Term
The difference between futures contracts and forward contracts is that _____.
|
|
Definition
futures contracts are traded on exchanges, while forward contracts are traded over the counter |
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Term
Suppose Gambler Green buys a three-month forward contract from Widower White for an ounce of gold at $415. Suppose also that the contract calls for cash settlement, and that the price of gold at expiration is $400 an ounce. Then the contract will be settled by ____.
|
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Definition
Gambler green giving Widower White $15 in cash. |
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Term
The basic idea behind the Hunt brothers’ scheme to corner the silver market and drive up the price was to ____ silver on the forward market and ____ silver on the spot market.
|
|
Definition
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Term
Which of the following situations represent uses of futures markets for hedging? |
|
Definition
A farmer sells futures contracts for wheat at $6 per bushel because he will be unable to repay his bank loan if he has to sell his upcoming wheat crop at less than $6.
An airline buys futures contracts for the amount of jet fuel it believes it will need in three months in order to lock in the price. |
|
|
Term
In futures contracts, "marking to market" means that up until the delivery date, an increase in the market price of the asset requires _____ while a decrease in the price requires _____. |
|
Definition
the seller to maintain a higher margin; the buyer to maintain a higher margin |
|
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Term
An American option differs from a European option in that an American option ____. |
|
Definition
can be exercised anytime before maturity instead of only at maturity |
|
|
Term
An investor who was sure the price of a stock was going to
rise and wanted to use options to profit from the increase could either ____.
|
|
Definition
buy a call or write a put |
|
|
Term
In Question 34, an investor who was sure the price of the stock would rise but believed the price would rise
only moderately would likely choose to ____.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Suppose two call options on a stock have the same expiration date but different exercise prices. Then the option with the higher exercise price should have ____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Suppose investors revise upward their expectation for the future market price of a stock. Then the option premium should do which of the following, given the exercise price? |
|
Definition
Increase if the option is a call.
&
Decrease if the option is a put. |
|
|
Term
Suppose that investors believe the market price of a stock has become more volatile. Then the option premium should _____. |
|
Definition
increase whether the option is a put or a call |
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Term
Big Bank can borrow at a relatively low rate in the long-term bond market because it is well known. However, it holds mostly short-term business loans. Small Bank can obtain short-term deposits at a relatively low rate from local depositors. However, it holds mostly long-term mortgages. Suppose the two banks engage in an interest rate swap to reduce their maturity mismatches. Then ____ will be the buyer of the swap. Each period, it will
owe to the other bank an amount equal to ____ times the notional amount of the swap and will be owed by the other bank an amount equal to ____ times the notional amount.
|
|
Definition
Small Bank; the agreed-upon fixed rate; Libor plus the agreed-upon spread |
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Term
Although the notional amount of an interest rate swap may be very large, the counterparty risk is generally considered to be low because _____. |
|
Definition
only the interest payments are at risk and they are netted |
|
|
Term
A "naked" credit default swap (CDS) is one in which the ____. |
|
Definition
buyer of the CDS does not own the underlying asset |
|
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Term
For CDS buyers, counterparty risk is exacerbated by the fact that _____. |
|
Definition
the underlying asset is most likely to default in bad economic times, when the CDS writer
is least able to satisfy the contract |
|
|
Term
The number of commercial banks in the U.S. has declined from almost 14,500 in 1984 to less than 6,300 today. This decline is due ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The U.S. has ____ banks per capita than most other countries, the main reason being that it has a _____. |
|
Definition
more; a long history of restricting the geographic expansion of banks |
|
|
Term
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999 repealed the _____ and created an institution called a ____ that was allowed to own commercial banks_____. |
|
Definition
Glass-Steagall Act of 1933; financial holding company; and securities firms |
|
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Term
Over the last 30 years, differences between commercial banks and savings institutions have _____ in terms of what they do and the regulations they face. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Accounting measures of the ratio of equity to assets are generally _____ for banks than nonfinancial firms and ____ for large banks than small banks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In choosing between core deposits and purchased funds as a source of funds, banks generally prefer ____ because they are _____. |
|
Definition
core deposits; both cheaper and more stable |
|
|
Term
Which of the following long-run trends have tended to put downward pressure on the profitability of the banking industry? |
|
Definition
Removal of deposit rate ceilings in the late 1970s and early 1980s.
Development of commercial paper and junk bonds.
Growth of money market mutual funds.
|
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|
Term
When a bank becomes worried that a loan may not be repaid, it ____. The effect on the bank’s accounts is to ____. |
|
Definition
increases its loan loss reserves; reduce net income and decrease total assets and total equity |
|
|
Term
To avoid registering its commercial paper with the SEC and having to meet the SEC’s documentation requirements, a firm must do which of the following?
|
|
Definition
Issue only commercial paper with maturity of 270 days or less.
Sell the commercial paper mainly to institutional rather than individual investors
Use the proceeds to finance current assets |
|
|
Term
One of the first episodes in which investors lost confidence in commercial paper was ____.
|
|
Definition
the failure of Penn Central Railroad |
|
|
Term
Originally issuers of asset-backed paper invested in ___. However, in the late 1990s they started investing in _____, which exposed them to significant _____.
|
|
Definition
short-term assets like accounts receivables; long-term assets like MBS; rollover risk |
|
|
Term
During the 2007-2009 crisis, the type of commercial paper that declined the most was ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The main buyers of commercial paper are ____. |
|
Definition
money-market mutual funds |
|
|
Term
According to Kakperczyk and Schnabl, the two main shocks to the commercial paper market in the 2007-2009 financial crisis were the ____ and the ____. |
|
Definition
increased concern about the quality of subprime MBS in summer 2007; Lehman Brothers failure |
|
|
Term
The main reason most home mortgages in the U.S. today are self-amortizing 30-year mortgages is that ____. |
|
Definition
the inability of borrowers to pay off balloon mortgages in the 1930s led the government to promote a different type of mortgage contract |
|
|
Term
With a 30-year self-amortizing mortgage, the monthly payment ____ over the life of the mortgage and the portion of the payment going toward principal repayment ____. |
|
Definition
remains constant; increases |
|
|
Term
Giving a mortgage borrower the option to prepay his mortgage is similar to giving a corporate bond issuer to ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are reasons why a mortgage borrower might choose to prepay his mortgage? |
|
Definition
Mortgage interest rates have fallen
The borrower wants to cash out some of the equity in his home.
The borrower wants to buy a bigger house |
|
|
Term
The tendency for the price of a mortgage subject to prepayment to behave like the price of a
short-term bond when interest rates fall but like the price of a long-term bond when interest rates rise is called ____.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The main purpose of the Federal Housing Agency (FHA) is to _____. |
|
Definition
enable low-income home buyers to obtain mortgages by guaranteeing the mortgages |
|
|
Term
The main purpose of Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac is to _____. |
|
Definition
promote the secondary market for mortgages by securitizing home mortgages and
guaranteeing the securities |
|
|
Term
A conventional home mortgage is one that _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A conforming home mortgage loan is one that that _____. |
|
Definition
meets the underwriting criteria used by Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac in buying mortgages |
|
|
Term
Which of the following were ways in which Ginnie Mae differed from Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac before the 2007-2009 financial crisis? |
|
Definition
It was an official part of the U.S. federal government.
It could deal only with mortgages insured by the FHA or VA.
It could not purchase mortgages and re-package them into securities |
|
|
Term
Mortgage banks engage in ______ mortgage lending, while commercial banks and savings institutions engage in _______ mortgage lending. |
|
Definition
originate-to-distribute; both originate-to-hold and originate-to-distribute |
|
|
Term
A mortgage-backed security in which the income from the underlying mortgages is divided into tranches with different timing or seniority of payments is called a _____. |
|
Definition
collateralized mortgage obligation |
|
|
Term
A mortgage-backed security in which the investor receives a pro-rated share of all the principal and interest payments on the underlying mortgages is called a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a CMO, the tranche that is first to receive payments and last to absorb defaults is considered to be the most ____ and is most likely to be rated ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The first private-label MBS consisted of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Levitin and Wachter argue that the boom in private-label MBS after 2003 occurred because _____. |
|
Definition
mortgage lenders lowered standards to prop up lending when the refinancing boom ended |
|
|
Term
One reason adjustable-rate mortgages (ARMs) became popular in the 2004-2006 mortgage boom was that _____. |
|
Definition
teaser rates on ARMs enabled low-income borrowers to afford initial mortgage payments |
|
|
Term
Levitan and Wachter claim that _____, while Foote, Gerardi, and Willen argue that ____. |
|
Definition
the surge in subprime mortgage caused the housing bubble; the housing bubble caused the surge in subprime lending |
|
|
Term
While Foote, Gerardi, and Willen disagree with Levitan and Wachter on many issues, they agree that a key factor sustaining subprime mortgage lending late in the boom was increased demand for ____ from investment banks that _____. |
|
Definition
low-rated tranches of subprime MBS; repackaged them as CDOs |
|
|
Term
Benefits of financial markets |
|
Definition
channeling funds from savers to entrepreneurs, enabling entrepreneurs to diversify, providing entrepreneurs with liquidity |
|
|
Term
Suppose that the current one-year bond rate is 5% and that the one-year bond rate is expected to be 6% a year from now and 7% two years from now. According to the expectations theory of the yield curve, the current two-year rate bond should be ___ and the current three-year bond rate should be ___, implying that the yield curve is ___.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Under normal circumstances, a bond rated CC by Standard & Poor’s should pay a ___ rate than a bond rated AAA because the CC-rated bond will have ____ default risk.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Suppose investors believe the Fed is likely to keep short-term interest rates unchanged for a long time but that there is some chance it will either raise or lower short-term rates in response to changes in the economy. In these circumstances, the risk premium theory of the yield curve would suggest that the yield curve will _____ because _____.
|
|
Definition
slope upward; the risk of capital gains or losses increases with maturity |
|
|
Term
According to the portfolio balance theory of the term structure, a policy by the Fed of buying long-term bonds and simultaneously selling short-term bonds should _____ because ______. |
|
Definition
flatten the yield curve; long-term rates will need to fall relative to short-term rates to induce investors to hold more short-term and fewer long-term bonds |
|
|
Term
According to the expectations theory of the term structure, if something happens to cause people to expect inflation to steadily increase over time, the yield curve will ____ because ______. |
|
Definition
become steeper; the higher inflation will be expected to lead to higher nominal interest rates |
|
|
Term
Suppose an investor has marginal tax rate of 25% and is considering buying a highly liquid municipal bond with zero default risk. What would the yield on the municipal bond have to be for the investor to be just indifferent between the municipal bond and a Treasury bond of the same maturity with a yield of 10%? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The yield spread between junk bonds and AAA-rated bonds usually ____ just before a recession as investors revise ____ their estimate of the junk bonds’ probability of default due to the expected weakening in the economy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bonds that are traded frequently and in heavy volume tend to be ____ liquid and thus have ____ yields than other bonds of similar maturity and default risk. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The three main credit-rating agencies earn their profits by _____. |
|
Definition
charging companies a fee for rating their bonds |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about sovereign debt is true? |
|
Definition
It is debt issued by any government agency, whether international, national, or local. |
|
|
Term
In financial markets, the term "asymmetric information" refers to situations in which ____. |
|
Definition
Firms receiving funds have more information about their future earnings and actual use of the funds than the lenders or investors supplying the funds. |
|
|
Term
Firms receiving funds have more information about their future earnings and actual use of the funds than the lenders or investors supplying the funds. |
|
Definition
The firms seeking funds know more about their condition and future prospects than the investors or lenders providing the funds.
The firms most willing to take funds are the ones that investors or lenders would least like to provide with funds if they knew the firms’ true condition and prospects. |
|
|
Term
The "lemons problem" is an example of _____. |
|
Definition
adverse selection in the used car market |
|
|
Term
The tendency for people to take fewer steps to prevent fires when they have fire insurance on their homes is an example of _____. |
|
Definition
moral hazard in the insurance market |
|
|
Term
According to the theory of asymmetric information, debt will tend to be a better way for firms to raise funds than equity if _____. |
|
Definition
firms are sure to have enough income to repay their debt but managers cannot be prevented from diverting funds to their own uses |
|
|
Term
In debt markets, the fundamental conflict of interest between lenders and borrowers is that when default is possible, ______ the expected income of the project will generally benefit the _____ at the expense of the _____. |
|
Definition
an increase in risk that does not change; borrower; lender |
|
|
Term
In most basic terms, adverse selection in equity markets is the idea that firms with ____ stocks have more to gain by issuing those stocks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Adverse selection is most likely to arise in equity markets when firms differ in the ____ of their investment projects and in debt markets when firms differ in the ____ of their investment projects. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Two examples of financial institutions that alleviate adverse selection by gathering information about the underlying value of securities are ______. |
|
Definition
investment banks and credit-rating agencies |
|
|
Term
Credit rationing is said to occur whenever _____. |
|
Definition
some borrowers fail to receive credit even though they are willing to pay higher rates than borrowers of similar characteristics who do receive credit |
|
|
Term
Disequilibrium credit rationing is rationing caused by ____, while equilibrium credit rationing is rationing caused by ____. |
|
Definition
loan rate ceilings; adverse selection or moral hazard |
|
|
Term
The main reason tighter monetary policy can lead to increased credit rationing is that _____. |
|
Definition
moral hazard and adverse selection can make it impossible for banks to increase
expected loan returns by raising loan rates |
|
|
Term
Loan covenants are a way for lenders to address _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Careful screening of loan applicants is a way for banks to address ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Long-term customer relationships help banks reduce adverse selection in which of the following ways? |
|
Definition
Reduce the free-rider problem by allowing the bank to reap most of the benefit of the information it collects.
Allow the bank to gather more information about its loan customer than if they stayed with the bank only a short time. |
|
|
Term
Collateral requirements are a way for banks to address which of the following problems? |
|
Definition
Adverse selection
Moral hazard |
|
|
Term
The ____ strengthened requirements that corporations disclose accurate information about their financial condition to investors. It was enacted largely in response to ____. |
|
Definition
Sarbanes-Oxley Act; the accounting scandals in the tech boom |
|
|
Term
In screening borrowers, small banks are considered to have an advantage over large banks in evaluating ___ but a disadvantage in evaluating ____. |
|
Definition
the character of local borrowers and local economic conditions; the financial capacity of large, complex borrowers and national economic conditions |
|
|
Term
Takeover firms and venture capital (VC) firms are alike in that they both ____ but differ in that ____. |
|
Definition
own shares in privately held companies; takeover firms buy established companies while VC firms invest in start-up companies |
|
|
Term
According to the Modigliani-Miller theorem, ____ is _____ as a way for firms to finance investment. |
|
Definition
issuing equity; neither better nor worse than issuing debt |
|
|
Term
Reasons why firms might not be indifferent between debt and equity as sources of funds include which of the following? |
|
Definition
I. Corporate profits are taxed and interest expense is tax-deductible
II. A firm’s assets may have to be liquidated at a big loss if it declares bankruptcy.
III. Adverse selection may arise in the market for equity if investors are unable to distinguish between productive and unproductive firms
IV. Adverse selection may arise in the market for debt if default is possible and investors are unable to distinguish between safe and risky firms |
|
|
Term
Consider a firm with the following characteristics:
Market value of debt = $1 million
Market value of equity = $3 million
Expected rate of return required by investors on firm’s equity = 16%
Expected rate of return required by investors on firm’s debt = 8%
If there were no taxes on corporate profits, the firm’s weighted average cost of capital would be _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Suppose capital markets are frictionless as assumed in the Modigliani-Miller theorem. Then an increase in a firm’s debt- equity ratio will ____ the expected rate of return required by investors on the firm’s equity and ____ the firm’s weighted average cost of capital. |
|
Definition
increase; have no effect on |
|
|
Term
Studies of financing patterns in developed countries show that firms rely much more heavily on ____ sources of funds than ____ sources of funds to finance investment, a phenomenon that can be explained by ____. |
|
Definition
internal; external; information asymmetries in financial markets |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the most common method used by investment banks in helping firms go public? |
|
Definition
"firm commitment" contracts in which the investment bank guarantees both a price and quantity of stock |
|
|
Term
Firms that have high growth prospects and owners whose wealth is heavily invested in the firm are more likely to ____ because ______. |
|
Definition
go public; they need access to funds and a way for owners to diversify |
|
|
Term
From the point of view of investors, the most important feature of TIPS is that they |
|
Definition
guarantee a real rate of return over the life of the security |
|
|
Term
Federal agency securities have always had a ____ yield than corporate bonds of the same maturity because investors have viewed them ____. |
|
Definition
lower; as enjoying an implicit government guarantee |
|
|
Term
TIPS are most likely to reduce the Treasury’s real interest expense if |
|
Definition
the illiquidity premium on TIPS is low relative to the inflation risk premium on nominal bonds |
|
|
Term
In securities markets, the "bid-ask" spread is _____. |
|
Definition
the difference between the price at which a dealer is willing to buy a security and the price at which he is willing to sell it |
|
|
Term
Electronic communication networks are ____ that _____. |
|
Definition
over-the-counter markets for trading stocks; do not require either brokers or dealers |
|
|
Term
In the late 1990s, the main reason the Treasury switched from a multiple-price system for auctioning securities to a single-price system was that it believed |
|
Definition
investors would bid more aggressively for securities in the single-price system, lowering the Treasury’s interest expense |
|
|
Term
In the current method of auctioning Treasury securities, the main difference between competitive bidders and non-competitive bidders is that |
|
Definition
non-competitive bidders submit only a desired quantity and not a desired yield, while competitive bidders submit both a desired quantity and a desired yield |
|
|
Term
The spread between off-the-run Treasuries and on-the-run Treasuries of similar maturity tends to ___ in periods of financial stress because off-the-run securities ____. |
|
Definition
increase; are less liquid |
|
|
Term
In a repurchase transaction or "repo", a Treasury dealer ____ a counterparty and agrees to ____ the next day. Such a transaction can be viewed as ____ with the security serving as collateral. |
|
Definition
sells a security to; buy the security back at a higher price; borrowing funds overnight |
|
|
Term
Derivatives can best be defined as financial instruments that are _____. |
|
Definition
tied to the prices of other assets |
|
|
Term
Consider a one-year zero-coupon bond with a face value of $1,000. The bond has a probability 0.9 of paying off in full and a probability 0.1 of paying nothing. The risk-free rate is 5%, the expected return on the market portfolio is 20%, and the beta of the bond is 0.5. The market price of the bond will be ___ and the promised interest rate on the bond will be ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Suppose a lender knows that a firm seeking a $100 loan can choose between two projects: a safe project that is certain to yield $150, or a risky project that has a 2/3 chance of yielding $225 and a 1/3 chance of yielding nothing. The lender requires an expected return of 20% on the loan. If the lender cannot observe which project the firm chooses, it will charge the firm an interest rate of ___. In this case, the firm will choose the ___ project and this choice will be ____ because the expected income of the risky project is ____ the expected income of the safe project. |
|
Definition
80%; risky; efficient; the same as |
|
|
Term
Suppose in the previous question that the risky project yields only $210 if it succeeds. Assuming as before that the lender cannot observe which project the firm chooses, it will charge the firm an interest rate of ___. In this case, the firm will choose the ___ project and this choice will be ____ because the expected income of the risky project is ____ the expected income of the safe project. |
|
Definition
80%; risky; inefficient; lower than |
|
|
Term
In Question 32, what would the firm’s weighted-average cost of capital be if the tax rate on corporate profits was 50% and the firm’s interest expense was tax-deductible? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Modigliani and Miller showed that if the total market value of a levered firm exceeded the total market value of an unlevered firm with the same future income, an investor could always benefit by _____. |
|
Definition
selling her stock in the levered firm and borrowing money to buy the stock of the unlevered firm |
|
|
Term
Suppose the return on a firm’s assets is positively correlated with the return on the market portfolio. According to CAPM, an increase in the firm’s leverage will _____ the firm’s expected cost of equity by making the return on equity ____ to the return on assets and thereby ____ the equity’s beta. |
|
Definition
increase; more responsive; increasing
.
|
|
|
Term
The "Greenback" introduced in the U.S. during the Civil War is an example of _____.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the market price of a bond exceeds the face value, which of the following statements about the bond is most likely to be true?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about the holding period return on an asset is true?
|
|
Definition
It includes both capital gains and losses and income received during the period. |
|
|
Term
Over long periods of time, which of the following statements about the annual returns on U.S. stocks and long-term corporate bonds is true?
|
|
Definition
The average return is higher on stocks than bonds |
|
|
Term
An entrepreneur is trying to decide whether to finance an investment project either 1) entirely with her own money, or 2) partly with money obtained by issuing equity. She is more likely to choose option 2) if she _____. |
|
Definition
is highly averse to bearing risk |
|
|
Term
The fact that barter requires a "double coincidence of wants" helps explain ______. |
|
Definition
the use of money as a medium of exchange |
|
|
Term
Which of the following can be described as "indirect finance"? |
|
Definition
You deposit $4,000 in a bank specializing in consumer loans. |
|
|
Term
Smith has used all his money to buy five stocks in different industries, while Jones has used all his money to buy five stocks in the same industry. In this situation, diversification is ____ for Smith and therefore Smith faces ____ risk. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Empirical studies by economists have found a positive relationship between _____ and subsequent _______. |
|
Definition
financial development; economic growth |
|
|
Term
Micro finance institutions like Grameen Bank have addressed the moral hazard problem with borrowers by _____. |
|
Definition
lending to people who borrow as a part of a group |
|
|
Term
Among developed countries, the two countries that are generally considered to have the most market-based (as opposed to bank-based) financial systems are ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a central bank is targeting the money supply and money demand falls at each level of interest rates, the equilibrium level of interest rates will _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a central bank is using open market operations to target the money supply and the public suddenly starts withdrawing currency from banks, the central bank will respond by ______. |
|
Definition
buying government securities |
|
|
Term
"Sweep" programs used by banks to shift customers’ funds between their checking accounts and money-market deposit accounts tended to _____ M1 and ____ M2. |
|
Definition
decrease; have no effect on |
|
|
Term
In which of the following cases is targeting interest rates likely to do a better job of stabilizing output than targeting the money supply? |
|
Definition
Changes in money demand are due mainly to changes in transaction technology or financial innovation unrelated to people’s desire to spend |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about a decrease in stock prices is
true?
|
|
Definition
I. A decrease in stock prices reduces investment spending by increasing the cost to firms of raising funds through new equity issues.
II. A decrease in stock prices reduces consumption spending by decreasing wealth.
III. A decrease in stock prices can result from an unexpected increase in the Fed’s interest rate target. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following are
not actions the Fed would take if it were following a conventional Taylor Rule?
|
|
Definition
Raise the nominal interest rate to prevent an asset price bubble from developing. |
|
|
Term
During the recent financial crisis, the size of the Fed’s balance sheet _______ significantly, due first to _____ and later to _______. |
|
Definition
increased; increased lending to banks; large-scale asset purchases |
|
|
Term
The main purpose of the Fed’s large-scale asset purchases during the recent financial crisis was to _______. |
|
Definition
reduce mortgage rates and long-term interest rates |
|
|
Term
Suppose an increase in the rewards for using credit cards causes consumers to make greater use of their credit cards and less use of debit cards for purchases. What would be the likely effect on M1? (Assume the Fed is targeting interest rates rather than the money supply.) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about the "Too Big to Fail Policy" is
false?
|
|
Definition
The policy was first put into effect after the banking panics of the Great Depression. |
|
|
Term
Suppose an individual is trying to decide how much of his wealth to invest in Treasury securities and how much to invest in an index fund for the S&P 500. He decides to evaluate the risk of the index fund by looking at the fund’s performance over the last 20 years. Which of the following would be the best measure of the fund’s risk during the period? |
|
Definition
The standard deviation of monthly returns. |
|
|
Term
Suppose that 1) banks currently hold substantial excess reserves; 2) the Fed wants to raise the federal funds rate to keep inflation under control; and 3) the Fed wants banks to continue holding substantial excess reserves in case a collapse of the Euro causes a sudden liquidity crisis. What is the best way for the Fed to raise the federal funds rate in this situation? |
|
Definition
Raise the interest rate on reserves. |
|
|
Term
According to the Efficient Markets Hypothesis, which of the following statements is
false?
|
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Definition
The change in the price of a stock can be predicted by using all available information about past changes in the price. |
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Term
When serving as a traditional "lender of last resort," the Fed ______ to banks that are _______. |
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Definition
lends against sound collateral; solvent but illiquid |
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Term
Which of the following statements about asset price bubbles is
false?
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Definition
Bubbles usually deflate gradually. |
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Term
Suppose a stock is expected to pay a dividend of $10 at the end of one year. The risk-free rate is 4%, and the risk premium for the stock is 1%. If the dividend is expected to remain unchanged over time, the stock will sell for ____. On the other hand, if the dividend is expected to grow at a rate of 3% per year, the stock will sell for ____. |
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Definition
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Term
Consider three bonds that are currently selling at the same price. Bond 1 is a 30-year zero-coupon bond. Bond 2 is a 30-year coupon bond. Bond 3 is a 30-year annuity, which means that it pays the same amount each year with no lump sum payment at the end (like a mortgage or car loan). For which bond will the price be
least sensitive to changes in the interest rate?
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Definition
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Term
An investor has invested all his money in Johnson & Johnson stock. He is thinking about replacing half of his Johnson & Johnson stock with Apple stock. The Apple stock has both a higher standard deviation and a higher expected return, and the returns on the two stocks have a correlation coefficient of 0.3. Which of the following statements about the new portfolio including both stocks is
true?
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Definition
The new portfolio
could have a lower standard deviation, because Apple stock is not perfectly positively correlated with Johnson & Johnson stock.
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Term
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the downward slope of the two curves? |
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Definition
Diversification reduces unsystematic risk. |
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Term
Which of the following is the most likely reason that the "Global" curve lies below the "U.S." curve? |
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Definition
The economies of other developed countries often move in different directions than the U.S. economy |
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Term
Which of the following is the best explanation for why the Security Market Line slopes upward (i.e., why the expected return increases with beta)? |
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Definition
Investors must be compensated for holding securities with greater systematic risk. |
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Term
Suppose a financial crisis causes people to become much more concerned about risk. What effect would such a change likely have on the Security Market Line? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Investors issue securities that are purchased on financial markets by savers |
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Term
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Definition
Savers deposit their money in financial intermediaries (e.g., banks), who then make funds available to entrepreneurs. |
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Term
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Definition
arises prior to the transaction. |
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Term
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Definition
occurs after the transaction. |
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Term
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Definition
is the total amount of money in the economy |
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Term
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Definition
are measures of the money supply |
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Term
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Definition
•is the primary measure of the money supply. It Includes assets that can be used to make payments (medium of exchange). |
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Term
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Definition
is the sum of currency in circulation and bank reserves: B = C + R. As we will see, It represents the Fed’s liabilities to the private sector of the economy. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
is the interest rate that banks charge one another for overnight loans of reserves, |
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Term
The monetary transmission mechanism |
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Definition
is the process through which monetary policy affects output. |
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