; affect appetite centres to simulate satiety |
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Term
How do DPP4i drugs work, what are the side effects and what are some common examples |
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Definition
Dipeptidyl peptidase functions to break down the incretin GLP. Thus DPP4i drugs inhibit this process. Side effects are minimal but caution in renal and pancreatic dysfunction Eg sitagliptin, linagliptin |
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Term
How do GLP-1 drugs work, what are the side effects and what are some common examples of this class |
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Definition
A synthetic form of the incretin GLP-1 Caution in renal dysfunction and previous pancreatitis. Mild risk of hypoglycaemia Eg; Exenatide |
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Term
How do SGLT2 inhibitors work, what are some side effects and name some examples of this drug class |
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Definition
inhibts the renal sodium-glucose transporter thus promoting glycosuria Cation in renal dysfunction. Can cause thrush / UTI Eg dapagliflozin |
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Term
What is the koebner phenomenon |
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Definition
A psoriatic flare brought on by minor trauma to an area |
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Term
What is the pathophysiology of psoriasis |
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Definition
Inappropriate T cell activation with skin manifestations resulting from localised keratinocyte hyperproliferation causing scaling and blood vessel proliferation causing erythema |
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Term
What are the non dermatological complications of psoriasis |
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Definition
Arthritis IBD Uveitis associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease, obesity, diabetes and depression |
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Term
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Definition
Fungal infection of the nail |
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Term
What is the false negative rate for toe nail clippings as diagnosis for onychomycosis |
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Definition
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Term
Describe the treatment and associated precautions of onychomycosis |
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Definition
Confirm diagnosis with nail clippings and scrapings. Will need topical and systemic treatment Will take 3-9 months for effect. Systemic treatment first line is Terbinafine. Need to do baseline and then 6 weekly FBC and LFTs to monitor for liver toxicity. |
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Term
Describe the different findings when paring a callus vs corn vs wart |
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Definition
Callus will pare down to normal tissue Corn will pare down to a non bleeding keratin plug Wart will pare down to multiple pinpoint bleeding points |
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Term
Outline the criteria for the NYHA dyspnoea classificant |
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Definition
Fatigue, dyspnoea or palipiations - I; do not occur with normal activity - II; occur slightly with physical activity - III; occur with less than normal activity - IV; occur at rest |
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Term
What non pharmacological measures need be discussed with Heart Failure Patients |
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Definition
Fluid balance; morning weight, <2 L/day is recommended generally, decreaseding to 1.5L or 1L depending on severity Sodium; <2 g/day (= 1/2 teaspoon of salt) Physical activity; to improve symptoms and functional capacity Smoking Limiting alcohol to less than 1–2 standard drinks per day Limiting caffeinated beverages to 1–2 drinks per day Vaccination against influenza and pneumococcal disease |
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Term
List some common medications that may contribute to Heart Failure |
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Definition
Negative inotropes; verapamil, diltiazem Salt retention drugs; corticosteroids, NSAIDs TCAs macrolide antibiotic type 1 antihistamine and H2 receptor antagonists urinary alkalinisers (salt load) |
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Term
Discuss drug classes commonly used for Heart Failure |
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Definition
First line - ACEi; all patients without contrindications - loop diuretic; if evidence of fluid overload - beta blocker; if systolic dysfunction is presents and when volume status is stable Second line - ARB; if intolerant to ACEi - digoxin; even if in sinus rhythm if heart failure is severe and not controlled with ACE inhibitor diuretic and B blocker - spironolactone; consider in consultation with a specialist |
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Term
Outline a safe approach to initiation and titration of Frusemide |
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Definition
Start on 40mg daily Baseline weight, potassium and creatinine and then weekly during titration process, and after 3 months once stable Consider 3 - 12 monthly monitoring based on stability and fluid balance Doses can be titrated up and down depending on degree of fluid overload |
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Term
Outline the safe initiation of an ACEi, regularity of monitoring required and the contraindications to their use |
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Definition
Start at low dose Titrate to highest tolerated dose over 2 to 3 weeks. See weekly while titrating and monitor blood pressure, potassium, and creatinine. 25 to 30% rise in creatinine is acceptable. Consider renal artery stenosis if eGFR drop is > 30%. Adjust dose for renal impairment and in the elderly. Contraindications: - Potassium > 5.5 mmol/L - Creatinine > 250 micromol/L - Symptomatic hypotension - Systolic blood pressure < 80 mm Hg - Angioedema - Pregnancy |
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Term
Outline an approach for Beta Blocker use in heart failure |
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Definition
- Contraindications:
- Asthma
- 2nd / 3rd degree heart block
- Symptomatic hypotension
- Systolic blood pressure < 80 mm Hg
- Heart rate < 50 bpm
- Late pregnancy
- B blockers should not be started until the heart failure has been stabilised.
- Start at a low dose e.g., metoprolol CR 23.75 mg (½ tablet) once daily or carvedilol 3.125 to 6.25 mg twice daily
- See patient fortnightly to slowly titrate the dose to avoid side-effects.
- B blockers improve survival, but the patient's condition may worsen at first. If worsening heart failure on B blockers, either increase diuretics or halve the dose of the B blocker.
- Titrate to the maximum dose unless limited by hypotension or bradycardia (resting heart rate < 60 bpm). Never stop a B blocker suddenly as there is a risk of rebound hypertension and arrhythmias. Gradual dose reduction over 1 to 2 weeks is recommended.
- Target dose is metoprolol CR 190 mg daily, carvedilol 25 mg twice a day.
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Term
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Definition
Inhibits the Na/K/Cl cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle with resultant Na and K excretion with water following |
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Term
What is the end result of the Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System on Na and K |
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Definition
Sodium retention and potassium excretion (RAAS functions in response to low fluid status / BP to rectify this. Na is highly osmolar and therefore the body would want to keep this ion in the blood at the expense of K) |
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Term
How does spironolactone work and what is the resultant effect on potassium |
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Definition
As an aldosterone receptor antagonist it inhibits the normal RAAS mediated Na and H20 retention for K excretion
This results in hyperkalaemia |
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Term
What are considerations for driving in a patient with Heart Failure |
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Definition
The medical standards for driving a private vehicle stipulate that there must be a response to treatment and minimal symptoms associated with driving. Where these conditions are met, a conditional licence subject to periodic review (a specific time frame is not indicated) will be issued.
A commercial driver’s licence requires that the patient has a satisfactory response to treatment, adequate exercise tolerance, LVEF >40%, have had the underlying cause considered and have minimal symptoms related to driving. Where these conditions are met a conditional licence subject to annual review will be issued (see Resources for Doctors for the Assessing Fitness to Drive guidelines). |
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Term
Outline the management of superficial thrombophlebitis |
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Definition
Usually self limiting and thus symptomatic NSAIDs are the only treatment necessary. However there is a 10% risk of progression on to become DVT. Not clear which these will be thus anticoagulation needs to be considered.
eTG recommends - For patients affected by superficial thrombophlebitis as a complication of an intravenous infusion, consider treatment with topical or oral NSAID (eg diclofenac 75 mg orally twice daily or diclofenac 1% gel topically 3 times daily). - For patients affected by spontaneous superficial thrombophlebitis, consider treatment with low-dose LMWH (eg dalteparin 5000 units SC daily or enoxaparin 40 mg SC daily) or unfractionated heparin (10 000 units SC twice daily) for 4 weeks, or further monitoring for venous thromboembolism. |
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Term
Outline managment for a Superficial Femoral Vein thrombus |
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Definition
Despite its name, it is not a superficial vein. It is a deep vein and acute thrombosis of this vessel is potentially life threatening. Any thrombus therein should be treated with an anticoagulant as per DVT |
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Term
Discuss Post Thrombotic Syndrome in a patient who has had a DVT and the management of this |
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Definition
Occurs after 60% of DVTs May include pain, swelling, varicose eczema, skin thickening and staining The incidence of these problems can be halved by wearing a graduated compression stocking Wearing a knee high stocking with 30–40 mm Hg pressure at the ankle for 18 months is recommended. Stockings should be fitted by an experienced professional, because of the pressure differences |
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Term
What are the secondary causes of hyperlipidaemia |
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Definition
endocrine; hypothyroidism, type 2 DM renal; nephrotic syndrome, kidney impairment hepatic; cholestasis, obstructive liver disease dietary; anorexia nervosa, obesity, ETOH excess |
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Term
Differentiate triglycerides, cholesterol and lipoprotiens |
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Definition
- Triglycerides; account for 95% of dietary lipids, are converted to fatty acids and glycerol in adipose and muscle tissue to become and energy storage
- Cholesterol; is primarily endogenous (body does not need endogenous as can synthesise from other materials) and functions in cell membrane formation, hormone synthesis and bile acid formation
- Lipoprotiens; function to transport lipids and cholesterol around the body.
- LDL deposits excesses into tissues (including arteries and is thus atherogenic)
- HDL transports it to where it is needed (including away from tissue / artery stores and is thus anti-atherogenic
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Term
Discuss the difference in management of hypercholesterolaemia vs hypertrygliceridaemia |
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Definition
High total cholesterol and high HDL - Statins – 1st line and shown to reduce CV events - Ezetimibe – 2nd line but not recommended as the sole medication. Add to the highest dose of statin tolerated if the target is not reached Resins (e.g., cholestyramine) and Niacin (nicotinic acid) are considered 3rd and 4th line
High triglycerides and/or low HDL - usually associated with poor lifestyle - corrective measures are 1st line (e.g., exercise, reduce dietary sugars, decrease alcohol intake, and improve diabetic control) and are more effective than drug therapy. - If fasting triglycerides > 5 on two occasions refer for cardiology assessment for genetic and biochemical classification (also associated with risk of pancreatitis) |
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Term
Discuss how to approach myalgia / statin intolerance on initiation of statins |
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Definition
Statin intolerance has been markedly over diagnosed especially myalgia. Most people can tolerate some dose of statin when re-challenged. Consider the following steps: - If mild or moderate symptoms: stop for 2 to 3 weeks then recommence at half the previous dose. If symptoms persist repeat this step again or change to alternate statin. Consider rosuvastatin. If target lipids are not reached, titrate back up to maximum tolerated dose. If severe persistent myalgia: stop statin and measure CK. If CK > 1000, refer for cardiology assessment. If CK < 1000, follow step 1 above. |
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Term
What are the five stages of HIV and what clinical features are associated with them |
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Definition
- Acute seroconversion illness; occurs within 6 weeks of exposure, febrile illness with severe lethargy, photophobia, headache and generalised erythematous rash - Asymptomatic; persistent generalised lymphadenopathy - Sympotomatic early; candidiasis, psoriasis, varicella infections, constitutional sxs - Symptomatic late; PJP, Karposi sarcoma, lymphoma, dementia - Advanced; CMV retinitis, Mycobacterium avium complex |
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|
Term
How long after first test should a second test be completed for HIV to ensure negative |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the prevalence of Coeliac disease |
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Definition
1.2% for men and 1.9% for women |
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|
Term
What diseases are commonly associated with Coeliac disease |
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Definition
Type 1 Diabetes (5-10%) Autoimmune thyroid disease Irritable Bowel Syndrome Downs / Turners syndromes |
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|
Term
What is the pathophysiology of coeliac disease |
|
Definition
- Gliaden = protein in gluten. Gluten is the principal storage protein in wheat
- Transglutaminase is a tissue enzyme that binds gliadin in the intestine to form a complex that is recognised as being foreign by the immune system
- Gluten mediated immunological damage to the mucosa of the proximal small intestine causes atrophy of the villi and thus malabsorption
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Term
What are the different clinical manifestations of Coeliac disease |
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Definition
Fatigue Weight loss Abdominal symptoms; diarrhoea, cramping or discomfort, bloating/flatulence Steatorrhoea due to fat malabsorption Anaemia Nutritional deficiencies; iron, folate and (in severe cases) vitamin B12 Osteoporosis; malabsorption of calcium and vitamin D Dermatitis herpetiformis |
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Term
Outline testing for coeliac disease and associated cases of false positives / negative |
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Definition
Start with Tissue Transglutamase - false negative = no gluten in diet for last 6 weeks OR IgA deficiency (given is an IgA complex) - false positive = raised serum IgA IgA; should be done to ensure tTG is not false positive or negative Anti-deaminated Gliaden Antibodies (DPG); an IgG based antibody for use in IgA deficiencies or <2 yo Small intestinal biopsy; gold standard but can still be influenced by lack of gluten in diet |
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|
Term
How can compliance with gluten free diet be monitored in coeliac disease |
|
Definition
- TTG and DGP antibodies
- after 3-6 months on a gluten-free diet, there is usually a fall in titres of either antibody type
- TTG can take longer, as titres can be very high
- DGP changes are usually more dynamic, with levels going up and down more quickly with changes
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Term
Outline genetic testing for coeliacs disease (eg if patient is on a gluten free diet and refuses to reintroduce due to symptom improvement) |
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Definition
Genetic testing for HLA DQ8 and HLA DQ2, performed by taking a buccal smear or blood sample, may help. However, the result is only useful if it is negative (99.6% of patients with coeliac disease have one of HLA DQ8 or HLA DQ2, but so do one-third of the general Australian population3) |
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|
Term
Should family members of coeliac disease be screened |
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Definition
Yes, all first degree relatives should be screened |
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|
Term
What is the genetic prevalence for first degree relatives of someone with Coeliac disease |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is another name for Chronic Fatigue Syndrome |
|
Definition
Myalgic encephalomyelitis |
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|
Term
What is the etiology of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome |
|
Definition
Peak incidence occurs at the age of 20–40 years More common in women Average duration is 3–9 years however, some patients may remain unwell for 20–30 years |
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|
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for Chronic Fatigue Syndrome |
|
Definition
Unexplained, persistent fatigue AND Four or more of the following for >6 months - - impaired memory or concentration - headaches - recurring sore throat - tender cervical or axillary lymph nodes - myalgia - polyarthropathy without swelling or redness - post exertional malaise (extreme, prolonged exhaustion and sickness following physical or mental activity) - unrefreshing sleep |
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Term
Discuss the etiology of Hashimoto Thyroiditis |
|
Definition
- more common in women >55
- common association with other autoimmune disease such and Coeliac and Type 1 Diabetes
|
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Term
Discuss the clinical presentation of Hasthimoto Thyroiditis |
|
Definition
Bilateral firm goitre plus clinical hypothyroidism |
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|
Term
How is Hashimoto Thyroiditis diagnosed |
|
Definition
high anti-Peroxidase Abs (TPO) is the hallmark of the disease this can be positive in 15% of the general population and thus association with hypothyroidism and clinical picture are required FNA of the goitre can also be diagnostic |
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Term
Discuss features that would make you suspicious for secondary hypothyroidism and the importance of making this diagnosis before starting treatment |
|
Definition
Consider if hypothyroidism occurs in the setting of - signs of pituitary disease (ie mass effect headaches / visual or hormone effects eg amenorrhoea, hypoglycaemia or hyponatraemia) - a convincing clinical hypothyroidism with low T4 but an unexpectedly normal TSH
Treatment - glucocordicoid must be replaced first otherwise Thyroxine may precipitate an adrenal crisis |
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Term
Outline the clinical features of hypothyroidism |
|
Definition
Skin, hair; dry, cold skin with alopecia Brain; mental slowness, fatigue, depression Thyroid; goitre Heart; bradycardia with compensatory HTN Weight; gain GIT; constipation Ovaries; menorrhagia, infertility Nerves; slow reflexes Fluid; in the face and legs |
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Term
What is subclinical hypothyroidism and what are the indications for treatment |
|
Definition
Elevated TSH with normal T4 Treatment is controversial but current recommendations are to - perform TPO Abs and if elevated monitor TSH 3-6 monthly, if normal then monitor 12 monthly - if upward trending TSH, TSH > 10 or significant symptoms of hypothyroidism then replacement is likely warranted |
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Term
What are the possible causes of hypothyroidism |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In initiating Thyroxine for Hypothyroidism what two patient populations need special consideration and dose reduction |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What patient populations with Hypothyroid disease should be referred for specialist input |
|
Definition
- <18 years
- unresponsive to therapy
- pregnant
- cardiac patients
- presence of goitre, nodule, or other structural changes in the thyroid gland
- presence of other endocrine disease
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Term
In the setting of iron deficiency anaemia is a negative FOB adequate for ruling out bowel pathology as the cause |
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Definition
No. FOB is a screening test. Fe defiency means the investigation is no longer screening but investigatory and thus an endoscopy and colonoscopy are required even if it is negative |
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Term
Discuss the bimodal distribution of onset for Myasthenia Gravis |
|
Definition
Women age 15-65 (commonly 30-40) Men age >65 |
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|
Term
What is the pathophysiology of Myasthenia Gravis |
|
Definition
Autoimmune mediated destruction of acetylcholine receptors on the muscle end plates. Postulated that the thymus has a role in autoimmune T cell production as 65% of patient have thymus hyperplasia or cancer (thymoma) |
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Term
Describe the clinical presentation of myasthenia gravis |
|
Definition
- Skeletal muscle fatiguability
- worse with activty and at end of day
- improves with rest
- Muscle bulk and reflexes are normal
- Can present as ptosis, bulbar weakness, proximal muscle weakness
- Test clinically via
- sustained upward eye gaze for 2 minutes
- count out loud to 30
- shoulder repetition of abduction x30
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Term
What diagnostic tests are available for Myasthenia Gravis |
|
Definition
anti-ACh receptor Abs (AChR-Ab) and muscle-specific kinase antibodies (MusSK-Ab) = combined sensitivity of 97% Nerve stimulation tests often used if serology is negative but diagnosis still suspected |
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Term
What non diagnostic investigation is important in Myasthenia Gravis |
|
Definition
CT Chest to rule out thymomo |
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Term
Describe the features of classification for CKD I-V |
|
Definition
CKDI; kidney damage (imaging/proteinuria) but eGRF > 90 CKDII: kidney damage and eGFR 60-90 CKDIII; eGFR 30-59 CKDIV; eGFR 15-29 CKDV; end stage kidney disease |
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Term
What uric acid level is required for deposition into joints |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What three areas of uric acid deposition can cause complications in gout |
|
Definition
Joints Skin; tophi Kidneys; nephrolithiasis and chronic urate nephropathy |
|
|
Term
Outline the dosing of colchicine for acute gout |
|
Definition
1mg stat, 0.5mg 6 hours later and then 0.5mg BD for 2-3/7 Dose reduce in renal dysfunction or use Pred instead |
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications of colchicine |
|
Definition
Severe hepatic and renal disease Severe cardiac disease Severe GIT disease Blood dyscrasia |
|
|
Term
What urate level should be targeted in patients with gout |
|
Definition
Without tophi <0.36 With tophi <0.3 |
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|
Term
Discuss the initiation of Allopurinol, the risks that need consideration and dosing |
|
Definition
Initiate at 50-100mg daily and uptitrate monthly based on serum urate. Risk of life threatening Allopurinol Hypersensitivity Syndrome, more common in Has Chinese, Korean and Thai. Allopurinol induced rash can be severe Gout flare can occur and can be mitigated by 3/12 colchicine but risk vs benefit is uncertain |
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Term
What are the DSM criteria for Restless Legs Syndrome |
|
Definition
an urge to move the legs - accompanied by an uncomfortable sensations - worsens during periods of rest or inactivity - is partially or totally relieved by movement Symptoms - occur at least 3 times per week - have persisted for at least 3 months - cause significant distress or impairment - cannot be attributed to another mental disorder, medical condition or drugs of abuse / medication |
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Term
Differentiate nephritic and nephrotic syndrome |
|
Definition
can be thought of as a spectrum of progression from nephrotic syndrome to nephritic syndrome Ie in nephrotic syndrome the basement membrane damage is only enough to allow protein passage up to a certain size. Thus significant albuminuria occurs. With progressive damage the basement membrane opens up enought to let larger and large components through all the way up to RBCs. When this happens it reflects such large degree of damage that renal function and perfusion has deteriorated and therefore there is a decrease in urine output and a decreased in protienuria. |
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|
Term
Why does hyperlipidaemia occur in nephrotic syndrome |
|
Definition
The urinary loss of proteins is compensated for by the liver with production of lipids |
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|
Term
What is the triple test for screening kidney disease |
|
Definition
Blood pressure Urine analysis; dipstick in low risk and ACR in high risk eGFR |
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|
Term
What factors would put a persons CVS risk automatically >15% and thus negate the need for use of the CVS Risk Calculator |
|
Definition
Hypertension - severe HTN; > 180/ or /110 Cardiac - established cardiovascular disease Diabetic plus either - >60yo - microalbuminuria Cholesterol - Familial hypercholesterolaemia - serum cholesterol >7.5 Renal - eGFR < 45 - persistent proteinuria |
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Term
What cardiac defect has an association with migraines |
|
Definition
PFO
Check article = Over the last decade, patent foramen ovale (PFO) associated with atrial septal aneurysm (ASA) has been identified as an independent risk factor for ischaemic stroke, particularly in young adults with cryptogenic stroke.7 Recently, migraine was found to be significantly associated with PFO when compared with controls. At least 50% of patients with migraine with aura were found to have a PFO, and the size of the intracardiac shunts was larger in patients with migraines than in controls.8 In susceptible women, the association between migraines with aura and PFO leads to an increased risk of ischaemic stroke.7 In terms of pathophysiology, it has been proposed that in this population of women, COCs may trigger venous embolism with subsequent paradoxical embolism through PFO or formation of a mural thrombus locally in the atrial septum within the conduit of PFO.9
Importantly, an isolated finding of PFO without any other high-risk features in an asymptomatic individual is of equivocal clinical significance. Routine screening for PFO is not recommended.7–9 |
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|
Term
Differentiate between apnoeas and hypopneas in OSA |
|
Definition
Apnoea = absence of airflow >10 seconds Hypopnoea = reduction in airflow for >10 seconds sufficient to cause a fall in O2 sats or arousal from sleep |
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|
Term
What are the DSM-V criteria for restless leg syndrome |
|
Definition
DSM-5 diagnostic criteria - an urge to move the legs - accompanied by an uncomfortable sensations - worsens during periods of rest or inactivity - is partially or totally relieved by movement
Symptoms - occur at least 3 times per week - have persisted for at least 3 months - cause significant distress or impairment - cannot be attributed to another mental disorder, medical condition or drugs of abuse / medication |
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|
Term
What does STOPBANG stand for in OSA |
|
Definition
Risk factors for OSA. >3 = high risk
S nore T ired O bstruction P ressure (HTN) B MI A ge > 50 N eck circumfrence >40cm G ender = male |
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|
Term
What is Complex Regional Pain Syndrome of the foot, how does it present, how is it managed and what is the prognosis |
|
Definition
- a neurovascular disorder presenting most commonly in middle age resulting in hyperaemia and osteoporosis - may be a sequela of trauma (often trivial) and prolonged immobilisation
Clinical severe pain, swelling and disability of the feet sudden onset worse at night stiff joints warm red skin
Ix xrays show patchy decalcification of the bone which is diagnostic
Rx usually lasts 2 years and recovery to normality is the most common outcome analgesia mobility in preference to rest PT |
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|
Term
What is the age of onset for Inflammatory Bowel Disease |
|
Definition
Bimodal peaks at 10yo and 40yo |
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|
Term
What is the association between smoking and Inflammatory Bowel Disease |
|
Definition
Increased risk of Crohns Disease but decreases risk of Ulcerative Colitis |
|
|
Term
What areas of the GIT are affected by Crohns Disease vs Ulcerative Colitis |
|
Definition
- Crohns
- transmural
- is a regional enteritis and can thus affect any portion of the GIT
- Ulcerative Colitis
- is a colitis thus affects only the colon and starts in the rectum
- affects only the mucosa of the colon
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Term
What does an elevated faecal calprotectin indicate and what are the possible causes for this elevation |
|
Definition
Intestinal inflammation - IBD - colonic malignancy - other inflammatory causes eg NSAIDs, gastro |
|
|
Term
Is a positive P-ANCA associated with Crohns disease or Ulcerative Colitis |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of the morning after pill |
|
Definition
High dose progesterone - if before ovulation it may prevent ovulation - thickens cervical mucous - inhibits tubal transport of egg or sperm -interferes with fertilisation, early cell division or embryo transport - prevents implantation by disrupting uterine lining |
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|
Term
How effective is the morning after pill |
|
Definition
Efficacy of pregnancy prevention - 95% within 24 hours - 85% in 48 hours - 60% in 72 hours |
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|
Term
What is the dose of the morning after pill |
|
Definition
1.5mg stat of levonorgestrel |
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|
Term
What side effect of the original high dose 50mcg COCP was most concerningly seen |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How does the risk of COCP for VTE compare to baseline and during pregnancy |
|
Definition
Baseline; 2 per 10 000 COCP; 10 per 10 000 Pregnant; 30 per 10 000 Immediately post partum; 400 per 10 000
Also consider that further increased risk with increased age, smoking, body mass index, immobilisation, and a personal or family history of thromboembolism or thrombogenic mutations |
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|
Term
What is the risk of ovarian cancer with skipping periods on the COCP |
|
Definition
if missed period for >6/12 shown to have double the risk of ovarian Ca (from a low baseline risk) |
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|
Term
Discuss antibiotic use and COCP |
|
Definition
With the exception of rifampicin and rifabutin, antibiotics do not decrease the efficacy of CHCs and additional precautions are not needed during concurrent use. (FPNSW) - this is contraindicated by Women's health in GP which says (though no data showing it decreases efficacy) women should use other forms of contraception during and for 7/7 after any Abx |
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|
Term
How effective is breast feeding as a contraceptive |
|
Definition
98% effective if - > 6/52 post partum - has not yet had a period - baby is fully breast fed |
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|
Term
Discuss the implications of changes observed for Fertility Awareness Based Methods (FABM) of contraception |
|
Definition
increased body temperature - 0.2-0.6*C - progesterone induced therefore only occurs after ovulation change in cervical mucous - oestrogen induced change into a thin watery “egg white like” substance - begins to occur days before ovulation - post ovulation the corpus luteum progesterone release thickens the mucous cervical os widening change in cervical texture to become softer |
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|
Term
What is the length of sperm and ovum survival in the female reproductive tract |
|
Definition
sperm survival - vagina; hours due to acidic environment - upper reproductive tract; days (1% survival at 7 days) ovum survival = 12 -24 hours (with successful fertilisation unlikely 12 hours after ovulation) |
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|
Term
Outline a practical approach to which oestrogen and progesterone for COCP |
|
Definition
- which oestrogen
- ethinyloestrodiol is most common due to its higher bioavailability
- what dose of oestrogen
- 35mcg is standard
- lower doses may decrease oestrogenic SEs (nausea, bloating, breast tenderness) but increased prevalence of unscheduled bleeding
- which progesterone
- levonorgestrel and norethistorone are first choice and PBS listed
- both are testosterone derivatives
- doesn’t seem to be a benefit of one over another
- doses equivalence varies based on drug but most are low dose and thus appropriate first line
- acne / hirsutism
- although evidence is lacking, logically the pills containing an antiandrogenic progestogen (i.e. dienogest, drospirenone and cyproterone acetate) can be considered for women with acne and hirsutism, particularly if there has been a limited response to a pill containing levonorgestrel- or norethisterone pill
- none of these pills are PBS listed
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|
Term
What constitutes a missed pill for the progesterone only pill and what action should be undertaken |
|
Definition
pill is considered ‘missed’ if not taken within 3 hours of specific time (ie 27 hours since last pill take as soon as possible then continue with regime as normal. Use alternative contraception until 3 normal pill doses taken |
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|
Term
What constitutes a missed COCP and what approach should be taken |
|
Definition
not “missed” until 24 hours after pill was late (ie 48 hours after when it was last taken) if <48hours take the late pill immediately and continue as normal if > 48 hours take the missed pill and the one due. Use protection for 7 days if < 7 pills since last placebo break consider emergency contraception (if unprotected sex in last 5/7) if < 7 pills until the next placebo break skip placebo and continue with next active regime |
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|
Term
Discuss pharmacological options for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy |
|
Definition
- Alpha-1 blockers
- used to treat obstructive sxs
- decrease the sympathetic mediated smooth muscle tone of the urinary tract
- can improve sxs within 48 hours, maximum effect is at 6 weeks
- prazosin = first line by PBS. Old drug. Requires BD dosing
- terazosin and tamulosin; PBS needs other drugs to fail first. Once daily dosing
- 5 alpha reductase inhibitors
- block the conversion of testosterone into its more active form dihydrotestosterone. This is the androgen primarily responsible for prostatic growth
- Finasteride; 5mg daily PBS need other drugs to fail first induce prostatic epithelial cell apoptosis, thereby reducing prostate size by up to 25% and reducing PSA by 50% over a 6–12 month period if sxs improve / prostate does decrease in size the medications must be taken life long otherwise cessation will result in the prostate regrowing to the same size as there is a reduction in prostate volume, the concentration of PSA falls by 50% from pretreatment levels. This fall must be taken into consideration at the routine annual check.
- failure of PSA to decrease during treatment may signal unrecognised prostate cancer or noncompliance. However, a decrease in PSA does not exclude prostate cancer. An increase of more than 0.75 nanogram/mL is an indication for referral and possible biopsy.
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|
Term
How do medications and surgery compare for symptomatic relief of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy |
|
Definition
Surgery is the gold standard of treatment, but it does not help every patient. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) and bladder neck incision are costly and have adverse effects including bleeding, infection and sexual dysfunction such as retrograde ejaculation outcomes are far better overall than medical therapy |
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|
Term
What are the risk factors for prostate cancer |
|
Definition
age; 80% of 80yo have histologic carcinoma within the gland but most are dormant - family member dx <70yo - more than one family member (including second degree relatives) - FHx BRCA gene breast Ca |
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|
Term
What factors can falsely elevate PSA |
|
Definition
an active urinary infection ejaculated in the last 48 hours exercised vigorously in the last 48 hours had a prostate biopsy in the last 6 weeks had a DRE in the past week |
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|
Term
What can cause a false negative PSA |
|
Definition
- 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors (eg finasteride)
- thiazide diuretics
- statins
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|
|
Term
What risk factors indicate a need for HIV screening |
|
Definition
any intravenous drug use any past partners who may have been intravenous drug users or were men who have sex with men past partners were from countries with a high prevalence of HIV a history of STIs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Migraine with aura Smoker over 35 Risk factors for VTE including obesity breast cancer |
|
|
Term
What is Primary Ovarian Insufficiency |
|
Definition
Is the depletion or dysfunction of ovarian follicles with cessation of menses before age 40 years (ie female hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism) |
|
|
Term
How is primary ovarian insufficiency diagnosed |
|
Definition
Rule out pregnancy, polycystic ovary syndrome, hypothalamic amenorrhea, thyroid abnormalities, hyperprolactinemia Diagnosis of primary ovarian insufficiency - menstrual irregularity for at least 3 consecutive months - follicle-stimulating hormone and estradiol levels; two random tests at least 1 month apart whilst not on any hormonal therapy. Positive if elevated into the menopausal level (30–40 mIU/mL) |
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|
Term
Outline treatment considerations for Primary Ovarian Insufficiency |
|
Definition
1) Hormone replacement - need oestrogen replacement. 100mcg oestrodiol mimics physiologic levels. Transdermal is preferred to avoid cardiac manifestations of hepatic first pass metabolites - progesterone; cyclic required to prevent endometrial hyperplasia induced cancer risk - COCP provides higher than physiological levels of hormones and is thus not recommended as first line 2) contraception - recommended that barrier or LARC be used with physiologic hormonal therapy as above. No reason given for this though so would seem appropriate to use COCP if no contraindications 3) Bone health - risk of osteopaenia with inadequate oestrogen - optomise Ca / Vit D 4) CVS risk - elevated if oestrogen to low or too high - control other CVS RFs - annual BP from Dx and 5 yearly lipids Endocrine - Hashimotos more common; consider 1-2 yearly thyroid screening - Adrenal insufficiency possible. Test for adrenal autoantibodies - have increased suspicion for others eg DM, SLE, myasthenia gravis |
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|
Term
Discuss the pathophysiology of the three most common types of dementia |
|
Definition
Alzheimer disease; amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles causing progressive atrophy of the hippocampus and temporal lobes (followed by other areas as disease progresses) Vascular dementia; macro and/or micro vascular disease causing cerebral damage Lewy body; lewy bodies in the substantia nigra = PD and outside of this = LBD but significant overlap occurs and currently clinical differentiation is the mainstay of Dx (ie movement disorder or cognitive decline being the presenting feature) |
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|
Term
What are the five clinical domains of dementia assessment and how do these progress through mild, moderate and severe disease |
|
Definition
Early sxs - cognition; learning and retaining new information become difficult, - function; progressive difficulty with tasks (eg finances) and mechanistic objects (eg credit card, CPU) - psychiatric; mood swings, personality changes (including irritability, hostility, and agitation to loss of independence) - behaviour and physical are not affected Intermediate sxs - cognition; unable to learn and recall new information. Memory of remote events is reduced but not totally lost. Loss of all sense of time and place - function; require help with basic ADLs (eg, bathing, eating, dressing, toileting) -psychiatric; personality change progresses (may become irritable, anxious, self-centered, inflexible, or angry more easily, or they may become more passive, with a flat affect, depression, indecisiveness, lack of spontaneity, or general withdrawal from social situations). Altered sensation or perception may culminate in psychosis with hallucinations and paranoid and persecutory delusions - behavior; problems begin, may wander or become suddenly and inappropriately agitated, hostile, uncooperative, or physically aggressive - physical; early physical changes may develop Late - cognition; recent and remote memory is completely lost - function; cannot walk, feed themselves, or perform ADLs, incontinence - psychiatric; delusions / hallucinations - behaviour; previous problems will now start to settle as physical function declines physical, may be unable to swallow, end-stage dementia results in coma and death, usually due to infection |
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Term
What are the inclusion and exclusion criteria for dementia |
|
Definition
- Inclusion criteria
- memory dysfunction is gradual in onset
- memory dysfunction is progressive in its deterioration
- failure of function
- evidence of cortical dysfunction; eg dysphasia, agnosia, dyspraxia
- Exclusion criteria
- delirium
- psychiatric illness
- organic cause
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|
Term
Discuss the etiology of Ankylosing Spondylitis |
|
Definition
- M:F = 3:1 - common age of onset is 20 to 40yo (if >50 think DISH) - strong genetic link; the risk of AS in 1st-degree relatives with the HLA-B27 allele = 20% |
|
|
Term
Does Ankylosing Spondylitis only affect the spine |
|
Definition
- most patients with AS have predominantly axial involvement but some have predominantly peripheral involvement
- among those with axial involvement, some have no evidence of sacroiliitis on plain x-rays. Thus the classification
- Axial AS: predominantly axial involvement and x-ray findings typical of sacroiliitis
- Nonradiographic AS: clinical axial AS but without typical x-ray findings
- Peripheral AS: AS with predominantly peripheral involvement
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|
Term
Discuss the pain of Ankylosing Spondylitis as it relates to activity and early morning |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Discuss non axial arthropathy in Ankylosing Spondylitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the sensitivity and specificity for HLA-B27 in detecting Ankylosing Spondylitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the rate of occurrence of enteropathic arthropathy for patients with IBD |
|
Definition
20% of patients with Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis develop axial and/or peripheral spondyloarthritis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The loss or thinning of the bearing cartilage of a joint, that occurs in degenerative disease such as OSTEOARTHRITIS, so that the underlying bone is exposed |
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|
Term
How can osteoarthritis be differentiated from autoinflammatory arthropathies |
|
Definition
- pain is usually worsened by weight bearing and relieved by rest
- stiffness occurs especially after activity
- the pattern of usual joint involvement
- lack of soft tissue swelling
- takes <30 minutes to settle after rest while inflammatory takes at least 30 mins
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|
Term
Discuss osteoarthritis as it affects the DIPJs |
|
Definition
the DIP joints may go through a painful inflammatory phase ranging from a few months to a few years and then settle leaving residual bony deformity (Heberden's nodes) that does not significantly impact on function |
|
|
Term
What is nodal osteoarthritis of the hand |
|
Definition
- primary generalised nodal osteoarthritis of the hand is a subset that can involve multiple distal interphalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints and have a significant impact on function
- osteoarthritis of the first carpometacarpal joint can occur in isolation or as part of nodal osteoarthritis. It usually has a significant impact on function.
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|
Term
Discuss glucosamine and fish oil in Osteoarthritis |
|
Definition
- glucosamine sulfate and chondroitin sulfate
- trials show either mild or no benefit
- no long term use data but seem safe so far
- if pxs like they can try a 3-6 month trial
- fish oil
- active components are long chain omega-3 fatty acids, eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
- these have anti-inflammatory properties when taken in doses greater than 2.7 g daily which can lower doses of NSAIDs, DMARDs and corticosteroids in chronic inflammatory rheumatological diseases
- onset of anti-inflammatory effect is delayed by 2 to 3 months so the benefits are limited to patients requiring long-term therapy
- recommended dose of omega-3 fatty acids can be taken using fish oil capsules but the cost of these capsules can be prohibitive and there may be compliance issues because of the number of capsules needed. A less expensive alternative is to take about 15 mL of standard fish oil liquid daily
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|
Term
Discuss the etiology of polymyalgia rheumatica |
|
Definition
adults > 55 female:male ratio = 2:1 |
|
|
Term
What are the combined rates of occurrence for Polymyalgia Rheumatica and Giant Cell Arteritis |
|
Definition
- a few patients with polymyalgia rheumatica develop giant cell arteritis, but 60% of patients with giant cell arteritis have polymyalgia rheumatica
- may precede, follow, or occur simultaneously with giant cell arteritis
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|
Term
What is the clinical presentation of Polymyalgia Rheumatica |
|
Definition
- bilateral proximal aching of the shoulder and hip girdle muscles and the back (upper and lower) and neck muscles
- worse in the morning and is occasionally severe enough to prevent patients from getting out of bed and from doing simple activities
- the pain may make patients feel weak, but objective muscle weakness is not present
- morning stiffness lasting > 60 min
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|
|
Term
How useful is ESR in Polymyalgia Rheumatica |
|
Definition
ESR (80% sensitivity, often >100) |
|
|
Term
Describe corticosteroid use in Polymyalgia Rheumatica |
|
Definition
- Prednisone
- started at 15 to 20 mg po daily
- dramatic improvement (hours to days) supports the diagnosis
- if giant cell arteritis is thought to be present, the dose of corticosteroids should be higher, and temporal artery biopsy should be done.
- treatment effectiveness is monitored by
- symptoms
- C-reactive protein
- ESR; can be persistently elevated despite sx improvement and thus CRP is prefered for monitoring
- as symptoms subside, corticosteroids are tapered to the lowest clinically effective dose.
- some patients are able to stop corticosteroids in about 2 yr without relapse, whereas others require small doses for years
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|
Term
Can psoriatic arthropathy preceed the onset of skin manifestations |
|
Definition
- in 70% psoriasis is present before the onset of the arthropathy
- in 15% arthropathy can precede psoriasis by over a year
|
|
|
Term
Which joints are affected in psoriatic arthritis |
|
Definition
- usually affects only peripheral joints
- may present with a single digit dactylitis, or enthesitis
- common patterns
- oligoarticular; 50%, generally evolves into polyarticular
- polyarticular; 30%, may resemble rheumatoid arthritis
- predominant spondyloarthritis; 10%, sacroiliitis is usually asymmetrical
- predominant DIP; 5%, in both hands and feet, usually associated with severe psoriatic nail involvement
- arthritis mutilans; 5%, there is osteolysis affecting the small joints of the hands and feet and adjacent phalanges, resulting in shortening of digits, and flail joints. More common in females.
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|
Term
Are intra-articular corticosteroid injections useful in psoriatic arthritis |
|
Definition
- play a significant role
- may result in long-term suppression of synovitis in the injected joint
|
|
|
Term
Discuss typical time to onset, causative agents and populations affected by Reactive Arthritis |
|
Definition
- commences 1 to 3 weeks after an infective enteric or urogenital illness
- most common causative pathogens
- enteric; Salmonella typhimurium, Shigella flexneri, Yersinia enterocolitica, Campylobacter jejuni
- urogenital; Chlamydia trachomatis
- Streptococcal infections can also be followed by reactive arthritis
- urogenital reactive arthritis occurs predominantly in males between 20 and 40 yo
- enteric reactive arthritis has an equal gender distribution
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|
|
Term
Arthritis + conjunctivitis + urethritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Desribe the arthropathy of Reactive Arthitis |
|
Definition
- typically an inflammatory arthropathy with an asymmetrical oligoarticular distribution, predominantly affecting the lower limbs
- dactylitis is a common feature
- enthesitis can occur
- in 80% the arthropathy settles within 6 months
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|
|
Term
What skin manifestation can be associated with Reactive Arthritis |
|
Definition
- keratoderma blennorrhagica; 25%, is a pustular hyperkeratotic rash typically affecting the palms and soles of the feet, and is identical to pustular psoriasis[image]
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|
|
Term
Which joints are affected in Rhuematoid Arthritis |
|
Definition
- commonly small joints of hands – PIP, MCP, wrists – and feet
- minority = large joints (25% of initial presentations are with a large joint monoarthropathy)
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|
Term
Describe the joint pain of Rheumatoid Arthtitis |
|
Definition
- joint pain worse on waking, nocturnal pain, disturbed sleep
- morning stiffness which can last >1hr
- tenderness and swelling over a greater area than the just joint
- bone and cartilage damage + rupture of tendons joint subluxation and dislocation
- hands show characteristic ulnar deviation, boutonniere deformity, swan neck deformity and "Z-thumb"
|
|
|
Term
What are the characteristic hand deformities in Rheumatoid Arthritis |
|
Definition
- ulnar deviation
- boutonniere deformity
- swan neck deformity
- Z-thumb
|
|
|
Term
What are the characteristic hand deformities in Rheumatoid Arthritis |
|
Definition
- ulnar deviation
- boutonniere deformity
- swan neck deformity
- Z-thumb
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is mononeuritis multiplex |
|
Definition
- is a painful, asymmetrical, asynchronous sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy involving isolated damage to at least 2 separate nerve areas
- as the condition worsens, it becomes less multifocal and more symmetrical.
- is not a true, distinct disease entity but rather an associated with one of the following
- Diabetes mellitus
- Vasculitis
- Amyloidosis
- Direct tumor involvement - Lymphoma, leukemia
- Polyarteritis nodosa
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Systemic lupus erythematosus
- Paraneoplastic syndromes
|
|
|
Term
What are the sensitivities and specificities of Rheumatoid Factor and Anti-CCP antibodies |
|
Definition
- Rheumatoid factor
- is an autoantibody directed against IgG
- about 2% of the healthy population is positive for RF, rising to 10-20% in those over 65 years
- sensitivity 80% but often absent in the first 6 months of the disease
- false +ves; Sjogren’s syndrome, SLE, periartieritis nodosa, systemic sclerosis, chronic infections and other immunological disorders
- high levels associated with RA and predicts worse outcome and extra-articular disease
- Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (Anti-CCP) antibodies
- sensitivity 60% for early cases, and 70-75% for established disease
- specificity 96%
- is a strong predictor of erosive disease
|
|
|
Term
Outline the pathway that leads to a diagnosis of Rheumatoid Arthritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Outline the pathway that leads to a diagnosis of Rheumatoid Arthritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Discuss the etiology of Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition Disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition Disease |
|
|
Term
Differentiate pseudogout, pyrophosphate arthropathy, CPDD and chondrocalcinosis |
|
Definition
- Chondrocalcinosis simply describes calcification of articular cartilage
- Pseudogout; describes the clinical syndrome of acute arthritis associated with CPPD deposition in articular cartilage
- Pyrophosphate arthropathy indicates structural abnormality of cartilage and bone associated with CPPD deposition
- CP-deposition disease (CPDD) is a term that encompasses both pseudogout and pyrophosphate arthropathy, although it is often loosely used as a synonym implying either or both of these conditions
|
|
|
Term
Which joints are most commonly affected in CPDD |
|
Definition
- mainly a disorder of the elderly superimposed on an osteoarthritic joint
- affects the following joints (in order)
- knee
- 2nd and 3rd MCP joints
- wrist
- shoulder
- ankle
- elbow
|
|
|
Term
What can precipitate an acute CPDD flare |
|
Definition
- joint trauma
- stress response related to intercurrent illness
- surgery
- IV fluid administration leading to altered fluid-balance states
|
|
|
Term
What feautres would one expect to find on xray and aspirate of a joint affected by CPDD |
|
Definition
- xray
- supporting radiographic features are chondrocalcinosis and the usual OA changes (cartilage loss, subchondral cyst formation and osteophyte formation)
- synovial aspirate
- may contain both urate and calcium pyrophosphate crystals; (20% of patients with calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease also have hyperuricaemia)
|
|
|
Term
Outline the acute and chronic management for CPDD |
|
Definition
- acute flare oral
- (1) NSAID, at the upper dosing range until symptoms abate (typically 3 to 5 days), then reduce the dose until signs of joint inflammation have abated, and then cease
- (2) prednisolone 15 to 20 mg orally, daily until symptoms abate (typically 3 to 5 days) and then cease
- Colchicine 500mg BD may be added to either an NSAID or prednisolone if monotherapy is insufficient to relieve symptoms
- chronic
- no known preventative therapy exists
|
|
|
Term
Which steroids are most appropriate for which joints and why |
|
Definition
- Betamethasone (Celestone)
- more soluble thus used for small joint injections and tendon sheaths
- Methyprednisolone (Depo-Medrol)
- less soluble thus large joints only as crystals are bigger thus cause irritation in small joints
- Triamcinolone (Kenacort)
- the least soluble thus provides the longest duration of action (up to 21 weeks)
- larger joints 1-1.5mL
- smaller joints 1/4 - 1/2mL
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
gout of the foot, especially the big toe. |
|
|
Term
Discuss the differential diagnoses of a monoarthropathy |
|
Definition
Crystal arthropathy
- Monosodium urate deposition disease, or gout, is one of the most common cause of an acute monoarthritis.
- Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease, or psuedogout, can also present in such a manner.
- Less commonly, calcium oxalate and apatite crystals can also present as a monoarthritis.
Septic arthritis
This can result in significant morbidity if treatment is delayed.
- Gonococcal infection: Neisseria gonorrhoea is an important cause of septic arthritis in sexually active adults. Other clinical findings may include tenosynovitis, a new rash and a history of urethral discharge.
- Non-gonococcal bacterial infection: Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most common causes of non-gonococcal septic arthritis. This can occur in the context of recent skin infection, prosthetic joint, intravenous drug use, joint surgery and immunosuppression.
Osteoarthritis
- Acute exacerbations with swelling can occur. Symptoms are generally mild, typically with non-inflammatory synovial fluid.
Monoarthritis as an initial presentation of a systemic rheumatic condition
- Rheumatoid arthritis rarely presents as a monoarthritis.
- Psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis and inflammatory arthropathy associated with inflammatory bowel disease are also known to cause monoarthritis, especially involving the lower extremity.
|
|
|
Term
Which STI needs to be considered in new onset monoarthropathy |
|
Definition
Gonococcal infection
Neisseria gonorrhoea is an important cause of septic arthritis in sexually active adults. Other clinical findings may include tenosynovitis, a new rash and a history of urethral discharge. |
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for osteoporosis |
|
Definition
- baseline
- lifestyle
- thin, low BMI
- immobile / sedentary lifestyle
- smoking
- ETOH
- iatrogenic
- prolonged corticosteroid use
- hormonal
- prolonged oestrogen deficiency in women
- nulliparity
- hypogonadism
- hyperparathyroidism
- inflammatory conditions
- Ca / Vit D
- Ca / Vit D dietary deficiency
- malabsorption disorders eg coeliacs
|
|
|
Term
Discuss T and Z scores in relation to osteoporosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Discuss the presentation of vertebral fractures in osteoporosis |
|
Definition
-
the hallmark fracture of OP
-
defined on the basis of a >20% reduction in vertebral height on X-ray
-
only 30% of all radiographically observed vertebral deformities come to medical attention (ie. are symptomatic with acute fracture related pain)
- only 30% of vertebral fractures are associated with falls
|
|
|
Term
Describe the cancer risk statistics associated with BRCA mutations |
|
Definition
- BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes account for 5% of all breast cancer
- however 60% of women with BRCA gene will get breast cancer
- plus 15-40% will get ovarian cancer (compared to 1.5% without gene)
|
|
|
Term
What is the triple test for breast cancer and its associated false positive and negative rate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Discuss the aetiology of scarlet fever |
|
Definition
- Group A streptococcus pyogenes infection (pharyngitis or impetigo) produces an erythrogenic toxin
- only some people are susceptible to this toxin thus two children may have strep infection but only one gets scarlet fever
- antibodies to the toxin are still present <2yo due to vertical immunity from mother. 80% of 10yo have developed their own antibodies. Thus generally affects 4-8yo
- spread via droplet or contact (including 20% of school children who are asymptomatic carriers)
- incubation 1-4 days
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Discuss the clinical presentation of scarlet fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Scarlet Fever diagnosed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the management and isolation protocol for scarlet fever |
|
Definition
- phenoxymethylpenicillin
- results in rapid resolution of sxs
- beware of strep Cx if not adequately treated (eg Rheumatic fever or strep glomerulonephritis)
- isolation
- should ideally be isolated from other family members, especially from infants and younger siblings
- keep drinking glasses and eating utensils separate and wash thoroughly in very hot soapy water, preferably with antibacterial soap or detergent.
- can return to school 1/7 after initiation of antibiotics
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|
|
Term
What populations are at a high risk for Rheumatic Fever |
|
Definition
- Aboriginal
- Torres straight
- Pacific islanders
- Urban disadvantaged
|
|
|
Term
Discuss the aetiology of Rheumatic Fever |
|
Definition
- a delayed autoimmune consequence following pharyngeal infection with Streptococcus pyogenes
- a latent period averaging three weeks before the symptoms of ARF begin
- by the time the symptoms develop, the infecting strain of S. pyogenes has usually been eradicated by the host immune response.
- underlying pathophysiology remains unclear, but is likely a combination of
- poor immune epitope differentiation between strep pathogen and host cells
- host susceptibility
|
|
|
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for Rheumatic Fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for Rheumatic Fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Aboriginal + sydenham chorea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for Rheumatic Fever |
|
Definition
High dose aspirin
Monthly benzathine penicillin for 10 years |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Outline the difference between HIV Ag/Ab EIA and Western Blot Test in HIV screening |
|
Definition
-
HIV Ag/Ab EIA
-
western blot test
|
|
|
Term
How many grams of alcohol does one standard drink equal |
|
Definition
10g of alchohol = 1 standard drink |
|
|
Term
Discuss the indication for antibiotics in Otitis Media and how this changes with a perforation |
|
Definition
- rv in 2-4/52 to ensure no residual effusion and consider hearing test follow up
|
|
|
Term
What is the numer needed to treat and harm for antibiotics with Otitis Media |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Define Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media |
|
Definition
an otitis media with a perforated tympanic membrane and discharge for at least 6 weeks |
|
|
Term
What are the red flags in a patient presenting with hoarseness |
|
Definition
- fevers / night sweats / weight loss
- otalgia
- smoking
- haemoptysis
- dysphagia
- odynophagia
- stridor
- neck mass
|
|
|
Term
If no red flags exist in a patient presenting with hoarseness, what four differentials are commonly identified |
|
Definition
- phonotrauma
- laryngopharyngeal reflux
- recent URTI
- steroid inhaler
|
|
|
Term
What is Diffuse Polypoidal Degeneration |
|
Definition
Aetiology
-
occurs almost exclusively in chronic heavy smoking
-
excessive gelatinous material is laid down in Reineke’s space, as an attempt by the larynx to protect itself from the chronic irritants
Clinical
Mx
|
|
|
Term
How does laryngopharyngeal reflux differ from GORD and how does it present clinically |
|
Definition
-
not the same as nor a continuum of gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD)
-
thus a normal upper gastrointestinal endoscopy does not rule out laryngopharyngeal reflux
-
laryngoscopy and flexible transnasal oesophagoscopy is required
Clinical
-
raspy voice
-
chronic throat clearing
- heart burn
|
|
|
Term
acute phonotrauma (eg barracking, labour, coughing) + acute painful loss of voice = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
acute phonotrauma (eg barracking, labour, coughing) + acute painful loss of voice = |
|
Definition
vocal fold haemorrhage
[image] |
|
|
Term
Describe the innervation of the vocal cords |
|
Definition
Superior and recurrent branches of the laryngeal nerve which are derived from the vagus nerve |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of a laryngeal neuropathy |
|
Definition
idiopathic post-viral mononeuritis |
|
|
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of a laryngeal nerve palsy |
|
Definition
- flaccid paralysis of the ipsilateral vocal fold
- swings in and out during attempted phonation
- loses both tone and movement, leading to a weak, breathy voice
|
|
|
Term
Differentiate between mean, median and mode |
|
Definition
- Mean = the average
- Median = the midpoint
- Mode = the most common set of events (ie bimodal = the two most common occurences of a data set)
|
|
|
Term
What percentage of a data set is covered by 1, 2 and 3 standard deviations |
|
Definition
- 1 SD = 68%
- 2 SD = 95%
- 3 SD = 99.7%
|
|
|
Term
Differentiate causes of vertigo by time course |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the setting of dizziness what is disequilibrium |
|
Definition
-
is a differential diagnosis for the cause of dizziness
-
a sense of imbalance that occurs primarily when walking which, when chronic, can cause significant impairment of physical and social functioning
-
may result from
-
peripheral neuropathy
-
a musculoskeletal disorder interfering with gait
-
vestibular disorder
-
cervical spondylosis apparently related to a disturbance in postural control
-
Parkinson disease due to postural hypotension as well as imbalance
- Visual impairment, whether from underlying eye disease or poor lighting, typically exacerbates the sense of imbalance.
|
|
|
Term
What is the P value and how does this relate to a value of 0.5, 0.05, 0.01 and 0.001 |
|
Definition
- is the likelihood that a statistical finding occured by chance
- each number is compare to 1
- thus
- 0.5 = 50% chance
- 0.05 = 5% change which is classified as "significant"
- 0.01 = 1% chance, "highly significant"
- 0.001 = 0.1% (1 in 1000) chance, "very highly significant"
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Milkers Nodules
- pseudocowpox virus
- infects the teats of cow and mouths of feeding calves
- may result in a lymphadenitis and / or secondary cellulitis
- may predispose to erythema multiforme 2/52 later
- single infection gives life long immunity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Orf
-
presents as a single papule or group of papules on the hands of sheep handlers after handling lambs with contagious pustular dermatitis
-
the papules change into pustular like nodules or bullae with a violaceous erythematous margin
- it clears spontaneously in 3-4/52 but rapid resolution within days can be obtained by an intralesional injection of triamcinolone
|
|
|
Term
Elderly, pruritic
[image] |
|
Definition
Asteatotic Dermatitis
Aetiology
-
a pruritic leg rash of the elderly (can occur on arms and trunk)
-
usually associated with excessive scrubbing and bathing. Other RF = low humidity (winter, air conditioning), diuretics
Clinically
-
dry, scaling, erythematous, superficial, cracking, “crazy paving” appearance,
Rx
|
|
|
Term
What is the pathophysiology of eczema |
|
Definition
Atopy + immature skin sweat / oil glands
Atopy = a tendency to develop (often hereditary) one or more of allergic rhinitis (hay fever), asthma, eczema, skin sensitivities, urticaria. 10% of people are atopic. |
|
|
Term
Discuss the eczema distribution pattern by age |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Known ezcema, current emotional stressors + humid environment
[image][image] |
|
Definition
Pompholyx
= a vesicular atopic dermatitis of the hands and feet
Etiology
Aetiology
-
multifactorial, exac by sweating (hot weather / humid conditions often result in flares)
-
often occurs with emotional upset
-
others; known irritants, inflammatory dermatophyte, drugs
-
Hx/FHx of atopy
Clinical
-
may report palmoplanter hyperhidrosis
-
recurrent deep pruritic (+/- burning) vesicles
-
skin then peels to reveal dry, painful (+/- fissured) skin
- can cause paronychia if occur at nail bed
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Eczema herpeticum
= widespread HSV infection complicating a pre-existing skin condition, most often atopic dermatitis.
-
presents as an acute eruption of vesicles or multiple crusted erosions.
-
may follow a cold sore.
-
fever and malaise may be present
-
skin tenderness is more common than itching
-
take a swab to confirm the diagnosis
- antiviral therapy is essential—treat as for a severe primary episode of oral mucocutaneous HSV.
|
|
|
Term
Differentiate irritant contact dermatitis vs allergic contact dermatitis vs contact urticaria |
|
Definition
- irritant; excessive contact with precipitant which would affect anyone given enough exposure (eg acids, detergents etc) but will often affect atopics more severely
- allergic; reaction of a small number of people to a known precipitant (often only in small amounts) which is harmless to others. Usually after a long period of asymptomatic exposure
- urticaria; reaction occurs within minutes of exposure and lasts minutes to hours
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dermatitis Herpetiformis
-
intensely pruritic vesicular rash
-
unusual to see vesicles due to intensity of scratching
-
most commonly associated with gluten intolerance
-
usually young adults
-
knees, elbows, trunk or buttocks
-
lasts for decades
-
skin biopsy is diagnostic
Rx
- gluten free diet
- dramatic response to Dapsone
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Infantile Seborrhoeic Dermatitis
- aka cradle cap when on the scalp
- aetiology unclear, may be due to hyperactive sebaceous glands in response to residual maternal hormone levels in the baby
- generally <3 months old
- affects scalp and napkin area
- prone to secondary fungal infection
|
|
|
Term
In a baby differentiate between irritant dermatitis, candidiasis, seborrhoeic dermatitis and psoriasis as causes for nappy rash |
|
Definition
- irritant dermatitis
- erythematous scaling rash that spares the flexures
- due to faecal proteases and lipases (+/- ammonia = conjecture). Thus more common with diarrhoea
- seborrheic dermatitis
- extends beyond napkin area
- candidiasis
- psoriasis
- always involves the flexures
- often severe and associated with an explosive eruption on the face and trunk
|
|
|
Term
What differentiates pityriasis capitis and seborrhoeic dermatitis |
|
Definition
Pityriasis capitis is a non inflammatory variant aka dandruff |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of a malar / butterfly rash |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Abscess to hair baring skin on head + hairs to affected area can be plucked out easily and painlessly |
|
Definition
Kerion
= a tender, fluctuant abscess usually on the hair bearing face / scalp due to a fungal infection
Clinical diagnosis is suggested if hairs can be easily plucked out without pain (if causes pain = bacterial) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Child, patchy alopecia
[image] |
|
Definition
Tinea capitis
Aetiology
- usually in children (rare after puberty) Etiology - usually due to Microsporum canis (in Australia) Clinical - scaling patches of partial alopecia - small broken off hair shafts Dx - hair plucking and skin scales for m/c/s Rx - antifungal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tinea corporis (aka ringworm) = a localised fungal skin infection with characteristic appearance Eitiology
Trichophytum rubrum or Microsporum canis Aetiology strong association with cat and dog exposure Clinical spreading, circular erythematous lesions with scaling / vesicles at the edge central clearing mild itch Rx topical / oral antifungal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tinea nigra Aetiology
hot, humid climates Etiology due to an infection with Exophiala phaeoannellomyces a brown mould that lives in the soil Clinical macular black lesion on the palm or sole some scaling non pruritic slow growing Dx skin scrapings from the lesions scaling edge skin biopsy (as may mimic melanoma) Rx good response to topical antifungal |
|
|
Term
localised patchy hair loss with a resultant smooth patch of skin no sign of inflammation exclamation mark hairs |
|
Definition
Alopecia areata
= sudden onset hair loss due to immunological disruption of the anagen phase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
= hair loss during the anagen phase and is typically seen in association with cancer chemotherapy and scalp radiotherapy effluvium = “to flow out” Etiology
immediate metabolic arrest in anagen phase with loss of hair. The follicle may remain in anagen phase and thus hair growth will recover quickly or it may move into telogen phase thus delaying growth by about 3 months Clinical anagen hair shafts are identified by their long and pigmented hair bulb |
|
|
Term
What is the pathophysiology of androgenetica alopecia |
|
Definition
-
terminal hairs are replaced by shorter and finer hairs due to the effect of androgen on scalp follicles
-
effect is mostly due to end organ androgen sensitivity (as opposed to directly related to androgen levels)
- action is stimulated by dihydrotestosterone (a testosterone derivative which is more potent than testosterone and results from conversion by the 5-alpha reductase enzyme)
|
|
|
Term
What is hypertrichosis and what causes it |
|
Definition
= the increased growth of fine vellus or downy hair over the entire body
Aetiology
|
|
|
Term
thin wispy hair + under 5 + painless easy plucking |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the three phases of a hairs life cycle |
|
Definition
-
Anagen phase
-
Catagen phase
-
Telogen phase
|
|
|
Term
stressful event + 2-3 month gap + white bulb hairs |
|
Definition
Telogen effluvium
DxT = stressful event + 2-3 month gap + white bulb hairs
Aetiology
Etiology
-
shedding of hairs in the telogen phase
-
possibly due to high metabolic rate of follicular matrix cells (secondary only to haematological) with stressor causing cessation of anagen and premature entry into telogen phase
-
thus 2-3 month gap after cessation of anagen until hairs complete telogen phase
Clinical
-
2-3 months after stressor club hairs with white bulbs are shed
-
often large clumps are easily pulled out with gentle tugging, combing or washing
-
if uncomplicated self resolves within 6/12
- if >6/12 consider chronic idiopathic variant or unmasked androgenetic alopecia
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Trichotillomania
= patchy hair loss due to deliberate plucking or twisting
Aetiology
-
reasonably common in children, is of little concern (ie a ‘habit they will grow out of’)
-
in adults it may be an obsessive compulsive disorder associated with stress
Clinical
-
patchy alopecia
-
hairs of different length, broken or twisted
-
often on side of dominant hand
-
eyelashes and eyebrows may be involved
- if in children may be nocturnal and parents unaware it is occurring
|
|
|
Term
What causes of brittle nails need be considered |
|
Definition
- more common
-
consider
-
hypothyroidism
- digital ischaemia
|
|
|
Term
Isolated paroxysms of subungual pain especially with change in temperature
[image] |
|
Definition
Glomus tumour
Aetiology
Clinical
-
typically a solitary, painful 1-2 cm reddish blue papule or nodule found on a young adult
-
most commonly affect the nail bed or the palm
-
usually tender to touch, but may be extremely painful, particularly following change in temperature or pressure
Rx
- solitary glomus tumours can be surgically excised but this becomes difficult with multiple glomuvenous malformations. Other treatment options include laser, injection with hypertonic saline and sclerotherapy
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Myxoid pseudocyst
aka; myxoid cyst, a mucous cyst, a digital ganglion cyst, and a digital synovial cyst
Aetiology
|
|
|
Term
What are these three causes of onycholysis
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Twenty nail dystrophy
-
aka Trachyonychia
-
uncommon disorder in preadolescent children
-
thinning and roughening of almost all 20 nails
-
usually a self limiting condition that resolves over 2-3 years
-
may be a prodrome to psoriasis, lichen planus or alopecia areata
-
consider trial of super potent corticosteroid
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Becker’s naevus
Aetiology
Etiology
-
a localised benign hyperproliferation of epidermal, melanocyte and hair follicle cells
-
suspected gene defect but details not known
Clinical
-
unilateral, light brown macular patch which can be as large as half the back and will tan easily
-
can have an associated coarse hair overgrowth or acne predisposition
-
if abnormal / worrying features consider Beckers neavus syndrome
Rx
-
nil effective Rx
-
avoid sun exposure to decrease obviousness
-
Rx acne as for other acne
-
could consider laser for pigment +/- hair
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicus
= a painful benign nodule of the helix or antihelix
Etiology
Clinical
Rx
-
will usually self resolve if sleep on other side
-
can consider cryotherapy or intralesional steroid
-
last resort = wedge resection
|
|
|
Term
Discuss the aetiology of a cutaneous horn |
|
Definition
= hard conical projections from the skin made of compacted keratin
Etiology
Whilst no certain features can confidently confirm or exclude malignant lesions, malignant lesions are more common in older patients and in males compared to females. Squamous cell carcinoma is also likely if the horn has the following features:
-
Pain
-
Large size
-
Induration at the base
-
Anatomic site on the nose, ears, backs of hands, scalp, forearms, face and penis
-
Wide base or low height to base ratio
-
Redness at the base of the horn base
-
Lack of terrace formation, due to rapid unorganised growth
Rx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Granuloma annulare
= a common benign papule arranged in an annular fashion
Aetiology
Etiology
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Halo naevus
= a naevus surrounded by a depigmented halo
Aetiology
Etiology
Clinical
Rx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Keratoacanthoma
= a variant of SCC
Aetiology
Etiology
Clinical
-
characterised by dome-shaped, symmetrical, surrounded by a smooth wall of inflamed skin, and capped with keratin scales and debris
-
may start at the site of a minor injury to sun damaged and hair-bearing skin
-
at first it may appear as a small pimple and may be squeezed but is found to have a solid core filled with keratin
-
it grows rapidly, reaching a large size within days or weeks, and if untreated for months will almost always starve itself of nourishment, necrose, slough, and heal with scarring
Rx
-
surgical excision
- consider cautery, cryotherapy or radiotherapy
|
|
|
Term
Histopathologically differentiate freckles, lentigenes and melanoma |
|
Definition
- freckle; increased melanin production but no melanocyte hyperproliferation
- lentigo; localised hyperproliferation of melanocytes
- melanoma; melanocyte hyperproliferation + atypia, nesting and adnexal structure invasion
|
|
|
Term
How are smoking pack years calculated |
|
Definition
Pack–years are calculated as the number of years smoked, multiplied by the number of cigarettes smoked per day, divided by 20.
# of years x # of cigarettes
20 |
|
|
Term
Describe spirometry for asthma and what values are significant for both adults and children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pyogenic granuloma
= a relatively common vascular lesion
Aetiology
Etiology
-
cause unclear
-
considered an abnormal reaction to mild trauma
-
other possible influences; staph, pregnancy, retinoids
Clinical
Rx
-
it must be distinguished from an amelanotic melanoma and an anaplastic SCC
-
if preg related will resolve post delivery
-
if drug related will resolve on cessation of drug
-
otherwise tend to persist. Thus
- recurrence common due to deep seeding abnormal capillaries thus surgical excision may be required
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sebaceous hyperplasia
= a benign hair follicle tumour
Aetiology
Clinical
Rx
-
does not require any treatment. However, for cosmetic reasons or if they are bothersome if irritated, individual lesions may be removed by light electrocautery or laser vaporisation.
-
when the lesions are severe, extensive or disfiguring, oral isotretinoin is effective in clearing lesions but these may recur when treatment is stopped.
- in females antiandrogens may help improve the appearance.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Seborrhoeic keratoses
= a benign skin growth associated with aging
Aetiology
Clinical
-
Flat or raised papule or plaque
-
1 mm to several cm in diameter
-
Skin coloured, yellow, grey, light brown, dark brown, black or mixed colours
-
Smooth, waxy or warty surface
-
Solitary or grouped in certain areas, such as within the scalp, under the breasts, over the spine or in the groin
-
like a squashed sultana
-
Dermatoscopy often shows
Rx
-
Cryotherapy (liquid nitrogen) for thinner lesions (repeated if necessary)
-
Curettage and/or electrocautery
-
Ablative laser surgery
-
Shave biopsy (shaving off with a scalpel)
- Focal chemical peel with trichloracetic acid
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Solar keratosis
aka actinic keratosis
= a scaling lesion on sun damaged skin and is considered an early precursor to SCC
Aetiology
Etiology
Clinical
-
can be atrophic, hypertrophic, pigmented or lichenoid
-
white or yellow; scaly, warty or horny surface
-
tender or asymptomatic
-
occasionally develop a cutaneous horn
Complications
-
the risk of SCC transformation is low (but in Px with >10 SK = 15%)
-
signs of evolution are tender, thickened, ulcerated or enlarging SK
Rx
-
can remit spontaneously, especially if good sun protection adherence
-
consider removal for cosmetic reasons or especially if signs of changes to SCC
-
consider cryotherapy (usually first line), shave excision or surgical excision
-
field treatments may be applied to large areas
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Spitz naevus
= an uncommon benign red - brown dome shaped pigmented naevus of children which often causes concern with its rapid growth (over months) on the face or limbs. They remain static after this first period and must be differentiated from melanoma |
|
|
Term
What is the risk of metastasis of SCC based on its area of presentation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What followup should patients receive after excision of a primary SCC on sun exposed skin |
|
Definition
Review patients with a primary SCC every 6 months for at least 2 years after excision. Look for signs of secondary tumours (eg in regional lymph nodes) at each visit. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Squamous cell carcinoma insitu (SCCIS)
aka Bowens disease
= an early, slow growning, non-invasive form of SCC |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dermal melanocytosis
(Mongolian spot)
This condition presents as blue-grey discolouration of the skin over the lower back and sacrum in babies of east Asian and other dark-skinned ethnic backgrounds. These are of no clinical significance but may be mistaken for bruising or non-accidental injury. They usually disappear by 4 years of age. |
|
|
Term
What is the natural progression of infantile haemangiomas |
|
Definition
Infantile Haemangiomas
Clinical
-
can be superficial (strawberry haemangioma), flat or lumpy, resembling strawberry jam splashed on the skin or deep and cavernous haemangioma (a bluish swelling)
-
usually appear after birth, and occur in 10% of infants
-
80% occur on the head and neck
-
80% of their growth occurs in the first 3 months (most stop by 5 months, though some continue until 18 months)
-
usually involute and disappear (50% by 5 years, 70% by 7, 90% by 10)
-
regression of bulky ones tends to be incomplete, and they often leave an atrophic ;dented ; scar
Referral
-
large, deep or multiple haemangiomas can be associated with malformations of organs,
-
those causing cosmetic issues (such as being prominent on the face)
-
those that impair vision/hearing/breathing or feeding
- other important locations (e.g. perineum or sacrum)
|
|
|
Term
Recent relocation to a warmer climate
[image] |
|
Definition
Miliaria
(sweat rash)
Aetiology
-
arises from obstruction of the sweat ducts
-
commonest in hot, humid conditions
-
may begin within a few days of arrival in a tropical climate but is maximal after 2-5 months
Clinical
-
typically in skin folds and areas of friction from clothing
-
in infants lesions commonly appear on the neck, groins and armpits
-
in contrast to acne and other forms of folliculitis, miliaria spots do not arise around the hair follicles
-
variants
-
miliaria crystallina or sudamina; obstruction is superficial and appears as tiny superficial clear blisters that break easily
-
miliaria rubra or prickly heat occurs deeper in the epidermis and results in very itchy red papules
-
miliaria profunda results from sweat leaking into the dermis causing deep and intensely uncomfortable, prickling, red lumps.
- miliaria pustulosa describes pustules due to inflammation and bacterial infection
|
|
|
Term
What are the four clinical stages of
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the aetiology of
[image] |
|
Definition
Pityriasis Alba
= a low grade atopic dermatitis primarily affecting children in which a hypopigmented, fine scaling lesion appears on the face
Aitiology
Etiology
Clinical
-
usually on the face
-
0.5-5cm
-
1 - 20 lesions
-
minimal to no itch
-
four stages
Rx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Reyes syndrome
-
a rare complication of influenza, chickenpox and other viral illnesses (eg Coxsackie virus) and can be further precipitated by aspirin use during the illness
-
rapid development of
-
30% fatality rate and significant morbidity
- Rx is supportive and directed at cerebral oedema
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Toxic erythema of the newborn
-
a benign condition which occurs in 50% of newborns
-
usually 1 - 2 days after birth (but may appear up to 2 weeks later)
-
2 - 3 mm erythematous macules and papules developing into pustules, with a surrounding blotchy area of erythema
-
starts on the face and spreads to the torso and proximal limbs, and spares the palms and soles
-
usually fades over a week, but may recur for a few weeks
-
child is systemically well with the rash
- no treatment is required
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
-
aka Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy (PUPPP)
-
1 in 160 pregnancies, second most common rash of preg
-
late in 3rd trimester
-
RF = nulliparous, large weight gain during preg
-
Clinical
-
intensely pruritic
-
begins in or near striae on abdomen
-
as it spreads, erythematous papules coalesce to form plaques on trunk / buttock / limbs
-
resolves spontaneously days after preg (and does not recur even with following pregs)
Rx (eTG)
|
|
|
Term
How can it be determined if Peripheral Artery Disease is the cause for a non healing wound |
|
Definition
The impact of PAD on wound healing depends on its haemodynamic significance. Well collateralised, localised PAD may have no effect on healing, whereas poorly collateralised, multi-segmental PAD can prevent wound healing or lead to progressive tissue loss. An assessment of the haemodynamic importance of PAD is required in all patients. Palpable ankle pulses almost always indicate that the arterial circulation is adequate for wound healing, and further vascular investigations are then not required. |
|
|
Term
Are arterial ulcers painful |
|
Definition
often painful—the pain is aggravated by elevation, and relieved by lowering the leg over the side of the bed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Etiology
Aetiology
-
it is one of a group of autoinflammatory disorders known as neutrophilic dermatoses.
-
the name pyoderma gangrenosum is historical. The condition is not an infection (pyoderma), nor does it cause gangrene.
- cause unclear but It is thought to be a reaction to an internal disease or condition
Clinical
-
presents as a rapidly enlarging, very painful ulcer, often at the site of a minor injury
-
may start as a small pustule, red bump or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down resulting in an ulcer. The ulcer can deepen and widen rapidly
-
characteristically, the edge of the ulcer is purple and undermined
-
several ulcers may develop at the same time.
-
treatment is usually successful in arresting the process, but complete healing may take months. This is particularly true if there is underlying venous disease, another reason for leg ulcers.
Rx
- intralesional / systemic corticosteroids
- immunomudulators
|
|
|
Term
Differentiate between pyoderma gangrenosum and pyogenic granuloma |
|
Definition
Pyoderma gangrenosum = the one that is not an infection but looks like it. Rx is with steroids / immunomodultors
[image]
Pyogenic granuloma = the vascular lesion
[image]
|
|
|
Term
Are venous ulcers painful |
|
Definition
Usually not unless secondarily infected |
|
|
Term
What differentiates open and closed comedones in acne |
|
Definition
- Dx of acne requires both open and closed comedones (comedone = blocked sebaceous gland
- Open = black head as oxidation of sebaceous material causes dark colour change
- Closed = white head
- If patient only has pustules the diagnosis must be reconsidered.
|
|
|
Term
Differentiate between dermatophytes and yeast and give examples of each |
|
Definition
Dermatophyte = a group of fungi that have the ability to utilise keratin as a nutrient source. Thus a dermatophytosis (infection with dermatophyte) is unique in that no living tissue is invaded / affected. Rather the effects are from a sensitivity reaction to its presence. Common examples are ringworm and tinea.
Yeast = a group of fungi that commonly exist as part of natural microbiome (eg skin / GIT / vagina). Problems arise when immune system's capacity is decreased (either locally or systemically). Common eg = Candida
|
|
|
Term
What is erythema infectiosum |
|
Definition
slapped cheek syndrome
= a common childhood exanthem caused by parvovirus 19
|
|
|
Term
What are the serious sequelae of Parvovirus B19 |
|
Definition
Other than rash symptoms are mild if at all except in:
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Erythema infectiosum
(slapped cheek syndrome)
= a common childhood exanthem caused by parvovirus 19
Aetiology
Etiology
-
parvovirus 19 infection of the bone marrow
-
incubation of 4-21 days
-
spread via respiratory droplets
-
infective up until the rash appears
Clinical
-
30% of those infected will have no sxs
-
maybe a few days of non specific viral prodrome
-
typically a bright macular erythematous rash erupts on the face first. Then a day later on the limbs (maculopapular)
-
lasts for only a few days but may recur for several weeks (or become reddened with sun / wind exposure)
-
other sxs are mild (if at all) except
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Erythema multiforme
= a hypersensitivity reaction usually triggered by infections which presents with a skin eruption characterised by a typical target lesion.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Erythema multiforme
= a hypersensitivity reaction usually triggered by infections which presents with a skin eruption characterised by a typical target lesion.
|
|
|
Term
Discuss the etiology of erythema multiforme |
|
Definition
Erythema multiforme
= a hypersensitivity reaction usually triggered by infections which presents with a skin eruption characterised by a typical target lesion.
Aetiology
-
usually 20-30yo
-
M>F
-
genetic predisposition
-
triggers
|
|
|
Term
Describe the timeline progression of erythema multiforme |
|
Definition
-
usually no systemic prodrome
-
skin lesions progress as follows over 72 hours
-
sharply demarcated, round, red/pink and flat (macules),
-
become raised (papules/palpable)
-
gradually enlarge to form plaques up to several centimetres in diameter
-
the centre of the papule/plaque darkens in colour and develops surface (epidermal) changes such as blistering or crusting
- lesions may be at various stages of development the eruption is described as polymorphous (many forms), hence the ‘multiforme’ in the name
-
can be a few or hundreds of lesions erupt within 24 hours, first on back of hands and top of feet and then spreading proximally towards the trunk, palms and soles may be involved, may be mild itch or burning
- a full skin examination may be required to find typical targets, as these may be few in number
-
mucous membranes
-
can be involved, especially in severe form
-
oral most common
-
usually develop ~3 days after skin lesions first seen
-
if precipitant is mycoplasma pneumoniae the mucous membranes may be the only area to develop lesions, they are more severe and hospitalisation may be required due to this severity
-
usually resolves over weeks
-
does not progress on to become TEN / SJS
Rx
-
usually nil required
- treat underlying precipitant as indicated
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Erythema nodosum
= a hypersensitivity inflammatory disorder that affects the subcutaneous fat on the legs and arms
Aetiology
Etiology
Clinical
-
most commonly on the shins
-
the nodules are slightly raised above the surrounding skin; they are hot and painful, bright red when they first appear, later becoming purple then fading through the colour changes of a bruise.
-
can have malaise, fever, arthralgia
-
resolves over 6/52 but can recur
|
|
|
Term
Differentiate between Erythema Infectiosum, Erythema Multiforme and Erythema Nodosum |
|
Definition
- Erythema infectiosum = slapped cheek syndrome, Parvovirus B19
- Erythema multiforme = a hypersensitivity reaction most commonly to underlying Herpes or Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections resulting in a polymorphous rash of papular circular lesions including target lesions
- Erythema nodosum = a hypersensitivity inflammatory reaction of the subcutaneous fat in the legs. Due to multiple possible causes with sarcoidosis as the most common. Results in a hot and tender nodules to the legs
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Erythrasma
-
a common asymptomatic chronic skin infection which causes a slowly enlarging pink or brown area of dry skin
-
commonly skin folds, auxillae, groin and toes
-
aitiology = chronic bacterial infection with Corynebacterium minitissimum
-
DDx = other causes of intertrigo. May coexist with dermatophyte or yeast
-
RF = warm climate and diabetes
Dx
Rx
- antiseptic or topical Abx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Guttate Psoriasis
= sudden eruption of small dense erythematous papules commonly following a streptococcal infection
Aetiology
Etiology
Clinical
-
numerous droplet-shaped lesions, 2 to 10 mm
-
comes on very quickly
-
trunk and proximal limbs
-
as in plaque psoriasis, the lesions are pink, but scaling may be less prominent
-
often does not occur until 2 to 3 weeks after infection
-
it can persist for up to 6/12 but will self resolve
Rx
-
ensure resolution of underlying bacterial infection
-
although plaques are widespread they are often thin, and likely to respond to milder topical treatments. Treat as for psoriasis on the trunk and limbs.
|
|
|
Term
What is the cause of hand foot and mouth disease |
|
Definition
Hand Foot and Mouth Disease
= an enterovirus infection causing a recognizable syndrome characterized by vesicular lesions on the mouth and an exanthem on the hands and feet (and buttocks) in association with fever
Aetiology
-
typically <10yo (often outbreaks in daycare) but can affect all ages
-
usually mild illness with full recovery (a secondary skin infection is the main complication)
-
can become dehydrated due to discomfort from the oral lesions
-
more severe complications associated with younger age
Etiology
-
group of RNA viruses called enteroviruses (most commonly coxsackie virus but can be herpes simplex viruses)
-
commonly fecal-oral or oral-oral spread. Respiratory droplet transmission also may occur but is less likely.
-
Typically, the virus seeds the GI tract via the buccal mucosa or the ileum
-
incubation 3/7
Clinical
-
development of
-
oral lesions (painful yellow ulcers surrounded by red halos), followed shortly by skin lesions, primarily on the hands and feet and occasionally on the buttocks.
-
the exanthem may be asymptomatic or pruritic. They usually begin as erythematous macules that rapidly progress to thick-walled grey vesicles with an erythematous base. In young infants, these lesions may also be observed on the trunk, thighs, and buttocks. The rash is usually self-limited, lasting approximately 3-6 days
Exclusion
Rx
|
|
|
Term
What is Hutchinsons sign in varicella infection |
|
Definition
In a facial outbreak of shingles Hutchinson's sign refers to vesicles on the tip of nose inferring twice as likely to have ocular involvement |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Juvenile Spring Eruption
Etiology
-
usually boys and young men
-
early spring time with cold climate
-
often occurs in epidemics
Aetiology
-
a sun-induced skin condition appearing on the light exposed skin of the ears
-
probably a localised form of polymorphic light eruption (PMLE) - a sun allergy rash of unknown cause which can have various appearances and affects more widespread areas of sun-exposed skin. Some patients with juvenile spring eruption also have PMLE.
Clinical
-
in spring with sun exposure itchy red small lumps evolve into blisters and crusts
-
cervical LN can occur
-
heal with minimal or no scarring in about 2 weeks, faster with treatment
-
recurrences can occur, with similar climatic conditions.
Dx
Management
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Lichen Planus
-
epidermal inflammatory disorder of unknown aetiology
-
pruritic, violaceous (of violet colour) flat papules
-
mainly on the wrist and legs (can affect oral mucosa, nails and scalp)
Dx
Rx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Livedo Reticularis
Aetiology
Clinical
-
characteristic mottled discolouration of the skin. Reticular (net-like, lace-like) and cyanotic (reddish blue discolouration). The discolouration surrounds pale central skin.
-
mostly on the legs but can extend to arms and trunk
-
more pronounced in cold weather.
Rx
-
nil, rewarming
- smoking cessation due to possible increase CVS RF
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Measles
(rubeola)
= a highly infection RNA paramyxovirus disease that presents with acute febrile exanthematous illness with characteristic Kopliks spots |
|
|
Term
What are the three stages of a measles presentation |
|
Definition
-
prodromal;
-
3-4/7,
-
fever, malaise, anorexia, diarrhoea + the 3 C’s (cough, coryza and conjunctivitis)
-
Koplicks spots; small white intraoral lesions
-
occasionally a non specific rash may appear
-
exanthema
-
typically blotchy, blanching bright red maculopapular eruption
-
lasts 4-5 / 7
-
begins behind the ears, spreads to the face on the first day, the trunk on the second day and then to the limbs
-
may become confluent
-
rash often coincided with high fever (>40*C) resolves within 5/7 of onset of the rash
-
convalescent
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Measles
= a highly infection RNA paramyxovirus disease that presents with acute febrile exanthematous illness with characteristic Kopliks spots |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pityriasis rosea
= a viral rash which lasts about 6–12 weeks. It is characterised by a herald patch followed by similar, smaller oval red patches that are located mainly on the chest and back.
Aetiology
-
most commonly young adults
-
is a non contagious condition
-
recurrence is rare (1-3%)
Etiology
Clinical
-
preceding herald patch 1-2 weeks (can have 2-3 or none in 20%), can be mistaken for tinea
-
oval pink / copper coloured eruption of 1-2 cm patches with scaling margins
-
‘T-shirt’ distribution
-
systemically well
-
itch varies from nil to severe (mild = most common)
- self resolution in 2-10 weeks (5 = most common)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Primary HIV seroconversion rash
= an erythematous, maculopapular rash as manifestation of HIV Infection Syndrome
Aetiology
HIV Infection Syndrome
|
|
|
Term
How effective is topical corticosteroid for rosocea |
|
Definition
never apply a topical steroid to the rosacea as although short-term improvement may be observed (vasoconstriction and anti-inflammatory effect), it makes the rosacea more severe over the next weeks (possibly by increased production of nitric oxide) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Roseola infantum
(exanthema subitum)
= childhood viral infection by Human Herpes Virus 6 (HHV6) characterised by a high fever that subsides to reveal a rash
Aetiology
Etiology
Clinical
Dx
Rx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Differentiate between rubeola, rubella and roseola infantum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Rubella
(German measles)
= a togavirus illness that is most commonly mild with no sequelae except in pregnancy where devastating effects can occur in utero
Aetiology
-
rarely seen now due to vaccinations
-
infection usually confers lifelong immunity
-
school exclusion until 5/7 after onset of rash
Etiology
-
due to togavirus
-
spread via droplets
-
incubation 14-21 days
Clinical
-
~ 1/3 are asymptomatic
-
generalised maculopapular rash, sometimes pruritic, non-confluent, starts on face, spreads to trunk and extremities, exaggerated by sun exposure, usually fades on third day
-
often an erythematous pharynx but sore throat is uncommon
-
fever usually absent or low grade
-
other feature; headache, myalgia, conjunctivitis, polyarthritis
-
infectious for up to 10 days from onset of rash
-
congenital rubella; infection of mother in 1st trimester can lead to abortion or congenital defects
Dx
Rx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Scarlet Fever
Aetiology
Etiology
-
Group A streptococcus pyogenes organism produces an erythrogenic toxin (only some people are susceptible to this toxin thus two children may have strep infection but only one gets scarlet fever)
-
strep spread via droplet or contact (including 20% of school children who are asymptomatic carriers)
-
incubation 1-4 days
Clinical
Dx
Rx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Secondary syphilis
Etiology
Clinical
-
a generalised eruption that can have varied appearance
-
usually appears 6+8 weeks after primary chancre
-
generally
-
affects whole body including head, palms and soles
-
asymptomatic
-
possible
-
mucosal ulcers “snail track”
-
lymphadenopathy
-
patchy alopecia
-
condylomata lata; greyish-white moist raised patches in the groin, inner thighs, armpits, or under breasts
Rx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Talon noir
Aetiology
Etiology
Clinical
Rx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Varicella
(chickenpox)
= a highly contagious disease caused by the varicella zoster virus
Aetiology
-
occurs worldwide
-
single infection confers lifelong immunity
-
included in childhood vaccine register in 2005
-
recurs as herpes zoster (shingles)
-
severe complications for immunocompromised or pregnant (also a more severe disease when occurs in adults)
Etiology
-
transmission via airborne droplets or contact with fluid through broken skin (usually following chickenpox exposure but occasionally following shingles exposure)
-
10-21 day incubation period with 70% chance of conversion if exposed
-
contagious 1-2 days before rash and until vesicles have scabbed over (should be isolated over this period)
Clinical
-
begins as pruritic (usually not severe) erythematous papules on the stomach, back and face which then vesiculate and spread to other parts of the body
-
can be few or multitude of lesions
-
may have associated fever, headache, V/D (these occur as prodrome in adults)
-
blisters resolve in 1-3 / 52
-
severe varicella (ie complications); thrombocytopaenia encephalitis, pneumonitis, hepatitis
- scarring occurs uncommonly (only really following bacterial superinfection of lesions)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Vitiligo
= an acquired depigmenting skin disorder due to autoimmune mediated melanocyte dysfunction
Aetiology
-
occurs in all races
-
50% begins before 20yrs old, 80% before 30yrs old
-
20% have genetic link
-
Even though most people with vitiligo are in good general health, they face a greater risk of having autoimmune diseases such as diabetes, thyroid disease (in 20% of patients over 20 years with vitiligo), pernicious anaemia (B12 deficiency), Addison's disease, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and alopecia areata (round patches of hair loss).
Etiology
Clinical
-
complete pigmentation loss at any melanocyte area within the body (including hair)
-
can follow
-
skin trauma
-
emotional distress
-
varying severity with no way to predict how much will be affected or over what period of time
-
may stabilise and then recur / progress later on
Dx
Rx
-
often unsuccessful
-
ensure affected skin is protected (eg sun damage)
-
trial
-
consider specialist referral for phototherapy, oral therapy
- consider psychological impacts of condition
|
|
|
Term
What disease associations occur with vitiligo |
|
Definition
Even though most people with vitiligo are in good general health, they face a greater risk of having autoimmune diseases such as diabetes, thyroid disease (in 20% of patients over 20 years with vitiligo), pernicious anaemia (B12 deficiency), Addison's disease, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and alopecia areata (round patches of hair loss). |
|
|
Term
Describe the disease progression of symptoms with menieres |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Differentiate between the common causes of vertigo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Discuss four of the important causes of Sensorineural Hearing Loss (SNHL) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Discuss four of the important causes for conductive hearing loss |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the findings for Webbers and Rinnes test in unilateral SNHL vs conductive hearing loss |
|
Definition
-
Rinne’s test
-
high specificity for conductive hearing loss, but a low sensitivity
-
how to
-
gently strike a 256 or 512 Hz tuning fork against your knee, and then place it on the patient's’ mastoid process and ask the patient if they can hear it
-
then move it to the front of the ear and ask which sound is louder, the tuning fork in front of or behind the ear.
-
positive if air conduction is better than bone conduction, as is the case in a ‘normal’ ear
-
negative if bone conduction is louder than air conduction (= a conductive deficit)
-
Weber’s test
-
strike the tuning fork then place it on the patient’s forehead either in the midline
-
detects the better hearing cochlea, so it is heard in the midline in a patient with normal hearing
-
if conductive defect it localises towards the affected ear
- if sensorineural deficit it localises away from the defect
|
|
|
Term
What three clinical features would be highly suggestive for Graves disease |
|
Definition
- Thyroid bruit (pathognomonic as no other causes of hyperthyroidism result in enough vascularlity to cause a bruit)
- thyroid opthalmology; lid lag, proptosis, periorbital oedema
- pretibial myxoedema
|
|
|
Term
Describe the etiology of Graves disease |
|
Definition
-
can occur at any age but most common in 40-60
-
F:M = 10 : 1
-
genetic component / family Hx of same
-
increase prevalence in setting of smoking, postpartum and periods of stress
- is an association with other autoimmune diseases eg coeliac
|
|
|
Term
Discuss the 7 most common causes for hyperthyroidism |
|
Definition
Common
- Graves
- TSH receptor Ab increases thyroid hormone production and causes thyroid hyperplasia
-
F:M = 10:1, peak onset 40–60 years
-
diffuse symmetrical goitre, graves opthalmology, thyroid bruit
-
TRAb +ve, TPO Ab usually +ve
- Toxic Multinodular Goitre or Toxic Adenoma
- TMNG 50+, TA 30-50
- TPO low or absent
- Post Partum Thyroiditis
- Excess thyroxine / iatrogenic
Less common
- Painless sporadic thyroiditis
- Painful subacute thyroiditis
- Possibly caused by a viral infection. Destruction of thyroid follicles with release of stored thyroid hormone
-
Peak onset 20–60 years of age
-
Often follows an upper respiratory tract infection
-
Tender goitre
-
thyrotoxicosis for 1–2 months often followed by hypothyroidism for 4–6 months; hypothyroidism may be permanent (5%)
-
TPO low or absent. ESR >50
- Amiodarone thyroiditis
|
|
|
Term
What is the adrenaline regime for a child with anaphylaxis and how should this be drawn up |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the formula to calculate a childs weight |
|
Definition
weight = (Age + 4) x2
(1-10yrs) |
|
|
Term
Describe the pathophysiology of the two different type of glaucoma |
|
Definition
-
pathophysiology for increased pressure is due to decreased aqueous flow. Aqueous is produced by the ciliary body and flows around the lens into the anterior chamber. Here it drains out through the trabecular meshwork, located in the drainage ‘angle’ between the posterior surface of the cornea and the anterior surface of the iris
[image]
|
|
|
Term
Describe the differences in clinical presentation of the two types of glaucoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
-
unilateral painful red eye
-
blurred vision
-
nausea / vomiting, headache, haloes around lights
-
pain worse in the dark
|
|
Definition
Acute angle closure glaucoma |
|
|
Term
Discuss the pathological and clinical features of early and late stage Age-related Macular Degeneration (AMD) |
|
Definition
Clinical
-
early stages
-
late-stage
- neovascular leads to a rapid loss of central vision (50% at 3/12 and 75% at 3 yrs)
- pxs at risk are given an Amsler grid and asked to monitor weekly. If change present need urgent referral (1-2 weeks) as may have rapid onset neovascularisation
|
|
|
Term
What is Charles Bonnet syndrome |
|
Definition
Aetiology
-
vivid, elaborate and recurrent visual hallucinations in psychologically normal people who have low vision (akin to phantom limb effect)
-
most often occurs in older, visually impaired persons, with Age Related Macular Degeneration as the leading cause
Clinical
-
hallucinations can range from simple shapes and dots of colours, to detailed images of people, animals, landscapes or buildings
- typically, the hallucinations last for a number of months before becoming less frequent However, it is highly variable and may never subside
|
|
|
Term
What is the pathophysiological difference between Hyperosmotic Hyperglycaemic Syndrome and Diabetic Ketoacidosis |
|
Definition
- HHS
- more due to insulin resistance than lack of insulin
- results in just enough intracellular glucose to prevent lypolysis and ketone production
- DKA
- do to lack of insulin resulting in lypolysis and ketone production
|
|
|
Term
Oral ulcers
Genital ulcers
+/- Eye symptoms
+/- Arthritis |
|
Definition
Behcet syndrome
a small and large vessel vasculitis in 20year olds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)
aka Churg Strauss Syndrome
Aetiology
-
characterized by extravascular necrotizing granulomas (usually rich in eosinophils), eosinophilia, and tissue infiltration by eosinophils
-
typically affects small- and medium-sized arteries
Diagnosis
-
Asthma
-
Eosinophilia of > 10% in peripheral blood
-
Paranasal sinusitis
-
Pulmonary infiltrates, sometimes transient
-
Histologic evidence of vasculitis with extravascular eosinophils
-
Multiple mononeuropathy or polyneuropathy
- ANCA +ve in up to 40% of patients
|
|
|
Term
What are the clinical diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki Disease |
|
Definition
-
fever for > 5/7
- PLUS 4 of
- rash; erythematous, maculopapular (+/- target lesions), with desquamation in later stages
- oral; generalised oral erythema, strawberry tongue, dry cracked lips
- eyes; conjunctival injection
- peripheries; firm swelling of the hands and feet with palmar and sole erythema (characteristic fingertip desquamation in late/resolving stages)
- lymph nodes; often unilateral neck
|
|
|
Term
Middle aged
- destructive chronic sinusitis
- middle ear symptoms (inflammation, balance, hearing)
- pulmonary nodules (may / may not be symptomatic)
|
|
Definition
Wegener Granulomatosis
aka Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
Aetiology
-
characteristically, granulomas form with histiocytic epithelioid cells and often with giant cells resulting in Inflammation that affects tissues and vessels
-
micronecrosis, usually with neutrophils (microabscesses), occurs early
-
micronecrosis progresses to macronecrosis
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dermatomyositis
an idiopathic inflammatory polymyopathy with characteristic cutaneous findings |
|
|
Term
erythema, burning sensation and swelling of the hands and feet after exposure to heat and exercise |
|
Definition
Erythromelalgia
Aetiology
Clinical
Rx
|
|
|
Term
purpuric rash, arthritis, glomerulonephritis and abdominal pain |
|
Definition
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
a multisystemic immune mediated small vessel vasculitis resulting in a classic tetrad of palpable purpuric rash, arthritis, glomerulonephritis and abdominal pain
|
|
|
Term
What is the prognosis for Henoch Schonlein Purpura |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Scleroderma
Etymology
-
skleros (hard or indurated) and derma (skin), term originated in 1800’s
-
the systemic and progressive nature of the disease was recognised in 1945 with the term Progressive Systemic Sclerosis thus coined
Etiology
Aetiology
Clinical
|
|
|
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for SLE |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Amiodarone |
|
Definition
-
primarily Class III antiarrhythmic activity via potassium channel blockade causing decreased intracellular K+ efflux and thus increased refractory period
-
also exhibits some beta blocker and calcium channel blocker activity
- result is; decreases sinus node and junctional automaticity, slows atrioventricular (AV) and bypass tract conduction and prolongs refractory period of myocardial tissues
|
|
|
Term
What serious adverse effects may amiodarone have |
|
Definition
-
pulmonary toxicity
-
two main types
-
an acute inflammatory disorder, which can develop early or late, is reversible if drug withdrawn early and may respond to corticosteroids
-
a chronic fibrotic form associated with prolonged exposure, which is less reversible
-
thyroid dysfunction
-
hypothyroidism occurs mainly within the first 2 years and is more common in patients with thyroid disease
-
thyrotoxicosis can occur, even months after stopping amiodarone. Iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis is more common in patients with thyroid disease. A destructive thyroiditis can also occur
-
ocular effects
- reversible benign corneal microdeposits occur in most patients but rarely affect vision (photophobia, visual haloes may occur). Stop amiodarone if optic neuropathy or neuritis occurs
|
|
|
Term
What monitoring is required for patients on long term Amiodarone therapy |
|
Definition
-
6 monthly thyroid function, liver function and serum electrolytes (including for 12 months post cessation)
-
annual chest x-ray and ECG
- if dyspnoea or non-productive cough develop, perform chest x-ray and pulmonary function tests as soon as possible and monitor closely
|
|
|
Term
What family history of bowel cancer would prompt earlier screening than the general population |
|
Definition
If there is a stronger family history (eg a first-degree relative with a past history of colorectal cancer aged <55, or multiple relatives affected), family members should be offered regular screening by colonoscopy |
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer |
|
Definition
- >50
- family history
- changes in the genes BRCA1 or BRCA2
- increased lifetime oestrogen exposure
- menarche <12yo
- late menopause
- first child after 30 or nulliparity
- never taking oral contraceptives
- using oestrogen only hormone replacement therapy or fertility treatment
|
|
|
Term
What symtpoms does ovarian cancer commonly present with |
|
Definition
Despite the belief that ovarian cancer is a ‘silent killer’, most women with this diagnosis experience symptoms in the months and weeks before diagnosis;1 less than 10% are diagnosed incidentally. The most common symptoms are pelvic or abdominal pain, abdominal swelling or bloating (persistent or frequent) and urinary frequency/urgency, but the positive predictive value of these symptoms (the percentage of women who present with the symptoms who actually have ovarian cancer) for ovarian cancer is low because ovarian cancer is uncommon |
|
|
Term
How is a suspicion of ovarian cancer investigated |
|
Definition
- Transvaginal USS
- good sensitivity but average specificity for non malignant ovarian lesions (eg cyst)
- CA125
- poor sensitivity in early disease
- good sensitivity in advancing disease but false positives with other cancer, ovulation, endometriosis, liver / kidney disease
|
|
|
Term
Differentiate between primary and secondary dysmenorrhoea |
|
Definition
= painful menstruation and is differentiated into primary (onset 6-12 months post menarche) and secondary (onset later in life and ass with pathology) |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action for NSAIDs in dysmenorrhoea and describe their most effective use based on this |
|
Definition
-
inhibits prostaglandins thus preventing the pain (as opposed to directly treating it)
-
70% efficacy, similar between all preparations (most important factor is correct use)
-
instructions for use
|
|
|
Term
What are "chocolate ovarian cysts" indicative of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Differentiate between the four common infectious causes of a vaginal discharge |
|
Definition
- Thrush
- an overgrowth of normal vaginal organisms
- candida albicans accounts for 90%
- Trichomoniasis
- a sexually transmitted protazoan
- causes an inflammatory mucosal infection thus examination may show erythematous mucosa + a 'strawberry cervix' due to multiple puntate haemorrhages
- Bacterial vaginosis
- when vaginal Lactobacillus is replaced by polymicrobial anaerobic bacteria
- is a superficial infection and thus characterised by a lack of inflammatory reaction, absence of white cells in the discharge (thus vaginosis and not vaginitis)
- the diagnosis of BV can be made using the Amsel criteria, whereby three of the following features must be present:
- thin, white, homogeneous discharge
- vaginal fluid pH more than 4.5
- clue cells
- fishy odour when adding alkali (potassium hydroxide 10%) to discharge
- Chlamydia / gonorrhoea
|
|
|
Term
What is the difference between lichen planus and lichen sclerosus |
|
Definition
Lichen sclerosus (LS) and lichen planus (LP) are both immunologically mediated diseases with a preference for the genitalia. The basic principles of management of vulval LS and vulvovaginal LP are the same and involve explanation of the disease, emphasizing the chronic nature of the condition and outlining treatment options. The main difference between the two conditions is that LP has a propensity to involve the mucous membranes including the mouth and vagina which are rarely affected in LS. First-line treatment for LS is a super-potent topical corticosteroid ointment which has a high response rate. Erosive vulvovaginal LP is more challenging to treat. Second-line therapies include topical calcineurin inhibitors and systemic agents. There is limited evidence for systemic treatments for both conditions. The risk of vulval squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is increased in both LP and LS, and it is not known how treatment affects this risk. |
|
|
Term
How does the risk of VTE with the vaginal ring compare to COCP |
|
Definition
It is the same as the vaginal ring contains both oestrogen and progesterone components that are absorbed systemically |
|
|
Term
Explain the statement "menopausal women exist in a state of unopposed oestrogen" |
|
Definition
-
menopause commences when there are only a few thousand primordial follicles remaining in the ovary (an insufficient number to stimulate cyclical activity)
-
aging follicles become increasingly resistant to the effects of FSH resulting in lower oestrogen levels. These falling oestrogen levels results in loss of negative GnRH feedback induced rise in LH and FSH levels.
-
without a follicular source, the larger proportion of postmenopausal estrogen is derived from ovarian stromal and adrenal secretion of androstenedione, which is aromatized to estrone in the peripheral circulation. Estrogen production also occurs in extragonadal sites (adipose tissue, muscle, liver, bone, bone marrow, fibroblasts, and hair roots)
- thus menopausal women exist in a state of unopposed oestrogen as no progesterone is produced by a corpus luteum (hence the risk for endometrial hyperplasia increases)
|
|
|
Term
Bilateral heel pain in an active 8-14 year old |
|
Definition
Sever Disease
(calcaneal apophysitis)
Etiology
Aetiology
|
|
|
Term
What are the general rates of conception in the first and second year of trying |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for prostate cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What factors can cause false positives and false negative in measuring a PSA |
|
Definition
-
false positives
-
an active urinary infection
-
ejaculated in the last 48 hours
-
exercised vigorously in the last 48 hours
-
had a prostate biopsy in the last 6 weeks
-
had a DRE in the past week
-
false negatives
|
|
|
Term
what are the 7 S’s of an innocent paediatric cardiac murmur
|
|
Definition
-
Sensitive; changes with the child's position or respiration
-
Short duration; not holosystolic
-
Single; no associated clicks or gallops
-
Small; murmur isolated to small area and does not radiate
-
Soft; low amplitude
-
Sweet; not harsh sounding
-
Systolic; is only limited to systole
|
|
|
Term
What is a delta wave on an ECG |
|
Definition
Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome (WPW)
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of hypertension in paediatric populations |
|
Definition
secondary causes of hypertension are relatively higher than in adults but essential HTN remains the most common cause |
|
|
Term
Describe the functional anatomy of the adrenal gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of Aldosterone |
|
Definition
aldosterone secretion is stimulated by low juxtaglomerular apparatus perfusion (low BP), low Na and high K and functions to increase Na and H2O resorption from the DCT in exchange for K excretion. Its release is inhibited by the reverse of these as well as Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) which is secreted by the heart when blood pressure rises (thus natriuretic = salty urine) |
|
|
Term
Weakness, weight loss, electrolyte dysfunction, generalised hyperpigmentation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Differentiate between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency syndromes |
|
Definition
- Primary
- due to the destruction of the entire adrenal cortex thus aldosterone and cortisol hormone levels are affected
- zona reticularis only produces a small amount of testosterone thus the effects of its loss are not prominent
- Secondary
- due to HPA failure
- mineralocorticoid therefore not affected as release is via RAAS
- effects are thus from decreased ACTH mediated cortisol deficiency
|
|
|
Term
What is Cushings syndrome and what are the different causes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the clinical manifestations of Cushings syndrome |
|
Definition
- Skin
- hyperpigmentation due to ACTH action on melanocytes
- bruising
- hair loss
- acne
- predisposed to skin infections / poor wound healing
- thinning of skin
- hirsutism
- CNS
- Body changes
- Moon face
- Central adiposity, striae
- MSK
- OP +/- crush #s
- Proximal myopathy
- GIT
- Metabolic
- HTN
- O+G
- menstrual changes, amenorrhoea
|
|
|
Term
What is Conn syndrome and how does it present |
|
Definition
Hyperaldosteronism
(Conn Syndrome)
Aetiology
Clinical
Ix
|
|
|
Term
middle aged
PLUS
nerve compression syndromes (especially carpal tunnel) PLUS
new onset snoring +/- OSA |
|
Definition
Acromegaly
Etiology
Aetiology
Clinical
-
gradual change in appearance of soft tissue and cartilage
-
not usually noticed by those in daily contact
-
enlargement of the hands, feet and jaw
-
nerve compression syndromes may occur, particularly carpal tunnel
-
may undergo premature and widespread osteoarthritis of weight bearing joints
- snoring is universal and may lead to OSA
|
|
|
Term
Two main causes of galactorrhoea |
|
Definition
pituitary adenoma or antipsychotics |
|
|
Term
Which hormones are secreted by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands |
|
Definition
The Anterior Pituitary Likes Getting Fed
= TSH, ACTH, Prolactin, LH, GH, FSH
the posterior is POV
= Posterior Pit = Oxytocin, Vasopressin |
|
|
Term
What are the three functions of PTH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Define anorchidism and cryptorchidism |
|
Definition
anorchidism (congenital absence of one or both testes)
cryptorchidism (undescended) in males |
|
|
Term
Distinguish between hyper and hypo gonadotropic hypogonadism and define primary, secondary and tertiary hypogonadism |
|
Definition
-
gonads = testes in males and ovaries in females
-
the nomenclature distinguishes causes of hypogonadism based where the defect occurs in the hypothalamo-pituitary-gonad axis
-
unfortunately it is stupid and uses stupidly long words
-
primary hypogonadism (ie the problem is with the testes) is called hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism because there is a high gonadotrophic state to try stimulate an underfunctioning gonad
- secondary hypogonadism (ie the problem is with the pituitary) or tertiary (prob with hypothalamus) is referred to a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
|
|
|
Term
short stature + webbed neck + facies
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is carcinoid syndrome |
|
Definition
- Neuroendocrine tumours are tumours of neuroendocrine cells which are located throughout the body and release hormones in response to a variety of stimuli to regulate a wide range of normal physiological functions
- most commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract and pancreas
- 10% of NETs
- the clinical manifestation of excess serotonin and histamine substances
- serotonin is well metabolised by the liver thus NETs of GIT origin will often not cause carcinoid syndrome until metastatic disease occurs, thus bypassing first pass metabolism
- characteristic symptoms
- intermittent or progressive facial flushing
- secretory diarrhoea (characterised by lack of response to fasting)
- abdominal cramps
- wheezing
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-
Carcinoid syndrome
-
10% of NETs
-
the clinical manifestation of excess serotonin and histamine substances
-
serotonin is well metabolised by the liver thus NETs of GIT origin will often not cause carcinoid syndrome until metastatic disease occurs, thus bypassing first pass metabolism
-
characteristic symptoms
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-
used in the diagnosis of Neuroendocrine Tumours
-
often difficult to diagnose given the wide range of potential hormones secreted. Investigation is based on presenting symptoms guiding investigation. Chromogranin A would seem to be the most widely used general test however it's accuracy is not ideal
-
Chromogranin A
|
|
|
Term
What are the four main causes of Diabetes Insipidus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In diabetes insipidus describe the serum vs urine osmolality |
|
Definition
Diabetes Insipidus
Aetiology
Ix
- formal diagnosis involves demonstrating an inappropriately low or ‘normal’ urine osmolality in the context of high serum osmolality. This often requires a formal water deprivation test
|
|
|
Term
What are the two most common causes of hypercalcaemia and how is this reflected in the PTH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- usually young women (teens or 20s)
-
recurrent unexplained abdominal pain crises
-
recurrent psychiatric illnesses
-
abnormal behaviour
-
acute peripheral or nervous system dysfunction (e.g. peripheral neuropathy, hypotonia)
-
red urine
-
hyponatraemia (can be severe)
|
|
Definition
Acute intermittent porphyria
Aetiology
-
autosomal dominant disorder
-
due to a deficiency of porphobilinogen (PBG) deaminase
-
usually young women (teens or 20s)
Clinical
-
clinically silent in the majority of patients who carry the trait
-
recurrent unexplained abdominal pain crises
-
recurrent psychiatric illnesses
-
abnormal behaviour
-
acute peripheral or nervous system dysfunction (e.g. peripheral neuropathy, hypotonia)
-
uroporphyrin turns urine red
-
attacks precipitated by various drugs (e.g. anti- epileptics, alcohol, sulphonamides, barbiturates)
Ix
|
|
|
Term
-
weakness in hip and shoulder girdles
-
delayed onset walking
-
bulky calves
-
most are in a wheelchair by age 10
-
+/- intellectual retardation
-
Gowers sign; patient uses ‘trick’ method by using hand to climb up their legs when rising to an erect position from the floor
|
|
Definition
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Etiology
Aetiology
Clinical
-
weakness in hip and shoulder girdles
-
delayed onset walking
-
pseudohypertrophy of muscles, especially the calves
-
most are in a wheelchair by age 10
-
+/- intellectual retardation
-
Gowers sign; patient uses ‘trick’ method by using hand to climb up their legs when rising to an erect position from the floor
Cx
Dx
-
elevated serum CK
-
electromyography
-
gene testing
-
muscle biopsy
Rx
-
nil available
- corticosteroids delay progression
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Gowers sign; patient uses ‘trick’ method by using hand to climb up their legs when rising to an erect position from the floor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Fragile X
Etiology
-
the most common inherited cause of developmental disability
-
affects about 1:4000 males and 1:8000 females
-
inherited in an X-linked pattern and does not always cause clinical symptoms
Aetiology
-
caused by an abnormality of the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome. The abnormality is an unstable triplet repeat expansion; normal people have < 60 CGG repeats and people with fragile X syndrome have > 200. People with 60 to 200 CGG repeats are considered to have a premutation because the increased number of repeats increases the likelihood that further mutation will result in > 200 repeats in a subsequent generation. Because of the relatively small number of base pairs involved, Fragile X syndrome is not considered a chromosome abnormality
Clinical
Diagnosis
Treatment
-
supportive measures
-
early intervention, including speech and language therapy and occupational therapy, can help children with fragile X syndrome maximize their abilities
-
stimulants, antidepressants, and antianxiety drugs may be beneficial for some children
|
|
|
Term
Describe the aetiology of Huntington Disease |
|
Definition
-
results from a mutation in the Huntington (HTT) gene , causing abnormal repetition of the DNA sequence CAG, which codes for the amino acid glutamine. The resulting gene product, a large protein called Huntington, has an expanded stretch of polyglutamine residues, which accumulate within neurons and lead to disease via unknown mechanisms
-
the more CAG repeats, the earlier the onset of disease and the more severe its expression (phenotype)
- the number of repeats can increase with successive generations and, over time, lead to increasingly severe phenotypes within a family (called anticipation)
|
|
|
Term
-
symptoms usually develop between ages 5 and 35
-
in 50% the first symptom is hepatitis—acute, chronic active, or fulminant
-
in 40% the first symptoms reflect CNS involvement
-
motor deficits are common, including any combination of tremors, dystonia, dysarthria, dysphagia, chorea, drooling, and incoordination
-
sometimes the CNS symptoms are cognitive or psychiatric abnormalities.
|
|
Definition
Wilson disease
Etiology
Aetiology
-
affected people are homozygous for the mutant recessive gene, located on chromosome 13. Heterozygous carriers, who constitute about 1.1% of the population, are asymptomatic
-
the genetic defect impairs copper secretion into bile, thus causing the copper overload and resultant accumulation in the liver, which begins at birth
-
the impaired transport also interferes with incorporation of copper into the copper protein ceruloplasmin, thus decreasing serum levels of ceruloplasmin
-
copper diffuses out of the liver into the blood, then into other tissues. It is most destructive to the brain but also damages the kidneys and reproductive organs and causes hemolytic anemia. Some copper is deposited around the rim of the cornea and edge of the iris, causing Kayser-Fleischer rings
Clinical
-
symptoms usually develop between ages 5 and 35
-
in 50% the first symptom is hepatitis—acute, chronic active, or fulminant
-
in 40% the first symptoms reflect CNS involvement
-
motor deficits are common, including any combination of tremors, dystonia, dysarthria, dysphagia, chorea, drooling, and incoordination
-
sometimes the CNS symptoms are cognitive or psychiatric abnormalities.
-
in 10% the first symptom is Kayser-Fleischer rings, amenorrhea, repeated miscarriages or hematuria.
Diagnosis
Prognosis
-
prognosis for patients with Wilson disease is usually good, unless disease is advanced before treatment begins
-
untreated Wilson's disease is fatal, usually by age 30.
Treatment
|
|
|
Term
Dysphagia, elderly, slowly progressive difficulty getting solid foods to pass the throat |
|
Definition
-
cricopharyngeal bar
-
occurs as a result of an inability of the cricopharyngeus to relax during swallowing resulting in degenerative changes in the cricopharyngeus muscle
-
more common in the elderly
-
most (even large) cricopharyngeal bars can be asymptomatic and the finding is often incidental
-
typical presentation is difficulty getting solid foods to pass the throat
|
|
|
Term
typically presents with regurgitation of food that was eaten some time ago, or worsening of dysphagia towards the latter part of the meal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a Schatzki’s ring |
|
Definition
-
Schatzki’s ring
-
A Schatzki’s ring is a mucosal ring found at the gastroesophageal junction, and is thought to be a result of reflux disease
-
found in 7% of the general population, although most are incidental findings and do not cause symptoms
-
typically leads to symptoms during swallowing of large solid boluses
-
Ix; barium swallow or endoscopy
- Rx; endoscopic dilations + PPI
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-
achalasia
-
impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter and defective peristalsis
-
incidence of two per 100,000
-
caused by immune mediated degeneration of oesophageal motor nerves
-
clinical; dysphagia (90%) but also difficulty belching, regurgitation (particularly during recumbency), chest pain, heartburn and weight loss
-
Ix; barium swallow and endoscopy
- Rx; balloon dilation, botulinum toxin injection or surgical myotomy
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gastroparesis
Aetiology
-
delayed gastric emptying
-
more common causes
-
less common causes
Clinical
Diagnosis
-
endoscopy; significant gastric residue
-
barium swallow with follow through
-
nuclear medicine gastric emptying test (gastric retention of 60% after 2 hours is abnormal)
Cx
Management
-
eat small, frequent meals, with careful chewing of food
-
avoid large pieces of bread especially doughy bread (encourage toasting)
-
avoid fat, raw fruit and vegetables
-
prokinetics
|
|
|
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for Irritable Bowel Sydrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Discuss the epidemiology of Haemophilia |
|
Definition
-
an inherited disorder
-
because the specific genes are located on the X chromosome, hemophilia affects males almost exclusively
-
daughters of men with hemophilia are obligate carriers, but sons are normal
-
each son of a carrier has a 50% chance of having hemophilia, and each daughter has a 50% chance of being a carrier
-
Nb that many haemophilia A patients are hep B/C / HIV +ve due to infected factor VIII transmissions in the 1980s
|
|
|
Term
Describe the aetiology of Haemophilia |
|
Definition
-
results from mutations, deletions, or inversions of genes affecting
-
factor VIII
-
hemophilia A
-
80% of patients
-
factor IX gene
-
normal hemostasis requires > 30% of normal factor VIII and IX levels. Most patients with hemophilia have levels < 5%; some have extremely low levels (< 1%) with variation depending on the specific gene mutation
-
carriers usually have levels of about 50%
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Purpura simplex
(simple purpura / easy bleeding syndrome)
Etiology
Aetiology
Clinical
-
bruises develop on the thighs, buttocks, and upper arms in people without known trauma
-
history usually reveals no other abnormal bleeding and serious bleeding does not occur
Ix
Rx
-
no drug prevents the bruising
-
patients are often advised to avoid aspirin, but there is no evidence that bruising is related to or worsened by their use
-
reassure that the condition is not serious
-
all patients should be evaluated for the possibility of physical abuse.
|
|
|
Term
What is the function of von Willebrand Factor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the aetiology of von Willebrand Disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the lifespan of a platelet and from which cells do they originate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the function of prostacyclin in haemostasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the end result of haematopoeisis for 8 common cell lines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of a megakaryocyte |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
-
older person
-
fatigue
-
headache, dizziness, tinnitus
-
pruritus after hot bath or shower
-
epistaxis
-
facial plethora
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Discuss vaccinations, antibiotics, travel medicine and animal handling in an asplenic patient |
|
Definition
-
vaccination
-
preventive antibiotics
-
daily antibiotics for at least 2 years post splenectomy
-
usually amoxicillin 250–500 mg/ day or phenoxymethylpenicillin 250–500 mg twice per day
-
long term antibiotics should be strongly considered for those patients who have an additional underlying ongoing immunosuppressive condition
-
emergency antibiotics
-
patients should keep an emergency or standby antibiotic supply. These should be taken at the onset of fever and shivers, especially when urgent medical review is unavailable
-
current recommendations suggest amoxicillin 3 g, or in a person with penicillin allergy, a macrolide
-
malaria
-
increased risk of severe malaria
-
travel advice should include; malaria chemoprophylaxis, vector avoidance, antimalarial medications, and early medical attention in the setting of symptoms
-
animal handling
-
increased risk of severe overwhelming post splenectomy infection (due to C. canimorsus), following dog, cat or other animal bites
-
tick bites are also a concern
- early medical attention is recommended
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
African trypanosomiasis
(sleeping sickness)
Aetiology
-
is an illness endemic to sub-Saharan Africa
-
caused by 2 subspecies of the flagellate protozoan Trypanosoma brucei
-
transmitted to human hosts by bites of infected tsetse flies
Clinical
Diagnosis
Prevention
-
avoid bites of the tsetse fly. If visiting areas of East, Central and West Africa, especially the safari game parks, travellers should use insect repellent and wear protective light-coloured clothing, including long sleeves and trousers.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-
an alpha viral mosquito borne infection
-
similar clinical picture to dengue fever
-
can cause haemorrhagic fever
-
is encountered in tropical south east asia, indian ocean islands and parts of africa
|
|
|
Term
Describe the pathophysiology of cholera symptoms |
|
Definition
-
characterised by the sudden onset of painless, profuse, watery diarrhoea
-
severity can range from life threatening to subclinical
-
the cholera toxin does not produce intestinal inflammation but instead induces secretion of increased amounts of electrolytes into the intestinal lumen, resulting in mild to severe dehydration and, in some cases, metabolic acidosis.
|
|
|
Term
Discuss cholera vaccination |
|
Definition
-
is a substantial health burden in developing countries and is considered to be endemic in Africa, Asia, South America and Central America
-
epidemics are common in circumstances where food and water supplies can become contaminated, such as after natural disasters and civil unrest
-
in Australia (about 2 to 6 cases a year) almost always occur in individuals who have been infected in endemic areas overseas. However, the overall risk of cholera to travellers with access to a safe water source and hygienic food preparation is considered to be low, even when visiting countries where cholera is endemic
-
vaccines
-
live attenuated vaccines exist and have been studied to show ? 50% residual protection at 6 months and minimal at 12 months
-
thus routine cholera vaccination is not recommended as the risk to travellers is very low, despite the endemicity of cholera in some countries often visited by Australians. Careful and sensible selection of food and water is of far greater importance to the traveller than cholera vaccination
-
vaccination should be considered for
-
Cholera vaccination should also be considered for travellers with considerable risk of exposure to, or acquiring, cholera, such as humanitarian disaster workers deployed to regions with endemic or epidemic cholera.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Aetiology
-
a type of food poisoning caused by eating tropical fish, especially large coral trout and large cod, caught in tropical waters (e.g. the Caribbean and tropical Pacific)
-
due to a type of poison that concentrates in the fish after they feed on certain micro-organisms around reefs
Clinical
-
presents within hours as a bout of gastroenteritis (vomiting, diarrhoea and stomach pains) and then symptoms affecting the nervous system, such as muscle aching and weakness, paraesthesia and burning sensations of the skin, particularly of the fingers and lips
Rx
-
supportive
-
prognosis is excellent
|
|
|
Term
What is the prognosis of Japanese encephalitis |
|
Definition
high case-fatality rate (approximately 30%) and there is a high prevalence of neurological sequelae (up to 50%) in those who survive the acute illness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Clinical
-
range of severity
-
most infections are asymptomatic
-
milder forms include febrile illness with headache, and aseptic meningitis
- a typical symptomatic illness is an acute neurological illness, characterised by headache, fever, convulsions, focal neurological signs and depressed level of consciousness
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-
classically has one to multiple skin lesions, which can spontaneously heal in 2-10 months
-
inoculation occurs after a sandfly bites an exposed part of the body (usually the legs, arms, neck, or face)
-
incubation occurs over weeks to months, followed by the appearance of an erythematous papule, which can evolve into a plaque or ulcer. These lesions are usually painless
- no systemic symptoms are evident
|
|
|
Term
-
skin lesions
-
thickened peripheral nerves with loss of sensation, e.g. ulnar (elbow), median (wrist), common peroneal (knee) and greater auricular (neck) peripheral neuropathy or motor nerve impairment
-
|
|
Definition
Leprosy
Aetiology
-
caused by the acid-fast bacillus Mycobacterium leprae
-
a disorder of tropical and warm temperate regions, especially South-East Asia
-
transmitted by nasal secretions
-
incubation period of 2 - 6 years
Clinical
|
|
|
Term
Yersinia pestis causes which disease |
|
Definition
Plague
Aetiology
-
gram negative bacterium Yersinia pestis
-
endemic in parts of Asia, Africa and Americas
-
transmitted by flea which have been exposed to infected rats
Clinical
|
|
|
Term
-
the first clinical sign is a local skin reaction at the site of penetration of the parasite (it then invades liver, bowel and bladder)
-
within a week or so there is a generalised allergic response, usually with fever, malaise, myalgia and urticaria
-
a gastroenteritis-like syndrome can occur (nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea) and respiratory symptoms, particularly cough
-
lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly can occur
|
|
Definition
Schistosomiasis
Aetiology
-
caused by parasitic organisms (schistosomes) whose eggs are passed in human excreta, which contaminates watercourses (notably stagnant water) and irrigation channels in Egypt, other parts of Africa, South America, some parts of South-East Asia and China
-
freshwater snails are the carriers (vectors)
Clinical
-
the first clinical sign is a local skin reaction at the site of penetration of the parasite (it then invades liver, bowel and bladder)
-
within a week or so there is a generalised allergic response, usually with fever, malaise, myalgia and urticaria
-
a gastroenteritis-like syndrome can occur (nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea) and respiratory symptoms, particularly cough
-
lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly can occur
Diagnosis
-
clinical + eosinophilia in acute stage will most likely be the only positive findings
-
serology
-
may take 3-5 months before is positive
-
all travellers to endemic areas who have had even a one-minute exposure to fresh water should be tested with serology three months post travel. Many cases of schistosomiasis in travellers will be asymptomatic, but there have been numerous case reports of late complications including infertility
-
detecting eggs in the stools, the urine or in a rectal biopsy
Rx
|
|
|
Term
Discuss the investigation and treatment of schistosomiasis |
|
Definition
Schistosomiasis
Aetiology
-
caused by parasitic organisms (schistosomes) whose eggs are passed in human excreta, which contaminates watercourses (notably stagnant water) and irrigation channels in Egypt, other parts of Africa, South America, some parts of South-East Asia and China
-
freshwater snails are the carriers (vectors)
Diagnosis
-
clinical + eosinophilia in acute stage will most likely be the only positive findings
-
serology
-
may take 3-5 months before is positive
-
all travellers to endemic areas who have had even a one-minute exposure to fresh water should be tested with serology three months post travel. Many cases of schistosomiasis in travellers will be asymptomatic, but there have been numerous case reports of late complications including infertility
-
detecting eggs in the stools, the urine or in a rectal biopsy
Rx
|
|
|
Term
-
abrupt onset febrile illness with headache and myalgia
-
a black eschar at the site of the bite with regional and generalised lymphadenopathy
-
short-lived macular rash
-
can develop severe complications (e.g. pneumonitis, encephalitis)
|
|
Definition
Scrub Typhus
Aetiology
-
found in Southeast Asia, northern Australia and the western Pacific
-
caused by Rickettsia tsutsugamushi, which is transmitted by mites
Clinical
-
abrupt onset febrile illness with headache and myalgia
-
a black eschar at the site of the bite with regional and generalised lymphadenopathy
-
short-lived macular rash
-
can develop severe complications (e.g. pneumonitis, encephalitis)
Diagnosis
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Typhoid fever
Etiology
-
humans are the sole reservoir of S. Typhi
-
shed in the faeces of those who are acutely ill and those who are chronic asymptomatic carriers of the organism; transmission usually occurs via the ingestion of faecally contaminated food or water.
-
vast majority of typhoid fever cases occur in less developed countries, where poor sanitation, poor food hygiene and untreated drinking water all contribute to endemic disease, with moderate to high incidence and considerable mortality. Geographic regions with high incidence (>100 cases per 100 000 population per year) include the Indian subcontinent, most Southeast Asian countries and several South Pacific nations, including Papua New Guinea.
-
in developed countries, typhoid fever is predominantly a travel-related disease, with a considerably greater risk following travel to the Indian subcontinent than to other regions. Those who travel to endemic regions to visit friends and relatives (e.g. immigrants who travel to their former homelands) appear to be at considerably greater risk of acquiring typhoid fever than other travellers. There are typically fewer than 150 cases of typhoid fever reported in Australia each year, with most following travel to regions with endemic disease
Aetiology
-
a clinical syndrome caused by a systemic infection with Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica serovar Typhi (S. Typhi). Paratyphoid fever, caused by infection with S.enterica serovar Paratyphi A or B, is similar to, and often indistinguishable from, typhoid fever
-
the two infections are collectively known as enteric fever, have largely overlapping geographic distributions, and, although there is no vaccine specifically targeted against paratyphoid fever, there is evidence to suggest some cross-protection from the oral live attenuated typhoid vaccine against Paratyphi B
-
chronic asymptomatic biliary carriage of S. Typhi occurs in up to 5% of patients with typhoid fever, even after treatment. Chronic carriage is defined by the continued shedding of the organism for longer than 1 year. Carriers serve as an important reservoir in endemic areas and are of public health significance (e.g. if a carrier works in the food industry)
Clinical features
Complications
-
occur in 10 to 15% of patients and tend to occur in patients who have been ill for more than 2 weeks
-
include gastrointestinal bleeding, intestinal perforation and typhoid encephalopathy
Ix
Rx
|
|
|
Term
Discuss yellow fever vaccination |
|
Definition
Vaccine adverse events
-
generally mild
-
immediate hypersensitivity reactions
-
Yellow fever vaccine-associated neurotropic disease (YF-AND)
-
a rare complication with at least 25 cases reported
-
15 of these cases occurred in the 1950s in infants ≤7 months of age. Following recommendations in the early 1960s not to vaccinate young infants, the incidence of vaccine-associated meningoencephalitis declined considerably
-
the risk is greater in persons ≥60 years of age
-
yellow fever vaccine-associated viscerotropic disease (YF-AVD)
-
very rare (and often fatal) complication with 27 reported cases
-
characterised by multi-organ system failure
-
it appears that overwhelming infection with the 17D vaccine virus is responsible
-
risk factors
-
increasing age, particularly in those aged ≥60 years
-
pre-existing thymus disease (4 of the 27 reported cases had a history of thymic tumour and thymectomy)
Vaccine recommendations
-
people with a history of any thymus disorder, including myasthenia gravis, thymoma, thymectomy and DiGeorge syndrome, or thymic damage from chemoradiotherapy or graft-versus-host disease, should not be given the yellow fever vaccine
-
adults aged ≥60 years should be given yellow fever vaccine only if they intend to travel to endemic countries (as recommended above) and they have been informed about the (albeit very low) risks of developing a severe complication
- the administration of other parenteral live viral vaccines (e.g. MMR, MMRV, varicella or zoster vaccine) should be on the same day as yellow fever vaccine, or separated by a 4-week interval
|
|
|
Term
-
clinical spectrum varies from a nonspecific febrile illness to fatal haemorrhagic fever
-
incubation period of 3 to 6 days
-
begins abruptly with an intense viraemia
-
fever, prostration, myalgia and headache
-
congestion of the conjunctivae
-
may be followed by a ‘period of remission’
-
Approximately 15 to 25% of patients may then relapse with ‘the period of intoxication’
- high fever, vomiting, epigastric pain, jaundice, renal failure and haemorrhage
|
|
Definition
Yellow Fever
Etiology
-
occurs in tropical regions of Africa and Central and South America where it is enzootic in rainforest monkeys and canopy mosquito species
-
human vector = Ae aegypti
-
epidemics of ‘urban yellow fever’ occur when a viraemic individual (with yellow fever) infects local populations of Ae. aegypti; such epidemics can be large and very difficult to control
-
although Ae. aegypti also occurs throughout much of tropical Asia and Oceania (including north Queensland), yellow fever has never been reported from these regions.
-
the risk of susceptible travellers acquiring yellow fever varies considerably with season, location, duration of travel and utilisation of mosquito avoidance measures
-
there have been reported cases of yellow fever, all fatal, in unvaccinated travellers to Africa and South America
Aetiology
|
|
|
Term
-
the first sign is local irritation or a creeping eruption at the point of entry. This subsides within 2 days or so
-
followed 1- 2 weeks later by respiratory symptoms, which may be associated with bronchitis and bronchopneumonia
-
can cause iron/protein deficiency anaemia in chronic infestation
|
|
Definition
Hookworm
Aetiology
-
found in humid tropical regions but are now uncommon in northern Australia
-
~1.5 cm long
-
acquired by walking barefoot (or wearing thongs or sandals) on earth contaminated by faeces
-
larvae penetrate the skin, travel through the lungs and settle in the small intestine
-
is the commonest cause of iron deficiency anaemia in the world
Clinical
-
the first sign is local irritation or a creeping eruption at the point of entry. This subsides within 2 days or so
-
followed 1- 2 weeks later by respiratory symptoms, which may be associated with bronchitis and bronchopneumonia
-
can cause iron/protein deficiency anaemia in chronic infestation
Diagnosis
|
|
|
Term
Aetiology
-
a ubiquitous parasite infesting mainly children of all social classes
-
virtually all children have been infected by the time they reach high school but at any one time approximately 50% of the 5 - 10 years age group affected
Clinical
|
|
Definition
Pinworm
threadworm
Aetiology
-
a ubiquitous parasite infesting mainly children of all social classes
-
tiny white worms about 1 cm long that multiply profusely and are spread readily between individuals by close contact
-
virtually all children have been infected by the time they reach high school but at any one time approximately 50% of the 5 - 10 years age group will harbour pinworms
Clinical
Diagnosis
Treatment
-
scrupulous hygiene by family
-
hands should be washed thoroughly after toileting and before handling food
-
clip fingernails short (eggs lodge under nails)
-
wear pyjamas (not nightgowns)
-
shower each morning
-
bed linen, nightwear and underwear changed and washed in very hot water daily for several days
-
vacuum room of affected person daily
-
have a veterinarian check any pets, especially dogs
-
antibiotics as per eTG
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Aetiology
-
food poisoning caused by the neurotoxin of Clostridium botulinum
-
incubation 12 - 36 hours after ingesting the toxin from canned, smoked or vacuum packed food
Clinical
|
|
|
Term
Clinical
-
insidious onset malaise, headache, weakness
-
fever is classically undulant (up and down) and the most common sx
-
possible; arthralgia, LN, hepatosplenomegaly, spinal tenderness
|
|
Definition
Brucellosis
Etiology
Aetiology
-
a zoonotic disease with the bacteria Brucella which is spread from wild or domestic (sheep, pigs, cattle, dogs) animals to humans via body fluids
-
incubation 1-3 weeks
Clinical
-
insidious onset malaise, headache, weakness
-
fever is classically undulant (up and down) and the most common sx
-
possible; arthralgia, LN, hepatosplenomegaly, spinal tenderness
Ix
-
bloods
-
culture
-
Brucella agglutinin
|
|
|
Term
Aetiology
-
infection is via zoonotic transmission by infected urine of many animals including pigs, cattle, horses, rats and dogs
-
incubation 3-20 days
Clinical
-
abrupt fever, chills, myalgia
-
severe headache
-
macular rash
-
light sensitive conjunctivitis
-
some may develop the immune phase (after an asymptomatic period of 1-3 days) with
-
aseptic meningitis
-
jaundice
-
nephritis
-
significant mortality
|
|
Definition
Leptospirosis
Etiology
Aetiology
-
infection is via zoonotic transmission of Leptospira by infected urine of many animals including pigs, cattle, horses, rats and dogs
-
incubation 3-20 days
Clinical
-
abrupt fever, chills, myalgia
-
severe headache
-
macular rash
-
light sensitive conjunctivitis
-
some may develop the immune phase (after an asymptomatic period of 1-3 days) with
-
aseptic meningitis
-
jaundice
-
nephritis
-
significant mortality
|
|
|
Term
Discuss antibiotic use in pertussis infections |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Discuss pertussis as it affects adults |
|
Definition
Pertussis
(whooping cough)
Etiology
-
accounts for up to 7% of cough illnesses per year in adults and is generally believed to be significantly under-diagnosed
-
Despite a long-standing immunisation program, pertussis remains highly prevalent in Australia and the least well controlled of all vaccine-preventable diseases. Epidemics occur every 3 to 4 years
-
even in adults, pertussis can be associated with significant morbidity eg
-
death is rare in people aged 10–70 years. However, the case-fatality rate in unvaccinated infants <6 months of age is estimated to be 0.8%. The most common cause of death in persons with pertussis infection is pertussis pneumonia, sometimes complicated by seizures and hypoxic encephalopathy
-
neonatal deaths
-
a high proportion of hospitalisations, and almost all deaths, attributed to pertussis occur in infants too young to have received more than 1 dose of pertussis-containing vaccine
-
thus the prevention of severe pertussis morbidity and deaths in infants <3 months of age is the target of two vaccination strategies
-
cocoon strategy; indirect protection from immunisation of household contacts and carers of newborn infants
-
direct protection from immunisation of the mother during the last trimester of pregnancy. (Vaccination of pregnant women with dTpa has been shown to be effective in preventing pertussis disease in newborn infants via the transfer of maternal antibodies in utero. Vaccination of mothers at least 7 days before delivery reduced pertussis disease by 91% in infants <3 months of age)
Aetiology
-
the bacterium Bordetella pertussis is a gram negative bacillus
-
incubation 7 - 20 days
-
highly infectious (especially in unvaccinated), spreading by aerosols to 90% of susceptible household contacts
-
natural infection does not provide long-term protection and repeat infection can occur
Clinical
|
|
|
Term
What infective agent causes whooping cough |
|
Definition
the bacterium Bordetella pertussis is a gram negative bacillus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Psittacosis
Etiology
Aetiology
Clinical
|
|
|
Term
Coxiella burnetti causes which disease |
|
Definition
Q Fever
Etiology
Aetiology
Clinical
-
sudden onset fever, rigors, myalgia
-
dry cough
-
possible abdominal pain
-
persistent infection may result in a pneumonia, IE or hepatitis
-
the acute illness may resolve spontaneously but a chronic relapsing disease may follow
-
untreated chronic infection is fatal
Rx
|
|
|
Term
-
abattoir worker, farmer or hunter
-
sudden onset fever, rigors, myalgia
-
dry cough
-
possible abdominal pain
-
persistent infection may result in a pneumonia, IE or hepatitis
-
the acute illness may resolve spontaneously but a chronic relapsing disease may follow
-
untreated chronic infection is fatal
|
|
Definition
Q Fever
Etiology
Aetiology
Clinical
-
sudden onset fever, rigors, myalgia
-
dry cough
-
possible abdominal pain
-
persistent infection may result in a pneumonia, IE or hepatitis
-
the acute illness may resolve spontaneously but a chronic relapsing disease may follow
-
untreated chronic infection is fatal
Rx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ross River Fever
Etiology
Aetiology
Clinical
-
subclinical infection is common
-
major sxs
-
other sxs
-
pyrexia (mild)
-
headaches
-
nausea
-
fatigue with exercise
-
illness lasts 2-4 weeks, most feel normal at 3 months but some with a more severe arthritis enter a chronic phase lasting 18 months or more
Ix
DDx
-
other viral infections that cause arthritis; Hep B, Rubella, Barmah Forrest Virus, dengue
-
early RA and rheumatic fever
Rx
|
|
|
Term
What organism causes tetanus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the method of transmission for Toxoplasmosis |
|
Definition
Toxoplasmosis
always consider EBV, CMV, HIV and Toxoplasmosis as DDx for mononucleosis like presentations
Etiology
Aetiology
-
caused by Toxoplasma gondii, an obligate intracellular protozoan
-
the definitive host in its life cycle is the cat (also pig or sheep) and the human is the intermediate host
-
infection in humans usually occurs through eating foodstuffs contaminated by infected cat faeces
Clinical
Ix
Rx
|
|
|
Term
Differentiate between upper and lower motor neurone palsy |
|
Definition
upper motor neuron facial paralysis (eg stroke) spares wrinkling of forehead as these muscles are innervated by both ipsilateral and contralateral neurons (orange and yellow)
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Bell’s Palsy
an acute, unilateral, peripheral, lower-motor-neuron facial-nerve (VII) paralysis that gradually resolves in 90% of cases[image]
Aetiology
-
upper motor neuron facial paralysis (eg stroke) spares wrinkling of forehead as these muscles are innervated by both ipsilateral and contralateral neurons (orange and yellow)
-
Bell's palsy (lower motor neuron) has complete unilateral facial paralysis (as LMN lesion will involve both orange and yellow)
-
cause
-
associations
Rx
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Charcot Marie Tooth Syndrome
(Peroneal Muscular Atrophy)
Etiology
Aetiology
Clinical
Dx
|
|
|
Term
Describe cranial nerve palsies causing extra ocular movment disorders |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe cranial nerve palsies causing extra ocular movment disorders |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
-
tremor = fine, postural, worse with anxiety, relieved by alcohol
-
usually starts in both hands and may progress to involve the head, chin, tongue and rarely trunk / legs
|
|
Definition
Essential Tremor
Etiology
Aetiology
Clinical
-
tremor = fine, postural, worse with anxiety, relieved by alcohol
-
usually starts in both hands and may progress to involve the head, chin, tongue and rarely trunk / legs
-
differentiate from Parkinsonian via
Rx
|
|
|
Term
Describe the aetiology of Guillian Barre Syndrome |
|
Definition
Guillain Barre Syndrome
(Acute Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy)
Aetiology
- segmental demyelination of the peripheral nerves and nerve roots (thus lower motor neurone lesion) causing an acute, usually rapidly progressive but self-limited inflammatory polyneuropathy characterized by muscular weakness and mild distal sensory loss
|
|
|
Term
is a painful, asymmetrical, asynchronous sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy involving isolated damage to at least 2 separate nerve areas |
|
Definition
Mononeuritis multiplex
-
is a painful, asymmetrical, asynchronous sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy involving isolated damage to at least 2 separate nerve areas
-
as the condition worsens, it becomes less multifocal and more symmetrical
-
is not a true, distinct disease entity but rather an associated with one of the following
|
|
|
Term
Discuss the pathophysiology and classification of Motor Neurone Disease |
|
Definition
Aetiology
-
Wallerian degeneration = a process that results when a nerve fiber is damaged, in which the part of the axon separated from the neuron's cell body degenerates distal to the injury
-
in ALS the death of the anterior horn cell body leads to Wallerian degeneration of the associated motor axon
-
as the axon breaks down, surrounding Schwann cells catabolize the axon's myelin sheath and engulf the axon, breaking it into fragments. This forms small ovoid compartments containing axonal debris and surrounding myelin, termed myelin ovoids. Ovoids then are phagocytized by macrophages recruited into the area to clean up debris.
Classification
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Term
Differentiate the pathophysiology of Motor Neurone Disease, Multiple Sclerosis and Myasthenia Gravis |
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Definition
- Motor Neurone Disease (aka Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis) is an idiopathic degeneration of anterior horn cell body resulting in progressive degeneration of the nerve distal to this site of injury. Can be UMN, LMN or both
- Multiple Sclerosis is a relapsing and remitting autoimmune mediated demyelination of central neurons causing only UMN defects
- Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune mediated destruction of acetylcholine receptors on the muscle end plate
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Term
Differentiate between neurogenic and myogenic weakness |
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Definition
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Term
Differentiate between the four major causes for ptosis |
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Definition
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CN III palsy
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Horner syndrome
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Mitochondrial myopathy
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Myasthenia Gravis
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ptosis + diplopia
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no pupil involvement
Thus
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Term
Discuss the potential causes for the four different types of tremor |
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Definition
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Term
Differentiate clinically between upper and lower motor neuron lesions |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
a highly aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Etiology
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three distinct forms (1) endemic (African), (2) sporadic, and (3) immunodeficiency associated subtypes. Although these forms differ in their clinical presentation and their epidemiology, they share the same aggressive clinical behavior and are histologically identical
Aetiology
Clinical
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Term
Differentiate the age groups, pathophysiology and clinical presentations of the four different types of Leukaemia |
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Definition
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
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maturational arrest of bone marrow cells in the earliest stages of development
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as per ALL present with symptoms resulting from bone marrow failure and organ infiltration with leukemic cells
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median age of onset = 70yo, M>F
Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
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40-60 yo
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increased proliferation of the granulocytic cell line without the loss of their capacity to differentiate
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insidious onset; malaise, weight loss, fever, night sweats, anaemia
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splenomegaly (very large)
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marked elevation in WCC with left shift (increased immature blood cells seen on microscopy)
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia
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progressive accumulation of functionally incompetent lymphocytes
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late middle age - elderly
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insidious onset; malaise, weight loss, fever, night sweats
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lymphadenopathy (80%); neck, axilla, groin
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hepato +/- splenomegaly (50%)
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mild anaemia
- lymphocytosis > 15 with “mature’ (? right shift) cells observed on film
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Term
If a urine dipstick shows proteinuria and haematuria are the RBCs causing a false positive for the protein |
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Definition
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Term
Discuss the possible causes of microscopic haematuria |
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Definition
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Term
a multisystem disorder of unknown aetiology characterised by non-caseating granulomas in affected organs (most commonly pulmonary 90%) |
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Definition
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Term
What is Löfgren’s syndrome |
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Definition
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is comparable to incidental finding on CXR as the most common presentation for sarcoidosis
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erythema nodosum, hilar lymphadenopathy, fever and arthralgia, which resolves quickly over a few weeks
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Term
erythema nodosum, hilar lymphadenopathy, fever and arthralgia, which resolves quickly over a few weeks |
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Definition
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Term
What is the pathophysiology of sarcoidosis |
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Definition
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a multisystem disorder of unknown aetiology characterised by non-caseating granulomas in affected organs (most commonly pulmonary 90%)
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granulomas are the outcome of an autoimmune response to unrecognised antigen(s) in genetically susceptible tissues (mainly pulmonary tissue)
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Term
Discuss the utility of serum Angiotensin Converting Enzyme in Sarcoidosis diagnosis |
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Definition
serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE); sensitivity 70% and specificity 90% thus does not remove the need for a tissue diagnosis |
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Term
Discuss the prognosis and treatment of Sarcoidosis |
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Definition
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Term
On the penis
[image][image] |
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Definition
Fordyce spots
Aetiology
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a variant of sebaceous glands without hair follicles
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present in 80–95% of adults
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probably present at birth but become bigger and more visible from puberty onwards
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may cause anxiety but they are completely harmless whether on the lips or on the genitals
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are not a sexually transmitted disease and they are not infectious
Clinical
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small (1–5mm), slightly elevated yellowish or white papules or spots that can appear on the glans or shaft of the penis, or the vulva of the female, the inside of the cheeks and on the vermilion border of the lips
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may occur as a solitary lesion or more frequently in crops of about 50–100
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easier to see when the skin is stretched
Rx
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harmless and do not require any treatment
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avoid picking or squeezing the spots
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can be a cause of cosmetic concern for some patients. Electrosurgery and vaporising laser treatment(CO2 laser) have been used successfully to remove the spots. Other reported treatments for Fordyce spots include bichloracetic acid, photodynamic therapy, micro-punch excision surgery and oral isotretinoin
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Term
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Definition
Phimosis = cannot retract
Paraphimosis = retracted foreskin with swelling and pain |
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Term
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Definition
Pearly penile papules
= angiofibromas on the corona of the glans penis
normal variants
require no Rx but patient may want given aesthetics
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Term
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Definition
Peyronie disorder
= a fibrotic disorder that results in an uncomfortable deformity on erection
Etiology
Clinical
Rx
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Term
At what age could phimosis be considered abnormal |
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Definition
Phimosis
= tightness of the foreskin preventing free retraction over the glans
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the foreskin can be adherent to the glans penis even up to 6 yo
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forcible retraction should never be undertaken
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if foreskin cannot be retracted by age 7 and is causing sxs (eg balanitis) then circumcision should be considered
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ballooning of foreskin commonly occurs with urination whilst the foreskin is separating from the glans. As long as the urine drains freely and there is no pain this is not of concern
Rx
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Term
At what age could phimosis be considered abnormal |
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Definition
Phimosis
= tightness of the foreskin preventing free retraction over the glans
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the foreskin can be adherent to the glans penis even up to 6 yo
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forcible retraction should never be undertaken
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if foreskin cannot be retracted by age 7 and is causing sxs (eg balanitis) then circumcision should be considered
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ballooning of foreskin commonly occurs with urination whilst the foreskin is separating from the glans. As long as the urine drains freely and there is no pain this is not of concern
Rx
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Term
Discuss pharmacological options for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy |
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Definition
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Term
Discuss testosterone measurement in male hypogonadism |
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Definition
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Term
Discuss the differential diagnoses of a monoarthropathy |
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Definition
Crystal arthropathy
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Monosodium urate deposition disease, or gout, is one of the most common cause of an acute monoarthritis.
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Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease, or pseudogout, can also present in such a manner.
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Less commonly, calcium oxalate and apatite crystals can also present as a monoarthritis.
Septic arthritis
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Gonococcal infection: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is an important cause of septic arthritis in sexually active adults. Other clinical findings may include tenosynovitis, a new rash and a history of urethral discharge.
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Non-gonococcal bacterial infection: Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most common causes of non-gonococcal septic arthritis. This can occur in the context of recent skin infection, prosthetic joint, intravenous drug use, joint surgery and immunosuppression.
Osteoarthritis
Monoarthritis as an initial presentation of a systemic rheumatic condition
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Term
What is the pathophysiology of Paget disease |
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Definition
histologically characterised by excessive bone resorption by osteoclasts and a compensatory but disorganised increase in bone formation by osteoblasts. Bone remodelling is increased and disorganised, with persistence of woven bone at pagetic sites, resulting in bone which is structurally impaired and prone to deformity and fracture |
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Term
commonly seen in typists, gymnasts and other sportspeople
Clinical
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localised pain and tenderness, often severe, along the upper part of the medial scapular border, with radiation around the chest wall and shoulder girdle to the neck
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pain is usually worse with prolonged shoulder use towards the end of the day
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Definition
Scapulocostal Syndrome
Aetiology
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friction between the scapula and thoracic wall plus myofascial strain
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commonly seen in typists, gymnasts and other sportspeople
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is related to poor posture
Clinical
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localised pain and tenderness, often severe, along the upper part of the medial scapular border, with radiation around the chest wall and shoulder girdle to the neck
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pain is usually worse with prolonged shoulder use towards the end of the day
Mx
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Term
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severe, frequently intermittent, often pleuritic pain begins suddenly in the epigastrium, abdomen, or lower anterior chest
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may have fever, headache, sore throat, and malaise
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the involved truncal muscles may become swollen and tender
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symptoms usually subside in 2 to 4 days but may recur within a few days and persist or recur for several weeks
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Definition
Bornholm Disease
Epidemic Pleurodynia
Etiology
Aetiology
Clinical
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severe, frequently intermittent, often pleuritic pain begins suddenly in the epigastrium, abdomen, or lower anterior chest
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may have fever, headache, sore throat, and malaise
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the involved truncal muscles may become swollen and tender
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symptoms usually subside in 2 to 4 days but may recur within a few days and persist or recur for several weeks
Diagnosis
Treatment
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