Term
Which of the following terms is appropriate for painful menstruation associated with the release of prostaglandins in ovulatory cycles?
A. Primary dysmenorrhea
B. Primary amenorrhea
C. Hirsutism
D. Secondary amenorrhea |
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Definition
A. Primary Dsymenorrhea
Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation; primary dysmenorrhea is due to release of prostaglandins in ovulatory cycles. Hirsutism is abnormal hairiness. Primary amenorrhea is failure of menarche by the age of 14. Secondary amenorrhea is the absence of menarche for the equivalent of three cycles. |
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Term
Which of the following terms is appropriate for irregular menstrual flow?
A. Menorrhagia
B. Menopause
C. Metrorrhagia
D. Menometrorrhagia |
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Definition
C. Metrorrhagia
Metrorrhagia is irregular flow. Menopause is cessation of menstrual flow or menses. Excessive menstrual flow is menorrhagia. Heavy, irregular flow is menometrorrhagia. |
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Term
A woman presents with hirsutism, amenorrhea, and infertility. She is also very obese. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Premenstrual syndrome
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Primary amenorrhea |
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Definition
C. PCOS
Polycystic ovary syndrome is based on two of the following conditions: androgen excess, oligo-ovulation or anovulation, or clinical signs of hyperandrogenism and polycystic ovaries. Signs usually start at puberty and include loss of normal menstrual function. This may be either amenorrhea or dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Hirsutism is common. Obesity is also likely. |
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Term
A woman presents with an inflammation of one of the ducts that lead from the vaginal opening. Which of the following is the appropriate term for this condition?
A. Vaginitis
B. Cervicitis
C. Bartholinitis
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease |
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Definition
C. Bartholinitis
Bartholin glands are the ducts that lead from the vaginal opening. They may be inflamed by normal floral of the genital area or by sexually transmitted pathogens. |
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Term
A woman has a prolapse of a portion of her bladder. Which of the following is an appropriate term for this condition?
A. Cystocele
B. Uterine prolapse
C. Pessary
D. Urethrocele |
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Definition
A. Cystocele
Cystocele is the descent of a portion of the posterior bladder wall. Urethrocele is a sagging urethra. A pessary is a removable mechanical device that holds the uterus in position. Uterine prolapse is descent of the cervix or entire uterus into the vaginal canal. |
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Term
Which of the following types of cysts contains skin, hair, and sebaceous and sweat glands?
A. Corpus luteum cyst
B. Dermoid cysts
C. Ovarian torsion
D. Follicular cyst |
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Definition
B. Dermoid Cysts
Dermoid cysts contain elements from all three germ layers. They are common ovarian neoplasms. Ovarian torsion is rare but is a gynecologic emergency. These women have severe abdominal pain. A corpus luteum cyst occurs because of a hormonal imbalance including low LH and progesterone levels. Follicular cysts can be caused by a transient condition in which the dominant follicle fails to rupture or one or more of the nondominant follicles fails to regress. |
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Term
Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)?
A. More common in white women
B. Most prevalent in young age
C. Decreases with menopause
D. Develops from cartilage |
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Definition
C
They develop from smooth muscle and increase from age of 30 through 50 and decrease at menopause. They are more common in black and Asian women. |
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Term
A man presents with inflammation of the glans penis. Which of the following is the correct medical term for this condition?
A. Phimosis
B. Paraphimosis
C. Priapism
D. Balanitis |
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Definition
D
Balanitis is inflammation of the glans penis. Priapism is a prolonged erection. Phimosis is a condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted. Paraphimosis is when the foreskin is retracted and cannot be reduced |
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Term
Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding torsion of the testis?
A. Relief is obtained with elevation of the scrotum.
B. A high-riding testis may be noted.
C. It is a benign condition.
D. It is most common in middle-aged men. |
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Definition
B. A high-riding testis may be noted.
It is a condition in which the testis twists on its cord. There is decreased blood flow. It is common in neonates and boys near puberty. There is no relief with elevation of the scrotum. It is a surgical emergency, and surgery must be done within 6 hours if it cannot be untwisted with manual manipulation |
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Term
Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A. Ten percent of men will have it by age 80 years.
B. It is an uncommon condition.
C. The prostate is largest at birth and continues to shrink.
D. It may be problematic if urethral compression occurs. |
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Definition
D
BPH is a common condition. It may be a problem if there is compression of the urethra. Eighty percent of men will have it before age 80. The prostate increases in size throughout life and is the smallest at birth. |
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Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding breast cancer?
A. The older the woman at her first childbirth, the lower is her risk.
B. It is the second most common cause of cancer in women.
C. The incidence has declined since 1955.
D. The median age for breast cancer is 64. |
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Definition
| The median age is 61 for breast cancer. It has been on the rise since 1950. It is the most common cause of cancer in American women. Early childbirth lowers the risk of having breast cancer. |
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Term
Which of the following is a NOT a nonproliferative change in breast tissue?
A. Fibrocystic changes
B. Cysts
C. Florid hyperplasia
D. Calcifications in cysts |
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Definition
C.Florid hyperplasia
Florid hyperplasia is considered a proliferative breast lesion. Cysts and calcifications that are found in cysts are included in the symptoms of nonproliferative fibrocystic changes. |
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Term
A 24-year-old man has pain in his testes. He has just recovered from the mumps. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his testicular pain?
A. Orchitis
B. Prostatitis
C. Epididymitis
D. Testicular torsion |
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Definition
A.
Orchitis is inflammation of the testes often caused after an infection with mumps. Prostatitis is an inflammation of the prostate. Epididymitis is an infection of the epididymis. Testicular torsion is rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels in the spermatic cord. |
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Term
A man complains of an abnormal curvature of his penis. He states it has been getting worse since puberty and that intercourse is painful. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Peyronie disease
B. Orchitis
C. Phimosis
D. Paraphimosis |
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Definition
A.
Peyronie disease is a fibrotic condition that causes lateral curvature of the penis during erection. It develops slowly and usually affects middle-aged men. Phimosis and paraphimosis are problems with the foreskin. Orchitis is inflammation of the testes. |
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Term
A man complains of unilateral pain in his scrotum. He has a red and swollen area on his scrotum. He is sexually active, with many partners. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his pain?
A. Balanitis
B. Paraphimosis
C. Epididymitis
D. Benign prostatic hypertrophy |
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Definition
C
Pain is the main symptom of epididymitis. There may be pyuria or bacteriuria and urinary symptoms. In young men the cause may be a sexually transmitted organism. |
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Term
Which of the following is the most common cause of galactorrhea?
A. Hyperprolactinemia
B. Medications
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Pituitary tumor |
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Definition
A.
Nonpuerperal hyperprolactinemia or excessive amounts of prolactin in the blood NOT related to pregnancy is the most common cause. This may be caused by any factor that stimulates or overstimulates the pituitary gland |
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Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding hormonal factors and breast cancer?
A. Protective effects of ovary removal
B. Protective effects of late pregnancy
C. Protective effects of early menarche
D. Protective effects of late menopause |
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Definition
D.Protective effects of late menopause
Removal of the ovaries and pituitary gland offers a protective effect. This is not often done, but it has been researched. There are protective effects of early pregnancy. There is increased risk with early menarche and late menopause. |
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Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding gynecomastia in men?
A. It may begin as a palpable mass anywhere on the chest.
B. It affects less than 3% of the male population.
C. Incidence is greatest among adolescents and older men.
D. It generally indicates cancer. |
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Definition
C
It has an incidence of 32% to 40% and is most common in adolescents or men older than 40. It usually starts as a 2-cm mass in the subareolar area. |
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Term
Which of the following is NOT a complication of sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
A. Colon cancer
B. Infertility
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy |
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Definition
A.
STIs can cause pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain, neonatal morbidity and mortality, and genital cancers. |
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Term
Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding gonorrhea?
A. Dysuria is a common complaint.
B. It commonly causes stricture in men.
C. It affects the genitalia only.
D. Incubation period for urethritis is 3 to 7 weeks. |
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Definition
A
Dysuria, discharge, abnormal menses, and dyspareunia are common complaints with gonorrhea infection. It rarely causes strictures in men if treated. It can affect the eyes, mouth, and rectum as well as the genitalia. The incubation period is from 3 to 10 days. |
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Term
Which of the following is the most common complication of gonorrhea infection in women?
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Arthritis |
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Definition
B
Pelvic inflammatory disease is the most common complication of gonorrhea infection in women |
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Term
Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a systemic illness and skin lesions?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Latent |
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Definition
B
Secondary syphilis is systemic, and blood-borne bacteria spread to all major organ systems. Primary syphilis starts with a chancre and moves to regional lymph nodes. Tertiary is the most severe and affects skin, bone, CNS, and the cardiovascular system. Latent syphilis is divided into early and late stages. |
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Term
Which of the following is the appropriate definition for the skin condition in which there are hypertrophied, flat, moist, and wart-like lesions?
A. Primary syphilis
B. Buboe
C. Condyloma lata
D. Condyloma acuminata |
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Definition
C
Condyloma lata is associated with syphilis and consists of wart-like lesions that are flat, moist, and hypertrophied. Condyloma acuminatum is associated with human papillomavirus and is a soft, skin colored, whitish-pink to red-brown, discrete growth. Primary syphilis has a chancre that is a painless, ulcerated lesion. Buboe is an abscess near a lymph node, usually an inguinal node. |
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Term
Which of the following is characterized by a thin, gray malodorous discharge that adheres to the vaginal walls?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Chlamydia
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Herpes simplex |
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Definition
C
Bacterial vaginosis causes a thin, gray, malodorous discharge. Gonorrhea has purulent to mucopurulent discharge from the cervical os. Chlamydial infection may be asymptomatic. Herpes simplex infections have painful vesicles. |
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Term
Which of the following is most likely to cause small punctate spots on the cervix? It is often termed “strawberry cervix.”
A. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Molluscum contagiosum
D. Entamoeba histolytica |
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Definition
B
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted disease. It can cause a frothy, malodorous, yellow-green to gray-green discharge. The cervix may obtain small red spots, making it look like a strawberry. HPV is genital warts that are often soft, skin-colored discrete growths. Molluscum contagiosum is a benign viral infection; its lesions are often white or flesh colored. There may also be round or oval dome-shaped papules. Entamoeba histolytica infection is associated with amoebic dysentery. |
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Term
Which term is characteristic for a bone fracture of two or more pieces?
A. Complete
B. Open
C. Comminuted
D. Oblique |
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Definition
C
A comminuted fracture is one in which the bone breaks into two or more fragments. An oblique fracture is one that is slanted in relation to the shaft of the bone. An open fracture is when the skin is broken. A complete fracture is one in which the bone is broken all the way through. |
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Term
Which term is characteristic for a fracture in which one cortex is perforated and the spongy bone is splintered?
A. Torus
B. Greenstick
C. Bowing
D. Spiral |
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Definition
B
A greenstick fracture is one that perforates one cortex and splinters the spongy bone. In a torus fracture, the cortex buckles but does not break. Bowing fractures usually occur with longitudinal force; typically, this occurs in paired bones. One is fractured and the other bows. A spiral fracture is one that encircles the bone. |
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Term
A woman is brought to the hospital after a motor vehicle accident. She has a temporary displacement of a bone from its normal position. Which of the following terms is appropriate to describe her injury?
A. Fracture
B. Dislocation
C. Subluxation
D. Nonunion |
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Definition
B
This injury is describing a dislocation. The woman has temporary displacement of a bone from its normal position. If the contact is only partially lost between the two surfaces, it is called a subluxation. A fracture is a complete break in the bone, and nonunion is the failure of bone ends to grow together after a fracture. |
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Term
A man is brought to the hospital after twisting his ankle while running the bases in a baseball game. On examination, it appears that the ligaments have sustained tears. Which of the following is the best term to describe this injury?
A. Strain
B. Sprain
C. Avulsion
D. Fracture |
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Definition
B
Sprains involve tears of the ligaments; strains are tears in tendons. An avulsion is a complete separation of a tendon from its bony attachment site. A fracture is a complete break in the bone. |
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Term
What is the appropriate term for a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints?
A. Gout
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Osteoarthritis |
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Definition
B
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic, inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints. Osteoarthritis is a common age-related disorder of synovial joints. Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic inflammatory autoimmune disease associated with swelling and pain in multiple joints. Gout is a syndrome caused by an inflammatory response to uric acid production. |
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Term
The cause of dysmenorrhea us involves
a. Excessive endometrial prostaglandin production
b. Failure of ovarian follicle maturation
c. Decreased myometrial ctx
d. Purulent material drain from the uterine tube |
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Definition
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Term
Secondary amenorrhea is
a. Failure to begin menustration by age 20
b. Menarche failure
c. Increased myometrial vasculature constriction
d. The absence of menstruation following menarche |
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Definition
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Term
3.What is the likely pathophysiology of PMS?
a. Elevated prolactive levels cause salt and water retention
b. Elevated aldosteron levels cause salt and water retention
c. An abnormal nervous, immunologic, vascular, and gastrointestinal response to the menstrual cycle is causative
d. A and b |
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Definition
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Term
A yeast vaginitis may be caused by
a.An overgrowth of candida albicans
b.A declining number of lactobacilli
c.Chronic use of antibiotics
d.A, b, and c
e.None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
. Depressed T-cell fx is associated with
a. follicular cyst
b. endometrial polyps
c. leiomyomas
d. adenomyosis
e. endometriosis |
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Definition
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Term
It is possible that repeated pregnancies causes
a. ovarian cysts
b. endometriosis
c. leiomyomas
d. adenomyosis
e. polyps |
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Definition
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Term
Female breast CA patho involves
a. BRAC 1 and BRAC 2 mutations
b. reactive oxygen species
c. endogenous and exogenous estrogens and their receptors
d. Her-2/new gene mutations
e. all of above are correct |
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Definition
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Term
Cryptochidism is
a. underdevelopment of the testes
b. the absence of scrotal tissue
c. relieved by scrotal support
d. failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum
e. an imbalance between the secreting and absorptive capacities of scrotal tissues |
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Definition
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Term
The infectious cause of orchitis is
a. strept
b. gonocci
c. chlamydial organisms
d. mumps virus |
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Definition
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Term
. Which of the following organism can cause epididymitis?
a. enterobacreriacae
b. neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. all of the above
e. none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
. In benign prostatic hyperplasia, enlargement of periurethral tissue of th eprostae causes
a. obstruction of the urethra
b. inflammation of the testis
c. ecreased urinary outflow from the bladder
d. abnormal dilation of a vein within the spermatic cord
e. tension of the spermatic cord and testis |
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Definition
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Term
. A s/s of late stage prostatic cancer is
a. slow urinary stream
b. frequency of urination
c. incomplete empyting of the bladder
d. mental confusion
e. a, b, and c are correct |
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Definition
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Term
. Which of the following is true about PID?
a. primarily affects males
b. caused by a virus
c. never causes peritonitis
d. involves the epididymis
e. may cause infertility or tubular pregnancy |
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Definition
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Term
Female breast disorders exhibiting proliferative lesions with atypia have
a. no added risk for cancer
b. similar risk for fibrocystic disease
c. slightly increased risk for CA development
d. increased risk for CA development |
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Definition
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Term
. Breast CA
a. exhibits fluctuating lesions size
b. pain increases as menustation approaches
c. eshibits painless lumps
d. at age 50, affects 1 in 200 females |
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Definition
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Term
After metastasis, female breast CA manifest as
a. nipple puckering
b. bone pain
c. nipple discharge
d. skin refraction over the lesion
e. a, c, and d are correct |
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Definition
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Term
| 6 . gonococcal infectious transferr to the nbn results in |
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Definition
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Term
| 7. the organism that cuases syphilis can be identified by |
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Definition
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Term
| 9. a clinical manifestation associated with HSV-2 infection is |
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Definition
| painful blister like lesions |
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Term
| 10. Treponema pallidum spirochetes infect fetuses by crossing the |
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Definition
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Term
| 11. chlamydial infections in women may result in |
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Definition
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Term
| 13. the risk of developing gonorrhea with an infected male partner is _____ for females and with an infected female partner is 20-30% for males |
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Definition
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Term
| 14. women who have gonorrhea are frequently |
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Definition
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Term
| 15. the secondary stage of syphisl is characterized by a |
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Definition
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Term
| 16_____ is an ______bacteria not cultured instardard bacterial medium |
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Definition
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Term
| 23. A complication of chlamydial infection in men is _________ |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
21. HPV may lead to __________ or
_______cancer |
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Definition
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Term
| 22. A ____ can detect gonorrhea and is helpful since anaerobic incubation is not required. |
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Definition
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Term
Tendinosis is
a. Painful b/c of degradation of collagen fibers caused by repetive stress on tendons
b. Painful b/c of inflammation of tendons
c. A torn tendon
d. A complete speration of a tendon
e. inflammation of a tendon where it attaches to a bone |
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Definition
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Term
In an oblique fracture, the energy or force is
a. Twisting with the distal part unable to move
b. Compressive and at an angel
c. Directly to an already weakened bone
d. Directly to the distal fragment |
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Definition
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Term
Which is a definite sign of a fracture?
a. Abrasion
b. Shock
c. Muscle spasm
d. Unnatural alignment
e. All of the the above |
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Definition
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Term
The most common cause of osteomyelitis
a. Heatogenous spread of infection
b. Rheumatoid disease
c. Direct contamination of an open wound
d. Calicium deficiency
e. Vit D deficiency |
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Definition
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Term
Osetoporosis causes
a. Loss of bone matrix
b. Inadequate mineralization
c. Radiolucency
d. All of the above
e. B and C are correct |
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Definition
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Term
Osteoporosis pathogenesis involves
a. Nonmineralized osteoid tissue
b. Excessive resorption of spongy bone
c. Marrow and cortical inflammation
d. Alteration in the OPG/RANKL/RANK system |
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Definition
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Term
Rheumatoid arthritis begins with
a. Inflammartory destruction of the synovial membrane
b. Inflammation of ligaments
c. Destruction of the articlar cartilage
d. Softening of the articular cartivlage
e. Destruction of the joint capsule |
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Definition
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Term
In gout
a. The pathogenesis is formation of monosodium urate crystals in the joints and tissues
b. Metatrsophalangeal joints are usu involved
c. Affected individuals likely have an inhereited enzyme defect
d. The hyperuricemia can be the result of acquired chronic disease or durg
e. All are correct |
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Definition
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Term
Which contributes to osteoarthritis?
a. Collagenases
b. Rheumatoid factor
c. Circulationed immune compleses
d. Infections |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is not true of ankylosing spondylitis?
a. It’s a systemic immune inflammatory disease
b. Its characterized by stiffening or fusion of the spine
c. Causes instability of synival joints
d. Begins with inflammation of fibrocartilage
e. Manifested early by low back pain and stiffness |
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Definition
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Term
Fibromyalgia
a. Exhibits systemic inflammation
b. Characterized by increased sensitivity to touch
c. Manifest acute pain
d. Fatigue is most notable in the late evening |
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Definition
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