Term
| During periods of economic expansion, firms usually rely more on internal sources of funds. |
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Definition
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Term
| Most of the annual funds raised from security issues come from corporate bond sales. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Long term business funds are obtained by issuing commercial paper and corporate bonds. |
|
Definition
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Term
| Private placements must be approved by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). |
|
Definition
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Term
| Firms issue more bonds than equities. |
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Definition
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Term
| A debt holder may force the firm to abide by the terms of the debt contract even if the result is reorganization or dissolution of the firm. |
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Definition
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Term
| Bondholders have priority claims over equity holders to a firm’s assets and cash flows. |
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Definition
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Term
| Bond covenants are the best way for bondholders to protect themselves against dubious management actions. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Bond issues of a single firm can have different bond ratings if their security provisions differ. |
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Definition
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Term
| Mortgage bonds are secured by home mortgages. |
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Definition
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Term
| The claims of collateralized bondholders are junior to the claims of debenture holders. |
|
Definition
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Term
| A convertible bond can be converted, at the issuing firm’s option, into a specific number of shares of the issuer’s common stock. |
|
Definition
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Term
| Callable bonds can be redeemed prior to maturity by the firm. |
|
Definition
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Term
| Eurodollar bonds are dollar-denominated bonds that are sold outside the United States. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| Yankee bonds are U.S. dollar-denominated bonds that are issued in the United States by a foreign issuer. |
|
Definition
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Term
| Global bonds usually are denominated in U.S. dollars and have offering sizes that typically exceed $1 billion. |
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Definition
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Term
| Preferred stock is an equity security that has a senior claim to the firm’s earnings and assets over bonds. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| Callable preferred stock gives the corporation the right to retire the preferred stock at its option. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| The higher the discount rate or yield to maturity, the lower the price of a bond. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| The bond issuer does not necessarily know who is receiving interest payments on bearer bonds. |
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Definition
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Term
| A bond with a coupon rate of 4% and a discount rate of 6% will pay $60 in interest each year. |
|
Definition
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Term
| A trustee represents the company to ensure that the covenants of the bond indenture are met. |
|
Definition
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Term
| The call price of a callable bond is typically equal to par value plus two years interest. |
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Definition
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Term
| Zero coupon bonds are not suited for tax-exempt accounts such as IRAs or pension funds. |
|
Definition
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Term
| Inflation-protected Treasury notes have a principal value that changes in accordance with the consumer price index (CPI). |
|
Definition
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Term
| A bond will sell at a discount if its required return or discount rate is greater than its coupon rate. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| A bond will sell at a premium if its required return or discount rate is greater than its coupon rate. |
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Definition
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Term
| Credit risk is another term for default risk. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Financial assets are claims against the income or assets of individuals, businesses, and governments. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Real assets are claims against the income or assets of individuals, businesses, and governments. |
|
Definition
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Term
| Most bonds currently issued in the United States today are registered bonds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most bonds currently issued in the United States today are bearer bonds. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Subordinate debentures are bonds whose claims are junior to the claims of those holding debenture bonds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Many callable bonds possess a call deferment period which is a specified period of time after the issue during which the bonds cannot be called. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Global bonds are generally denominated in euros and are marketed globally. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Common stock possesses the highest claim on the assets and cash flow of the firm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common stock possesses the lowest claim on the assets and cash flow of the firm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The par value of a common stock is an accounting and legal concept that bears no relationship to a firm’s stock price or book value. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The par value of a common stock is meaningful in that it is often used to determine the fixed annual dividend. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The par value of a preferred stock is meaningful in that it is often used to determine the fixed annual dividend. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Convertible preferred stock has a special provision that makes it possible to convert it to common stock of the corporation, generally at the stockholder’s option. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Preferred stock pays a dividend that is equal to its par value. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There is an inverse relation between debt instrument prices and nominal interest rates in the marketplace. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The shorter the maturity of a fixed-rate debt instrument, the greater the reduction in its value to a given interest rate increase. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The values of stocks and bonds are not affected by time value of money concepts. |
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Definition
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Term
1. Firms issue more equities than bonds for the following reason(s).
a. it is cheaper to raise equity than to borrow
b. bonds have a maturity date making them pricier
c. both a and b are true
d. none of the above are true |
|
Definition
a. it is cheaper to raise equity than to borrow
b. bonds have a maturity date making them pricier
c. both a and b are true
Answer: d. none of the above are true |
|
|
Term
2. The largest annual supply of external funds for business corporations comes from issuance of which one of the following sources?
a. privately placed stocks
b. bonds
c. preferred stocks
d. common stocks |
|
Definition
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|
Term
3. U.S. firms are continuing to raise more funds overseas include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. it makes sense to raise funds in the county where a firm has a facility
b. financing costs are sometimes lower overseas
c. foreign underwriters often have more experience than U.S. underwriters
d. issuers avoid the costly SEC approval process |
|
Definition
| c. foreign underwriters often have more experience than U.S. underwriters |
|
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Term
4. Which type of bond is currently prohibited from being issued in the United States?
a. bearer bonds
b. unregulated debentures
c. tax avoidance bonds
d. income bonds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. Preferred stock can have which of the following characteristics ? It can be:
a. cumulative
b. non-cumulative
c. convertible
d. all of the above |
|
Definition
a. cumulative
b. non-cumulative
c. convertible
answer:d. all of the above |
|
|
Term
6. Private placements:
a. are sold to the general public
b. have expedited SEC scrutiny
c. require public disclosure of the firm’s financial information
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
a. are sold to the general public
b. have expedited SEC scrutiny
c. require public disclosure of the firm’s financial information
answer:d. none of the above |
|
|
Term
7. Which of the following is not an advantage of owning debt securities?
a. high claim on cash flows of a firm
b. highest return of corporate securities
c. high claim on assets of in liquidation
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
| b. highest return of corporate securities |
|
|
Term
8. A document which is administered by a trustee, and includes in great detail the various provisions of the loan agreement is called the:
a. trust indenture
b. debenture
c. bond covenant
d. bearer bond |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. An individual or organization that represents the bondholders to ensure the indenture’s provisions are respected by the bond issuer is called a (n):
a. trust indenture
b. trustee
c. investment banker
d. trust organization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. All of the following represent bonds secured by real assets except a (n):
a. closed-end mortgage bond
b. equipment trust certificate
c. debenture
d. open-end mortgage bond |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11. A bond that can be changed into a specified number of shares of the issuer’s common stock is called a:
a. retractable bond
b. convertible bond
c. callable bond
d. collateralized bond |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. A bond that allows investors to force the issuer to redeem the bond prior to maturity is called a:
a. convertible bond
b. callable bond
c. debenture bond
d. putable bond |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. Dollar-denominated bonds that are issued in the United States by a foreign issuer are called:
a. Eurodollar bonds
b. foreign bonds
c. Yankee bonds
d. global bonds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 9. An individual or organization that represents the bondholders to ensure the indenture’s provisions are respected by the bond issuer is called a (n): a. trust indenture b. trustee c. investment banker d. trust organization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. Which of the following types of stocks have the lowest risk to shareholders?
a. common stock
b. cumulative preferred stock
c. non-cumulative preferred stock
d. callable preferred stock |
|
Definition
| b. cumulative preferred stock |
|
|
Term
16. All other things being equal, a bond’s value will be below its maturity value of $1,000 if it pays interest of $100 per year and investors require a rate of return that is,:
a. less than 10%
b. exactly 10%
c. higher than 10%
d. either less than or greater than 10% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. Most American bonds pay coupon interest
a. monthly
b. quarterly
c. semi-annually
d. annually
e. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
18. Which of the following is considered to be the most risky?
a. U.S. government bonds
b. mortgage bonds
c. corporate bonds
d. common stocks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
19. A firm’s stock is expected to pay a $3 annual dividend next year, the current stock price is $60, and the expected growth rate in dividends is 8%. Using the Gordon approach, what is the expected return? (Pick the closest answer.)
a. 5%
b. 8%
c. 13.4%
d. 13% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
20. A firm’s stock is expected to pay a $2 annual dividend next year, and the current $50 stock price is expected to rise to $53 over the next year. What is the expected return during this one year time period? (Pick the closest answer.)
a. 8%
b. 10%
c. 12%
d. 15% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
21. The constant dividend growth model assumes:
a. a constant annual dividend
b. a constant dividend growth rate for no more than the first 10 years
c. that the discount rate must be greater than the dividend growth rate
d. two of above are true assumptions |
|
Definition
| c. that the discount rate must be greater than the dividend growth rate |
|
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Term
22. What is the value of HM stock which currently has a dividend of $2 and is growing at 7%? The investor’s required rate of return is 11%. (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $46
b. $50
c. $52
d. 53.50 |
|
Definition
d. 53.50
D1 = $2(1.07) = $2.14 |
|
|
Term
23. According to the Gordon dividend model, which of the following variables would not affect a stock’s price?
a. the firm’s expected growth rate in dividends
b. the number of shares outstanding
c. the shareholder’s required return
d. all the above affect stock price |
|
Definition
| b. the number of shares outstanding |
|
|
Term
24. Suppose a firm’s $1,000 par value convertible bond is currently worth $1,000. Its conversion ratio is 30 and the stock currently sells for $25 per share. Would it make better financial sense to hold onto the bond or convert it?
a. hold onto the bond
b. convert the bond
c. can’t tell from this information
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
a. hold onto the bond
PVbond = $1,000
PVstock = $25(30) =$750 |
|
|
Term
25. Ameritech has just issued a $1,000 par value bond that will mature in 10 years. This bond pays interest of $45 every six months. If the annual yield to maturity of this bond is 8%, what is the price of the Ameritech bond if the market is in equilibrium? (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $991.50
b. $1,067.96
c. $1,112.82
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
b. $1,067.96
FV 1,000 N 20 PMT 45 I/Y 4 → PV = $1,067.95 |
|
|
Term
26. Mary wants to purchase a 20-year bond that has a par value of $1,000 and makes semiannual interest payments of $40. If her required yield to maturity is 10%, which of the following is closest to how much should Mary be willing to pay for the bond? (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $902
b. $925
c. $1000
d. $828 |
|
Definition
d. $828
FV 1,000 N 40 PMT 40 I/Y 5 → PV = $828.41 |
|
|
Term
27. You are considering buying a 10-year, $1,000 par value bond issued by IBM. The coupon rate is 8% annually, with interest being paid semiannually. If you expect to earn a 10% rate of return on this bond, what is the maximum price you should be willing to pay for this IBM bond? (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $189.93
b. $875.39
c. $898.54
d. $911.46 |
|
Definition
b. $875.39
FV 1,000 N 20 PMT 40 I/Y 5 → PV = $875.38 |
|
|
Term
28. The last dividend on GTE stock was $4, and the expected growth rate is 10%. If you require a rate of return of 20%, what is the highest price you should be willing to pay for GTE stock? (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $40
b. $42.50
c. $44
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
c. $44
D1 = $4(1.10) = $44 |
|
|
Term
29. You are trying to determine the fair price to pay for a share of Ford. If you buy this stock, you plan to hold it for a year. At the end of the year, you expect to receive a dividend of $5.50 and to sell the stock for $154. The discount rate for Ford stock is 16%. What should be the price of this stock? (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $99.80
b. $137.50
c. $144.22
d. $151.66 |
|
Definition
b. $137.50
FV = $154 + $5.50 = $159.50
FV 159.50 N 1 I/Y 16 → PV = $137.50 |
|
|
Term
30. Consolidated Edison has just paid an annual dividend of $3 per share. If the expected growth rate for Con Ed is 10%, and your required rate of return is 16%, how much are you willing to pay for this stock? (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $55
b. $50
c. $46.50
d. $51.50 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
31. RJR Nabisco recently experienced a market reevaluation due to a number of tobacco lawsuits. The firm has a bond outstanding with 15 years to maturity, and a coupon rate of 8%, with interest being paid semiannually. The required yield to maturity has risen to 16%. What is the price of the RJR Nabisco bond?
a. $1,000
b. $804
c. $767
d. $550 |
|
Definition
d. $550
FV 1,000 N 30 PMT 40 I/Y 8 → PV = $549.69 |
|
|
Term
32. Chrysler has a bond outstanding with eight years remaining to maturity, a coupon rate of 5%, and semiannual payments. If the market price of the Chrysler bond is $729.05, what is the annual yield to maturity? (Pick the closest answer.)
a. 7%
b. 9%
c. 10%
d. 11% |
|
Definition
c. 10%
FV 1,000 N 16 PMT 25 PV -$729.05 → I/Y = 5% semiannual → 10% YTM |
|
|
Term
33. Which of the following statements is most correct?
a. A closed-end mortgage bond is one that allows the same assets to be used as security in future bond issues.
b. Covenants in a trust indenture restrict or limit the actions the firm can take.
c. Retractable bonds can be redeemed prior to maturity by the firm.
d. All of the above are correct. |
|
Definition
| b. Covenants in a trust indenture restrict or limit the actions the firm can take. |
|
|
Term
34. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Preferred stock that is both cumulative and convertible is a popular financing choice for investors purchasing shares of stock in small firms with high growth potential.
b. Bond issues of a single firm can have different bond ratings if their security provisions differ.
c. Yankee bonds are dollar-denominated bonds that are sold outside the United States.
d. All of the above statements are correct. |
|
Definition
| c. Yankee bonds are dollar-denominated bonds that are sold outside the United States. |
|
|
Term
35. To accurately compare the rate of return on one investment with another, they should be:
a. equal in size or dollar amount
b. measured over different time periods
c. measured over equal time periods
d. held for more than one year |
|
Definition
| c. measured over equal time periods |
|
|
Term
36. An unrated bond:
a. is perceived as having lower than average risk
b. are termed as “debentures”
c. generally has a lower yield than rated bonds
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
a. is perceived as having lower than average risk
b. are termed as “debentures”
c. generally has a lower yield than rated bonds
answer:d. none of the above |
|
|
Term
37. The following factors may affect a bond rating:
a. security provisions
b. indenture provisions
c. expected trends of industry operations
d. all the above
e. none of the above |
|
Definition
a. security provisions
b. indenture provisions
c. expected trends of industry operations
answer:d. all the above |
|
|
Term
38. Which of the following constitute default on a bond?
a. nonpayment of par value
b. nonpayment of coupon
c. violation of the indenture
d. all the above
e. none of the above |
|
Definition
a. nonpayment of par value
b. nonpayment of coupon
c. violation of the indenture
answer:d. all the above |
|
|
Term
39. Which of the following are not bond rating agencies?
a. Standard and Poor’s
b. Fitch’s
c. Moody’s
d. all the above are rating agencies
e. none of the above are rating agencies |
|
Definition
a. Standard and Poor’s
b. Fitch’s
c. Moody’s
answer:d. all the above are rating agencies |
|
|
Term
40. Bond ratings are paid for by:
a. the issuing firm
b. the trustee
c. the investment banker
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
41. A speculative (junk) bond issue as rated under Standard & Poor’s would be rated ______ or below:
a. AA-
b. BB+
c. CCC
d. CC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
42. A (n) _____________ gives the bondholder a claim to specific assets (identified through serial numbers) such as railroad cars or airplanes.
a. first mortgage bond
b. equipment trust certificate
c. inventory bond
d. collateralized bond |
|
Definition
| b. equipment trust certificate |
|
|
Term
43. The three types of risk faced by investors in domestic bonds include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. exchange rate risk
b. credit risk
c. interest rate risk
d. reinvestment rate risk |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
44. Which of the following risks would not be faced by investors in domestic bonds?
a. credit (or default) risk
b. interest rate risk
c. reinvestment rate (or rollover) risk
d. exchange rate risk |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
45. Which of the following bonds has the greatest interest rate risk?
a. a 5 year, 10% coupon bond
b. a 10 year, 10% coupon bond
c. a 5 year, 5% coupon bond
d. a 10 year, 5% coupon bond |
|
Definition
| d. a 10 year, 5% coupon bond |
|
|
Term
46. An example of asset securitization is:
a. a bond backed by credit card receivables
b. a debenture
c. a subordinated debenture
d. all the above |
|
Definition
| a. a bond backed by credit card receivables |
|
|
Term
47. If a bond with a par value of $500 and a call premium of 6% is called in before its maturity date, the firm would pay the following to the bondholders: (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $500
b. $530
c. $0
d. $560 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
48. Putable bonds are sometimes referred to as:
a. retractable bonds
b. callable bonds
c. convertible bonds
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
49. Eurodollar bonds are:
a. denominated in Eurodollars
b. extremely long-term obligations
c. scrutinized by the SEC
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
a. denominated in Eurodollars
b. extremely long-term obligations
c. scrutinized by the SEC
answer:d. none of the above |
|
|
Term
50. A sinking fund:
a. is a special fund set up to pay of the creditors of bankrupt firms
b. requires specific approval by the firm’s the board of directors
c. requires the issuer to retire a bond issue incrementally over time
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
| c. requires the issuer to retire a bond issue incrementally over time |
|
|
Term
51. The terms or covenants of a bond contract are set out in which of the following documents?
a. debenture
b. trust indenture
c. mortgage
d. negative pledge clause |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
52. Which of the following bond types would describe unsecured obligations that depend on the general credit strength of the corporation?
a. closed-end mortgage bonds
b. mortgage bonds
c. equipment trust certificates
d. debenture bonds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
53. Which of the following bonds can be redeemed prior to maturity by the firm?
a. callable bonds
b. convertible bonds
c. putable bonds
d. retractable bonds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
54. A bond’s value is the same as its principal amount when the coupon rate is:
a. the same as the required rate of return
b. higher than the required rate of return
c. lower than the required rate of return
d. lower than the inflation rate |
|
Definition
| a. the same as the required rate of return |
|
|
Term
55. When the market interest rate is the same as the coupon rate for a particular quality of bond, the bond will be priced:
a. below its par value
b. at its par value
c. above its par value
d. The bond price cannot be determined |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
56. Which of the following is not a component of the Gordon (or constant dividend growth rate) model for valuing stocks?
a. next year’s expected dividend
b. a constant dividend growth rate
c. next year’s expected earnings
d. a discount rate that reflects the riskiness of the stock |
|
Definition
| c. next year’s expected earnings |
|
|
Term
57. Bonds that have coupons that are literally clipped and presented, like a check, to the bank for payment, and where the bond issuer does not know who is receiving the coupon payments are called:
a. registered bonds
b. coupon bonds
c. bearer bonds
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
58. __________________ assess both the collateral and the ability of the issuer to make timely interest and principal payments.
a. Bond covenants
b. Bond indentures
c. Bond ratings
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
59. A bond that does not permit future bond issues to be secured by any of the assets pledged as security to it is called a (n):
a. first mortgage bond
b. equipment trust certificate
c. closed-end mortgage bond
d. open-end mortgage bond |
|
Definition
| c. closed-end mortgage bond |
|
|
Term
60. A bond that allows the same assets to be used as security in future issues is called a (n):
a. first mortgage bond
b. equipment trust certificate
c. closed-end mortgage bond
d. open-end mortgage bond |
|
Definition
| d. open-end mortgage bond |
|
|
Term
61. The risk of having a bond issuer request the bond back from the bondholder thus forcing the bondholder to reinvest the proceeds at a lower interest rate is called:
a. call risk
b. reinvestment rate risk
c. interest rate risk
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
62. __________________ allows stock to be held in the name of a brokerage house.
a. The Federal Reserve
b. Street name
c. The Securities Exchange Act of 1944
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
63. ___________________ has the lowest claim on the assets and cash flow of the firm.
a. A bond
b. A subordinated debenture
c. Preferred stock
d. Common stock |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
64. When the market interest rate is above the coupon rate for a particular quality of bond, the bond will be priced:
a. below its par value
b. at its par value
c. above its par value
d. The bond price cannot be determined |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
65. When the market interest rate is below the coupon rate for a particular quality of bond, the bond will be priced:
a. below its par value
b. at its par value
c. above its par value
d. The bond price cannot be determined |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
66. When the market interest rate rises for a particular quality of bond, the price of the bond falls, which gives investors a new:
a. coupon rate
b. interest payment amount
c. yield to maturity
d. maturity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
67. Most firms that issue dividends try to maintain a consistent _________________.
a. dividend per share
b. dividend payout ratio
c. both policies are frequently employed
d. neither policy is frequently employed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
68. A (n) ________________ is an extra dividend declared by the firm over and above its regular dividend payout.
a. special dividend
b. supplemental dividend
c. extra-large dividend
d. treasury dividend
e. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
69. A (n) ________________ is an extra dividend declared by the firm over and above its regular dividend payout.
a. strong dividend
b. supplemental dividend
c. extra-large dividend
d. treasury dividend
e. none of the above |
|
Definition
a. strong dividend
b. supplemental dividend
c. extra-large dividend
d. treasury dividend
answer:e. none of the above |
|
|
Term
70. The _____________ policy states that dividends will vary based upon how much excess funds the firm has from year-to-year, whereas under a ________________ policy the firm pays a constant percentage of earnings as dividends, so as earnings rise and fall so does the dollar amount of dividends.
a. constant payout ratio, residual dividend
b. residual dividend, constant payout ratio
c. constant dividend, variable payout ratio
d. variable payout ratio, constant dividend
e. none of the above |
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Definition
| b. residual dividend, constant payout ratio |
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Term
71. The _____________ policy states that dividends will vary based upon how much excess funds the firm has from year-to-year, whereas under a ________________ policy the firm pays a constant percentage of earnings as dividends, so as earnings rise and fall so does the dollar amount of dividends.
a. constant payout ratio, regular dividend
b. regular dividend, constant payout ratio
c. constant dividend, variable payout ratio
d. variable payout ratio, constant dividend
e. none of the above |
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Definition
a. constant payout ratio, regular dividend
b. regular dividend, constant payout ratio
c. constant dividend, variable payout ratio
d. variable payout ratio, constant dividend
answer:e. none of the above |
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Term
72. Several factors will be considered by the board of directors and management as they consider the level of dividend payout. Some of these factors include:
a. the ability of the firm to generate cash to sustain the level of dividends.
b. legal and contractual considerations
c. growth opportunities
d. cost of other financing sources
e. all of the above |
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Definition
a. the ability of the firm to generate cash to sustain the level of dividends.
b. legal and contractual considerations
c. growth opportunities
d. cost of other financing sources
answer:e. all of the above |
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Term
73. Several factors will be considered by the board of directors and management as they consider the level of dividend payout. Some of these factors include:
a. the ability of the firm to generate cash to sustain the level of dividends.
b. legal and contractual considerations
c. growth opportunities
d. all of the above
e. none of the above |
|
Definition
a. the ability of the firm to generate cash to sustain the level of dividends.
b. legal and contractual considerations
c. growth opportunities
answer:d. all of the above |
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Term
74. The effect of ______________ and _______________ on the value of a firm’s stock and the wealth of shareholders is zero.
a. stock dividends, stock splits
b. cash dividends, stock dividends
c. cash dividends, stock splits
d. none of the above |
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Definition
| a. stock dividends, stock splits |
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Term
75. The effect of ______________ and _______________ on the value of a firm’s stock and the wealth of shareholders is positive.
a. share repurchases, stock splits
b. cash dividends, stock dividends
c. cash dividends, stock splits
d. stock dividends, share repurchases
e. none of the above |
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Definition
a. share repurchases, stock splits
b. cash dividends, stock dividends
c. cash dividends, stock splits
d. stock dividends, share repurchases
answer:e. none of the above |
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Term
76. The value of a share of stock, currently selling for $100, after it has a 2 for 1 split is: (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $50
b. $150
c. $200
d. $250
e. none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
77. The value of a share of stock, currently selling for $100, after it has a 5 for 1 split is: (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $20
b. $50
c. $200
d. $500
e. none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
78. The value of a share of stock currently selling for $100 after a 1 for 5 split is: (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $20
b. $40
c. $500
d. $1000
e. none of the above |
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Definition
c. $500
one new share is worth 5 old shares → $100(5) = $500 |
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Term
79. The value of a share of stock currently selling for $50 after a 1 for 5 split is: (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $10
b. $200
c. $250
d. $500
e. none of the above |
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Definition
c. $250
one new share is worth 5 old shares → $50(5) = $250 |
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Term
80. The _____________ is the difference in return earned by investing in a longer term bond that has the same credit risk as a shorter-term bond.
a. purchasing power spread
b. credit risk premium
c. horizon risk premium
d. two of the above
e. none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
81. A potential investment pays $10 per year indefinitely. The appropriate discount rate for the potential investor is 10%. The present value of this cash flow is calculated by:
a. multiplying $10 by the appropriate present value factor
b. dividing $10 by 10
c. multiplying $10 by the present value factor of an annuity
d. dividing $10 by .10 |
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Definition
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Term
82. A potential investment pays $10 per year indefinitely. The appropriate discount rate for the potential investor is 10%. The present value of this cash flow is: (Pick the closest answer.)
a. $1
b. $10
c. $100
d. $1,000 |
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Definition
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Term
10. All of the following represent bonds secured by real assets except a (n):
a. closed-end mortgage bond
b. equipment trust certificate
c. debenture
d. open-end mortgage bond
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Definition
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Term
A bond that can be changed into a specified number of shares of the issuer’s common stock is called a:
a. retractable bond
b. convertible bond
c. callable bond
d. collateralized bond
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Definition
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Term
A bond that allows investors to force the issuer to redeem the bond prior to maturity is called a:
a. convertible bond
b. callable bond
c. debenture bond
d. putable bond
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Definition
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Term
Dollar-denominated bonds that are issued in the United States by a foreign issuer are called:
a. Eurodollar bonds
b. foreign bonds
c. Yankee bonds
d. global bonds
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following types of bonds have the lowest bondholder security risk?
a. closed-end mortgage bond
b. subordinated debenture
c. open-end mortgage bond
d. all the above would have the same risk
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Definition
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