Term
The secondary structure of a protein relates to the
a. nucleic acid sequence of the DNA
b. messenger RNA
c. sequence of amino acids
d. presence of helix and sheet |
|
Definition
d. presence of helix and sheet |
|
|
Term
Functional groups are often involved in reactions involving ______ reactions.
a. inorganic
b. ionic
c. organic
d. inelastic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following do not have either chains or rings of carbon?
a. nucleic acid
b. proteins
c. lipids
d. carbohydrates
e. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A ____ IS MONOSACCHARIDE SUCH AS RIBOSE MADE UP OF 5 CARBONS.
a. hexose
b. heptose
c. polysaccharide
d. pentose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ends of a chain of ___ are designated 5' and 3' (5-prime and 3-prime)
a. protein
b.carbohydrate
c. DNA
d. RNA
e. both c and d |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A scientist looks for the incorporation of uracil into a cell. Which of the following is she measuring?
a. amount of protein produced
b. DNA synthesis
c. RNA synthesis
d. fatty acid synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An amphipathic molecule is
a. both hydrophilic and hydrophobic
b. a carbohydrate
c. a cation
d. an amino acid |
|
Definition
a. both hydrophilic and hydrophobic |
|
|
Term
The three-dimensional shape of a protein is primarily determined by the protein's
a. pH
b. R groups
c. glycerol content
d. enzymes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hydrogen bonds can form between ___ adjacent to each other.
a. two hydrogen atoms
b. two oxygen atoms
c. a hydrogen atom and an oxygen atom
d. negative charges |
|
Definition
c. a hydrogen atom and an oxygen atom |
|
|
Term
Poly saccharides are formed by linking monosaccharides into a macromolecule. What is the most common process that links each subunit together?
a. complexation reaction.
b. saturation linkage.
c. dehydration synthesis
d. hydrolysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The fatty acid tails of a phospholipid are chemically charged.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a water molecule, the hydrogens carry a partial positive charge
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An atom is the smallest particle of an element to retain all the properties of the element.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A glove box is used to grow
a aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. viruses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The term ___ describes two solutions having the same osmotic pressure such that, when separated by a semi-permeable membrane, there is no net movement of solvent in either direction.
a. hypotonic
b. isotonic
c. hypertonic
d. equilibrated diffusion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An autotroph
a. uses inorganic carbon dioxide as its carbon source
b. uses organic carbon as its carbon source
c. obtains its carbon from the bodies of other organisms.
d. is nutritionally dependent on other living things |
|
Definition
a. uses inorganic carbon dioxide as its carbon source. |
|
|
Term
Turbidity is measured with a
a. microscope
b. Coulter counter
c. spectrophotometer
d. anemometer
e. chemostat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Capnophiles grow best at high ___ concentration.
a. oxygen
b. water
c. carbon dioxide
d. salt |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A bacterial culture began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the population go through?
a. 64
b. 32
c. 6
d. 5
e. 4
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Organisms that benefit from a relationship with other without harming the other organism are called
a. parasites
b. mutualists
c. promotionals
d. commensals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ are bacteria that grow best at human body temperatures (37C).
a. mesophiles
b. psychrophiles
c. thermophiles
d. halophiles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ is movement of a substance against a concentration gradient and requires a ____.
a. Facilitated diffusion; carrier
b. Facilitated diffusion; pump
c. Active transport; carrier
d. Active transport; pump |
|
Definition
d. Active transport; pump |
|
|
Term
A(n) ____ is an organism that grows best in the absence of oxygen.
a. aerobe
b. anaerobe
c. facultative anaerobe
d. microaerophile |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is NOT among the six most essential elements required for microbial growth?
a. sodium
b. sulfur
c. hydrogen
d. phosphorus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A ___ metabolizes the organic matter of dead organisms.
a. saprobe
b. parasite
c. autotroph
d. All of the above are correct |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Phagocytosis is the ingestion of fluid by a cell.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Facultative anaerobes can grow both with and without oxygen, but they grow better with oxygen.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In osmosis, water moves from low water concentration to high water concentration.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gluconeogenesis is the opposite of ____ and is ___.
a. Krebs cycle; anabolism
b. Krebs cycle; catabolism
c. glycolysis; anabolism
d. glycolysis; catabolism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Inhibition of an enzyme by a molecule binding at the active site is called ____ inhibition.
a. noncompetitive
b. competitive
c. allosteric
d. active |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An enzyme ___ the activation energy required for a chemical reaction.
a. increases
b. converts
c. lowers
d. catalyzes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Glycolysis takes place in the ___ of bacteria and generates ___ ATP directly.
a. cytoplasm; 2
b. cytoplasm; 3
c. membrane; 2
d. membrane; 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxidation is the
a. addition of protons
b. addition of neutrons
c. removal of protons
d. removal of electrons
e. addition of electrons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Glycolysis produces ATP and a vital intermediary, ____, which can be used in respiration, fermentation, or anabolic reactions.
a. pyruvic acid
b. glucose
c. acetyl group
d. glyceraldehydes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The compound that enters the Kreb (TCA) cycle is
a. citric acid
b. oxaloacetic acid
c. pyruvic acid
d. acetyl coenzyme A. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The substance on which an enzyme acts is the ___ and the process is called ___.
a. allosteric inhibitor; catalysis
b. substrate; catalysis
c. apoenzyme; anabolism
d. substrate; catabolism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
WHere does election transport occur in prokaryotes?
a. mitochondrial membrane
b. cell membrane
c. ribosomes
d. cytoplasm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which pathway produces the most energy from a glucose molecule?
a fermentation
b. glycolysis
c. anaerobic respiration
d. aerobic respiration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fermentation is immediately preceded by ___.
a. glycolysis
b. Krebs cycle
c. electron transport
d. Entner-Doudoroff pathway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Aerobic bacteria and mitochondria are able to produce additional energy from the breakdown of glucose by harvesting ___ and using them to bring protons across the membrane via ___. Finally, ATP is produced as the protons flow back into the cell through ATP synthase.
a. OH- ions; hydrolysis
b. electrons; electron transport chain
c. pyruvic acid; facilitated diffusion
d. water molecules; fermentation |
|
Definition
b. electrons; electron transport chain |
|
|
Term
In fermentation, the terminal electron acceptor is
a. oxygen (O2)
b. hydrogen (H2)
c. carbon dioxide (CO2)
d. an organic compound |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
FADH2 is produced during
a. glycolysis
b. Krebs cycle
c. group translocation
d. electron transport |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ATP synthase complexes can generate ___ ATP for each NADH that enters electron transport.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where does glycolysis occur in eukaryotes?
a. mitochondrial membrane
b. cell membrane
c. ribosomes
d. cytoplasm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The electrons on NADH are transferred eventually to ____, the final electron acceptor in aerobic bacteria.
a. oxygen
b. protons
c. water
d. pyruvate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the reduced compound has more energy than the oxidized compound.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
More ATP molecules are synthesized by substrate level phosphorylation than by oxidative phosphorylation.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When lipids are broken down, completely separate pathways from aerobic respiration are used.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A DNA triplet encodes ___ codon(s) and ___ amino acid(s)
a. 3;1
b. 3;3
c. 1;3
d. 1;1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ occurs just before the bacterial cell divides.
a. Replication
b. Translation
c. Transcription
d. Electron transport |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are complementary nucleotide base pairs EXCEPT
a. C-G
b. A-U
c. T-A
d. U-C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bacterial DNA is ___ and plasmid DNA is ___.
a. circular; linear
b. single-stranded; double-stranded
c. circular; circular
d. linear; linear |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ mutations nearly always result in nonfunctional proteins because every amino acid after the mutation is different from what was coded for in the original DNA.
a. Substitution
b. Replication
c. Frameshift
d. Translation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary enzyme responsible for bacterial replication is
a. RNA polymerase
b. reverse transcriptase
c. restriction endonuclease
d. DNA polymerase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Synthesizing amino acid sequences from messenger RNA is called ____.
a. transduction.
b. transformation
c. translation
d. transcription |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- Involves plasmids
- Contains a P site
- Requires bacteriophages
- Has an anticodon
- Results from alterations in cell walls
a. transduction
b. tRNA
c. conjugation
d. transformation
e. ribosome
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
UGA is a stop codon.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Transcription enzymes work in a 5' to 3' (5-prime to 3-prime) direction.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ribosome is made up of two subunits
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During recombinant DNA technology DNA is inserted by a vector. Identify a vector from the list below:
a. genome
b. plasmid
c. recombinant
d. protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DNA fragments separate on an electrophoresis gel with the
a. largest segments traveling farthest
b. smallest segments traveling farthest
c. most negatively charged pieces traveling fastest
d. most positively charges pieces moving backwards |
|
Definition
b. smallest segments traveling farthest |
|
|
Term
For which of the following would a nucleic acid probe NOT be used?
a. locating a gene on a chromosome
b. developing a Southern blot
c. identifying a microorganism
d. constructing a recombinant plasmid |
|
Definition
d. constructing a recombinant plasmid |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is used to determine the father of a child?
a. gene therapy
b. xenotransplant
c. DNA fingerprinting
d. vaccines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Whick enzyme would you use to make DNA from RNA?
a. DNA polymerase
b. restriction endonucleases
c. reverse transcriptase
d. DNA ligase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following techniques allows an investigator to start with a single piece of DNA and produce billions of copies in a matter of hours?
a. transduction
b. gene cloning
c. polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
d. recombinant technology.
e. restriction analysis |
|
Definition
c. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) |
|
|
Term
"Scissors" that are used to cut DNA into specific pieces at defined sites are the
a. repair enzymes
b. unrestricted endonucleases
c. restricted endonucleases
d. exonucleases |
|
Definition
c. restricted endonucleases |
|
|
Term
In hybridization, oligonucleotides function as
a. restriction enzymes
b. vectors
c. ligases
d. probes
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gel electrophoresis seperates DNA fragments using
a. ribose gel
b. electric current
c. gene probes
d. hybridization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary intent of recombinant DNA technology is to deliberately remove genetic material from one organism and combine it with that of a different organism
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Machines are now available that can synthesize nucleic acids of any sequence that an investigator might desire.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Recombinant DNA techniques are being used to make plants resistant to herbicides.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these are not considered part of the innate immune response?
a. neutropils
b. stomach acid
c. T cells
d. macrophages |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The increased phagocytosis of bacteria covered with C3b or antibody is called
a. inflammation
b. optimization
c. antigenesis
d. opsonization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a chemical that is released by white blood cells and regulates inflammation and immunity?
a. MHC protein
b. CD4
c. C3b
d. cytokine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
WHich of the following is the correct order of complement activity?
a. initiation, polymerization, amplification, membrane attack
b. initiation, amplification, membrane attack, polymerization
c. polymerization, initiation, amplification, membrane attack
d. initiation, amplification, polymerization, membrane attack. |
|
Definition
d. initiation, amplification, polymerization, membrane attack |
|
|
Term
The clear, yellowish blood fluid that does not contain clotting factors is known as
a. plasma
b. serum
c. lymphatic fluid
d. complement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hematopoietic stem cells
a. are the precursor of new blood cells
b. are maintained in the bone marrow
c. proliferate and differentiate into red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
d. are all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The accumulation of serous exudate leads to
a. fever
b. redness
c. edema
d. complement activation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a granulocyte?
a. macrophage
b. lymphocyte
c. basophil
d. monocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are part of the inflammatory responcse EXCEPT
a. increased vascular permeability
b. lowered temperature around pathogen
c. redness
d. pain
|
|
Definition
b. lowered temperature around pathogen |
|
|
Term
The transmigration of white blood cells out of capillaries into deeper tissues is called
a. diapedesis
b. opsonization
c. cell-mediated immunity
d. humoral immunity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lymph nodes are considered primary lymphoid tissue.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The skin is considered part of the first line of defense.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The variable regions of antibodies are located in all of the following EXCEPT
a. Fc region
b. Fab regiom
c. light chain
d. heavy chain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the appropriate response when antigen is presented by MHC class II molecules?
a. An effector CD8 cell should kill the presenting cell
b. An effector CD4 cell should kill the presenting cell
c. An effector CD8 cell should activate the presenting cell.
d. An effector CD4 cell should activate the presenting cell |
|
Definition
d. An effector CD4 cell should activate the presenting cell |
|
|
Term
Perforins are used by ___ cells to destroy infected target cells.
a. B
b. T helper
c. cytotoxic T
d. neutrophil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Poor immunogens include all of the following EXCEPT
a. small molecules
b. repetitive polymers
c. complex proteins
d. simple molecules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine consists of capsule components. This would be classified as a(n)
a. attenuated vaccine
b. toxoid
c. subunit vaccine
d. inactivated (killed) vaccine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
"Self" markers in human cells
a. are lipopolysaccharides of the GALT
b. are clonally selected
c. are identical between individuals
d. are glycoproteins of the MHC |
|
Definition
d. are glycoproteins of the MHC |
|
|
Term
The ___ response to previously seen antigens is the basis for the success of vaccinations
a. primary
b. anamnestic or memory
c. hypersensitive
d. phagocytic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The type of white blood cell that SECRETES antibody is called
a. plasma cell
b. B cell
c. NK cell
d. antigen-presenting cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The type of antibody seen in the highest concentration in a secondary immune response is
a. IgD
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgG |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Clonal selection theory has to do with
a. B cell diversity
b. antigen presentation
c. MHC class I restriction
d. MHC class II restriction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cells express MHC class I molecules?
a. red cells
b. all nucleated cells
c. antigen-presenting cells only
d. dendritic cells only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The type of antibody seen most commonly on mucosal surfaces such as the intestines is
a. IgD
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgG |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
"Cell mediated immunity" refers to
a. B cells activation and plasma cell production
b. monocyte conversion
c. T cell responses to antigen
d. MHC markers on "self" cell surfaces |
|
Definition
c. T cell responses to antigen |
|
|
Term
CD8 is found on
a. B cells
b. plasma cells
c. all nucleated cells
d. cytotoxic T cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antigen presenting cells include
a. macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells
b. T cells, B cells, mast cells
c. memory cells, macrophages, Tc cells
d. plasma cells, mast cells, immunoglobulin cells |
|
Definition
a. macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells |
|
|
Term
Basophils originally come from the bone marrow
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
B cells that recognize self as foreign are removed in the thymus.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A hapten doesn't elicit an immune response by itself but does when it's coupled with a foreign protein carrier.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What occurs when T-cells encounter cells displaying foreign MHC molecules?
a. They recognize and react against the foreign cells.
b. They produce antibodies that react against the foreign molecules.
c. They mediate the change of the surface molecules to self.
d. Both a and b are correct |
|
Definition
a. They recognize and react against the foreign cells. |
|
|
Term
A ___ is a leukocyte that binds IgE and contains cytoplasmic granules with the mediators of anaphylaxis and atrophy.
a. macrophage
b. neutrophil
c. mast cell
d. plasma cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- Involves IgE
- Involves antigen on tissue or cells
- Involves circulating antigen and antibody
- Involves T cells
a. type I hypersensitivity
b. type II hypersensitivity
c. type III hypersensitivity
d. type IV hypersensitivity
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Autoimmunity is usually treated by
a. immune stimiulators
b. antibodies
c. immune suppressants
d. antibiotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a cause of secondary immunodeficiency?
a. HIV
b. pregnancy
c. mutation on X chromosome
d. leukemia |
|
Definition
c. mutation on X chromosome |
|
|
Term
With hemolytic disease of the newborn, the Rh factor is a problem when the mother is ___ and the fetus is ___.
a. Rh positive; Rh negative
b. Rh negative; Rh negative
c. Rh negative; Rh positive
d. Rh positive; Rh negative |
|
Definition
c. Rh negative; Rh positive |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT used to prevent type I hypersensitivity reactions?
a. drug therapy
b. avoidance of the allergen
c. removal of the thymus
d. desensitization therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antibodies will be found naturally in the serum of an adult male with blood type A+?
a. anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh
b. anti-A, anti-Rh
c. anti-A
d. anti-B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is a birth defect usually caused by missing or incomplete thymus gland that results in abnormally low or absent T cells and other developmental abnormalities.
a. DiGeorge syndrome
b. lupus
c. agammaglobulinemia
d. rheumatoid arthritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rejection of a transplant is accomplished through type IV hypersensitivity.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A primary immunodeficiency is present at birth.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An autoimmune disease is a pathological condition arising from the production of antibodies against self molecules.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ uses complementary strands of nucleic acid to locate specific sites of DNA or RNA in an organism in order to identify that organism.
a. Western blot
b. Hybridization
c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
d. Precipitation reaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which technique is used to improve the sensitivity of genetic testing by increasing the amount of DNA in a sample?
a. Western blot
b. PCR
c. gene probing
d. hybridization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following techniques uses specialized dyes to visualize antibody-antigen reactions for diagnosis?
a. immunofluorescence test
b. immunoelectrophoresis
c. Western blot
d. agglutination test |
|
Definition
a. immunofluorescence test |
|
|
Term
Cell shape, size, and special characteristics can be determined by
a. Gram staining
b. acid-fast staining
c. endospore staining
d. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is used to label the known antibody in an ELISA test?
a. radioactive isotope
b. enzyme
c. colored dye
d. substrate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Immunologic methods of diagnosis test a patient's ___ for the presence of antibodies to a suspected pathogen.
a. serum
b. red blood cells
c. tissue
d. antigens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Immunoassays are useful
a. to diagnose viral infections
b. to detect very small quantities of antigen
c. to detect very small quantities of antibody
d. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sampling methods vary by site. It is important to sample correctly because
a. dichotomous keys will not work otherwise
b. invalid sampling invalidates test results
c. storage of the sample will be ineffective
d. only doctors can take proper precautions |
|
Definition
b. invalid sampling invalidates test results |
|
|
Term
Colony appearance of bacteria is a phenotypic trait
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ABO blood typing is accomplished using a complement fixation test.
a. True
b. False
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bacteria that form nitrates are ___ with respect to plants.
a. parasitic
b. toxic
c. mutualistic
d. antagonistic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Indicator bacteria in water quality testing are
a. intestinal residents of birds and mammals
b. readily identifiable
c. usually coliforms and enterics
d. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where would thermophiles be found?
a. on the ocean's surface.
b. in the soil
c. in hot springs
d. at the bottom of the ocean |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where would barophiles be found?
a. on the ocean's surface
b. in the soil
c. in hot springs
d. at the bottom of the ocean |
|
Definition
d. at the bottom of the ocean |
|
|
Term
Autotrophs are most likely to be
a. decomposers
b. primary consumers
c. secondary consumers
d. producers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A(n) ____ is defined as a collection of populations sharing a given habitat.
a. biosphere
b. community
c. biome
d. ecosystem |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The amount of energy ___ from lower levels of the trophic cycle to higher levels.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains stable
d. cycles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Combustion and respiration are involved in the ____ cycle.
a. nitrogen
b. water
c. carbon
d. phosphorus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Biogeochemical cycles maintain a balance of nutrients in the biosphere.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Biofilms are composed of single species of bacteria
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Microorganisms are used in the food industry for all of the following EXCEPT
a. fermentation products
b. vaccine production
c. protein supplements
d. food additives |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ultraviolet light is less effective than gamma radiation in sterilizing food because UV
a. is too hot
b. is too dangerous to humans
c. doesn't penetrate as well as gamma radiation
d. alters the taste of food |
|
Definition
c. doesn't penetrate as well as gamma radiation |
|
|
Term
Salt and sugar preserve food by
a. lysing bacterial cell walls
b. osmotically removing water from bacteria
c. providing nutrients to bacteria
d. lowering the temperature for bacteria |
|
Definition
b. osmotically removing water from bacteria |
|
|
Term
Bacteria are specially engineered to degrade oils spills in a process known as
a. tertiary sewage treatment
b. a biofilm
c. bioremediation
d. composting |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following converts organic compounds into inorganic compounds?
a. pohotosynthesis
b. production
c. consumption
d. decomposition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT used in treating drinking water?
a. chlorination
b. filtration
c. removal of oxygen
d. settling |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a biogeochemical cycle mentioned in class?
a. carbon cycle
b. oxygen cycle
c. nitrogen cycle
d. sulfur cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Secondary metabolites of microbes are formed during the ____ stage of growth.
a. lag
b. log(exponential)
c. stationary
d. death |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The process that produces alcohol in beer and wine is called fermentation.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Microbes can be used to produce cheese.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. Cause of scalded skin syndrome
2. Cause of shingles
3. Cause of gas gangrene
4. Cause of cold sores
5. Cause of German measles
a. herpes simplex virus type
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. rubella virus
d.varicella zoster virus
e. Clostridium perfringens
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following species uses coagulase to cause plasma clotting?
a. Micrococcus luteus
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Candida albicans
d. alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is passed by respiratory droplets but causes skin rashes?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Bordetella pertussis
c. measles virus
d. respiratory syncytial virus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following causes neonatal conjunctivitis?
a Staphylococcus aureus
b. rubella virus
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Leishmania donovani |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following organisms causes coal-black lesions on the skin?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. parvovirus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fifth disease is caused by
a. papillomavirus
b. parvovirus
c. herpes simplex virus
d. rubeola virus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cause of thrush and diaper rash is
a. Candida albicans
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Staphylococcus aureas
d. Mycobacterium leprae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cause of genital warts is
a. human herpesvirus 3
b. herpes simplex virus
c. morbillivirus
d. papillomavirus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Diptheria is caused by an RNA virus
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chlamydia trachomatis can cause a serious eye infection.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most severe rubella infections occur in a fetus during pregnancy.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- Causes spastic paralysis of facial muscles
- Causes fungal meningitis, mostly in the southwestern US
- Spread by breathing in respiratory droplets containing the pathogen
- Causes African sleeping sickness
- Causes primary amoebic meningoencephalitis
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Naegleria fowleri
d. Coccidiodes immitis
e. Trypanosoma
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following causes Valley fever?
a. Mycoplasma
b. Coccidioides
c. Histoplasma
d. Mycobacterium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neisseria meningitidis is spread by
a. sexual contact
b. respiratory droplets
c. fecal-oral route
d. mosquitoes
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
West Nile virus is spread by
a. contaminated water
b. mosquitoes
c. animal bite
d. respiratory droplets |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Toxoplasma gondii is a ____ spread by ____.
a. bacterium; cat feces
b. protozoan; airborne droplets
c. bacterium; airborne droplets
d. protozoan; cat feces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rabies virus is spread by
a. insects
b. touching an infected animal
c. the bite of an infected animal
d. eating an infected animal
e. both b and c are correct |
|
Definition
c. the bite of an infected animal |
|
|
Term
In the US, dogs are a common reservoirs for rabies.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Aseptic meningitis can be diagnosed by finding bacteria in the CSF.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- Cause of bubonic plague
- Cause of "rabbit fever"
- Cause of hemorrhagic fever
- Cause of malaria
- Cause of Rocky Mountain spotted fever
a. Francisella
b. Rickettsia
c. Yersinia
d. Plasmodium
e. Marburg virus
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary effects of HIV infection is
a. harm to B cells
b. harm to the circulatory system
c. an increase in stem cells
d. lower number of T cells |
|
Definition
d. lower number of T cells |
|
|
Term
The enzyme used by HIV to produce DNA is called
a. integrase
b. protease
c. reverse transcriptase
d. replicase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
gp41 and gp120 make up the _____ of HIV
a. capsid
b. glycocalyx
c. nucleic acid
d. spike |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
HTLV-1 causes
a. AIDS-like symptoms
b. hemorrhagic fever
c. leukemia
d. mononucleosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This virus is a frequent cause of retinitis and other disease associated with HIV infection.
a. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
b. cytomegalovirus (CMV)
c. Marburg virus
d. rubella virus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Borrelia burgdorferi is spread by
a. respiratory droplets
b. direct contact with skin lesions
c. mosquitoes
d. ticks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The vector for malaria is the sand fly
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A distinct bull's-eye-shaped rash is associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The common stain used to identify Mycobacterium species is
a. Gram stain
b. acid-fast stain
c. negative stain
d. spore stain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Legionella is mostly associated with
a. insects
b. pools of water
c. dogs and cates
d. sexual transmission |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following results in the formation of a pseudomembrane in the trachea?
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Legionella pneumophila
c. Histoplasma capusulatum
d. Corynebacterium diptheriae |
|
Definition
d. Corynebacterium diptheriae |
|
|
Term
- Causes the common cold
- Causes yearly pandemics
- Especially common in young children
- Causes whooping cough
- Causes bacterial pneumonia and has a prominent capsule
a. Bordetella pertussis
b. rhinovirus
c. respiratory syncytial virus
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
e. influenza virus
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following causes the common cold?
a. respiratory syncytial virus
b. Bordetella pertussis
c. Corynebacterium diptheriae
d. rhinovirus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal microbiota are confined to the upper respiratory tract and therefore are absent from the lower respiratory tract.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
SARS is obtained from other people by respiratory droplets.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- Cause of dental caries (cavities)
- Cause of intestinal blockage
- Tapeworm
- Cause of typhoid fever
- Cause of gastric ulcers
a. Helicobacter
b. Ascaris
c. Streptococcus mutans
d. Taenia
e. Salmonella
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
"Food poisoning" should be suspected with persons who shared food within the previous 1-6 hours, and share the signs and symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Typically, this is due to
a. infection
b. emetics
c. intoxication
d. inebriation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following causes dysentery?
a. Entamoeba
b. Shigella
c. Salmonella
d. both a and b
e. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following causes gastroenteritis after antibiotic use?
a. Clostridium difficile
b. Serratia marcescens
c. rotavirus
d. Campylobacter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following causes typhoid fever?
a. Salmonella
b. Shigella
c. E. coli
d. rotavirus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is an inflammatory disease marked by necrosis of liver cells and a mononuclear response that swells and disrupts the liver.
a. Cholera
b. Hepatitis
c. Periodontitis
d. Giardiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following leads to swelling of the salivary glands?
a. mumps virus
b. rotavirus
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Ascaris lumbricoides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is also called a pinworm?
a. Taenia
b. Ascaris
c. Ancylostoma
d. Enterobius |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Traveler's diarrhea is caused by E. coli.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pathogens that infect the GI tract must survive the acidic environment of the stomach.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Camplyobacter jejuni is the most common diarrheal disease in the US.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an infection of the kidney?
a. urethritis
b. pyelonephritis
c. cystitis
d. Salpingitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The first manifestation of syphilis is usually
a. flu-like symptoms
b. chancre
c. rash
d. meningitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- Causes gonorrhea
- Causes fungal vaginosis (yeast infection)
- Protozoan
- Causes genital warts
- Causes syphilis
a.Treponema pallidum
b. Candida albicans
c. Neisseria
d. papillomavirus
e. Trichomonas vaginalis
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Herpes simplex type 2 is primarily associated with genital infections.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chlamydia is primarily spread by respiratory droplets.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|