Term
What authority does the PIC have while in flight? |
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Definition
§91.3 Responsibility and authority of the PIC
(a) PIC responsible / final authority
(b) In-flight emergency, PIC may deviate from any rule
(c) PIC who deviates, upon request, send a written report (See Mandatory reporting requirements 49.830)
(Note: deviations from ATC directive requires immediate report) |
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Term
Who determines if an aircraft is airworthy?
Under what conditions may a flight continue if airworthiness concerns develop during a flight?
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Definition
§91.7 Civil aircraft airworthiness.
(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition.
(b) PIC - is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight.
- shall discontinue flight when un-airworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur. |
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Term
What is the source of operating limitations for an aircraft?
Where can a pilot find this information?
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Definition
§91.9 Aircraft flight manual, marking, placard requirements.
(a) The pilot must follow the operating limitations listed in the airplane flight manual, markings or placards.
(b) No person may operate an aircraft unless there is available in the aircraft an Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) |
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Term
Under what circumstances can the PIC allow objects to be dropped from a plane? |
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Definition
§91.15 Dropping objects.
No PIC of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property.
However, the dropping of an object if reasonable precautions are taken is OK |
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Term
How long must one wait after consuming alcohol before flying as PIC?
What B.A.L. is the limit for PIC?
When may an intoxicated individual (drugs or alcohol) be allowed on an aircraft?
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Definition
§91.17 Alcohol or drugs.
No one may act as PIC
> w/in 8 hours of consuming an alcoholic beverage;
> While under the influence of alcohol; OR BAL of 0.04 or greater
> While using any drug that affects the person's faculties contrary to safety;
> Except in an emergency, no pilot may allow an intoxicated person (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft.
> A pilot must submit to a test to indicate the alcohol concentration in the blood or breath,
> When requested, that person must furnish to the FAA the results each test taken within 4 hours after acting as the PIC.
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Term
What information must a pilot collect prior to any flight?
What information must a pilot collect prior to a cross country flight? |
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Definition
§91.103 Preflight action.
Each PIC before a flight, become familiar with "all available info concerning that flight" .
Must include—
For any flight- "RAWFAT"
> Runway lengths at airports of intended use,
> Alternatives if flight can't be taken or completed
> Weather forecasts
> Fuel requirements
> ATC advised traffic delays
> Takeoff/landing distances for airports -From the AFM/POH -OR other source, aircraft performance under expected values for elevation / runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind / temperature.
For a flight not in the vicinity of an airport-
> weather reports / forecasts,
> fuel requirements,
> alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed,
> known traffic delays / PIC has been advised by ATC;
R- Runway lengths (every flight)
A – Alternatives if planned flight cant be completed
W – Weather reports and forecasts*
F- Fuel requirements *
A – ATC advised traffic delays *
T- Takeoff/landing distance data (every flight) |
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Term
What is the responsibility of the PIC relative to passenger seating and wearing seat belts in the airplane?
(who needs one and when?) |
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Definition
§91.107 Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint systems.
> PIC of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten their safety belt / shoulder harness.
> Each person must occupy an approved seat with a safety belt / shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.
> A child < 2yrs old may be held by an adult who is occupying an approved seat, provided the child does not use any restraining device |
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Term
What must occur in order to fly as part of a formation flight? |
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Definition
§91.111 Operating near other aircraft.
(a) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard
(b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
except by arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation.
(c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight. |
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Term
List aircraft classes in order of R-O-W.
When two airplanes converge, What determines R-O-W?
Landing aircraft R-O-W? |
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Definition
§91.113 Right-of-way rules: Except water
vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft.
has the right-of-way (r-o-w)
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over
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aircraft in distress
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all other air traffic
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Balloon (can’t maneuver)
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any other category of aircraft
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Glider (Nonpowered over powered)
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airship, pwrd parachute, wt-shft-cntrl aircraft, airplane /rotorcraft.
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aircraft towing or refueling
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all other engine-driven aircraft.
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Airship (least maneuverable)
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pwrd parachute, wt-shft-cntrl aircraft, airplane, or rotorcraft
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> Converging (same category) aircraft to the other's right has the r-o-w. (if different categories, see above - less maneuverable has ROW)
Rules not defining ROW by category
> Approaching head-on. Each aircraft shall alter course to the right.
> Overtaking. an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right
> Landing. Aircraft on final / landing, have the r-o-w over other aircraft in flight or on the surface
> Two aircraft approaching for landing, aircraft at the lower altitude has r-o-w,
Water ops - boats and planes treated equally? follow other ROW rules? General - regard other with respect as to their limitations (ex? - airplane taking off into the wind has ROW over boat, unless boat is in distress?)
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Term
What does the FAR indicate about speed limits for aircraft? |
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Definition
91.117 Aircraft speed.
No person may operate
> Below 10,000 ft MSL at indicated airspeed (IAS) > 250 kts (incl Class B)
> Below 2,500 ft AGL within 4 nm of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an IAS > 200 kts
> Underlying a Class B airspace area > 200 kts
or VFR corridor through class B at an IAS > 200 kts (230 mph).
> However, a higher minimum safe airspeed may be designated for specific airspaces. |
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Term
According to the FAR's, how low can a pilot fly in different circumstances? |
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Definition
§91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General.
No person may operate below (Except takeoff or landing)
> Altitude allowing, a safe emergency landing
> over any Congested area or open air assembly - 1,000 feet above highest obstacle w/in 2,000 ft (0.4 mi)
> Other areas - 500 ft AGL,
> Except - sparsely pop areas or over water – no closer than 500 feet to person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. |
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Term
What are the guidelines for setting the altimeter in an aircraft on a cross country flight? |
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Definition
§91.121 Altimeter settings.
Maintain cruising altitude by reference to altimeter set to
> Current altimeter setting of a station within 100 nm
Or altimeter setting of other station (if none w/in 100 nm),
Or w/o a radio - elevation of departure airport
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Term
What authority does the PIC have when operating under ATC clearance / instructions?
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Definition
§91.123 Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
The PIC
> may not deviate from ATC clearance unless amended clearance obtained, or emergency exists
OR in response to a TCAS advisory (traffic collision avoidance system)
> PIC who deviates from ATC directive due to emergency or TCAS advisory, shall notify ATC of that deviation ASAP.
> If given priority to deviate due to emergency- upon request: notify ATC and submit report w/in 48 hours.
> may not operate an aircraft according to clearance issued to the pilot of another aircraft |
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Term
Describe ATC light signals and their directives.
(surface vs. airborne)
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Definition
§91.125 ATC light signals.
ATC light signals have the meaning shown in the following table:
Color and type of signal
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Meaning with respect to aircraft on the surface
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Meaning with respect to aircraft in flight
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Steady green
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Cleared for takeoff
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Cleared to land.
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Flashing green
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Cleared to taxi
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Return for landing (to be followed by steady green at proper time).
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Steady red
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Stop
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Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
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Flashing red
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Taxi clear of runway in use
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Airport unsafe—do not land.
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Flashing white
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Return to starting point on airport
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Not applicable.
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Alternating red and green
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Exercise extreme caution
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Exercise extreme caution.
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Term
What are the rules for operations in class G airspace & airport with a control tower? (w/ tower but no ATIS)
(Comm distances/altitudes;equip req'd; Vis/Cloud c.) |
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Definition
§91.126 Ops vicinity of airport in Class G Towered airspace.
Tower --> comm w/ ATC but has no ATIS weather
[best to treat like class D airport?]
> Turns to the left (unless RP - right pattern indicated)
> Must Establish two-way radio communications & maintained b/t aircraft and control tower prior to 4 NM from the airport, 2,500 feet and lower AGL (typical class D dimensions)
>Transponder or ADS-B not required
> radio fails, may land if meets VFR weather mins, visual contact with tower is maintained, and a clearance to land is received.
Other
>1200' (cls E Typl) - >3 mi vis, 1000 abv, 500 blw, 2000 hzntl fr clouds
class G >1200' (rare)
- Day 1 mi / 1000 abv, 500 blw, 2000 hzntl,
- night 3 mi / 1000 abv, 500 blw, 2000 hzntl
< 1200' AGL (beneath class E)
Day >1 mi visibility, Clear of clouds day
Night >3 mi, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal -
(except w/in 1/2 mi of airport; > 1 mi CoC D or N)
<200 KIAS recommended.
[image] |
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Term
What are the rules for operations in class E airspace / airport with a control tower?
(describe and appearance on sectional)
(communication/clearance/fr Sat airpts/comm loss)
equip required?
(Also: Vis/Cloud C/speeds)
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Definition
§91.127 Ops on / in / airport in Cls E airspace.
[image]
(E - comm w/ ATC, has ATIS weather)
Comply §91.126:
> Direction of turns - to the left (unless RP indicated)
> Comm w/ CT. Est / maint 4 NM up to 2,500 ft AGL (typ cls D dims)
> Radio fails PIC - land if weather meets VFR mins,
visual contact with tower, and a clearance to land is received.
> Departures. Comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport.
Other: visibility >3 mi
clouds: 1000 ft above, 500 below, 2000 ft horizontal
Transponder / ADS-B not required.
speed limit <250 kts (below 10,000 ft)
aerobatic flight NOT permitted
[image]
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Term
Rules for ops in class D airspace?
(communication/clearance/fr Sat airpts/comm loss)
(Also: Vis/Cloud C/speeds) |
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Definition
§91.129 Operations in Class D airspace.
[No Radar - Mode C transponder not required]
Comply with 91.126 Class G & 91.127 class E regs
Communication Establish communications with the ATC prior to entering the airspace and maintain communications while in the airspace.
(e) Minimum altitudes. (1) Unless required by the applicable distance-from-cloud criteria, each pilot operating a large or turbine-powered airplane must enter the pattern and maintain at an altitude > 1,500 feet AGL until further descent is required for a safe landing.
(f) Approaches.unless otherwise required by ATC—
(1) Circle the airport to the left
(3) on runways served by VASI maintain an altitude at or above the glide path until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance. To operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway, or take off or land an aircraft, requires clearance from ATC.
Departing flight. From primary airport establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower, while operating in the Class D airspace
or
From a satellite airport w/o a control tower, establish and maintain two-way radio communications with ATC facility as soon as practicable after departing.
Communications failure. If the radio fails in flight under VFR, the PIC may operate and land if—
(i) Weather at or above basic VFR weather minimums;
(ii) Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and
(iii) A clearance to land is received.
Other:
Vis > 3 mi, ceiling >1000'
Clouds: 1000'abv, 500'blw, 2000'hrzntl
Speed: <200 kts below 2500'AGL and <4 nm from airport
(typcl cls D arspce 4.4 NM/5 SM radius; ht to 2500 ft agl)
No aerobatic flight
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Term
What are the rules for operations in class C airspace?
(communication, equip required, clearances required)
other: Vis/Cloud Cl/speed limits |
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Definition
§91.130 Operations in Class C airspace.
Communications.
Arrival or through flight. establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to entering and while inside the airspace
Traffic patterns. must comply with arrival and departure traffic patterns.
Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance. To operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway, or take off or land an aircraft, requires clearance from ATC.
Departing flight. establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower, while operating in the Class C airspace area; Or From a satellite airport w/o a control tower, establish and maintain two-way radio communications as soon as practicable after departing.
Equipment requirements.
within a Class C airspace must have Mode C transponder (transmits ID and altitude when prompted by ATC) , and ADS-B (Broadcasts GPS location)
Other:
<200 kts when below 2500' AGL / <4 nm from airport
> 3 mi vis / clouds: 1000' abv, 500' blw, 2000' hrzntl
No aerobatics w/in class C airspace
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Term
What are the rules for operations in class B airspace?
(communication, equip req'd, sat airport)
(other: Vis/cloud c, speed limit, aerob flt) |
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Definition
§91.131 Operations in Class B airspace.
> Must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC before operating an aircraft in that area.
> The PIC holds at least a private pilot certificate; Or student pilot w/ endorsements; except at large airports Appendix D.
> Nav/Com equipment:
two-way radio capable of com on aprp freq's and
Mode C transponder w/ automatic alt report equip and ADS-B Out
Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance. To operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway, or take off or land an aircraft, requires clearance from ATC.
Departing flight. From primary airport establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower, while operating in the Class D airspace
or
From a satellite airport w/o a control tower, establish and maintain two-way radio communications with ATC facility as soon as practicable after departing.
Other: > 3 mi visibility, Clear of clouds
No aerobatic flight
< 250 kts generally (but 200 kts under B, and in VFR corridor) |
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Term
What are the rules for operations in a restricted or prohibited areas?
(Also who to contact? Marking on sectional?) |
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Definition
§91.133 Restricted and prohibited areas.
Restricted areas:
> entry/flight w/in "while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions" - "may not operate in a restricted area contrary to the restrictions imposed."
> contain unusual, often invisible hazards to Aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or flight of guided missiles
>(need to access when the area is not in use – “cold”)
sectionals list info but contact FSS or ATC center.
[image]
or within a prohibited area,
> w/o permission of the using or controlling agency
> est'd for reasons of security / national welfare
[image] |
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Term
TFR's
(publication, purpose, |
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Definition
91.137-97.143 TFR’s vic'y of disaster/hazard areas.
Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) designating an area within which temporary flight restrictions apply and specifying the hazard or condition requiring their imposition, whenever he determines it is necessary in order to—
(1) Protect persons and property on the surface or in the air from a hazard associated with an incident on the surface;
(2) Provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief aircraft; or
(3) Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing and other aircraft above an incident or event which may generate a high degree of public interest.
§91.139 Emergency air traffic rules.
NOTAMs / Administrator determines that emergency condition exists, relating to the FAA's ability to operate the air traffic control system
§91.141 proximity of the Presidential and other parties.
§91.143 space flight ops.
§91.144 ops abn high barometric press cond's.
§91.145 aerial demonstrations and major sporting events.
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Term
Passenger-carrying charity flights
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Definition
§91.146 Passenger-carrying flights for the benefit of a
charitable,
nonprofit, or
community event.
nonstop /begins / ends at same airport / conducted w/in 25-SM
public airport
maximum of 30 seats, (excluding crewmembers)
max payload capacity of 7,500 lb;
not an aerobatic or a formation flight;
day VFR conditions;
Reimburs't l't'd to pro rata cost of own'g, op, maint acft
PIC has at least 500 hrs of flight time; |
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Term
What are the rules for fuel carried on an aircraft? |
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Definition
§91.151 Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.
Considering wind and forecast weather conditions, no person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed
(1) during the day for at least an additional 30 minutes;
(2), At night to fly for at an additional 45 minutes. |
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Term
What information goes into a flight plan?
(Also, communication requirements?) |
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Definition
§91.153 VFR flight plan: Information required.
7 P's:
Plane, pilot, point,path, point, petrol, persons
Information required.
> Plane: aircraft ID #, radio call sign, type of the aircraft
> Pilot: name and address of the PIC
> point and time of departure.
> Path: proposed route, cruising altitude (or flight level), and true airspeed at that altitude.
> point of first intended landing and the estimated elapsed time until over that point.
> Petrol: amount of fuel on board (in hours).
> Persons: number of persons in the aircraft
Cancellation. When a flight plan has been activated, the PIC, upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight plan, shall notify Flight Service Station or ATC |
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Term
What are the rules for cloud clearance within various classes of airspace?
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Definition
§91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums.
A Not applicable since all flights are IFR
B / 3 SM visibility / Clear of Clouds.
C / 3 SM / 1,000' above. 500' below. 2,000' horizontal.
D / 3 SM / 1,000' above 500' below.. 2,000' horizontal.
Class E: SurfExtTrans VictOffshDomenrtAbva
< 10,000' MSL / 3 SM / 1,000' above. 500' below. 2,000' horizontal.
At or > 10,000' MSL / 5 SM / 1,000' below. 1,000' above. 1 SM horizontal.
Class G:
< 1,200 ft AGL regardless of MSL (even >10,000' MSL)
Day 1 SM / Clear of clouds.
Night 3 SM / 1,000' above. 500' below. 2,000' horizontal. (except SpVFR )
> 1,200 ft AGL (up to 10,000 ft MSL)
Day - 1 SM/ 1,000' above. 500' below. 2,000' horizontal.
Night -3 SM/1,000' above. 500' below. 2,000' horizontal.
>10,000 ft MSL -(except blw 1200' agl)
5 mi / 1000' above, 1000' below, 1 mi horizontal
Airport in Class G Airspace < 1,200 feet AGL:
Visibility b/t 3 SM to 1 SM at night within 1⁄2 mile of the runway, you may operate clear of clouds.
No flight beneath the ceiling at an airport when the ceiling < 1,000 ft. (Except for Special VFR).
May not take off, land or enter the traffic pattern, VFR, in Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace at an airport visibility < 3 SM (Except for special VFR),
[image]
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Term
What are the rules for SVFR? |
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Definition
§91.157 Special VFR weather minimums.
> Special VFR (SVFR) operations may be conducted below 10,000 ft MSL within the controlled airspace of an airport.
> Special VFR operations may only be conducted with ATC clearance; between sunrise and sunset:
Clear of clouds; visibility is at least 1 SM;
NOTE: night SVFR req IFR rating and IFR equip'd aircraft
(Can be requested by PIC when visiblity and cloud clearance below minimums for controlled airspace but meets minimums for surrounding uncontrolled G space) |
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Term
What are the rules for VFR cruising altitudes? |
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Definition
§91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level.
VFR level cruise flight > 3,000 ft AGL < 18,000 feet MSL
magnetic course of
- 0 to 179 degrees, odd thousand ft MSL + 500 ft
(such as 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500);
- 180 to 359 degrees, even thousand ft MSL + 500 ft (such as 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500).
> 18,000 ft MSL altitude or flight level assigned by ATC. |
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Term
What certificate is required to operate an aircraft?
Where is it stored?
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Definition
§91.203 Civil aircraft: Certifications required.
Airworthiness certificate displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.
U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner.
Fuel tank installed within the passenger or baggage compartment w/ copy of FAA Form 337 authorizing that installation |
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Term
What equipment/instrumentation is required for VFR flight?
(day/night) |
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Definition
§91.205 VFR Instrument and equip required.
Airplane must contain / operable instruments and equipment:
Day VFR flight;ATOMATOFLAMES
>Anti-collision lights (certificated post '96)
> Tachometer for each engine.
> Oil press gauge for each engine using pressure system.
> Magnetic direction indicator.(compass)
> Altimeter.
> Temp gauge for each liquid-cooled engine.
> Oil temp gauge for each air-cooled engine.
> Fuel gauge for each tank.
> Landing gear position indicator, if retractable gear.
> Airspeed indicator.
> Manifold press gauge for each altitude engine.
> Emerg locator trnsmtr (ELT) [x traing flt <50 NM]
> Safety belt for each occupant 2 years of age or older.(after 1978, a shoulder harness for front seats,
after 1986, a shoulder harness for all seats.)
> operated for hire over water, flotation gear available to each occupant and, flare gun
Night VFR flight: all of the above plus + "FLAPS"
> Fuses - (One spare set) , or3 spare fuses of each kind
> Landing light.
> Anti-collision lights (daytime too!)
> Position lights.
> Source of electrical energy for electric / radio equip.- (aka Battery?)
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Term
What are rules for ELT placement and inspection?
Batteries?
What if the ELT becomes inoperable?
For what operations is an ELT not required?
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Definition
§91.207 Emergency locator transmitters ELT
> Must have an automatic type ELT that is in operable condition; Attached as far aft as practicable.
> Batteries used in the ELT must be replaced when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour;
The new expiration date for replacing the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter and entered in the aircraft maintenance record.
> ELT’s must be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last inspection for (1) Proper installation; (2) Battery corrosion; (3) Operation of the controls and crash sensor; and (4) sufficient signal from its antenna.
> May Ferry a newly acquired airplane or one with an inoperative ELT to a place where the ELT can be installed or repaired; and No person other than required crewmembers may be carried aboard an airplane being ferried
ELT not required for;
> training conducted entirely < 50-NM of airport
> crop dusting
> When ELT temporarily removed for repair, a placard located in view of the pilot to show “ELT not installed.”
May not operate an aircraft > 90 days after the ELT is removed; |
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Term
What are the rules for
position lights?
anti-collision lights?
(landing lights?) |
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Definition
§91.209 Aircraft lights.
Lighted position lights (Rd.lft/Grn.rt wingtips)
> required sunset to sunrise
> to move an aircraft in, proximity to, a night flight operations area unless the aircraft Is clearly illuminated; or is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights;
[image]
anti-collision lights - on always, unless PIC determines it would be safer to turn the lights off. (ex: disorienting to personnel or other planes on the ground or reflect off clouds, reducing visibility while in the air)
[image]
NOTE: FAA requests Landing lights on w/in 10 SM of airport below 10,000 ft MSL[image] |
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Term
What are the rules for use of supplementary Oxygen at various altitudes?
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Definition
§91.211 Supplemental oxygen.
press alt 12,500 ft MSL to 14,000 ft MSL flight crew uses oxygen if > 30 minutes duration;
press alt > 14,000 ft MSL flight crew uses oxygen during the entire flight time
press alt > 15,000 ft MSL each occupant provided with oxygen. |
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Term
If inoperative equip or instruments are discovered can the flight be completed (initiated)?
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Definition
§91.213 Inoperative instruments and equipment (I/E)
You can take off an airplane with inop I/E provided:
> a Minimum Equipment List (MEL) + letter of authorization (= supplemental type certificate.)
> Aircraft records include an entry describing inop I/E
Instruments and equipment not included in a MEL?:
Is it required by? RAKETS
A person may takeoff if - non-turbine-powered airplane.
if the inoperative instruments and equipment are not on the
R -FAR Requirements -(TOMATOFLAMES+FLAPS)
A -Airworthiness directive (corrective maintenance)?
KOEL- Kinds of Ops Equip List?
(pt 141schools /135 charter ops) in POH/AFM?
E -aircraft's Equipment list, (POH/AFM)
T - VFR-day Type cert req'ts
(acft cert: TCDSheets; day/night/IFR- in POH; see below*) S - determined by pilot that removal is Safe
The inoperative I/E must be removed or deactivated, and the cockpit control placarded, and the maintenance recorded.
*VFR day type list - Aircraft are certified via their TCDS (type certificate data sheet). They have to be at a minimum certified for VFR day - they of course can be additionally certified for night and IFR. You can often see this noted in the POH, something like ‘this aircraft is certified for VFR day, night and IFR’. VFR day is the least restrictive - if it’s required to be on the aircraft for VFR day, it’s inherently required for all other certifications. So the reg is just saying if the equipment is required for certification than it must be working. Things that fall under this would be flaps, stall warning horns, etc.
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Term
When is a transponder required?
Exceptions?
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Definition
§91.215 ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use.
Mode C transponder trnsmt'g press alt infois req'd:
> At or abv 10,000 ft MSL ex < 2,500 ft AGL (west mntns?)
> Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas;
> W/in 30 NM cls B (mode C veil), sfc to 10,000 ft MSL;
> Abv ceiling of a Cls B or C airspace to 10,000 ft MSL;
> Note: transponder not req'd cls D airspace.
> Aircraft not certificated with an electrical system may conduct operations in the airspace within 30 nautical miles of class B, inside the mode C veil, provided such operations are conducted below the class B, (or beneath Class C airspace area); (or below 10,000 ft MSL if lower)
> While in controlled airspace, transponder equipped aircraft shall reply on the appropriate code or as assigned by ATC.
Deviations requests to the ATC facility for …Transponder w/o operating auto. press. alt. reporting or inoperative transponder to a place where suitable repairs can be made. (For aircraft not equipped with a transponder, request at least one hour before.) |
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Term
in what types of airspace is ADS-B required? |
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Definition
§91.225 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment and use.
No operation w/o ADS-B out installed and transmitting:
> All Class A (18000 ft MSL to FL 600)
> Class E 10,000 ft to 18,000 ft MSL - except below 2500 ft AGL (out west in mountains) – (aircraft not cert with electric system are exempted)
> Class B and above ceiling to 10,000 ft MSL > Inside mode C veil (w/in 30 nm of primary airport) - surface to 10,000 feet MSL; (aircraft not originally certificated with electrical system is exempt)
(note that ADS-B is not required below a Class B or Class C airspace shelf, if it is outside of a Mode C veil);
> Class C and above the ceiling to 10,000 ft MSL;
Notice: It is not required in class D airspace
> Class E Gulf of Mexico - coastline out 12 NM. - Above 3,000 feet MSL
Deviations requested from ATC for: inoperative ADS-B Out; transport for repair; Or operation of an aircraft w/o ADS-B Out. |
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Term
what are the rules for aerobatic flight? |
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Definition
§91.303 Aerobatic flight.
Aerobatic flight - intentional abrupt change to aircraft's attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration,
No aerobatic flight—
Over any congested area OR open air assembly of persons;
w/in bounds of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airport;
w/in 4 NM of Federal airway;
< 1,500 ft AGL / < 3 miles visibility |
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Term
What are the rules for aircraft inspections?
(frequency and other inspections) |
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Definition
§91.409 Inspections.
annual inspection required every 12 calendar months,
aircraft for hire or training --> every 100 hours
(A ferry permit must be obtained from a FSDO - flight standards district office - to fly aircraft to another location for inspection once expired)
100-hour limit may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to where the inspection can be done. The excess time used is included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.
Other:
ELT inspected every 12 months also [Permit not required for "ferry" flight to inspection location but no passengers allowed? *Have inspected during annual*]
Transponder inspected every 24 months
For IFR Altimeter (and Mode C alt reporting) every 24 months
AV1ATE
annual 12 calendar months
VOR (for IFR)
100 hr (comp or hire)
Altimeter and static system (24 months) for IFR
Transponder - 24 months for VFR
ELT - 12 months |
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Term
Parachutes and Parachuting |
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Definition
§91.307 Parachutes and parachuting.
for emergency carried only if packed within the preceding 180 days, if synthetic (60 d natural fiber)
no pilot may exceed a bank of 60 degrees OR nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees unless each occupant is wearing an approved parachute.
does not apply to
(1) Flight tests for pilot cert or rating; or
(2) Spins / other maneuvers req'd for a cert by a CFI |
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Term
Aircraft having experimental certificates:
Operating limitations. |
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Definition
§91.319 Aircraft having experimental certificates: Operating limitations.
(a) May not operate...
> for compensation or hire.
> over densely populated area
or congested airway.
Pilot must —
> Advise passengers of the experimental nature
> Operate under VFR, day only, and
> Notify the ATC of the experimental nature
> not more than 6 occupants. |
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Term
who is responsible for maintaining an aircraft? |
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Definition
§91.403 Maintenance General.
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition.
PIC is responsible to inspect for airworthiness prior to flight |
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Term
When must crewmembers be
seated?
and seatbelted?
shoulder harness? |
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Definition
§91.105 Flight crewmembers at stations.
flight crewmember shall be at their station (unless performing duties or physiological needs – i.e.bathroom);
and have safety belt fastened.
AND during takeoff and landing, keep shoulder harness (if installed) fastened |
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Term
ATC transponder tests and inspections. |
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Definition
§91.413 ATC transponder tests and inspections.
No persons may use an ATC transponder unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, the ATC transponder has been tested and inspected and found to comply with appendix F of part 43 of this chapter |
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Term
What are restricted category aircraft and what are their operating limitations? |
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Definition
§ 91.313 Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.
Are limited to special uses including:
Agricultural (spraying, etc. livestock and predatory animal control).
Forest and wildlife conservation.
Aerial surveying (photography, mapping, and oil and mineral exploration).
Patrolling (pipe lines, etc).
Weather control (cloud seeding).
Aerial advertising
No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft
> For other than the special purpose for which it is certificated; or necessary to accomplish the work
> Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.
> With passengers, except flight crewmember or other essential
> Over a densely populated area; In a congested airway; or near a busy airport where passenger transport ops are conducted. |
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Term
What are limited category aircraft?
What operating limitations are placed on limited cat aircraft? |
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Definition
§ 91.315 Limited category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.
limited category special airworthiness certificate is issued to operate surplus military aircraft that have been converted to civilian use under the following conditions:
No person may operate a limited category civil aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.
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Term
Aircraft categories with special airworthiness certificates |
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Definition
Restricted / Limited / Provisional / Special flight permit
Restricted - special purpose
> Agricultural
(spraying, dusting, seeding, and livestock and predatory animal control).
> Forest and wildlife conservation.
> Aerial surveying
(photography, mapping, and oil and mineral exploration).
> Patrolling
(pipe lines, power lines, and canals).
Weather control (cloud seeding).
> Aerial advertising
(skywriting, banner towing, airborne signs, and public address systems).
Limitations: Not for hire.
no passengers, excpt crew
not Over a densely populated area; In a congested airway;
or Near a busy airport where passenger transport ops are conducted.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
Limited category
surplus military aircraft converted to civilian use
Op lmts. § 91.315 Not for comp or hire.
____________________________________________________
Provisional category -
spec purp ops lmt'd duration of the prov type cert
________________________________________________________
Special flight permit may be issued
if can't meet airworthiness requirements, but is capable of safe flight.
examples: ferrying for repairs,etc.
/Delivering new aircraft to a purchaser
Conducting production flight tests. |
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Term
Flying near Washington DC
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Definition
§91.161 Special awareness training required for pilots flying under VFR w/in 60 NM radius of the Washington, DC VOR/DME.
> No Ops w/in a 60 NM radius of the Washington, DC VOR/DME under VFR, unless that pilot has completed Special Awareness Training and holds a certificate of training completion.
> info about flying in the Washington, DC area and, other types of special use airspace.
available on the FAA's Web site.
> Upon completion print out a copy of the certificate
present certificate for inspection upon request from: FAA, NTSB, law enforcement , TSA
> not a violation if an emergency is declared by the pilot, or there was a failure of two-way radio communications when op under IFR.
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