Term
|
Definition
| released when blood sugar is low, released by alpha cells of pancreas to increase blood glucose levels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| released when blood sugar level is high, released by beta cells of pancreas to decrease blood glucose levels |
|
|
Term
| what is the normal range for blood glucose levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the cause of diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in type 1 diabetes what does the individual's body "attack" in this autoimmune response? |
|
Definition
| beta cells of the pancreas |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| insulin dependent, juvenile onset diabetes. body makes no insulin and attacks beta cells of pancreas |
|
|
Term
| which type of diabetics require insulin? what are the different ways in which insulin can be given? In which ways can insulin NOT be given and why? |
|
Definition
| type 1. Can be injected suQ and inhaled into bloodstream. Cannot be given orally because stomach would break down insulin into amino acids. |
|
|
Term
| insulin that is self-made is also called what? and what type of diabetics virtually have no self-made insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| adult onset diabetes, non-insulin dependent. make little insulin or inadequate amounts of insulin. |
|
|
Term
| are type 2 diabetics dependent on insulin? Why? What medications can they receive? |
|
Definition
| no, they create insulin, just not enough. they can be given oral antiglycemics |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| force insulin out of pancrea, makes tissues more susceptible to insulin, and block sugar absorption in small intestines |
|
|
Term
| what type of diabetics use antiglycemics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the critical values for glucose in the blood? |
|
Definition
| less than 50 OR more than 400 |
|
|
Term
| what could you do for a patient who is hypoglycemic? |
|
Definition
| 1. give IV blood sugar, if they are conscious you can give them something to eat, or give them an injection of glucagon |
|
|
Term
| how could an injection on glucagon help a hypoglycemic person? |
|
Definition
| stimulates the increase of glucose in bloodstream |
|
|
Term
| what are some environmental factors associated with DM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how could you help a hyperglycemic individual's bloos sugar return to normal or baseline? |
|
Definition
| insulin on a sliding scale |
|
|
Term
| what are the clinical manifestations of type 1 DM? |
|
Definition
| polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia |
|
|
Term
| what does the "typical" type 1 diabetic look like? type 2? |
|
Definition
type 1: young (less than 30), more than likely 11-13 during puberty, skinny (because sugar is not being turned into fat) and Caucasian
Type 2: 40 or older, overweight at diagnosis and African American |
|
|
Term
| in comparison to type 1 DM, type 2's symptoms have a more FASTER or SLOWER onset? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| is is true that type 2 DM has a slower onset in teens and young adults? |
|
Definition
| false, not according to the growing trends |
|
|
Term
| what important factors should be assessed in your patient in regards to diabetes? |
|
Definition
| nutrition, exercise, medication, and balanced diet |
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes... patient under 30 years old |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient is African American |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient is overweight |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient is lean |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient is suffering from polydipsia, polyuria, ad polyphagia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient is feeling tired and irritable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient produces no insulin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...80-90% of patient's beta cells are destroyed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient has inherited insulin resistance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient is susceptible to islet cell antibody development |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient has a decreased ability to secrete insulin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient has possible chromosome 11 mutation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient's liver has increased glucose production |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most likely to be type 1 or type 2 diabetes...patient may have chromosome 7,12, or 20 mutation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| by-product of fatty acid oxidation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when glucose is unavailable or can't be used, the body begins to break down or oxidize fatty acids the by-product is ketones |
|
|
Term
| ketones affect __________ and cause __________ |
|
Definition
| LOC; dizziness and confusion |
|
|
Term
| why is a diabetic undergoing diabetic ketoacidosis often mistaken as being drunk? |
|
Definition
| ketoacidosis causes breath the smell fruity and like alcohol. the ketones affect LOC and cause dizziness and confusion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| diabetic ketaoacidosis; body metabolizes fats when sugar cannot be used or metabolized |
|
|
Term
| Microvasculture effects of diabetes on the vessels causes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Microvasculture effects of diabetes on the vessels of the brain causes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Microvasculture effects of diabetes on the vessels of the hands and feet causes |
|
Definition
| peripheral vascular disease |
|
|
Term
| Microvasculture effects of diabetes on the vessels of the eyes causes .....which leads to.... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Microvasculture effects of diabetes on the vessels of the kidney causes |
|
Definition
| end stage renal disease (ESRD) and kidney failure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lose feeling in extremities, burning and tingling |
|
|
Term
| patient's toes with diabetes can be subject to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what factors can causes ulcers in the feet of diabetics? |
|
Definition
1. poor circulation
2. sugar in blood promotes bacteria growth |
|
|
Term
| what is a patient called that even with managing their diet, exercise, nutrition and medication that is STILL easy for their blood sugar to fluctuate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does smoking exacerbate (make worse) the condition of diabetes? |
|
Definition
1. nicotine is a vasoconstrictor that can add on to the hypertension already caused my diabetes due to its microvasculture effects.
2. Nicotine decreases the ability to carry oxygen to tissues
3. causes insulin resistance, cholesterol, and risk for CV disease |
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 main lab tests used for the diagnosis of diabetes? |
|
Definition
1. fasting plasma glucose
2. random or casual plasma glucose
3. hemoglobin A1C |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| have pt be NPO for 8 hours, give sugary solution, measure BS at different intervals. |
|
|
Term
| random or casual fasting plasma glucose |
|
Definition
| taken anytime of the day without regard to meals, must be over 200 twice |
|
|
Term
| hemoglobin A1C and the ideal value |
|
Definition
tells the amount of glucose attached to RBC over the past 120 days
ideal: Hgb A1C of less than 6% |
|
|
Term
| what is the goal of primary interventions in regards to diabetes? what can be done? |
|
Definition
| prevention! you can educate on weight control and stress education |
|
|
Term
| what the main goal of secondary interventions for diabetics? Type 1? Type 2? |
|
Definition
TREATMENT!
Type 1: insulin
Type 2: oral antiglycemics, diet, and exercise |
|
|
Term
| a person who is dizzy with an altered LOC, shaky and nauseous is in what glycemic state? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a person who is experiencing polydipsia, polyphagia, and polyuria, has ketones in their urine from dipstick testing is in what glycemic state? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| at about what glucose level is critical where fat metabolism may begin taking place? what is the called? what is the treatment? |
|
Definition
| 400; diabetic ketoacidosis; insulin |
|
|
Term
| what are the rapid acting insulins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the short acting regular insulins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the intermediate-NPH insulins? |
|
Definition
| humulin N, novalin N, and lente |
|
|
Term
| what are the long acting insulins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| how long after it was injected does it start to work |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| how long after it was injected does it have its strongest affect |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| how long does it keep working in the body |
|
|
Term
| How is insulin usually injected? On the body map out at what sites and regions you could give an insulin injection depending upon the type of insulin |
|
Definition
subQ injections are used for insulin
medium speed: arms
fast speed: abdomen and posterior flanks
slow speed:lower buttocks, anterior and posterior thigh |
|
|
Term
| what is the main goal of tertiary interventions? what can be done? |
|
Definition
REEDUCATION TO PREVENT FURTHER OCCURENCE
blood glucose monitoring, s/s of hyper/hypoglycemia, and medication administration |
|
|
Term
| what is often the problem with insulin in diabetes in general? |
|
Definition
| abnormal insulin production or impaired insulin utilization |
|
|
Term
| which type of diabetes is more prevalent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in which type of diabetes would there be antiobodies present at the Islets of langerhans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in which type of diabetes would there be possibly an excessive amount of insulin but a delayed secretion or reduced utilization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in which type of diabetes is the primary defect absent or minimal insulin production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in which type of diabetes is the primary defect insulin resistance and decreased insulin production overtime? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the different types of diabetes? |
|
Definition
1. type 1
2. type 2
3. gestational
4. other specific types |
|
|
Term
| under normal conditions how is insulin released? when is there an increase? |
|
Definition
in small pulsatile increments (basal rate)
and increase occurs when food is ingested |
|
|
Term
| what counterregulatory hormones work to counter the effects of insulin? |
|
Definition
| glucagon, epinephrine, growth hormone, and cortisol |
|
|
Term
| how do counterregulatory hormones work? |
|
Definition
| increase blood glucose levels by stimulating glucose production and output from the liver and decreasing to movement of glucose into cells |
|
|
Term
| insulin is released from the _________ cells of the pancreas and then routed through the ________ where ________ is cleaved by enzymes to form insulin and _________. The insulin molecule is composed of two polypeptide chains, chain A and B which are linked by _______ ________. The presence of ________ ________ in serum and urine is a useful indicator of beta cell function. |
|
Definition
| insulin is released from the beta (β) cells of the pancreas and then routed through the liver where proinsulin is cleaved by enzymes to form insulin and C-peptide. The insulin molecule is composed of two polypeptide chains, chain A and B which are linked by disulfide bridges. The presence of C-peptide in serum and urine is a useful indicator of beta cell function. |
|
|
Term
| what is the precursor molecule of insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| insulin promotes glucose transport from the _________ across the cell membrane into the ____________ of the cell. |
|
Definition
| insulin promotes glucose transport from the bloodstream across the cell membrane into the cytoplasm of the cell. |
|
|
Term
| is insulin a catabolic or anabolic steroid? |
|
Definition
| anabolic because it is a storage hormone because it causes glucose to enter cells, and promotes storage as glycogen in the liver and muscle |
|
|
Term
| what is a universal finding in patients with type 2 diabetes? |
|
Definition
| insulin resistance r/t inherited defect in insulin receptors |
|
|
Term
| what type of diabetes is immunemediated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in type 1 diabetes, what attacks the beta cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in type 1 diabetes what causes a reduction of 80-90% of beta cell function before hyperglycemia and other manifestations occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| predisposition to type 1 diabetes is r/t |
|
Definition
| HLAs: human leukocyte antigens; HLA-DR 3 and 4. A viral infection will cause destruction of beta cells |
|
|
Term
| without insulin, a type 1 diabetic will develop |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| condition where an individual is at risk for diabetes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which type of diabetes has a tendency to run in families and probably has a genetic basis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most powerful risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does metabolic syndrome do to your chances of developing type 2 diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cluster of abnormalities that synergistically work to increase risk for CVD and DM |
|
|
Term
| what are the differences in the onset of symptoms in type 1 and 2 DM? |
|
Definition
| type 1 is abrupt while type 2 is gradual |
|
|
Term
| conditions that can lead to diabetes aften cause injury to the function or structure of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what medications can induce diabetes in SOME people? |
|
Definition
| prednisone (a corticosteroid), phenytoin (Dilantin), thiazides (diuretic), and atypical antipsychotics |
|
|
Term
| fatigue, recurrent infections, recurrent yeast of candidal infections, prolonged wound healing and visual changes are S/S for what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the fasting plasma glucose BS level must be what in order to diagnose someone with DM? how long is the "fasting" |
|
Definition
| greater than or equal too 126 mg/dl; 8 hours |
|
|
Term
| what is the level of blood glucose that is an indication of DM in a 2 hour plasma glucose test? |
|
Definition
| greater than or equal too 200 mg/dl |
|
|
Term
| what are the two major glucose lowering agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the classifications of insulin? |
|
Definition
1. rapid acting
2. short acting regular
3. intermediate NPH
4. long acting
5. combination |
|
|
Term
rapid acting insulin
Names:
O:
P:
D: |
|
Definition
humalog and novlog
O: 15 min
P: 60-90 min
D: 3-4 hours |
|
|
Term
short acting insulin
Names:
O:
P:
D: |
|
Definition
novolin R and humilin R, reliOn R
O: 30 min-1 hour
P: 2-3 hours
D: 3-6 hours |
|
|
Term
intermediate acting insulin
Names:
O:
P:
D: |
|
Definition
NPH (humalin N, novolin N, and reliOn N)
rapid acting insulin
O: 2-4 hrs
P: 4-10 hrs
D: 10-16 hrs |
|
|
Term
long acting insulin
Names:
O:
P:
D: |
|
Definition
lantus and levemir
O: 1-2 hours
P: no peak
D: 24+ hours |
|
|
Term
| of the 5 classifications of insulin, which ones are cloudy with the rest being clear? |
|
Definition
| cloudy: intermediate NPH (Humulin N, Novalin N, and ReliOn N) AND combinations |
|
|
Term
| the exogenous insulin regimen that most closely mimics endogenous insulin production is the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| intensive insulin therapy; the regimen? the goal? |
|
Definition
use of the basal-bolus insulin regimen. MDI: multiple daily insulin injections along with frequent self monitoring of glucose
Bolus: rapid and short acting before meals
Basal: intermediate and long acting once or twice a day
the goal is to achieve a near normal glucose level |
|
|
Term
| what are the mealtime insulins? when should they be given prior to the meal? |
|
Definition
rapid: 0-15 minutes before
short: 30-60 minutes before |
|
|
Term
| what are the background insulins used to maintain blood glucose in between meals and overnight? |
|
Definition
| intermediate and long acting |
|
|
Term
| what are glargine and detemir? Are they mealtime or background insulins? Can they be mixed? Can they be diluted? |
|
Definition
glargine:Lantus and detemir: Levemir
they are long acting insulins used for background (in between meals and overnight) NO they cannot be mixed or diluted. |
|
|
Term
1. list the peak times for the insulins
2. at peak time would you expect hyper or hypo glycemia? |
|
Definition
rapid: 60-90 min
short: 2-3 hours
inter: 4-10 hours
long: no peak!
can expect HYPOglycemia, its insulin!!!
risk for hypoglycemia with long acting insulins is greatly reduced because they have no peak |
|
|
Term
| what is the only basal insulin that can be mixed with short and rapid acting insulins and is cloudy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the basal insulins? can they be mixed? |
|
Definition
| long acting and intermediate, only intermediate can be mixed |
|
|
Term
| what are the bolus insulins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if an insulin is cloudy what must be done prior to drawing up the insulin but after injecting the appropriate amount of air into the vial? |
|
Definition
| gently agitate it but rolling it |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| rapid-acting inhaled insulin |
|
|
Term
| what are the defects of type 2 diabetes? |
|
Definition
1. insulin resistance
2. decreased insulin production
3. increased hepatic glucose production |
|
|
Term
| DKA is most likely to occur in individuals with type ___ diabetes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DKA leads to severe dehydration and depletion of electrolytes K, Cl, Mg, P, and Na. It also causes _______ which leads to more fluid and electrolyte losses. Eventually ________ and shock will ensue. The _________ will then cause __________, causing a retention of ketones and glucose and the acidosis continues. If untreated the patient becomes _________ from dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and acidosis. If left untreated, _______ is inevitable. |
|
Definition
| DKA leads to severe dehydration and depletion of electrolytes K, Cl, Mg, P, and Na. It also causes vomiting which leads to more fluid and electrolyte losses. Eventually hypovolemia and shock will ensue. The hypovolemia will then cause renal failure, causing a retention of ketones and glucose and the acidosis continues. If untreated the patient becomes comatose from dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and acidosis. If left untreated, death is inevitable. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| causes an alteration of the pH balance causing metabolic acidosis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when ketones are excreted in the urine which causes electrolyte depletion of cations as they are eliminated with the anionic ketones to maintain electrical neutrality. |
|
|
Term
| what are some clinical manifestations of DKA? |
|
Definition
| dehydration and loose skin turgor, nausea, dizziness, vomiting, Kussmaul respirations (rapid deep breathing, to reverse the acidosis by letting out more CO2), acetone on breath (sweet and fruity smell), ketones in urine, arterial pH less than 7.30 |
|
|
Term
| what is essential to obtain before giving insulin? and why? |
|
Definition
| serum potassium levels b/c if pt is hypokalemic, insulin would further decrease K levels |
|
|
Term
| rapid administration of IV fluids and rapid lowering of serum glucose can lead to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hyperosmolic hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS) |
|
Definition
| occurs in pts with enough insulin production to prevent DKA but not enough to prevent severe hyperglycemia, osmotic diuresis, and extracellular fluid depletion |
|
|
Term
| most common intracellular electrolyte? extracellular? |
|
Definition
| K intracellular. Na extracellular |
|
|
Term
| insulin causes potassium to |
|
Definition
| go inside the cells; risk for hypokalemia |
|
|
Term
| occurs when there is too much insulin in proportion to available glucose in the blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| once the plasma glucose level falls below 70 mg/dl, the neuroendocrine hormoes are released and the autonomic nervous system is activated. What two hormones are released? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| during hypoglycemia, epinephrine is released to combat the low blood sugar. what are its effects? |
|
Definition
| shakiness, palpitations, nervousness, diaphoresis, and pallor etc. |
|
|
Term
| true or false: hypoglycemia can affect mental functioning. why? |
|
Definition
| true! because the brain requires glucose |
|
|
Term
| true or false: hypoglycemia can mimic alchohol intoxication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment for Hypoglycemia
Â
CHECK
1.check pt blood glucose-
a. if more than 70, ______________
Â
b. if less than 70, begin ______________
3. if no way to check blood glucose is around but patient presents symptoms-______________
TREAT
1. hypoglycemia is treated with ______________: 4-6 fruit juice, 8 oz soft drink, or low fat milk
2. avoid things with ______________ if you can like candy bars, cookies, and ice cream bc this slows sugar absorption
3. avoid overtreatment to prevent ______________
4.check blood gluose after 15 minutes
   a. if still below 70, ______________ [15-20] g simple carb treatments] contact physician
       I. if patient cannot swallow, give glucagon injection either IM or SubQ but ______________ injection is fastest. Because glucagon can cause nausea, ______________. Giving pt a ______________ after this can prevent ______________ that can be caused by glucagon.
       II. if unable to respond to glucagon, give ______________
  b. if above 70 allow pt to eat reguarly scheduled meals to prevent hypoglycemia. Give snacks like low-fat peanut butter, bread, or cheese and crackers
  Â
|
|
Definition
treatment for hypoglycemia:
CHECK
1.check pt blood glucose-
a. if more than 70, investigate other causes and S/S
b. if less than 70, begin hypoglycemic reatment
3. if no way to check blood glucose is around but patient presents symptoms-begin hypoglycemic treatment
TREAT
1. hypoglycemia is treated with 15-20 g of a simple fast acting carbohydrate: 4-6 fruit juice, 8 oz soft drink, or low fat milk
2. avoid things with fat if you can like candy bars, cookies, and ice cream bc this slows sugar absorption
3. avoid overtreatment to prevent hyperglycemia
4.check blood gluose after 15 minutes
   a. if still below 70, after 2 or 3 [15-20 g simple carb treatments] contact physician
       I. if patient cannot swallow, give glucagon injection either IM or SubQ but IM DELTOID injection is fastest. Because glucagon can cause nasea, turn pt on side until alertness is resumed.. Giving pt a complex carb after this can prevent hypoglycemic rebound that can be caused by glucagon.
       II. if unable to respond to glucagon, give 20-50 mL 50% dextrose IV push
  b. if above 70 allow pt to eat reguarly scheduled meals to prevent hypoglycemia. Give snacks like low-fat peanut butter, bread, or cheese and crackers |
|
|
Term
| chronic complications of diabetes are primarily those of end organ disease from ___________ that are secondary to |
|
Definition
| damage to blood vessels (angiopathy); secondary to chronic hyperglycemia |
|
|
Term
| chronic blood vessel dysfunctions secondary to diabetes are either |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
macrovascular complications
1. definition
2. diseases |
|
Definition
1. diseases of the large and medium sized blood vessels
2. cerebrovascular, cardiovascular, and PV disease |
|
|
Term
microvascular complications
definition and how it differs from macrovascular complications |
|
Definition
results from thinkening of the vessel membranes in the capillaries and arterioles in response to chronic hyperglycemia
specific to diabetes |
|
|
Term
| true or false: soaking a diabetic feet is a good thing |
|
Definition
| NO it increases chances of infection due to maceration (excessive softening of the skin) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| study of blood and blood forming tissue |
|
|
Term
| what organs are included in the study of hematology? |
|
Definition
| bone marrow, blood, lymph system, liver, and the spleen |
|
|
Term
| hematopoiesis and where does it take place? |
|
Definition
| blood cell production; bone marrow |
|
|
Term
| bone marrow and the two types; which one actively produces blood cells? |
|
Definition
| soft material that fills the central core of bones; yellow-adipose and red-hematopoetic; red marrow actively produces blood cells |
|
|
Term
| a nondifferentiated immature blood cell found in the bone marrow that responds to negative feedback and is stimulated various factors that causes diffrentiation of the stem cells into one of the committed hemopoietic cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a connective tissue that performs transportation, regulation and protection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| makes up 55% of the blood, composed primarily of water but also has proteins and gases, and nutrients. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| albumin, globulin and clotting factors, mostly fibrinogen |
|
|
Term
| a protein that helps maintain oncotic pressure in the blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| compose 45% of the blood, RBC, WBC, and thrombocytes |
|
|
Term
what are the functions of:
1. RBC
2. WBC
3. Thrombocytes |
|
Definition
1. RBC: transportation/ acid-base balance
2. WBC: protection of the body from infection
3. Thrombocytes: promote blood coagulation |
|
|
Term
| stimulates the bone marrow to increase RBC cell production |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| granulocytes and what they are also called |
|
Definition
| basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils; they are also called polymorphonuclear leukocytes |
|
|
Term
| agranulocytes and what they are called |
|
Definition
| monocytes and lymphocytes; mononuclear cells |
|
|
Term
| name the WBC in order of their prevalence |
|
Definition
N, L, M, E, B
Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas
Neutrophil Lymphocyte Monocyte Eosinophil Basophil |
|
|
Term
| what is the primary function of granulocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflammatory and allergic response; release heparin, histamine and serotonin |
|
|
Term
| what is the function (s) of the spleen? |
|
Definition
| stores RBC and platlets and removes old and defective RBCs from circulation, and filters out circulating bacteria, especially encapsulated organisms like gram-positive cocci |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| carries fluid from interstitial places to the blood which prevents edema and takes proteins and fats from the GI tract to the circulatory system |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| filter, produced procoagulants for hemostasis and coagulation, and stores excess iron |
|
|
Term
| what are the different types of blood? |
|
Definition
A, AB, B, and O
[all can be + or -] |
|
|
Term
| what types of blood can a person with type A blood receive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what types of blood can a person with type B blood receive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what types of blood can a person with type AB blood receive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what types of blood can a person with type O blood receive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| loss of a large amount of blood in a short period |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| decrease in concentration of blood elements |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| destruction of RBC and removal or old and abnormal RBC from circulation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| decrease in RBC, WBC, and platelts |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are some causes of leukopenia? |
|
Definition
| medications, bleeding, cancer, and chemotherapy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the effects of aging in the levels of hemoglobin and nutritional intakes of Fe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| decreased Hgb,RBC or hematocrit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the normal ranges of Hgb for a
male?
female? |
|
Definition
male: 13.5-18
female: 12-16 |
|
|
Term
| what are the different types of anemia? |
|
Definition
| aplastic anemia, thalassemia, iron deficiency, vitamin B12 deficiency, folic acid deficient, megaloblastic anemia, and hemolytic anemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| peripheral blood pancytopenia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| may occur from inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, blood loss, or hemolysis |
|
|
Term
| vitamin B12; what is relation to anemia? |
|
Definition
| cobalamin; a decrease can cause anemia |
|
|
Term
| what % of the WBCs are neutrophils? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what % of the WBCs are lymphocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what % of the WBCs are monocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what % of the WBCs are eosinophils |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what % of the WBCs are basophils |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| side effect of antihistamines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| reduce edema and pruitis (itching) |
|
|
Term
| what is the main problem in iron deficiency anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| autosomal recessive disorder where there is an inadequate production of hemoglobin due to absent or deficient globulin protein that also involves decreased erythrocyte production |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does vitamin C does the absorption of iron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| large RBC due to impaired DNA synthesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when intrinsic factor is not secreted by the gastric parietal cells so that cobalamin can not be absorbed. |
|
|
Term
| what is the most common cause of cobalamin deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what could be a cause of megaloblastic anemia? |
|
Definition
| folic acid (folate) deficiency |
|
|
Term
| why is folic acid (folate) so important? |
|
Definition
| needed for DNA synthesis leading to RBC formation and maturation |
|
|
Term
| vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency anemias are classifications of what type of anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sickle cell is an ______________ disease resulting in an abnormal form of ______________ . The resulting RBCs are stiffened, elongated, and cause low ______________ . |
|
Definition
| sickle cell is an inherited autosomal recessive disease resulting in an abnormal form of Hgb. The resulting RBCs are stiffened, elongated, and cause low O2 levels. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| vaso-occlusive conditions that lead to impaired blood flow, capillary hypoxia, tissue ischemia, and possible shock |
|
|
Term
| pain, swelling, headache, dizziness, SOB, and n/v are clinical manifestations of a hereditary disease of the blood cells that affects shape |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| polycythemia; what does it lead to? |
|
Definition
| increased RBC which leads to impaired blood circulation; hypervolemia and hyperviscosity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| increased WBC, above 11,000 |
|
|
Term
| what is the normal range for WBC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| prednisone and lithium can cause |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| thrombocytopenia; some causes? |
|
Definition
| decreased platlets; alcohol, chemo, radiation,sepsis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| heparin induced thrombocytopenia: platlet destruction due to the use of heparin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| decreased coagulation factor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| disseminated intravascular coagulation: bleeding disorder from depletion of platelets and clotting factors |
|
|
Term
| what are 3 blood cancers? |
|
Definition
| leukemia,lymphoma, and mutiple myeloma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| red or purplish spots caused by minor hemorrhaging due to broken capillary vessels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| localized collection of blood outside of the vessel |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| erythrocyte sedimentation rate: measures how much time RBC take to settle in a normal saline or plasma solution. Faster can mean an infectious process. In diabetics it will be increased. |
|
|
Term
| what are the diagnostic tests for hematology? |
|
Definition
| CBC, ESR, TIBC, Rh Factor, and Blood type |
|
|
Term
| what are the components of a CBC? |
|
Definition
RBC [4-6 x10^6]
Hgb: M [13.5-18] F [12-16]
Hct: M [42-52] F [37-47]
Platlets: [140,000-500,000]
WBC: [4,300-10,800]
Neutrophils [4,000-11,000]
N-60-70%, L-20-25%, M-3-8%, E-2-4%, B-.5%-.1% |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
partial thromboplastin time
for heparin therapy
60-70 seconds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
prothrombin time: assess therapeutic levels of Coumadin
11-12.5 seconds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| international normalized ratio: standardized method of reporting results of blood coagulation results internationally; ideal is 2-3 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| present at birth, nonspecific, and involves neutrophils and monocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| development of immunity either actively or passively |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| invasion of the body by foreign substances and a subsequent development of antibodies and sensitized lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| recieving antibodies rather than making them |
|
|
Term
| being inoculated with a vaccine or being naturally affected by a disease is a form of what type of immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| an injection of human gamma globulin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| transplacental and colustrum transfer from mother to child |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| substance that elicits a response |
|
|
Term
| central & peripheral lymphoid organs |
|
Definition
central:thymus & bone marrow
peripheral:spleen, tonsils, and lymphoid tissues |
|
|
Term
| lymphocytes are created in the bone marrow and then migrate to the _________ where its main job is too _________ and ________ T lymphocytes. |
|
Definition
| thymus, differentiate and mature |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| important in the differentiation of T lymphocytes and their maturation. Important in cell-mediated response |
|
|
Term
| what happens to the size of the thymus with age? |
|
Definition
| in a child it is large and it shrinks with size |
|
|
Term
| two important functions of lymph nodes |
|
Definition
| filtration of foreign material brought to the site and circulation of lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| primary site for filtering out antigens in the blood. Has B and T lymphocytes, RBCs and macrophages |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lymphoid tissue that protects the body surface from microorganisms |
|
|
Term
| mononuclear phagocytes are responsible for capturing, processing, and presenting antigens to ______ and ____________ that then trigger an immune response |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what do B lymphocytes differentiate into when activated? In turn what do these produce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cells that migrate from the bone marrow to the thymus are |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the two types of T cells? |
|
Definition
Cytotoxic T cells (CD8)
Helper T Cells (CD4) |
|
|
Term
| natural killer cells are involved in which type of immunity? Are they T or B cell? What are they involved in? |
|
Definition
| cell-mediated; neither; killing of virus infected cells, tumor cells, and transplanted grafts |
|
|
Term
During the beginning (acute) phase of inflammation, particularly as a result of bacterial infection, environmental exposure,[4] and some cancer, are one of the first-responders of inflammatory cells to migrate towards the site of inflammation. They migrate through the blood vessels, then through interstitial tissue, following chemical signals such as Interleukin-8 (IL-8), C5a, and Leukotriene B4 in a process called chemotaxis. They are the predominant cells in pus, accounting for its whitish/yellowish appearance.
are recruited to the site of injury within minutes following trauma and are the hallmark of acute inflammation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| soluble factors secreted by WBCs that act as messengers between the cell types for proliferation, diffrentiation, secretion, and activity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| antibody-mediated immunity |
|
|
Term
| cell mediated immunity vs humoral immunity |
|
Definition
| cell mediated initiated through specific antigen recognition by T cells and humoral is through B cells |
|
|
Term
| what are the effects of aging on the bone marrow? what however does decrease causing a suppressed humoral immunity response? |
|
Definition
| no changes to bone marrow, immunoglobin supression |
|
|
Term
| hypersensitivity reactions; what is an example? |
|
Definition
hypersensitivity reactions: overactive immune response against antigens that attacks own tissues causing damage
autoimmune disease is a hypersensitivity reaction, you react against your own antigens bc you failed to recognize your own proteins |
|
|
Term
| how many types of hypersensitivity reactions are they? Which are humoral, which are cell-mediated? |
|
Definition
| I-IV; I-III are humoral, IV is cell mediated |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| type I hypersensivity reaction can be immediate and life-threatning, death will occur without treatment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| has been effectively used to treat autoimmune diseases; separates blood and removes on the components |
|
|
