Term
|
Definition
| Km is the concentration of a substrate at which an enzyme has 1/2V(max); the Km reflects the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate |
|
|
Term
| Vmax is directly proportional to the concentration of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to the Km as you increase affinity of an enzyme for its substrate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a graph plotting 1/v versus 1/[s], what values are the y and x intercept? |
|
Definition
| x intercept is 1/-km; y intercept is 1/vmax |
|
|
Term
| What is the slope of a graph where 1/v is plotted against 1/[s]? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to the volume of distribution of a drug that binds plasma proteins if you decrease the protein binding? |
|
Definition
| increases the volume of distribution |
|
|
Term
| How do you calculate the volume of distribution if you know the plasma drug concentration? |
|
Definition
| amount of drug in teh body/plasma drug concentration |
|
|
Term
| What is the volume of distribution of drugs that are large or charged molecules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the volume of distribution of small hydrophilic molecues that do not bind plasma proteins? |
|
Definition
| medium Vd; distribute in extracellular space or body water |
|
|
Term
| What is the volume of distribution of small lipophilic molecules that bvind strongly to extravascular proteins? |
|
Definition
| high Vd (distributes into all tissues) |
|
|
Term
| How can you calculate the clearance of a drug? |
|
Definition
| rate of elimination of a drug/plasma drug concentration = Vd X Ke (elimination constant) |
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for a drug infused at a constant rate to reach steady state? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What order of elimination has half lives? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you calculate the half life of a drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the "bioavailibility" of a drug? |
|
Definition
| the fraction of administered drug that reaches circulation |
|
|
Term
| How do you calculate a loading dose? |
|
Definition
| target plasma concentration X Volume of distribution / bioavailability |
|
|
Term
| How do you calculate the maintenence dose of a drug? |
|
Definition
| target plasma concentration X clearance / bioavailability |
|
|
Term
| What is the term for a rate of elimination that is constant regardless of the plasma concentration of the drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name some examples of drugs that are eliminated with zero order kinetics? |
|
Definition
| ethanol, aspirin, phenytoin |
|
|
Term
| What kind of drugs overdoses can you treat with bicarbonate? |
|
Definition
| weak acids because they will be trapped in the basic urine; examples are phenobarbital, methotrexate, aspirin |
|
|
Term
| You can theoretically treat what overdose with ammonium chloride IV? |
|
Definition
| weak bases because they will be trapped in an acidic environment; example is amphetamine |
|
|
Term
| Describe phase I versus phase II metabolism. |
|
Definition
| phase I (reduction, oxidation, hydrolysis) via CYPs, phase II is conjugation (glucuronidation, acetylation, sulfation) |
|
|
Term
| As patients age the loose the ability to metabolize drugs via... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between two drugs that have the same efficacy but different potency? |
|
Definition
| the drug with lower potency has a decreased affinity to the receptor |
|
|
Term
| What kinds of drugs are known for their high efficacy? |
|
Definition
| analgesics, antibiotics, antihistamines, and decongestants |
|
|
Term
| What kinds of drugs are known for their high potency? |
|
Definition
| chemotherapeutic drugs, antihypertensive drugs, and antilipid drugs |
|
|
Term
| Is phenoxybenzamine a competetive or noncompetative inhibitor of epinephrine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is flumazenil a competetive or noncompetetive inhibitor on GABA receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the therapeutic index? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Botulism toxin prevents the release of neurotransmitter from which nerves? |
|
Definition
| ALL cholinergic terminals |
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor are nicotinic ACh receptors? |
|
Definition
| ligand-gated Na/K channels |
|
|
Term
| Nicotinic recor subtype N is found where in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where in the body is nicotinic receptor subtype M found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor are muscarinic ACh receptors? |
|
Definition
| G protein coupled receptors |
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor is an alpha 1 receptor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor is an alpha 2 receptor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major functions of alpha 1? |
|
Definition
| increase vascular smooth muscle contraction, increase pupillary dilator muscle contraction (mydriasis), increase intestinal and bladder and sphincter muscle contraction |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of alpha 2 receptors? |
|
Definition
| decreased sympathetic outflow and decrease insulin release |
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor are beta 1s? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of receptors are beta 2s? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major functions of beta 2 receptors? |
|
Definition
| vasodilation, bronchodilation, increased heart rate, increased contractility, increased lipolysis, increased insulin release, decreased uterine tone |
|
|
Term
| What are the major functions of beta 1 receptors? |
|
Definition
| increased heart rate, increased contractility, increased renin release, increased lipolysis |
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor are M1 (muscarine type 1) receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major functions of M1 receptors? |
|
Definition
| CNS, enteric nervrous system |
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor are M2 receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of receptors are M3 receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major functions of M2 receptors? |
|
Definition
| decrease heart rate and contractility of atria |
|
|
Term
| What e the major functions of M3? |
|
Definition
| increased exocrine gland secretions (e.g. sweat, gastric acid), increased gut peristalsis, increased bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, increased pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (miosis), ciliary muscle contraction (accommodation) |
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor are D1 receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major functions of D1 receptors? |
|
Definition
| relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor are D2 receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major functions of D2 receptors? |
|
Definition
| modulates transmitter release, especially in brain |
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor are H1 receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of receptors are H2 receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major functions of H1 receptors? |
|
Definition
| increase nasal and bronchial mucus production, contraction of bronchioles, pruritus, and pain |
|
|
Term
| What are the major functions of H2 receptors? |
|
Definition
| increase gastric acid secretion |
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor are V1 (vasopressin subtype 1) receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of receptors are V2 receptors (vasopressin type 2 receptors)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major functions of V1 receptors? |
|
Definition
| increase vascular smooth muscle contraction |
|
|
Term
| What are the major functions of V2 receptors? |
|
Definition
| increase H2O permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney |
|
|
Term
| What is the downstream pathway of Gq receptors? |
|
Definition
| phospholipase C -> PIP2 -> DAG or IP3; DAG-> protein kinase C; IP3 -> increase Ca |
|
|
Term
| What is the downstream signaling pathway for Gs receptors? |
|
Definition
| adenylyl cyclase -> cAMP -> protein kinase A |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of protein kinase A in muscle? |
|
Definition
| increases calcium in the heart; phophorylates myosin light chain kinase in smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
| What drug blocks the reuptake of choline into the nerve terminal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs block the reuptake of ACh into vesicles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is ACh broken down into in the nerve terminal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of the drug metyrosine? |
|
Definition
| blocks the reuptake of tyrosine into the noradrenergic nerve terminal |
|
|
Term
| Where in the nerve is DA converted into NE? |
|
Definition
| inside the secretory vesicle |
|
|
Term
| What drug blocks the movement of DA into vesicles in nerves that secrete catecholamines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug blocks the release of catecholamines from nerve terminals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What receptors on a presynaptic sympathetic nerve terminal prevent the release of catecholamines? |
|
Definition
| alpha 2 autoreceptors and M2 receptors |
|
|
Term
| What receptor on the presynaptic adrenergic nerve terminal enhances the release of neurotransmitter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of bethanechol? |
|
Definition
| postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention |
|
|
Term
| Name cholinomimetic agents that are resistant to AChE. |
|
Definition
| bethanechol and pilocarpine |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical applications of carbachol? |
|
Definition
| cholinomimetic agent that is used in glaucoma, pupillary contraction, and relief of intraocular pressure |
|
|
Term
| What is methacholine used for? |
|
Definition
| (cholinomimetic agent) used in a challenge test for diagnosis of asthma by stimulating muscarinic receptors in airway when inhaled |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of neostigmine? |
|
Definition
| post operative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of neuromuscular junction blockade |
|
|
Term
| What is the clnical use of pyridostigmine? |
|
Definition
| myasthenia gravis (does not penetrate CNS) |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of edrophonium? |
|
Definition
| diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (extremely short acting anticholinesterase) |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of physostigmine? |
|
Definition
| glaucoma (crosses the blood-brain barrier into the CNS) and atropine overdose |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical application of echothiophate? |
|
Definition
| anticholinesterase used in the treatment of glaucoma |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of donepezil? |
|
Definition
| anticholinesterase used in the treatment of alzheimer's disease |
|
|
Term
| Cholinomimetics can exacerbate many common diseases such as... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Organophosphate poisoning can have muscle fasciculations as a symptom. |
|
Definition
| true; because organophosphates inhibit the breakdown of ACh, it will cause increased ACh at the neuromuscular junction resulting in fasciculations |
|
|
Term
| What is the antidote to organophosphate poisoning? |
|
Definition
| atropine + pralidoxime (which regenerates active AchE, because organoposphates irreversibly inhibited the AchE that was present) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| muscarinic antagonist used to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| muscarinic antagonist that is used to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia |
|
|
Term
| What is benztropine used for? |
|
Definition
| muscarinic antagonist used in the treatment of parkinsons |
|
|
Term
| What is scopolamine used for? |
|
Definition
| muscarinic antagonist used in the treatment of motion sickness |
|
|
Term
| What is ipratropium used for? |
|
Definition
| muscarinic antagonist used for asthma and COPD |
|
|
Term
| What is oxybutynin used for? |
|
Definition
| reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of glycopyrrolate? |
|
Definition
| muscarinic antagonist used to reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of methscopolamine? |
|
Definition
| muscarinic antagonist used in peptic ulcer treatment |
|
|
Term
| What is the cilnical use of pirenzepine? |
|
Definition
| muscarinic antagonist used for peptic ulcer treatment |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of propantheline? |
|
Definition
| muscarinic antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of atropine? |
|
Definition
| muscarinic antagonist; used to treat bradycardia and for opthalmic applications |
|
|
Term
| What is a toxicity of atropine specifically seen in infants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a toxicity of atropine seen in the elderly? |
|
Definition
| acute angle-closure glaucoma |
|
|
Term
| What is the toxicity of atropine in men with prostatic hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical uses of epinephrine? |
|
Definition
| anaphylaxis, glaucoma (open angle), asthma, hypotension |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of isoproterenol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of dobutamine? |
|
Definition
| heart failue, cardiac stress testing, inotropic, and chronotropic |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical uses of phenylephrine? |
|
Definition
| pupillary dilation, vasoconstriction, nasal decongestion (alpha 1 and alpha 2 agonist) |
|
|
Term
| What receptors are activated with increasing doses of dopamine? |
|
Definition
| low dose= D1; medium dose= beta 1 and 2; high dose= alpha 1 and 2 |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of isoproterenol? |
|
Definition
| beta 1 mostly; little beta 2 |
|
|
Term
| T/F Epinephrine works at D1 receptors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of metaproterenol? |
|
Definition
| beta 2 (and a little beta 1) agonist; used for treatment of acute asthma |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of albuterol? |
|
Definition
| beta2 (and a little beta1) agonist for the treatment of acute asthma |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinial use of salmeterol? |
|
Definition
| beta 2 (and a little beta1) agonist; used for long term treatment of asthma |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of terbutaline? |
|
Definition
| beta 2 (and a little beta 1) agonist; used to reduce premature contractions |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical applications of ritodrine? |
|
Definition
| beta 2 agonist used to reduce premature uterine contractions |
|
|
Term
| What are teh clinical uses of amphetamine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of amphetamines vs cocaine? |
|
Definition
| amphetamines cause the release of stored catecholamines; cocaine inhibits uptake |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of alpha-methyldopa? |
|
Definition
| centrally acting alpha2 agonist; decreased central adrenergic outflow which treats hypertension (especially with renal disease because no decreased blood flow to the kidneys) |
|
|
Term
| What is phenoxybenzamine used for? |
|
Definition
| pheochromocytoma (use phenoxybenzamine before removing tumor, since high levels of released catecholamines will not be able to overcome blockage) |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical application of phentolamine? |
|
Definition
| give to patients on MAOIs who eat tyramine-containing foods (reversible alpha blocker) |
|
|
Term
| What is prazosin, terazosin and doxazosin used for? |
|
Definition
| ALPHA 1 selective antagonists; used for hypertension, urinary retention in BPH |
|
|
Term
| What is the toxicity of alpha 1 selective blockers? |
|
Definition
| first dose orthostatic hypotension dizziness, headache |
|
|
Term
| Name a drug that blocks alpha 2 receptors and is used for treating depression? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the toxicity of mirtazapine? |
|
Definition
| sedation, increased serum cholesterol, increased appetite |
|
|
Term
| How do beta blockers help treat supraventricular tachycardia? |
|
Definition
| decreased AC conduction (class II antiarrythmic) |
|
|
Term
| You should use beta blockers with caution in patients with what diseases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do beta blockers help treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
| decreased secretion of aqueous humor |
|
|
Term
| Which beta blockers are selective for beta 1? |
|
Definition
| acebutolol (partial agonist), betaxolol, esmolol (short acting), atenolol, metoprolol |
|
|
Term
| Name some beta blockers that are partial beta agonists? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity? |
|
Definition
| N-acetylcysteine (replenishes glutathione) |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for salicylate toxicity? |
|
Definition
| NaHCO3 (alkylininze urine), dialize |
|
|
Term
| What is the antidote for amphetamine toxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the antidote for acetylcholinesterase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the antidote for antimuscarinic toxins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the antidote to beta blocker overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the antidote to digtalis toxicity? |
|
Definition
| stop digoxin, normalize K+, lidocaine, anti-digoxin Fab fragments, Mg2+ |
|
|
Term
| What is the antidote to iron toxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for lead toxicity? |
|
Definition
| CaEDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of dimercaprol (BAL)? |
|
Definition
| treats overdose of mercury, arsenic, or gold |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of sucimer? |
|
Definition
| overdose of mercury, arsenic, or gold |
|
|
Term
| How can you treat a copper overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ow can you treat an arsenic overdose? |
|
Definition
| dimercaprol, succimer, or penicillamine |
|
|
Term
| How can you treat a cold overdose? |
|
Definition
| dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat a mercury overdose? |
|
Definition
| dimercaprol (BAL), succimer |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat a gold overdose? |
|
Definition
| dimercaprol (BAL), succimer, penicillamine |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for cyanide toxicity? |
|
Definition
| nitrite, hydroxocobalamin, thiosulfate |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment of methemoglobin? |
|
Definition
| methylene blue and vitamin C |
|
|
Term
| What treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the trment for methaol overdose? |
|
Definition
| fomepizole >ethanol, dialysis |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for ethylene glycol (antifreeze) toxicity? |
|
Definition
| fomepizole > ethanol, dialysis |
|
|
Term
| What is the antidote to opioid overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat benzodiazepine overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat TCA overdose? |
|
Definition
| NaHCO3 (plasma alkalinization) |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat heparin overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat warfarin overdose? |
|
Definition
| vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat tPA, streptokinase, or urokinase overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat theophylline overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause a coronary vasospasm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs can cause cutaneous flushing? |
|
Definition
| vancomycin, adenosine, niacin, Ca2+ channel blockers |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause a dilated cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
| doxorubicin (adriamycin), daunorubicin |
|
|
Term
| What drugs cause torsades de pointes? |
|
Definition
| class III (sotalol) and IA (qunidine) antiarrhythmics |
|
|
Term
| What drugs cause agranulocytosis? |
|
Definition
| clozaine, carbamazepine, colchizine, propylthiouracil, methimazole, dapsone |
|
|
Term
| What drugs cause aplastic anemia? |
|
Definition
| chloramphenicol, benzene, NSAIDs, propylthiouracil, methimazole |
|
|
Term
| What drug can cause a direct coombs-positive hemolytic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug causes gray baby syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs cause hemolysis in G6PD deficient patients? |
|
Definition
| isoniacid, sulfonamides, primaquine, aspirin, ibuprofen, nitrofurantoin |
|
|
Term
| What drugs cause megaloblastic anemia? |
|
Definition
| phenytoin, methotrexate, sulfa drugs |
|
|
Term
| T/F Angiotensin receptor blockers can cause cough. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name some drugs that cause pulmonary fibrosis. |
|
Definition
| bleomycin, amiodarone, busulfan |
|
|
Term
| Name some drugs that cause acute cholestatic hepattis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name some drugs that cause focal tomassive hepatic necrosis? |
|
Definition
| halothane, acetaminophen, valproic acid, amanita phalloides |
|
|
Term
| T/F INH can cause hepatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause seudomembranous colitis? |
|
Definition
| clindamycin and ampicillin |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause gynecomastia? |
|
Definition
| spironolactone, digitalis, cimetidine, chronic alcohol use, estrogens, ketoconazole |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause hot flashes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
| lithium, amiodarone, sulfonamides |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause hot flashes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
| lithium, amiodarone, sulfonamides |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause hyperglycemia? |
|
Definition
| niacine, tacrolimus, protease inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause fat redistribution? |
|
Definition
| glucocorticoids and protease inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause gout? |
|
Definition
| furosemide, thiazides, niacin, cyclosporine, pyrazinamide |
|
|
Term
| What are drugs that can cause myopathies? |
|
Definition
| fibrates, niacin, colchicine, hydroxychlorquine, interferon alpha, penicillamine, statins, glucocorticoids |
|
|
Term
| What drug cause osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugsan cause photosensitivity? |
|
Definition
| sulfonamides, amiodarone, tetracyclines |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause rash/stevens-johnsons syndrome? |
|
Definition
| penicillin, ethosuximide, carbamazepine, sulfa drugs, lamotrigine, allopurinol, phenytoin, phenobarbital |
|
|
Term
| What drugs cause SLE-like syndrome? |
|
Definition
| hydralazine, INH, procainamide, phenytoin |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause tendonitis, tendon rupture and cartilage damage (esp in kids)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs cause diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
| lithium and demeclocycline |
|
|
Term
| Whatdrugs can cause Fanconi's syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause an interstitial nephritis? |
|
Definition
| methicillin, NSAIDs, furosemide |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause a hemorrhagic cystitis? |
|
Definition
| cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide |
|
|
Term
| What can you coadminister with cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How drugs can cause SIADH? |
|
Definition
| carbamazepine and cyclophosphamide |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause cinchonism as a side effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause parkinson-like syndromes? |
|
Definition
| antipsychotics, reserpine, metoclopramide |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause a disulfiram-like reaction? |
|
Definition
| metronidazole, certain cephalosporins, procarbazine, 1st generation sulfonylureas |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause neephrotoxicity and ototoxicity? |
|
Definition
| aminoglycosides, vancomycin, loop diuretics, cisplatin |
|
|
Term
| Name some drugs that are inducers of P-450. |
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Definition
| quinidine, barbiturates, St. John's wort, phenytoin, rifampin, griseofulvin, carbamazepine, chronic alcohol use |
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Term
| Name some drugs that are inhibitors of the CYP P450s. |
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Definition
| macrolides, amiodarone, grapefruit juice, isoniazid, cimetidine, ritonavir, acute alcohol abuse, ciprofloxacin, ketoconazole, sulfonamides |
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Term
| What are the symptoms of allergy to sulfa drugs? |
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Definition
| patients with sulfa allergies may develop fever, urinary tract infection, puritic rash, Stevens-Johnsons syndrome, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and urticaria (hives). Symptoms range from mild to life-threatening |
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Term
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Definition
| probenecid, furosemide, acetazolamide, celecoxib, thiazides, sulfonamide antibiotics, sulfasalazine, sulfonylureas |
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|
Term
| Drugs that end in -ane are... |
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Definition
| inhalational general anesthetics (like halothane) |
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|
Term
| What drugs end in -operidol? |
|
Definition
| butyrophenones (neuroleptic like haloperidol) |
|
|
Term
| What drugs end in -etine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kinds of drugs end in -terol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs end in -zosin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of drugs end in "tropin"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs end in "tidine"? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is teh MOA of cisplatin and carboplatin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of cisplatin and carboplatin? |
|
Definition
| testicular, bladder, ovary and lung carcinomas |
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|
Term
| What is the toxicity of cisplatin and carboplatin? |
|
Definition
| nephrotoxicity and acoustic nerve damage |
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|
Term
| How can you prevent the nephrotoxicity associated with cisplatin and carboplatin? |
|
Definition
| prevent nephrotoxicity with amifostine (free radical scavenger) and chloride diuresis |
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|
Term
| What is the MOA of hydroxyurea as a anticancer agent? |
|
Definition
| inhibits ribonucleotide reductase causing decreased DNA synthesis (s-phase specific) |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of hydroxyurea? |
|
Definition
| melanoma, CML, and sickle cell diseases (increases HbF) |
|
|
Term
| What are the toxicities of hydroxyurea? |
|
Definition
| bone marrow supression and GI upset |
|
|
Term
| What is the most commonly used glucocorticoid in cancer chemotherapy? |
|
Definition
| prednisone; used in CLL, hodgkin's lymphoma (part of the MOPP regimen) |
|
|
Term
| How does prednisone treat cancer? |
|
Definition
| may trigger apoptosis; may even work on non dividing cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| (selective estrogen receptor modulator)= tamoxifen and reloxifen |
|
|
Term
| T/F Both tamoxifen and raloxifene increase your risk of endometrial cancer. |
|
Definition
| false; only tamoxifen increases your risk of endometrial carcinoma because of partial agonist effects; raloxifene causes no increased risk of endometrial cancer because it is an endometrial antagonist |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of trastuzumab? |
|
Definition
| monoclonal antibody against HER-2 (erb-B2) a tyrosine kinase; helps kill breast cancer cells that overexpress HER-2, possibly through antibody-dependent cytotoxicity |
|
|
Term
| What is trastuzumab used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of imatinib? |
|
Definition
| philadelphia chromosome bcr-abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor |
|
|
Term
| What other cancer besides CML is imatinib used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an adverse side effect of imatinib? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of rituximab? |
|
Definition
| monoclonal antibody against CD20, which is found on most B-cell neoplasms |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of rituximab? |
|
Definition
| non-hodgkin's lymphoma, rheumatoid arthritis (with methotrexate) |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of propofol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Sexual interest declines as people age. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What sexual changes occur as you age? |
|
Definition
| men get lower erection/ejaculation and longer refractory period; women have vaginal shortening, thinning, and dryness |
|
|
Term
| What are the changes in sleep pattern as you age? |
|
Definition
| decreased REM and slow wave sleep; increased latency and awakenings |
|
|
Term
| Which group of people have the highest suicide rate in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between normal bereavement and pathologic greif? |
|
Definition
normal=shock, denial, guilt and somatic symptoms, can last up to 2 months, may experience illusions
pathologic= excessively intense grief; prolonged grief lasting more than two months; or greif that is delayed inhibited for denied; may experience depressive symptoms, delusions,a nd hallucinations |
|
|
Term
| How does stress cause GI symptoms? |
|
Definition
| alters the gastrocolic reflex, water absorption, and mucosal circulation |
|
|
Term
| T/F Stress has an effect on muscle tone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the different types of sexual dysfunction? |
|
Definition
| sexual desire disorders, sexual arousal disorders (erectile dysfunction), orgasmic disorders, and sexual pain disorders |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause sexual dysfunction? |
|
Definition
| antihypertensives, neuroleptics, SSRIs, ethanol |
|
|
Term
| T/F Diabetes can cause sexual dysfunction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you calculate BMI? |
|
Definition
| weight in kg/height in meters squared |
|
|
Term
| What BMI is considered underweight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During fetal development, what structure traps the inferior poles of the kidney resulting in a horseshoe kidney? |
|
Definition
| inferior mesenteric artery |
|
|
Term
| Horseshoe kidney is associated with what cytogenetic abnormality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is potter's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| bilateral renal agenesis leading oligohydramnios leading to limb deformities, pulmonary hypoplasia, and facial deformities. Caused by malformation of ureteric bud |
|
|
Term
| What are the stages of kidney embryology? |
|
Definition
| pronephros at week 4 degenerates; mesonephros functions as interim kidney for first trimester; later contributes to male genital system; metanephros is the permanent structure that appears during the fifth week of gestation |
|
|
Term
| What kidney precursor during fetal life contributes to the male genital system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the ureteric bud arise from? |
|
Definition
| derived from the caudal end of the mesonephros |
|
|
Term
| What does the ureteric bud give rise to? |
|
Definition
| ureter, pelvises, and through branching, calyces and collecting ducts |
|
|
Term
| When during fetal development should the ureteric bud be fully canalized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens when the ureteric bud interacts with the metanephric mesenchyme? |
|
Definition
| interaction induces differentiation and formation of glomerulus and renal tubules to distal convoluted tubule |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common site of obstruction in the fetus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rejection of a transplanted organ months to years after surgery is caused by what type of immunity? |
|
Definition
| class I MHC non-self is percieved by CTLs as class I MHC self presenting a non-self antigen; t cell and antibody mediated vascular damage (obliterative vascular fibrosis); fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels= irreversible |
|
|
Term
| What embryologic material is the thymus derived from? |
|
Definition
| epithelium of the third branchial pouch |
|
|
Term
| Where in the thymus do positive and negative selection occur? |
|
Definition
| corticomedullary junction |
|
|
Term
| What organ contains hassall's corpuscles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of graft versus host disease? |
|
Definition
| maculopapular rash, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly and diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| What types of transplants lead to graft versus host disease? |
|
Definition
| bone marrow and liver transplant |
|
|
Term
| T/F Graft versus host disease can be potentially beneficial in bone marrow transplant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of organ transplant rejection happens weeks after tranplantation? |
|
Definition
| acute= cell mediated due to CTLs reacting against foreign MHCs causes vasculitis of graft vessels with dense interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate |
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