Term
The average gestational length for mares is:
a. 280-300 days
b. 335-365 days
c. 275-280 days
d. 350-375 days
e. 180-200 days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a value that can be used to predict impending parturition?
a. Increased milk calcium (>40 mg/dl)
b. Decreased milk sodium (< 30 mEq/L)
c. Increased serum progesterone
d. Decreased milk potassium (<35 mEq/L)
e. All of the above are parameters that signal impending parturition. |
|
Definition
| d. it should be increased milk potassium (> 35 mEq/L) |
|
|
Term
| Fetal heart rate is usually evaluated via __________________ ultrasound during the latter stages of pregnancy. During this time, fetal heart rate is typically __________ bpm, but increases/decreases to _______ bpm within days of parturition. |
|
Definition
Transabdominal ultrasound
> 100 bpm
Decreases
60-65 bpm |
|
|
Term
Match the stages of labor (I, II, III) with the following descriptions:
Placental membranes passed due to collapse of vessels in the fetal placenta and shrinking of villi.
Fetus in dorsopubic position. Mare is restless. The cervix begins to dilate. Chorioallantoic membrane ruptures.
Strong abdominal contractions of the maternal abdominal muscles and diaphragm, along with closing of the glottis (Furguson's reflex) force fetus through birth canal. Typically takes about 20 minutes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
State what the foal (not the mare!) should be doing at the following time frames:
30 seconds
1-2 minutes
10-15 minutes
1-2 hours
4-8 hours |
|
Definition
30 seconds--first breath
1-2 minutes--mucous membranes become pink
10-15 minutes--sternal
1-2 hours--standing, nursing, passing meconium
4-8 hours--urination |
|
|
Term
| T/F: attempts should be made to break the umbilical cord if it does not break on its own as the foal passes through the birth canal. |
|
Definition
| False: the umbilical cord will break on its own when the mare stands up or the foal makes attempts to stand. The umbilical stump should, however, be disinfected with chlorhexadine or mild 2% iodine to prevent infection (omphalophlebitis--BAD) |
|
|
Term
| The average placental weight is _____% of the foal's body weight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: the placenta should always be saved for examination following parturition. |
|
Definition
| True: examine for integrity, thickening, color, discharge, weight, and any other abnormalities. |
|
|
Term
A mare appears to be in Stage I labor when the farmhand notices a velvety, red colored protrusion from the mares vaginal area. He phones you to ask for advice. What do you tell him?
a. This is normal for the end of Stage I labor. Monitor the mare's progress and call if no change in 20-30 minutes.
b. It sounds like the mare has had a vaginal prolapse from straining. Bring her to the clinic immediately.
c. The mare appears to have had premature placental separation. This is an emergency, so break the bag to allow the foal environmental oxygen to help reduce hypoxia. Assisted delivery is essential.
d. It appears the mare has placentitis. Monitor the mare's progress with parturition, but she will likely have to come in for treatment after she gives birth. |
|
Definition
| c. The mare appears to have had premature placental separation. This is an emergency, so break the bag to allow the foal environmental oxygen to help reduce hypoxia. Assisted delivery is essential. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: by 48-72 hours of age, the foal's heart rate should be between 60-80 bpm and the foal's respiratory rate should be around 20 bpm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Prematurity is:
a. A foal that is born at a normal gestational length that demonstrates signs of prematurity and is born due to various reasons (placental infection, placental insufficiency, fetal infection, prolonged/severe maternal illness, fescue toxicosis)
b. A foal that is born earlier than expected (<320 days gestation) and is not fully physiologically developed. It may be born due to various reasons (placental infection/insufficiency, fetal infection, induction of parturition, prolonged/severe maternal illness, fescue toxicosis)
c. a foal that is maintained in utero a significant period past normal gestational time period.
d. a term foal displaying signs of prematurity
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dysmaturity is:
a. A foal that is born at a normal gestational length that demonstrates signs of prematurity and is born due to various reasons (placental infection, placental insufficiency, fetal infection, prolonged/severe maternal illness, fescue toxicosis)
b. A foal that is born earlier than expected (<320 days gestation) and is not fully physiologically developed. It may be born due to various reasons (placental infection/insufficiency, fetal infection, induction of parturition, prolonged/severe maternal illness, fescue toxicosis)
c. a foal that is maintained in utero a significant period past normal gestational time period.
d. a term foal displaying signs of prematurity
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Postmaturity is:
a. A foal that is born at a normal gestational length that demonstrates signs of prematurity and is born due to various reasons (placental infection, placental insufficiency, fetal infection, prolonged/severe maternal illness, fescue toxicosis)
b. A foal that is born earlier than expected (<320 days gestation) and is not fully physiologically developed. It may be born due to various reasons (placental infection/insufficiency, fetal infection, induction of parturition, prolonged/severe maternal illness, fescue toxicosis)
c. a foal that is maintained in utero a significant period past normal gestational time period.
d. a term foal displaying signs of prematurity
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Immaturity is:
a. A foal that is born at a normal gestational length that demonstrates signs of prematurity and is born due to various reasons (placental infection, placental insufficiency, fetal infection, prolonged/severe maternal illness, fescue toxicosis)
b. A foal that is born earlier than expected (<320 days gestation) and is not fully physiologically developed. It may be born due to various reasons (placental infection/insufficiency, fetal infection, induction of parturition, prolonged/severe maternal illness, fescue toxicosis)
c. a foal that is maintained in utero a significant period past normal gestational time period.
d. a term foal displaying signs of prematurity
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Intrauterine Growth Retardation:
a. implies some type of chronic derangement during gestation interrupting the normal growth process of the fetus
b. may be manifested as low birth weight for gestational age and a large head when compared to the remainder of the body
c. Is believed to be related to decreased uteroplacental blood flow.
d. Is believed to be related to increased uterine and fetal vascular resistance.
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fescue toxicosis in pregnant mares:
a. Inhibits prolactin release due to agonist activity at dopamine receptors, leading to prolonged gestation, decreased or no signs of impending parturition, placental thickening, agalactia, and weak or stillborn foals.
b. Often affects mares that ingest the toxins at 270 days gestation.
c. Is often treated with Domperidone, a dopamine antagonist.
d. A and B
e. A and C |
|
Definition
e. A and C
Fescue toxicosis usually affects mares that ingest the toxin at 300 days gestation or later (last 30 days) |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a condition (from the notes) associated with prematurity or dysmaturity?
a. Short silky hair coat, pliant ears, and soft lips
b. Tendon and joint laxity
c. Patent ductus arteriosus
d. Incomplete ossification of the cuboidal bones
e. Poor suckle reflex |
|
Definition
| c. patent ductus arteriosus |
|
|
Term
| Neonatal foals have little glycogen (caloric) reserves. A weak/ill foal will have blood glucose levels ______ mg/dl, while normal foals will have blood glucose levels ______ mg/dl. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A typical healthy foal should gain ___-____ lbs. body weight per day. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Foals have the ability to absorb matternally derived antibodies from the mare's colostrum for:
a. 6-12 hours
b. 24-72 hours
c. 12-24 hours
d. 12-18 hours
e. 18-24 hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Premature lactation:
a. may suggest placental infection
b. may suggest twins
c. may result in decreased colostral quality or lack of colostrum available when the foal is born
d. All of the above
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a test used to assess passive transfer to a neonatal foal?
a. ELISA
b. Radioimmunodiffusion
c. Serum Total protein
d. Gluteraldehyde Agglutination Test
e. Immunofluorescent Assay |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 2 day old foal presents to your clinic for a routine neonate check (although it is a little late). You run a SNAP ELISA to check for passive transfer and discover that the IgG levels are below 400 mg/dl. What treatment would you implement?
a. Oral colostrum from the mare
b. Oral plasma
c. Oral colostrum from a bank
d. IV plasma infusion |
|
Definition
| d. IV plasma--the foal is too old for the gut to absorb the antibodies via pinocytosis |
|
|
Term
| Foals should receive their first vaccinations around ___ months of age. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following pairs would NOT indicate systemic inflammatory response syndrome?
a. Bradycardia and hypothermia
b. Tachycardia and hyperthermia
c. Tachypnea and hypothermia
d. Leukocytosis with > 10% band neutrophils
e. Leukopenia and hypothermia |
|
Definition
| a. Bradycardia and hypothermia |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Sepsis is defined as systemic inflammatory response syndrome in the presence of a bacteremia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List some common bacteria that are cultured in foal septicemia: |
|
Definition
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella
Salmonella
Enterobacter
Actinobacillus
Pseudomonas
Acinetobacter
Streptococcus
Enterococcus
Staphylococcus |
|
|
Term
Septicemia is supported by tests that show:
a. Leukopenia with a neutrophenia, left shift, and toxic neutrophils
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Azotemia, hyponatremia, and hypochloremia
d. Acidosis
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____-_____% of foals with sepsis will survive with proper care (turning foal from right/left lateral recumbency regularly, disinfecting umbilicus, clean catheter care, clean perineum, avoid pressure sores, urinary bladder catheterization) and early treatment (fluid therapy, broad-spectrum antibiotics, nutritional support, anti-inflammatory drugs). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Septic arthritis in the neonate:
a. Is not typically associated with a bacteremia/septicemia
b. Is always diagnosed by a positive joint fluid culture
c. Always shows some degree of radiographic changes
d. Often demonstrates elevated total protein, >30,000 cells, and increased neutrophils
e. Is typically only treated locally with joint lavage and regional perfusion |
|
Definition
d. TP >3.5-4 gm/dl, >30,000 cells, and increased neutrophils are highly suggestive of septic arthritis
Septic arthritis is often associated with septicemia or bacteremia and manifests as lameness, joint effusion, pain on palpation, and increased heat from affected joints. Cultures may be negative if bacteria are only in the synovial membrane. Radiographic changes may not be noted if the onset is acute. Treatment involves broad-spectrum antibiotics, anti-inflammatory drugs, joint lavage, regional perfusion, and sometimes surgical lavage and debridement. |
|
|
Term
| A ruptured urinary bladder, ruptured urachal remnants, or a ruptured ureter can all result in _______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ruptured bladders usually result in tears in the:
a. dorsal aspect of the bladder
b. ventral aspect of the bladder
c. lateral aspects of the bladder
d. trigone of the bladder |
|
Definition
| a. dorsal aspect of the bladder |
|
|
Term
Ruptured bladders more commonly occur in:
a. Fillies
b. Colts
c. They occur equally in fillies and colts |
|
Definition
| b. Colts--due to longer urethra which can predispose to increased pressure in the bladder during parturition |
|
|
Term
All of the following clinical signs and metabolic derangements are highly suggestive of uroperitoneum except:
a. The foal is lethargic, anorexic, and depressed
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hyponatremia
d. Hypochloremia
e. Metabolic alkalosis |
|
Definition
e. Metabolic alkalosis
It should be metabolic acidosis |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a good diagnostic indicator for uroperitoneum?
a. Ultrasonography
b. 2:1 creatinine ratio for abdominal fluid:serum
c. Contrast radiography
d. Abdominocentesis
e. MRI |
|
Definition
| e. MRI--just not necessary |
|
|
Term
Treatment of uroperitoneum involves fluid therapy, stabilization, and surgical correction. Which of the following treatments would not be acceptable for stabilizing the foal's metabolic derangements?
a. Lactated Ringer's Solution
b. IV Dextrose
c. IV 0.9% NaCl
d. NaHCO3 Solution
e. Insulin administration |
|
Definition
| a. LRS has potassium and we want to use fluids that do NOT contain potassium or we risk causing cardiac abnormalities (if they are not already present) |
|
|
Term
A normal foal is born to a mare with normal gestation, pregnancy, and parturition. This is the mare's second foal, and she had both without incidence. Because the owners liked their first foal so much, they bred to the same stallion with the hopes of getting another foal of excellent quality. Today, 48 hours later, the foal is tachycardic, tachypnic, has pale mucous membranes, is icteric, and the urine appears red. Based on the clinical symptoms described, what is the most likely working diagnosis of this foal?
a. Failure of passive transfer due to the foal's inability to nurse
b. Failure of passive transfer due to the mare's inability to produce milk
c. Fescue toxicosis
d. Neonatal Isoerythrolysis
e. Neonatal Septicemia |
|
Definition
| d. Neonatal isoerythrolysis |
|
|
Term
Neonatal isoerythrolysis is a ______ hypersensitivity reaction.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV |
|
Definition
b. Type II
With the mare's first pregnancy, antibodies to the stallion's blood developed and were passed in the colostrum to her SECOND foal. When the foal nursed, the antibodies bound to the foal's erythrocytes and caused extravascular and intravascular hemolysis, thus causing the cardiovascular, respiratory, and urinary effects. |
|
|
Term
All of the following are acceptable treatments for a foal with neonatal isoerythrolysis except:
a. Washed red blood cells from the mare for a foal with a PCV < 10-12%
b. Washed red blood cells from the stallion for a foal with a PCV < 10-12%
c. Washed red blood cells from a horse or pony gelding for a foal with a PCV <10-12%
d. Bovine hemoglobin products such as Oxyglobin for a foal with a PCV <10-12%
e. Muzzling of the foal for the first 48 hours to avoid ingestion of the mare's colostrum, and administration of an alternate source of colostrum |
|
Definition
| b. Washed red blood cells from the stallion for a foal with a PCV <10-12% |
|
|
Term
| T/F: donkeys have a unique "donkey antigen/factor" present on their RBCs that can cause neonatal isoerythrolysis in mule foals that inherit the antigen on their RBCs not normally present on horse RBCs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A Overo breeding farm calls you to examine a foal that died at 48 hours. The owner reports that the foal was normal at birth but appeared "colicky" and never passed the meconium by 24 hours. Based upon this (brief) history, what is a reasonable working diagnosis?
a. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
b. Ascarid Impaction
c. Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy
d. Congenital Aganglionosis
e. Occipitoatlantoacial Malformation |
|
Definition
| d. Congenital Aganglionosis (Lethal White Foal Syndrome) |
|
|
Term
An air-filled guttural pouch is referred to as:
a. Guttural Pouch Tympany
b. Chondroids
c. Strangles
d. Guttural Pouch Tympany
e. Pneumogutturalpouchosis |
|
Definition
| a. Guttural Pouch Tympany |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a condition that affects Arabian foals only?
a. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
b. Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy
c. Juvenile Idiopathic Epilepsy
d. Occipitoatlantoaxial Malformation |
|
Definition
| b. Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy |
|
|
Term
Which of the following would cause you to be suspicious of SCID?
a. A white Overo foal with signs of colic and failure to pass meconium
b. An Arab foal with recurrent infections and an absolute lymphocyte count below 1000 cells/ul
c. A Thoroughbred foal with air in the guttural pouch
d. A Warmblood foal with a depressed suckle reflex, making barking vocalizations, and that is disassociated from the mare
e. A 2 month old Arab foal that demonstrates tonic-clonic motor seizures and post-ictal blindness |
|
Definition
| b. An Arab foal with recurrent infections and an absolute lymphocyte count below 1000 cells/ul |
|
|
Term
| T/F: SCID in Arab foals is an acquired immunodeficiency, and therefore breeding of parent animals can continue without consequence. |
|
Definition
| False: dam and sire are carrier animals and further breeding should be strongly discouraged. |
|
|
Term
| A neonatal foal that demonstrates repetitive attempts to defecate likely has a ____________ impaction and should be treated with ___________. Such products include Acetylcysteine, which breaks __________ bonds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 7 month old foal presents for intense colic. When taking a history of the patient, the owner notes that the colic appeared about 24 hours after administration of pyrantel. What is likely going on with the foal?
a. The foal had an adverse reaction to the pyrantel
b. The pyrantel administration caused rapid death of a large population of ascarids, leading to impaction
c. The foal likely has a feed impaction and administration of pyrantel led to increased time of the drug in the gut
d. The foal likely has gastric ulcers, which were irritated by the pyrantel and are leading to signs of colic
e. The foal likely has an intestinal torsion |
|
Definition
| b. Pyrantel led to increased kill of a large number of worms and subsequent impaction |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a relatively common cause of FOAL diarrhea?
a. Lawsonia intracellularis infection
b. The excessive administration of milk replacer
c. Foal-heat diarrhea associated with the foal's secretory function exceeding its absorptive function
d. Rotavirus infection
e. Salmonella, Clostridia, E. coli, or Enterobacter infections |
|
Definition
| a. Lawsonia--typically weanling diarrhea occurring at 4 months-1 year of age |
|
|
Term
Weanling diarrhea is most commonly caused by which organism?
a. E. coli
b. Salmonella
c. Lawsonia intracellularis
d. Clostridium
e. Rotavirus |
|
Definition
| c. Lawsonia intracellularis |
|
|
Term
The lesion most commonly seen with weanling diarrhea caused by Lawsonia intracellularis is:
a. Mucosal hyperplasia of the jejunum and ileum followed by protein losing enteropathy
b. Secretory diarrhea caused by enterotoxin secretion by Gram - bacteria
c. Hemorrhagic diarrhea caused by mucosal damage
d. Osmotic diarrhea caused by decreased uptake of nutrients in the small intestine
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
| a. Mucosal hyperplasia of the jejunum and ileum followed by protein losing enteropathy |
|
|
Term
| T/F: peripheral edema is a common finding with Lawsonia infections in weanling foals. |
|
Definition
| True--due to loss of oncotic pressure (hypoproteinemia) |
|
|
Term
Which of the following treatments is not acceptable for treating Lawsonia infections in weanling foals?
a. Erythromycin-rifampin
b. Clarithromycin-rifampin
c. Oxytetracycline/doxycycline
d. Chloramphenicol
e. All of the above are acceptable treatments for Lawsonia infections |
|
Definition
| e. all of the above are acceptable treatments of Lawsonia infections |
|
|
Term
The terms "Barker, Wanderers, and Dummies" refer to foals afflicted by:
a. Atlantooccipital Malformations
b. Streptococcus equi infection
c. Guttural Pouch Tympany
d. Lethal White Foal Syndrome
e. Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy |
|
Definition
| e. Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy |
|
|
Term
| Describe the mechanism of Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy: |
|
Definition
| Primary neuronal cell injury and death related to cellular hypoxia, which results in decreased ATP, failure of membrane pumps (Na/K, Ca) and influx of Na and Ca into the cell. Increased intracellular Na results in cell swelling, while membrane depolarization contributes to glutamate release. Secondary neuronal death is then associated with excess extracellular glutamate, free radical production, and inflammation. Increased intracellular calcium causes activation of numerous pathways that can result in cell injury or death. |
|
|
Term
A foal that is normal at birth but loses its suckle reflex, dissociates from the mare, becomes weak and dehydrated, wanders aimlessly in the stall, and makes bizarre vocalization is likely affected by:
a. Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy
b. Juvenile Idiopathic Epilepsy
c. Basisphenoid fracture
d. Meningitis
e. Atlantooccipital malformation |
|
Definition
| a. Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy |
|
|
Term
All of the following are acceptable treatment strategies for a dummy foal except:
a. Supportive therapy such as nutritional support, fluid therapy, and antimicrobial therapy (if sepsis present)
b. Respiratory stimulants such as Doxapram
c. Anti-inflammatory therapy such as flunixine meglumine or DMSO
d. Anti-seizure medications such as diazepam
e. Anti-oxidants such as Vitamin E and C |
|
Definition
| b. Doxapram---probably not indicated for a foal that already has a hypoxic brain |
|
|
Term
Seizures in foals are manifested as:
a. sucking/chewing movements of the mouth
b. twitching of the facial muscles
c. tonic-clonic movements of the limbs
d. All of the above
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 5 month old Arabian foal is presented to your clinic for a history of staring and apparent loss of consciousness. The owner reports that the foal stumbles around as if blind following these episodes. What is your presumptive diagnosis, and what do you tell the owner regarding treatment?
a. The foal likely has an atlantooccipital malformation and will probably not recover. Euthanasia is recommended.
b. The foal probably has hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy and supportive therapies should be instituted.
c. The foal likely has Juvenile Idiopathic Epilepsy. Anti-convulsant therapy should be started, but the episodes should cease by about 1 year of age.
d. The foal likely has Dandy-Walker syndrome. Euthanasia is recommended.
e. The foal likely has bacterial meningitis and will likely require serious supportive therapy and aggressive antimicrobial therapy. |
|
Definition
| c. Juvenile Idiopathic Epilepsy |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not indicative of bacterial meningitis?
a. CSF protein between 40-65 mg/dl
b. Cervical stiffness and pain
c. CSF white blood cells >100-200 cells/ul
d. CSF cytology demonstrating neutrophils +/- bacteria
e. Severe depression/coma |
|
Definition
a. protein 40-65 mg/dl
If meningitis, CSF protein will be >75 mg/dl
Also, CSF glucose will be <30 mg/dl if meningitis is present |
|
|
Term
The bacteria most commonly isolated in bacterial meningitis is:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Escherichia coli
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Actinobacillus equuli
e. All of the above are commonly isolated from cases of bacterial meningitis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: drugs that do not cross the BBB are still effective for treating bacterial meningitis. |
|
Definition
True: BBB usually compromised when inflamed
Prefer bactericidal drug: TMPS, Cefotaxime, other cephalosporins |
|
|
Term
Arabian foals that are born dead or ataxic at birth usually have a congenital malformation of the:
a. Basisphenoid bone
b. Dens
c. Petrous temporal bone
d. Occipitoatlantoaxial junction
e. C5-C6 intervertebral disk space |
|
Definition
d. occipitoatlantoaxial junction
No treatment |
|
|
Term
| T/F: weakness is the primary manifestation of foals with cerebellar abiotrophy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An owner calls you to her farm to look at a 4 month old Arabian foal that is acting strangely. When you arrive, you observe the foal in the paddock as it stands base-wide and trots with a hypermetric gait. When you examine the foal, it seems to bob its head and is unresponsive when you attempt to elicit a menace reflex. What is your working diagnosis at this time?
a. Cranial nerve deficits in the optic and facial nerves
b. Basisphenoid fracture
c. Cerebellar abiotrophy
d. Occipitoatlantoaxial malformation
e. Juvenile idiopathic epilepsy |
|
Definition
c. Cerebellar abiotrophy
Due to progressive loss of Purkinje and granular cells postnatally |
|
|
Term
When young horses rear up and fall backwards, all of the following bones are most commonly affected except:
a. Frontal bone
b. Basisphenoid bone
c. Petrous temporal bone
d. Internal acoustic canal
e. All of the above are commonly affected |
|
Definition
| a. Frontal bone--I'm sure it could be, but not in notes |
|
|
Term
The suture between the basisphenoid and basioccipital bones is the site of insertion for the _____________ muscle.
a. Capitis dorsalis
b. Capitis medialis
c. Capitis ventralis
d. Sternooccipitalis
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
c. Capitis ventralis major
This is the largest muscle of the neck that exerts considerable traction forces during head and neck hyperextension at the time of impact. |
|
|
Term
The easiest way to detect head trauma or trauma to the cervical spine are:
a. Radiographs
b. Neurological exam
c. CSF tap and analysis
d. MRI
e. CT |
|
Definition
a. Radiographs
Neurologic signs will be apparent (blindness, circling, depression, paresis/paralysis if damage to cervical spine) but they won't tell you what caused the damage |
|
|
Term
Toxicoinfectious botulism results from:
a. Ingestion of preformed toxin found in improperly processed or decaying hay, or when an animal is decomposing in hay
b. Ingestion of spores with subsequent production of exotoxin from the GI tract
c. Sporulation of the organism in wounds followed by production and systemic absorption of toxin.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
b. Ingestion of spores
A is also called forage poisoning
C is also called wound botulism |
|
|
Term
| Botulism toxin acts primarily pre/post synaptically at the adrenergic/cholinergic neuromuscular junction by blocking the release of _________________ (neurotransmitter). The result is a spastic/flaccid paralysis. |
|
Definition
Presynaptically
Cholinergic
Acetylcholine
Flaccid |
|
|
Term
| T/F: when infected with botulism toxin, neuromuscular function does not return until new motor end plates are regenerated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are clinical signs of botulism except:
a. Dysphagia and weak tongue tone
b. Mydriasis and ptosis
c. Muscle tremors and weakness
d. Respiratory distress
e. Miosis |
|
Definition
| e. miosis--this is sympathetic and botulism leads to parasympathetic stuff |
|
|
Term
____________________ is the leading cause of fetal and neonatal death.
a. Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
b. Bacterial placentitis
c. Uterine torsion
d. Cerebellar abiotrophy
e. Bacterial meningitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are common bacterial pathogens implicated in placentitis except:
a. Streptococcus zooepidemicus
b. Escherichia coli
c. Taylorella equigenitalis
d. Klebsiella pneumonia
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
|
Definition
| c. Taylorella equigenitalis |
|
|
Term
Clinical signs of bacterial placentitis include:
a. Vaginal discharge
b. Premature udder development
c. Premature lactation
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
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Term
All of the following are acceptable therapies and have PROVEN EFFECTIVE for bacterial placentitis except:
a. Antimicrobial drugs that cross uteroplacental interface such as penicillin, gentacin, TMPS
b. Anti-inflammatory drugs such as flunixin meglumine and pentoxyfylline
c. Progestins
d. Tocolytics such as buscopan
e. Beta agonists such as clenbuterol |
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Definition
| e. Clenbuterol has questionable efficacy |
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Term
A mare is in her 8th month of gestation and is showing signs of colic. Upon physical exam, you note that she is anxious, looking at her flank, and tachycardic. You perform _________________ and diagnose _______________. Because of this, you decide to treat by __________________.
a. Rectal palpation; uterine torsion; roll will plank in the flank
b. Transrectal ultrasound; bacterial placentitis; intrauterine antibiotics and uterine lavage
c. Rectal palpation; uterine rupture; parturition induction and euthanasia following parturition
d. Transabdominal ultrasound; hydroallantois; cervical drainage following puncture of fetal membranes
e. No clue, the mare is screwed |
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Definition
| a. rectal palpation, uterine torsion, roll with plank in flank |
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Term
The most common region for uterine rupture to occur is the:
a. Tip of the uterine horn
b. Ventral aspect of the uterus
c. Lateral aspect of the uterus
d. Dorsal aspect of the uterus
e. Body of the uterus |
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Definition
| d. dorsal aspect of the uterus |
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Term
| T/F: small uterine tears can be left to heal by their own devices, as long as supportive therapy is in place. |
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Definition
| True. Larger tears usually require a ventral midline celiotomy to repair the uterus and lavage the abdomen. |
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Term
A serious complication of uterine rupture is:
a. Peritonitis
b. Hemorrhage
c. Shock
d. Death
e. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Uterine prolapse occurs most commonly after all of the following except:
a. Normal delivery
b. Abortion
c. Prolonged parturition
d. Dystocia
e. Retained placenta |
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Definition
a. Normal parturition--it can occur, but not as common as with the other conditions
Old age can also predispose to uterine prolapse |
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Term
| How should a uterine prolapse be managed? |
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Definition
Sedation and epidural anesthesia facilitate handling of mare and relaxation of perineum
Exposed uterus is copiously lavaged
Uterus liberally lubricated with sterile lubricant
Uterus gently replaced and kneaded into vagina and through cervix
Can consider infusing 5-10 liters of sterile fluids into uterus once it is in its normal position to aid in full reduction
Consider Caslick's to help maintain reduction
Supportive care should be included |
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Term
The normal amount of allantoid fluid is:
a. 5-10 liters
b. 10-20 liters
c. 6-12 liters
d. 8-15 liters
e. 15-20 liters |
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Definition
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Term
The normal amount of amniotic fluid is:
a. 1-5 liters
b. 3-7 liters
c. 8-12 liters
d. 10-15 liters
e. 12-17 liters |
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Definition
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Term
A mare in late gestation presents with a history of rapid abdominal enlargement of the last week. On physical exam you palpate a large fluid-filled uterus. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
a. Hydroamnios
b. Hydroallantois
c. Uterine edema
d. Pyometra
e. Hemouterus |
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Definition
b. Hydroallantois
Hydroamnios is VERY rare, which is why hydroallantois would be more likely |
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Term
Hemorrhagic mammary secretions are practically pathognomonic for:
a. Uterine rupture
b. Prepubic tendon rupture
c. Mastitis
d. Uterine torsion
e. Hydroallantois |
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Definition
| b. Prepubic tendon rupture |
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Term
The prepubic tendon is the attachment site for the:
a. Rectus abdominis
b. Gracilis
c. Pectineus
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C |
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Definition
|
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Term
| T/F: the left utero-ovarian artery and middle uterine artery are more predisposed to rupture than the right side |
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Definition
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Term
Naloxone, Aminocaproic acid, and Formalin are all therapies aimed to improve the outcome of:
a. uterine hemorrhage
b. uterine prolapse
c. uterine rupture
d. uterine torsion
e. placentitis |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: treatment of perineal lacerations must be instituted immediately to delay the amount of fibrous tissue development |
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Definition
| False: want to wait several weeks to allow the defect to granulate in, then freshen up the edges when you come back to repair |
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Term
State whether each description is a first-degree, second-degree, or third-degree laceration:
1. involves all tissues of the ventral rectum, dorsal vagina, perineal body, and anal sphincter
2. occur when foal's feet pass through the vestibulovaginal junction and lacerate the dorsal vestibular mucosa/submucosa, skin of the dorsal vulva, and some of the musculature of the perineal body
3. involve the dorsal mucosa of the vestibule and skin of the dorsal commissure of the vulva |
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Definition
Third-degree
Second-degree
First-degree |
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Term
| A placenta is considered retained if it fails to pass within ____ hours of parturition. |
|
Definition
6 (according to Dr. W)
3 (according to Dr. C) |
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Term
| Perhaps the most legitimate concern of a retained placenta in a mare is the development of _____________. |
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Definition
Laminitis
Also of concern are endotoxemia, metritis, and death |
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Term
What is the Burns technique?
a. A technique in which oxytocin is administered IV or IM every 2-4 hours or as a fluid drip
b. A technique in which the uterus is lavaged with water, antimicrobials, and antiseptics to help prevent laminitis
c. A technique in which the placenta is distended with fluid and then emptied in an attempt to facilitate the removal of a retained placenta
d. A technique in which the retained placenta is manually removed
e. A technique for starting a fire |
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Definition
C--distend placenta with water, then empty to try to remove retained placenta
Just a note: a retained placenta should NEVER be manually removed |
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