Term
| What is the maximum rate of fire for a M252 81mm mortar tube for the first 2 minutes? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the maximum range a M119 105MM howitzer can fire without RAP according to the Division Fire Support Handbook? |
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Definition
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Term
| Explain the major difference between the manual adjustment and center grid BCS adjust method of Final Protective fire adjustment? |
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Definition
• Manual—each piece is adjusted to a specific point along the FPF line
• BCS—only the base piece is adjusted |
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Term
| List the 4 restrictive FSCM’s? |
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Definition
• No Fire Area
• Restrictive Fire Area
• Restrictive Fire Line
• Airspace Coordination Area |
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Term
| List the 3 permissive FSCM’s? |
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Definition
• Free Fire Area
• Fire Support Coordination Line
• Coordinated Fire Line |
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Term
| Define the Coordinated Fire Line and explain which echelon usually establishes it. |
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Definition
• A line beyond which conventional surface fire support means (mortars, field artillery, naval gunfire) may fire at any time within the zone of the establishing headquarters without additional coordination.
• Established by a brigade or division but may be established by independent maneuver battalion. |
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Term
| Accurate target location is the __________of the five requirements for predicted fire’s accuracy |
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Definition
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Term
| The acronym TTLODAC applies to target execution for the observers; what does the (A) within the acronym stand for |
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Definition
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Term
| Fire from a number of weapons directed at a single point or small area. |
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Definition
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Term
| One of the requirements for accurate fire are accurate target assessment and description TRUE OR FALSE |
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Definition
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Term
| One of the requirements for accurate fire are accurate target assessment and description TRUE OR FALSE |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the dimensions of a FPF utilizing 155mm 6 guns? |
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Definition
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Term
| Full-scale digital dress rehearsals are conducted either in conjunction with combined arms/FA tactical rehearsals or completely separate. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the dimensions of a FPF utilizing 155mm 4 guns? |
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Definition
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Term
| A program may only be executed on-call without warning |
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Definition
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Term
| A critical characteristics of offensive actions is the element of surprise TRUE/ FALSE |
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Definition
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Term
| A group target consist of _________ which require ____________ |
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Definition
2 or more TGTs
simultaneously |
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Term
| An effective fire support rehearsal agenda should include the BCT targeting NCO as an attendee TRUE/ FALSE |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the dimensions of a FPF utilizing 155mm 8 guns? |
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Definition
| 400 meters width, 50 meters depth |
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Term
| _________ are designed to facilitate rapid engagements of targets and at the same time provide safeguard for friendly forces. |
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Definition
| Fires support coordination measures |
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Term
| ______ is a line between two converging forces. No fires (direct or indirect) or their effects across the line are allowed without coordination with the effected force. Normally this line is established by identifiable terrain by the commander. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the three permissive fire support coordination measures? |
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Definition
| Coordinated fire line, fire support coordination line, free fire area |
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Term
| What color are fire support coordination measures drawn on a friendly fire support overlay? |
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Definition
| Black and lettered in black |
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Term
| Under this fire support control option the forward observer is assigned a particular fire support asset from which he may request fire support. The forward observer transmits calls for fire on the assigned unit's net. If the forward observer thinks his target requires a different fire support asset, he must request permission from the FIST to change assets. |
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Definition
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Term
| Under this fire support control option the forward observer is assigned a particular fire support asset from which he may request fire support. The forward observer transmits calls for fire on the assigned unit's net. If the forward observer thinks his target requires a different fire support asset, he must request permission from the FIST to change assets. |
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Definition
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Term
| Excalibur delivers a high explosive warhead out to ranges between _____ and _____ kilometers with a circular error probable (CEP) of less than _____ meters. |
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Definition
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Term
| Which fire support vehicle deployment option maximizes assets available to the battalion or brigade commander and best allows the maneuver commander to weight the main effort? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the nomenclature for the Excalibur munition? And does it require laser designation? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the M327 and what are its ammunition variants? |
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Definition
| 120mm (EFSS) rifled and smoothbore ammunition |
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Term
| ______ is an area with specific restrictions and in which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing headquarters. |
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Definition
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Term
| Which ACA is considered to be three dimensional? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which fire support vehicle deployment option allows the FSO to conduct required fire support coordination and maintain contact with the commander's vehicle for face to face coordination when needed? |
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Definition
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Term
| GMLRS provides consistent improved accuracy from a ____kilometer minimum range to a maximum range of _____kilometers. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| What is the nomenclature for a 105mm howitzer? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| What is the maximum rate of fire, in rounds per minute, for the first 4 minutes for the M224 60mm mortar? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the maximum range of a 60mm mortar in the hand-held mode? |
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Definition
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Term
| Define angle T and explain the actions taken by an observer if it is 500 mils or greater. |
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Definition
• Angle T is the intersection of the gun-target line and the observer-target line with the vertex formed at the target
• The observer should consider cutting his corrections |
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Term
| If the observer wishes to 1) Make a range correction, 2) Change the method of fire, 3) Include danger close, & 4) Send OT direction, what order would he transmit his correction IAW the sequence of subsequent corrections? |
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Definition
• OT direction
• Danger close
• Method of fire
• Range correction |
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Term
| The FSEM for a company may be as simple as a hand-drawn matrix listing the platoons, phase lines, and minimal necessary information TRUE OR FALSE? |
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Definition
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Term
| A planned target on which fire is to be delivered at a specific time |
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Definition
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Term
| A planned target other than a scheduled target on which fire is to be delivered when requested. |
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Definition
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Term
| There are two targeting categories - __________ targeting and ______ targeting. |
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Definition
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Term
| A ________________is a joint force commander validated target or set of targets requiring immediate response because it is a highly lucrative, fleeting target of opportunity or it poses (or will soon pose) a danger to friendly forces (JP 3-60). |
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Definition
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Term
| Munitions effects are affected by the environment and terrain. _________ _________ __ ___ _____________ helps determine where and what munitions are most effective. |
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Definition
| Intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB) |
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Term
| Mortars are ideal for targets on reverse slopes and over intermediate crests because of their high-angle fires. TRUE/FALSE |
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Definition
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Term
| ______________is an area, usually a friendly unit or location which the maneuver commander designates as critical to the protection of an asset whose loss would seriously jeopardize the mission (ADRP 1-02). |
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Definition
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Term
| ____________is a radar search area from which the commander wants to attack hostile firing systems. A call for fire zone would be placed around an enemy fire support position identified as a high-payoff target. The call for fire zone provides the second most responsive priority for fires from the radars. |
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Definition
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Term
| ______________is a three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area, established by the appropriate ground commander, in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires. The airspace coordination area may be formal or informal (JP 3-09.3). |
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Definition
| Airspace Coordination Area |
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Term
| The Army term ___________is the geographical area or point along a mobility corridor where successful interdiction will cause the enemy to abandon a particular course of action or require the enemy to use specialized engineer support to continue. It is where the enemy force can be acquired and engaged by friendly forces (ADRP 1-02). |
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Definition
| Targeted Area of Interest |
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Term
| This annex describes the fires concept of support objectives. A complex fires concept of support may require a schematic to show the fires objectives and task relationships. It includes a discussion of the overall fires concept of support with the specific details in element subparagraphs and attachments. It refers to the execution matrix to clarify timing relationships among various fires tasks. This annex also contains the information needed to synchronize timing relationships of each element related to fires. It includes fires-related constraints, if appropriate |
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Definition
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Term
| ______________ is the process by which the supported commander ensures that fires or their effects will have no unintended consequences on friendly units or the scheme of maneuver (FM 3-09). |
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Definition
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Term
| Who is responsible for the Clearance of Fires? |
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Definition
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Term
| _________________is a guided weapon intended to destroy a point target and minimizecollateral damage (JP 3-03). |
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Definition
| Precision Guided Munitions |
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Term
| Target location error is the difference between the _____________for a target and the _______________of the target. Target location error is expressed primarily in terms __________________or infrequently, as spherical error (JP 3-09.3) |
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Definition
| COORDINATES GENERATED / ACTUAL LOCATION / CIRCULAR AND VERTICAL ERRORS |
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