Term
retinoid used for acne, psoriasis and disorders of keratinization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this acne drugs can cause CNS and CVS toxicity, retinoid dermatitis, and should not be used during pregnancy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this cephalosporin has excellent gram negative coverage including pseudomonas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the MOA of cefipime? |
|
Definition
inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis |
|
|
Term
this antibiotic causes hypersensitivity, K depletion, has cross reactivity with penicillins, but it's the broadest spectrum antibiotic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this 1st generation cephalosporin can be used for gram positives, and causes the same side affects as cefapime |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how can cephalexin be given? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this anti-pt can be used to prevent primary or secondary arterial thrombosis by irreversibly blocking the ADP receptor on platelets |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10% of this is metabolized into morphine, it is an analgesic and antitussive, and can cause respiratory depression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can dopamine be used to treat? |
|
Definition
cardiogenic shock, heart failure, septic shock |
|
|
Term
What needs to be corrected prior to dopamine administration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This tetracycline antibiotic inhibits the 30s subunit of ribosomes, preventing protein synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of doxycycline? |
|
Definition
resp distress, discoloration of the teeth, inhibits bone growth in children and causes photosensitivity |
|
|
Term
this antibiotic is bacteriostatic and should not be used in pregnancy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this drug is a substrate for reverse transcriptase that results in chain termination (NRTI), it causes bone marrow suppression, myopathy and myositis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this drug is a LMWH that prevents DVT and a fib related stroke |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this drug inhibits factor Xa and it's side effects are bleeding |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this drug is an antifungal converted to 5-flourouracil in fungal cells which is the converted to FdUMP which inhibits thymidilate synthetase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does flucytosine stop fungal growth? |
|
Definition
inhibits thymidilate synthetase, which makes thymine which is required for DNA synthesis
|
|
|
Term
this corticosteroid is used as an intranasal spray for allergic rhinitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this opioid causes myoclonus, allodynia and seizures, and is 6x as potent as morphine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the side effects of hydrocodone |
|
Definition
myoclonus, allodynia and seizures |
|
|
Term
this glucocorticoid is used for AI and has both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticode activity, fludrocortisone can be added with it to increase min activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this drug may help prevent respiratory distress in premature infants born 24-36 weeks by kicking up their surfactant production |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this drug can be used for aldosterone insufficiency, but might cause Na and H20 retention causing HTN and hypokalemia... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what should be monitored when a patient is on fludrocortisone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this is an antibody against TNFalpha that can be used for IBD but might lead to infections... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When should one use infliximab? |
|
Definition
When 5-asa, 6-mp and corticosteriods have been unsuccessful, contraindicated if there's a bacterial infection |
|
|
Term
this is a gnRH analog given for prostate cancer that should desensitize receptors over time... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Because of it's MOA, what initial side effects will be seen with leuprolide? |
|
Definition
hot flashes, loss of libido, loss of muscle mass, flare of cancer symptoms |
|
|
Term
this flouroquinolone antibiotic has gram positive, gram negative and pseudomonas coverage and can be used for streptococcus although moxifloxacin has better activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the moa of levofloxacin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This antibiotic may be more affective against pneumonia caused by MRSA than vancomycin! It' inhibits DNA protein synthesis and is bacteriostatic and time dependent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this T3 analog is used for hypothyroidism/myxedema and can cause tachycardia, tremors, heat intolerance and arrhythmias |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is a protease inhibitor that can cause fat redistribution. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is the primary treatment for IBD that inhibits inflammatory cytokines, it's a 5-ASA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This antithyroid is inhibits coupling and iodination reactions, and may also have immunosuppressive effects. it's contraindicated in pregnancy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This antifungal is used for dermatophyte infections and inhibits squalene oxidase, but can cause liver failure so liver fx should be tested first. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- What is the method of action of neostigmine?
- What side effects are therefore present with neostigmine tx?
|
|
Definition
Inhibits acetylcholine esterase which leaves extra ACh
overstim of parasymp - salivation, resp distress, bradycardia |
|
|
Term
What is nicotine used for clinically? |
|
Definition
to help with smoking cessation (patches, spray, lozenges, gum, etc) |
|
|
Term
what are the side effects of nicotine? |
|
Definition
nausea, emesis, gi disturbance, resp failure |
|
|
Term
These drugs act through L type calcium channels to inhibit influx of calcium after depolarization in cardiac and smooth muscle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the direct MOA of nefedipine and verapamil cause? |
|
Definition
vasodilation, bradycardia (verapamil/diltiazem) or reflex tachycardia (nefedipine), and negative inotropic effects |
|
|
Term
What can Ca channel blockers (nefedipine/verapamil/diltiazem) be used to treat? |
|
Definition
angina, htn, arrhythmias, raynauds, prophylaxis for migraines
|
|
|
Term
what are the side effects of Ca channel blockers? |
|
Definition
bradycardia, reflex tachycardia, hypotension, gi disturbances, heart failure |
|
|
Term
Which Ca channel blockers are better for SVT and patients with a fib? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this anti-IgE antibody prevents IgE from binding mast cells and basophils, and can therefore be used for severe asthma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this penicillinase resistant penicillin is used for MSSA gram postiive bacteria, to inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis and is IV only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This opioid may be better tolerated than morphine by patients sensitive to sedation and mental status changes brought on by morphine, it's usually given with NSAIDs/acetiminophen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the MOA of oxycodone? |
|
Definition
partial mu receptor agonist; may also have kappa receptor activity |
|
|
Term
this drug is an anti-convulsant used for neuropathic pain and fibromyalgia, it's a Ca channel blocker in nerves, and can cause hypersens, rhabdomyolysis and suicide... ? |
|
Definition
Pregabalin - i didn't swallow my tongue, just this bottle of pills |
|
|
Term
This hypnotic is used for sedation, induction and maintenance of anesthesia, and causes less N and V than thiopental. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the SE of propofol? |
|
Definition
cv and respiratory depression |
|
|
Term
This anorectic antiobesity drug is used for appetite suppression and smoking cessation, and is an inverse agonist for the cannabinoid receptor CB1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This anti-protease drug can cause GI disturbances, fat redistribution, hyperlipids, reduced bone mineral density and reduced transaminases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
FKBP-12 binder which inhibits calcineurin, which is required for IL-2 production, reducing t-cell production |
|
|
Term
what is tacrolimus used for? |
|
Definition
organ transplant rejection and RA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A NRTI which acts as a substrate for RT, causes BM suppression with resulting anemia, neutropenia, myopathy and myositis
|
|
|
Term
this analgesic agent is contraindicated in pts with a history of seizures because it causes seizures, dizziness and nausea... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the method of action of tramadol? |
|
Definition
synthetic codeine analog that binds mu receptors, inhibitng uptake of serotonin and NE - use for mild to mod pain |
|
|
Term
What is trifluridine used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA and SE of trifluridine? |
|
Definition
inh viral DNA synth, burning/stinging in eye, edema of eyelid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ganglionic inh that is positively charged and blocks the SNS and PSNS |
|
|
Term
This anti-viral used for genital herpes and herpes zoster causes a burning sensation when applied topically, GI disturbances and kidney toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of valacyclovir? (sucks) |
|
Definition
acyclo-GMP --> acyclo-GTP by thymidine kinase, inh DNA polymerase and incorporates into chain causing termination, viral rep is therefore blocked |
|
|
Term
What can valacyclovir be used for? |
|
Definition
genital herpes and herpes zoster |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
partial nicotinic (alpha4beta2) receptor antagonist that can be used for smoking cessation and has been linked with suicidal ideation and incr incidence of CVS |
|
|
Term
What can vit D be used to tx? |
|
Definition
hypocalcemia, osteoporosis and ricket's |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
enhances Ca and P reab in kidneys and Ca abs in intestine |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of vit D? |
|
Definition
hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypercalciuria |
|
|
Term
This broad spectrum fungal binds ergosterol, creating pores in fungal membranes allowing electrolyte passage. It also causes nephrotox and therefore should be avoided with other drugs that do that. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this cephalosporin is used for both gram ppos and gram neg bacteria but not pseudomonas, same side effects as cefepime... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This flouroquinolone antibiotic is good for gram pos, gram neg and pseudomonas, and acts by inhibiting DNA gyrase... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this flouroquinolone antibiotic can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture (along w GI probs, headaches, dizziness) and should not be used in pregnancy... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the non-nucleoside RT inhibitor that we learned about? What are it's side effects? |
|
Definition
effavirenz - which causes dizziness, insomnia, impaired consciousness, nightmares and rash |
|
|
Term
This TNF inhibitor shouldn't be used unless you test for TB first, it's used for RA and psoriatic arthritis, and causes bone marrow suppression, rashes, and secondary infections... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
antifungal that inh ergosterol and cyt p450, causes hepatotoxicity, Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, and can be teratogenic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This anti-fungal is converted to 5-flourouracil in fungal cells which is then converted to fdUMP, which inhibits thymidilate synthetase, thymidine is required for DNA synth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This antiviral is used for CMV, and inhibits DNA pol, it causes granulocytopenia and thrombocytopenia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This antifungal is used for superficial dermatophyte infections and binds to microtubules... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is griseofulvin inactive against? |
|
Definition
candidiasis and systemic infections |
|
|
Term
What two flouroquinolones did we learn about in this pharm course? |
|
Definition
cipro and levo - both inh DNA gyrase and cover gram +/- and pseudomonas, remember that levo can be used for strep but moxi has better activity |
|
|
Term
This broad spectrum antifungal inhibits ergosterol synth and cyt p450
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This antibiotic is used for UTIs only, by damaging bacterial DNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This antibiotics side effects include dark colored urine and pneumonitis... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is nitrofurantoin contraindicated in? |
|
Definition
patients with renal disease |
|
|
Term
this antiviral is used for influenza a and b, but needs to be used within 2 days of symptoms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of oseltamivir? |
|
Definition
neuraminidase inhibitor - prevents viral release from infected cell |
|
|
Term
What is the method of action of sulfamethoxazole? |
|
Definition
inihibits bacterial dihydropterate synthetase during syynth of folic acid that is used for DNA synth
|
|
|
Term
this antibiotic causes hypersensitivity, hemolysis in G6PD def, nephrotox, and photosensitivity... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This antibiotic inihibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase during folic acid synthesis... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacteria should you use trimethoprim for? |
|
Definition
shigella, salmonella, UTI, proteus, pneumocystis... |
|
|
Term
What are the SE of trimethoprim?
what's it usually used in conjunction with? |
|
Definition
megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, and granulocytopenia
sulfonamides |
|
|
Term
what is the MOA of vancomycin? |
|
Definition
inh bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding d-ala portion of cell wall precursors
|
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of vancomycin? |
|
Definition
nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, thrombophelbitis, and diffuse flushing
|
|
|
Term
When can vancomycin be given orally? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is atropine used for? |
|
Definition
bradycardia, hyperhidrosis, organophosphate poisoning, opthalmic applications... |
|
|
Term
What is bethanechol used for? |
|
Definition
urinary retention and post-operative ileus |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of bethanocol? atropine? |
|
Definition
bethanocol - stim muscarinic receptors increased PSNS activity, atropine - muscarinic antagonist decreasing PSNS activity |
|
|
Term
What is bismuth subsalicylate used for? |
|
Definition
GI compound that's used for dyspepsia, traveler's diarrhea prophylaxis, H pylori infection |
|
|
Term
what side effect can bismuth subsalicylate have? |
|
Definition
can cause very dark stools |
|
|
Term
What does bismuth subsalicylate do? |
|
Definition
coats ulcers and erosions, stimulates secretion of prostaglandin mucus and bicarbonate, reduced stool frequency... |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of calcium carbonate? |
|
Definition
basic solutions - aluminum compounds constipate, magnesium compounds diarrhea |
|
|
Term
this drug is a direct cholinergic agonist for glaucoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does echothiophate work? What are the side effects? |
|
Definition
irreversible inh of ACH esterase, which leaves extra ACH, overstimulates PSNS |
|
|
Term
When should you use 6-MP for IBD? |
|
Definition
WHen 5-ASA and corticosteroids fail |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inhibits purine synthesis |
|
|
Term
What is metronidazole used against? |
|
Definition
giardia, entamoeba, trichomonas, garnerella, anaerobes, and h. pylori |
|
|
Term
How does metronidazole work? |
|
Definition
forms free radical metabolites that damage the dna in bacterial cells |
|
|
Term
what are the SE of metronidazole? |
|
Definition
disulfiram like rxn with alcohol, headache, metalic taste |
|
|
Term
What indirect cholinergic agonist is used for postop ileus, urinary retention and MG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the moa of neostigmine? |
|
Definition
reversible inhibition of ACH esterase |
|
|
Term
Which indirect cholinergic agonist is irreversible? Whhic is reversible? |
|
Definition
echothiophate, neostigmine |
|
|
Term
Which PPI is used for peptic ulcers, gastritis, esophageal reflux and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of omeprazole? |
|
Definition
irreversibly blocks H/K ATPase in parietal cells resulting in decr pH, |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
GI disturbances, reduced vit B12 levels, increased respiratory and enteric bacterial infections |
|
|
Term
This histamine receptor 2 blocker is used for peptic ulcers, gastritis, and esophageal reflux... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is ranitidine reversible or irreversible? |
|
Definition
reversibly blocks histamine H2 receptors --> decr secretion from parietal cells |
|
|
Term
What drug is preferred in children with fevers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is used to treat acute acetaminophen toxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the moa of aspirin? |
|
Definition
non-selective irreversible cox inh |
|
|
Term
How long does aspirin last in the body? |
|
Definition
8-10 days in platelets, 6-12 hours in cells that produce cox |
|
|
Term
this andidepressant is used for depression and nicotine therapy, it blocks the reuptake of dopamine and NE and may promote their release |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This anti-epileptic is used for trigeminal neuralgia... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of carbamazepine? |
|
Definition
inhibition of voltage gated Na channels, reduced high freq activity while leaving low freq |
|
|
Term
What drug has a black box warning for toxic epidermal necrosis and aplastic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This opioid has a rapid onset and short duraiton which makes it popular with anesthesiologists... 100x as potent as morphine... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
who is ibuprofen use contraindicated in? |
|
Definition
pts using aspirin for cardioprotective effects, it antagonizes the anti-pt effect of aspirin |
|
|
Term
What dissociative used for anesthesia can be used in children and young adults, or in high risk patients with shock and poor risk geriatric pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a SE of ketamine that might affect its' use (not the obvious ones)? |
|
Definition
CV stimulation due to indirect symp stim |
|
|
Term
what is the MOA of lidocaine |
|
Definition
inh Na channels in nerves to depress APs |
|
|
Term
What is the onset and duration of lidocaine? |
|
Definition
rapid onset and immediate duration of action |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of morphine? |
|
Definition
mu opioid receptor activation decr cAMP synth, leads to inh of voltage gated Ca channels in presynaptic neuron, and activated K channels in post-syn neuron, leading to hyperpolarization |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of morphine? |
|
Definition
respiratory depression, physical dependance and constipation |
|
|
Term
What else is part of the method of action of morphine? |
|
Definition
glutamate release is inhibited from afferent neurons in the dorsal horn |
|
|
Term
what is the moa of nicotine? |
|
Definition
transiently releases dopamine, if using it to get people off of nicotine, reduce dose over time |
|
|
Term
What is special about nitric oxide? |
|
Definition
low potency (MAC >100%) and low solubility in blood makes it very fast onset and DOA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hematotox: can inh B12 dep enzymes and cause megaloblastic anemia or neuropathy, mild euphoria |
|
|
Term
What things does NO NOT affect? |
|
Definition
BP/myocardial function, minute ventilation, cerebral blood flow |
|
|
Term
What are the SE of pregabalin? |
|
Definition
thrombocytopenia, hypersensitivity, angioedema, rhabdomyolysis and suicidality
|
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of propofol? |
|
Definition
dose dependent cardiovascular and respiratory depression |
|
|
Term
What is succinylcholine used for?
MOA? |
|
Definition
muscle relaxant used for ET intubation
inhibits action of ACH at NM junction |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of succinylcholine? |
|
Definition
malignant hyperthermia, hyperkalemia, and anaphylaxis |
|
|
Term
What is succinylcholine ideal for? |
|
Definition
fastest and shortest acting muscle relaxer - ideal for trauma care |
|
|
Term
What kind of drug is thiopental and what's it used for?
what's it cause? |
|
Definition
barbituate - general anesthesia, rapid induction and short procedures with little pain, good amnesia and anxyolysis but poor analgesia and inadequate muscle relexation
Cv/resp depression |
|
|
Term
What is your go to SABA in asthma tx? |
|
Definition
albuterol, can also be used in COPD |
|
|
Term
Which specific receptors does albuterol act on? |
|
Definition
beta 2 receptors (agonizes) |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of albuterol? |
|
Definition
tremor, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesmia, increased HR, cardiac arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
What is diphenhydramine used for?
what's it do? |
|
Definition
type I hypersensitivity and insomnia
blocks histamine type I receptors |
|
|
Term
What are the SE of diphenhydramine? |
|
Definition
sedation and anti-cholinergic effects |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
antihistamine used for type 1 hypersensitivity, blocks histamine type 1 receptors, less sedative, GI disturbances |
|
|
Term
What is furosemide used for? |
|
Definition
diuresis, heart failure, acute pulmonary edema, nephritic syndrome, htn, hyperca |
|
|
Term
What does furosemide act on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What side effect of furosemide is a direct result of it's MOA? |
|
Definition
hypokalemia - increased Na load delivered to dist conv tubule and collecting ducts, hypomagnesmia and alkalosis come along with |
|
|
Term
What is hydrochlorothiazide used for? |
|
Definition
thiazide diuretic used for diuresis, hf, htn, diabetes insipidus, nephrolithiasis and osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
What channel does hydrochlorothiazide inhibit? |
|
Definition
Na-Cl symporter in the DCT |
|
|
Term
What does hydrochlorothiazide use result in? |
|
Definition
enhanced ca reabsorption, in both prox tubule and DCT
|
|
|
Term
What short acting muscarinic is used for both asthma and copd? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of ipratropium bromide? |
|
Definition
bronchodilation by competitively blocking M3 receptors |
|
|
Term
What are the SE of ipratropium bromide? |
|
Definition
hypersensitivity and anti-cholinergic symptoms |
|
|
Term
What osmotic diuretic is used for intracranial hematoma, cerebral edema, glaucoma and anuria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
locally inh water reab in thin limb of loop of henle by increasing tubule osmolarity, opposes ADH action in collecting duct |
|
|
Term
What SE can mannitol cause? |
|
Definition
worsen heart failure, pulmonary edema, headache, nausea, vomiting, dehydration, hyperk, hyperna |
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications for mannitol use? |
|
Definition
pulmonary edema, poor cardiac reserve, active cranial bleeding, severe dehydration |
|
|
Term
Omalizumab is an antibody to ___ that can be used for severe asthma... |
|
Definition
IgE - prevents binding to mast cells and basophils |
|
|
Term
What is your go to LABA in asthma and COPD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What receptors does salmeterol act on? |
|
Definition
Beta 2 adrenergics (agonist) |
|
|
Term
What are the SE of salmeterol... |
|
Definition
tremor, hyperglyc, hypoK, hypomg, increased HR, cardiac arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
K sparing diuretic used for edema, htn, primary hyperaldosteronism, secondary hyperaldosteronism |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of spironolactone? |
|
Definition
antagonist to aldosterone in late distal tubule and collecting duct, prevents Na reabsorption, thus reducing K excretion, prevents activation of proton pump to decrease H secretion |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of spironolactone? |
|
Definition
hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis |
|
|
Term
What bisphosphonate is used for osteoporosis, paget's, and hyperca of malignancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of alendronate? |
|
Definition
incorporated into bone and slowly released to inhibit osteoclasts... |
|
|
Term
What are the SE of alendronate? |
|
Definition
GI disturbances, atypical femur fractures, nephrotox |
|
|
Term
Who is alendronate contraindicated in? |
|
Definition
patients with impaired renal function, esophageal motility dxn, and PUD |
|
|
Term
What hormone is used for hyperca, paget's disease of the bone, and postmenopausal osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
decreases blood Ca and P, by inhibiting bone reabsorption and kidney reab |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of calcitonin use? |
|
Definition
hypersens, flusing, nausea, gi disturbances |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can be used to treat failure of ovarian development, menopause and for contraception? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what does estrogen stimulate? |
|
Definition
proliferation of the endometrium during the follicular phase |
|
|
Term
What lipid will estrogens increase when they are orally admin? |
|
Definition
triglycerides (they'll incr HDL and decr LDL) |
|
|
Term
How do estrogens maintain bone mass? |
|
Definition
they inhibit osteoclasts. |
|
|
Term
What do estrogens do to the blood? |
|
Definition
enhance coag - more thrombosis |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of estrogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When are estrogens definitely contraindicated? |
|
Definition
breast cancer or estrogen dependent neoplasms, undiagnosed abnormal vaginal bleeding, preg, hepatic dxn, or hx of thromboembolic disorders |
|
|
Term
What ACTH analog is used for AI testing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What should increase as cosyntrophin's conc increases in the plasma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the short acting insulin? intermediate? long? |
|
Definition
short - lispro and aspart, intermediate - NPH, long - glargine |
|
|
Term
Levothyroxine is a ___ analog, while liothyronine is a ___ analog |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Methimazole inhibits iodination and coupling reactions to oppose the thyroid, what are it's SE? |
|
Definition
agranulocytosis, jaundice, vasculitis, lupus-like rxn, hypoprothrombinemia, and rash |
|
|
Term
When is methimazole contraindicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What somatostatin analog is used for gigantism/acromegaly? |
|
Definition
octreotide (also used for hepatorenal syndrome?) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the SE of octreotide? |
|
Definition
GI disturbances, chol gallstones |
|
|
Term
What is prednisone used for? |
|
Definition
addison's, inflammation, immune suppression, and asthma |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of prednisone? |
|
Definition
decr production of leukotrienes and prostaglandins by inhibiting phospholipase A2 and expression of COX-2 |
|
|
Term
What should always be done when ending a glucocorticoid regimine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of prednisone? |
|
Definition
cushing's, adrenal suppression, osteoporosis, infections, glucose intolerance, myopathy, fluid and electrolyte disturbances |
|
|
Term
What is used to prevent thrombosis in angioplasty and acute coronary syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of abciximab?
SE? |
|
Definition
blocks GPIIa/IIIb, thus preventing platelet aggregation
bleeding and thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
this drug is an ACE inhibitor.... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of captopril? |
|
Definition
inh conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, compensatory rise in renin activity due to loss of feedback inhibition, alosterone levels - excretion of Na/retention of potassium |
|
|
Term
What is one of the most commonly known SE of captopril? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications for captopril? |
|
Definition
pregnancy and bilateral artery stenosis
|
|
|
Term
What are the "precautions" for captopril? |
|
Definition
hypotension, hyperkalemia, renal function management, NSAIDS interaction |
|
|
Term
What drug is an alpha and beta receptor antagonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is carvedilol used to treat? |
|
Definition
hypertension, ischemic heart diseases, chronic heart failure
|
|
|
Term
what is the MOA of carvedilol? |
|
Definition
lower BP by decr renin, vascular relaxation and decreased CO, blocks positive chronotropic and inotropic effects, also less reflex tach |
|
|
Term
What is the standard of care for chronic heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what bile acid sequestrant can be used for hypercholesterolemia, digitalis tox, and pregnant women with hyperlipidemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug increases bile acid secretion by enhancing conversion of chol to bile acids via 7 alpha-hydroxylation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of cholestyramine? |
|
Definition
constipation, bloating, VLDL increase and drug interactions |
|
|
Term
What cardiac glycoside is used to treat heart failure in A fib and symptomatic sinus rhythm despite therapy wtih ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does digoxin have positive or negative inotropic effects? |
|
Definition
positive, inhibits Na-K exchange, alters Na/Ca exchange, and increases intracellular Ca |
|
|
Term
What does digoxin do at low doses? |
|
Definition
decreases HR and conduction velocity |
|
|
Term
Why does diuresis occur with digoxin therapy? |
|
Definition
decrease in renin secretion, and icnrease in perfusion due to incr SNS tone |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of digoxin? |
|
Definition
bradycardia, tachycardia, AV block, GI effects, confusion, adn hallucinations |
|
|
Term
What is important to remember about digoxin? |
|
Definition
it has a narrow therapeutic safety window, and diuretics/ca blockers/beta blockers all cause drug interactions |
|
|
Term
What is losartan used for? |
|
Definition
htn, heart failure and diabetic retinopathy |
|
|
Term
What is losartan used for? |
|
Definition
hypertension, heart failure, diabetic neuropathy |
|
|
Term
what are the side effects of losartan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of losartan? |
|
Definition
angiotensin II receptor blocker, orally active |
|
|
Term
Which selective beta 1 receptor antagonist can be used for htn, ischemic heart disease, cardiac arrhythmias, and chronic HF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of metoprolol? |
|
Definition
blocks beta 1 receptors which leads to lower bp by inh renin and decr CO |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of metoprolol? |
|
Definition
parasymp - brad, bronchospasm, hypoglycemia, mask tach, GI disturbances, depression, insomnia, sudden death from abrupt discontinuation |
|
|
Term
What is a contraindication for metoprolol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which arterial vasodilator is used for severe hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the MOA of minoxidil result in? |
|
Definition
arterial vasodilation that decreases afterload/bp, but then a reflex increase in symp activity and increase in renin |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of minoxidil... |
|
Definition
excessive vasodilation, fluid retention, pericardial effusion and tachycardia |
|
|
Term
What is the function of the metabolite that minoxidil is converted to in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the method of action of Ca channel blockers? |
|
Definition
bind voltage gated L type Ca channels - inh ca influx after depolarization of cardiac and smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
Which calcium channels blocker might cause a reflex increase in heart rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which calcium channel blockers are good for reducing the rate of SVTs and vent tach/fib in patients with a fib? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are contraindications for nefedipine and verapamil? |
|
Definition
hypotension, severe LV dxn, overt CF, SA or SV conduction defects and aortic stenosis |
|
|
Term
Nitroglycerin's MOA is.... |
|
Definition
converted to nitrous oxide which stim's cGMP production in the body, which results in vascular smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation --> decreases preload |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of nitroglycerin? |
|
Definition
headache, flushing, orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, reflex tach, paradoxical brad, tolerance |
|
|
Term
What does NO do to the heart that's so important? |
|
Definition
decreases oxygen demand (and increases delivery) |
|
|
Term
what patients is nitroglycerin contraindicated in? |
|
Definition
hypotension and elevated ICP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
selective alpha 1 agonist |
|
|
Term
What is prazosin used for? |
|
Definition
pheochromocytoma, chronic htn |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of prazosin? |
|
Definition
competitively and reversible blocks alpha 1 --> vascular smooth muscle relaxation, can also decr SNS outflow and baroreceptor reflex |
|
|
Term
Which drug has first dose syncope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the other side effects of prazosin? |
|
Definition
less reflex tach, postural hypotension, nasal stuffiness, dizziness, incontinence, impotence of ejaculation, priapism, miosis, salt and water retention |
|
|
Term
What effects does prazosin have on lipids? |
|
Definition
decreases LDL and trig's while increasing HDL |
|
|
Term
What drug is a non-selective beta adrenergic antagonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is propranolol used for? |
|
Definition
htn, ischemic heart disease, cardiac arrythmias, chronic heart failure |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of propranolol/ |
|
Definition
beta 1 and beta 2 receptors leading to lower BP through inh renin and decr CO |
|
|
Term
Side effects of propranolol? |
|
Definition
bradycardia, bronchospasm, hypoglycemia, mask tachycardia, increase triglycerides, decrease HDL |
|
|
Term
What are contraindications for propranolol? |
|
Definition
asthma and av conduction defects |
|
|
Term
What does propranolol ultimately do? |
|
Definition
decrease O2 requirement of the heart, making beta blockers useful in the tx of angina |
|
|
Term
What HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are used for hypercholesterolemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatic tox |
|
|
Term
What is important about simvastatin? |
|
Definition
standard of care immediately after a coronary event, take at night for best use |
|
|
Term
Who is simvastatin contraindicated in? |
|
Definition
contraindicated in pregnant/lactating women, severe illness, trauma, surgery, and liver disease |
|
|
Term
What is warfarin used for? |
|
Definition
anticoagulant for preventing DVT and thrombosis assoc with Afib and artificial valves |
|
|
Term
What is the method of action of warfarin? |
|
Definition
inhibits synthesis of coagulation factors |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of warfarin? |
|
Definition
bleeding, birth defects, and cutaneous necrosis |
|
|
Term
what kind of drug is indanavir and what negative side effect is associated? |
|
Definition
protease inhibitor - kidney stones |
|
|
Term
what should prophylaxis be started for in an HIV pt with CD4 < 200? |
|
Definition
pneumocystic jerovichi pneumonia - use bactrim |
|
|
Term
what is associated with acetaminophen overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does doxorubicin do that causes it's adverse side effect? |
|
Definition
causes generation of free radicals leading to dilated cardiomyopathy |
|
|
Term
What drug used for influenza treatment inhibits viral uncoating and can shorten the duration of infection by influenza virus? |
|
Definition
rimantadine - metabolized by liver and therefore contraindicated in liver failure |
|
|
Term
What is the equation for clearance using half life and volume of distribution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the method of action of lovastatin? |
|
Definition
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, upregulates LDL receptor expression to pick up more cholesterol from the periphery |
|
|
Term
What is the definitive tx for organophosphate poisoning? |
|
Definition
atropine followed by pralidoxine (which will destroy bond btw organophosphate and Ache) |
|
|
Term
What is the first line choice for a child with bedwetting who's failed restriction of fluids/enuresis alarms? |
|
Definition
desmopressin, which will increase urine osm |
|
|
Term
What is amitriptyline used for and what are the side effects? |
|
Definition
neuropathic pain - antimuscaric effects leading to urinary retention and tachycardia |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects seen with loop diuretic treatment? |
|
Definition
hypokalemia, hyperuricemia, hypercalciuria, and hearing loss |
|
|
Term
What is the anti-fungal drug of choice for rose-grower's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What antibiotic drug is associated with ototox? |
|
Definition
gentamicin - inhibits prot synth by binding 30s |
|
|
Term
A pt comes in with 3 yr hx of depression and is followed by psych - treatment is initiated as symptoms progress to Gi distress and anorgasmia, what drug is she put on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the first sign of magnesium tox? |
|
Definition
decreased deep tendon reflexes |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of isoniazid? |
|
Definition
drug induced lupus and peripheral neuropathy |
|
|
Term
What TB drug can cause orange colored tears and urine? |
|
Definition
Rifampin - harmless and reversible |
|
|
Term
What side effects can ethambutol cause? |
|
Definition
loss of visual acuity and red/green color blindness |
|
|
Term
A woman put on a new drug for her RA due to joint ersions experiences tinnitus, blurred vision and pigmented retinal deposits, what is she on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of succinylcholine? |
|
Definition
binds acetylcholine receptors (agonist) causing faciculations first then flaccid paralysis |
|
|
Term
A patients comes in with high cholesterol and myoglobinuria, along with muscle cramps. What drug could they be on that could cause this? |
|
Definition
Lovastatin- HMG CoA reductase inhibitor that causes rhabdomyolysis/myositis |
|
|
Term
If a woman with osteoporosis has smoked a pack of cigarettes a day and has had a DVT in the past what can you treat her with as an alternative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug will decreased VLDL release from the liver into the circulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What long term anti-bronchospasm drug used for COPD can cause dry mouth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drugs used to iradicate bacteria in peptic ulcer disease can cause photosensitivity? |
|
Definition
Doxycycline (tetracycline antibiotics in general) |
|
|
Term
Which drug stabilizes microtubules resulting in failure of mitosis?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a patient with liver or kidney disease, how should you change loading dose and maintenance dose of a drug? |
|
Definition
decrease maintenance dose, keep loading the same, clearance will be decreased |
|
|
Term
What cholinomimetic drug is used for glaucoma and pupillary contraction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the fibular head prefers to move posteriorly, what happens to the remaining involved structures (distal fibula, foot)? |
|
Definition
distal fibula prefers ant movement, foot moves into plantarflexion and inversion |
|
|
Term
What osteopathic techniques are used when there is an acute injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What kind of sacral torsion will present with a positive seated flexion test on the left? (and flexed, sidebent r, rotated r L5)? |
|
Definition
left on right oblique axis sacral torsion |
|
|
Term
What spinal leves recieve information from the lung? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What kind of muscle movement is there in a bicep curl? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When damaged, what lobe of the brain can result in problems with comprehension while the patient retains fluent speech? |
|
Definition
Temporal lobe - Wernicke's area |
|
|
Term
Damage to what area results in impaired speech but intact comprehension? |
|
Definition
Broca's area in the frontal lobe |
|
|
Term
MS presents with damage to what on a cellular level? |
|
Definition
oligodendrocytes in the CNS |
|
|
Term
What syndrome involves increased susceptibility to staph and strep species specifically? |
|
Definition
Chediak-Higashi syndrome - involves problems with microtubule formation |
|
|
Term
A patient shows up with cafe-au-lait spots and lisch nodules, along with scoliosis and hemartomas... what does she have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient shows up with a history of peptic ulcer disease, discharge from the nipples, blurry vision and amenorrhea, what does she probably have? |
|
Definition
MEN 1 - pituitary, pancreas, parathyroid |
|
|
Term
Where are the genes associated with MEN1 located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What symptoms can be seen w men 2A? |
|
Definition
pheochromocytoma (hypertensive episodes), parathyroid adenomas (increased PTH and calcium) and thyroid medullary carcinoma (increased calcitonin and hypoca) |
|
|
Term
What is PCOS also called? |
|
Definition
Stein Leventhal syndrome - increased level of LH from ant pit leads to incr androgens from theca cells |
|
|
Term
A mother that is having problems with lactation and other pituitary signs is presenting with ___________ syndrome. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes the lack of prolactin in Sheehan's? |
|
Definition
damage to the pituitary gland, therefore bromocriptine would be contraindicated |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
GH analog used for GH def or cachexia |
|
|
Term
What drug can be used for a patient with carcinoid syndrome? |
|
Definition
octreotide (somatostatin analog) |
|
|
Term
What can a patient with carcinoid syndrome end up with a deficiency of? |
|
Definition
Niacin - leading to pellegra (diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis, death) |
|
|
Term
PCOS increase one's risk of having... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A high calcitonin level is associated with this cancer... |
|
Definition
medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, which is proliferation of parafollicular c-cells |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for a benzo overdose? (anti-anxiety pills) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What anti-dote should you give a man who has overdosed on his blood pressure pills (beta blockers)? |
|
Definition
glucagon will increase cAMP |
|
|
Term
what drugs should be used for methanol overdose? altered mental status, hyperventilation and visual disturbance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A man comes in with nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, and visual disturbances, and he has an AV block, what's he overdosed on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What effects will be seen if a patient overdoses on anti-depressants? |
|
Definition
sympathetic effects - dry mouth, tach, and big pupils, cardiotox is the most dangerous with a wide QRS being characteristic |
|
|
Term
What should you give a patient that overdosed on their tricyclic antidepressants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An overdose of what will result in the patient seeing "falling spots in front of them" along with metabolic acidosis, slurred speech and ataxia? What should you treat them with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of pneumocytes produce surfactant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What rare and serious complication can happen if a patient if measles is left untreated? |
|
Definition
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (mental changes years later) |
|
|
Term
What is the problem seen in hemophilia A?
|
|
Definition
deficiency of factor VIII which is involved in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which results in an INCREASED PTT |
|
|