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Which of the following organs is responsible for the resulting heterophilia that occurs in a chicken during the acute phase response? a) Bursa b) Thymus c) Liver d) Spleen |
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Which of the following pathways will not lead to activation of the central nervous system during inflammation? a) Pro-inflammatory cytokines activating efferent vagus neurons b) Pro-inflammatory cytokines diffusing into the brain c) Pro-inflammatory cytokine production within the brain d) Pro-inflammatory cytokines activating afferent sympathetic neurons |
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a) Fever b) Anorexia c) Depression d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Anaphylatoxin C5a activates cyclo-oxygenase enzymes (COX1&2) during infection, which leads to the immediate production of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). When PGE2 binds to its receptor (EP3) on neurons in the anterior hypothalamus, which physiological response is most likely elicited? a) Fever b) Anorexia c) Depression d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Which of the following likely contributes to weight loss during Johne’s disease, a chronic inflammatory bowel disease of ruminants? a) Reduced neuropeptide-Y levels in the hypothalamus b) Chronic neutrophilia c) IL-1-induced muscle protein catabolism d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Which of the following cytokines directly contributes to positive acute phase protein synthesis by hepatocytes during infection? a) IL-1 b) TGF-β c) IL-6 d) IL-10 |
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SEE QUESTION 7 IN ADOBE
Given what you know about acute phase proteins (APP), which of the following would be the most appropriate inducible serum biomarker to assess liver function over time prior to ACM treatment? a) Transferrin b) α1-acid glycoprotein c) Serum amyloid A d) Haptoglobin |
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SEE QUESTION 7 IN ADOBE
In relation to question 7, if your goal was to assess liver function 24-post ACM treatment, which of the following APPs would be the most appropriate inducible serum biomarker to measure if you were to collect a blood sample just prior to euthanazia? a) Transferrin b) α1-acid glycoprotein c) Serum amyloid A d) Haptoglobin |
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Also in relation to question 7, which of the following APPs would most likely be inhibited in the blood sample prior to euthanazia? a) Transferrin b) α1-acid glycoprotein c) Serum amyloid A d) Haptoglobin |
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Which of the following zebrafish APPs is involved in regulating circulating iron concentrations? a) C-reactive protein (CRP)-like b) Hepcidin c) Serum amyloid A d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Which of the following immunoglobulin receptor superfamily genes undergoes somatic mutations to create amino acid sequence diversity within the peptide-binding groove? a) T-cell receptor genes b) MHC class I receptor genes c) MHC class II receptor genes d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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If you wanted to elicit an antibody-mediated immune response to a novel antigen in Pacific salmon that were subjected to cadmium to assess heavy metal immunotoxicity, which of the following antigens would elicit the greatest response? a) Pacific salmon IgM b) Bovine albumin c) Equine angiotensin d) Porcine IgG |
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Which of the following terms best describes what happens when a self-reactive T-cell is non-responsive to self-antigen? a) Autoimmune response b) Autoimmune disease c) Anergy d) Molecular mimicry |
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Which of the following statements about antigens is true? a) The most immunogenic antigens are proteins < 1000 daltons in size b) CD14 is used to present lipid antigens to T-cells c) The deletion of thymic T-cells that recognize self-antigen increases the risk of autoimmune disease d) When microbial antigens share epitopes in common with self-antigens, this is referred to as molecular mimicry |
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Which of the following statements about the lymph node is false? a) The clonal expansion of B-cells occurs within germinal centers of the medulla b) Follicular dendritic cells (FDCs) within the paracortex secrete a survival factor called BAFF that promotes memory B-cell survival c) Memory T-cells of all mammalian species primarily exit the lymph node via efferent lymphatics d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Which of the following will not affect myeloid dendritic cell migration from the dermis of the skin to a draining lymph node? a) Muscle contraction b) The expression of sphingosine-1 phosphate (S1P1) by circulatory endothelial cells c) The secretion of CCL19 by lymphoid endothelial cells d) Up-regulated CCR7 expression |
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Which of the following endothelial cell molecules least likely contributes to the rolling of lymphocytes along the high endothelial venules (HEVs) before they enter the lymph node paracortex? a) ICAM-1 b) Heparin sulphate c) CCL21 d) GlyCAM-1 |
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B- and T-cells are drawn to germinal centers by chemokines that are secreted by FDCs and stromal cells. Given this, which of the following secreted chemokines attracts only T-cells to the germinal centers? a) CXCL12 b) CXCL13 c) CCL21 d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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What is the fate of most B-cells that have undergone clonal expansion within a lymph node germinal center? a) Their differentiation into memory cells b) Their redistribution to bone marrow equivalent tissues c) Apoptosis d) Their differentiation into antigen presenting cells |
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In a chicken, blood-borne antigens are least likely to be trapped and processed for antigen presentation in which of the following organs? a) Spleen b) Liver c) Lymph nodes draining the lung d) Bursa of Fabricius |
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If one were to vaccinate a chicken, in which tissue would one find the greatest immunoglobulin IgY production following the booster vaccination? a) Spleen b) Liver c) Lymph nodes draining the lung d) Bursa of Fabricius |
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Which of the following antigen presenting cells (APCs) is likely the most efficient APC for eliciting a secondary immune response? a) Macrophage b) Dendritic cell c) B-cell d) Neutrophil |
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Which of the following statements about APCs is true? a) Ovine Fcγ2 receptor expression is up-regulated on APCs during maturation b) More MHC class II molecules are found on the surface of avian dendritic cells than macrophages c) Follicular dendritic cells originate from lymphoid precursor cells d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Which of the following processes is required to ensure central tolerance to selfantigens? a) Clonal deletion of CD4+CD8- T-cells that bind strongly to self-antigen b) Clonal deletion of CD4+CD8+ T-cells that fail to recognize MHC class I and II molecules c) Presentation of self-antigen to naïve T-cells by plasmacytic dendritic cells d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Which of the following is least likely to be required for the differentiation of CD4+ regulatory T-cells? a) Adhesion via dendritic cell CD58 (LFA3) b) IL-10 c) TGF-β d) Co-stimulation via dendritic cell CD40 |
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Which of the following innate immune cells is known to be an important source of antiviral IFN-α? a) Plasmacytic dendritic cells b) Macrophages c) Follicular dendritic cells d) Langerhans cells |
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Signaling through which of the following pattern-recognition receptors promotes the differentiation of dendritic (DC2) cells? a) Toll-like receptor (TLR)-2 b) TLR-3 c) TLR-9 d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Which of following protein domains makes up the peptide-binding pocket of a MHCclass I molecule? a) α1 b) β1 c) α3 d) β3 |
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Which of the following is not a function of the invariant chain? a) Stabilizing MHC class I molecule assembly within the endoplasmic reticulum b) Transportation of MHC class II molecules to endosomes c) Transportation of exogenous antigens to proteasomes during cross-priming d) CLIP formation within the MHC class II molecule antigen-binding groove |
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Which of the following is not required for stabilization of MHC-class I molecules prior to peptide loading? a) Tapasin b) Transporter protein (TAP2) c) Calnexin d) Calreticulin |
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Which of the following T-cell sub-populations does not depend on MHC-restricted antigen presentation for cell activation? a) Th17 T-cells b) γδ T-cells c) Th1 T-cells d) Th2 T-cells |
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Which of the following statements about T-cells is false? a) γδ T-cells make up approximately 60% of neonatal pig T-cells b) γδ T-cell sub-populations can be classified according to the expression of CD4 or CD8 accessory molecules c) The CD3 complex is required for effective αβ T-cell receptor signaling d) T-cell receptor antigen specificity is determined by amino acid sequence variation within the α and β chain complementarity-determining regions (CDRs) |
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Which of the following statements about macrophages acting as antigen presenting cells is true? a) Macrophages can activate the differentiation of naïve T-cells to Th1 T-cells b) The co-stimulatory molecule CD40 is constitutively expressed c) The secretion of IL-12 by macrophages promotes Th1 T-cell differentiation d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Which of the following CD molecules terminates communication between an antigen presenting cell and an αβ T-cell? a) CD28 b) CD154 c) CD152 (CTLA-4) d) CD40 |
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Which of the following cytokines is not involved in steering the differentiation αβ Tcells to Th17 T-cells? a) IL-10 b) TGF-β c) IL-23 d) IL-6 |
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Which of the following kinases is not required for effecting αβ T-cell signaling? a) Lck b) Fyn c) Lyn d) ZAP70 |
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Which of the following molecules is most likely to be found within the central portion of the immunological synapse (A.K.A. cSMAC) established between a dendritic cell and cytotoxic T-cell? a) CD2 b) CD11a/CD18 (LFA-1) c) CD8 d) CD43 |
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Which of the following tyrosine kinases is involved in the activation of nuclear factor NFκB? a) ZAP-70 b) Phospholipase-C c) Protein kinase C d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Which of the following events is not required in order for AP-1 to bind to its DNA response element (5’-TGAG/CTCA-3’) and regulate T-cell differentiation, proliferation and apoptosis? a) ZAP70 must become phosphorylated b) Fos and Jun proteins must join together c) T-cell co-stimulation through CD28 must occur d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Which of the following properties explains how a superantigen (SAg) TSST-1 is able to cause polyclonal T-cell activation during toxic-shock syndrome? a) TSST-1 displaces self-peptides within the binding groove of MHC class II molecules b) TSST-1 has many immunogenic epitopes that elicit polyclonal T-cell activation c) TSST-1 strongly links the MHC class II β chain to the T-cell receptor d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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Which of the following cytokines drives the differentiation of CD4+ T-cells in the spleen to become Th1 T-cells? a) IL-4 b) IL-12 c) IL-13 d) IL-21 |
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Which of the following transcription factors in Th1 T-cells prevents the differentiation of other CD4+ T-cells to Th9 T-cells and Th2 T-cells? a) FOXP3 b) STAT1 c) STAT3 d) STAT6 |
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As a veterinarian you have been called out to a dairy farm to investigate a skin condition that has developed on the under belly of cows within the herd over the past month- this skin condition was allergic contact dermatitis caused by the hapten cyanamide. If you were to take a skin biopsy of one of the reaction sites for histopathology, with of the following T-cell sub-populations would most likely be found in the biopsied tissue? a) T-Bet+ T-cells b) GATA-3+ T-cells c) PU1.1+ T-cells d) FOXP3+ T-cells |
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Mycobacterium avium spp. paratuberculosis (MAP) is the causative agent of bovine Johne’s disease. Since a cell-mediate immune response (CMIR) against these intracellular bacteria is the best host response to control pathogen invasion, which cell type would be the most important for driving this CMIR in a neonatal calf? a) γδ T-cells b) Th17 T-cells c) Th1 T-cells d) Th2 T-cells |
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Which of the following characteristics of the non-classical MHC molecule DO is false? a) DO expression is tissue specific b) DO regulates DM-mediated exchange of CLIP for all antigens c) The gene encoding DO is not polymorphic d) All of the above e) None of the above |
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