Term
|
Definition
Cause of blackleg in ruminants |
|
|
Term
Haemophilus
paragallinarum
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cause of Glasser's disease in swine |
|
|
Term
Serosal surfaces and joints
(polyserositis)
|
|
Definition
What are the tissues/ organ systems involved in Glasser's disease? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cause of enteritis in young rodents with focal hepatic necrosis, jaundice, and enterocolitis in older rodents |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cause of contagious equine metritis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cause of whooping cough in humans |
|
|
Term
Actinobacillus
lignieresii |
|
Definition
Cause of wooden tongue in cattle |
|
|
Term
Oral cavity and GI tract of
Ruminants
|
|
Definition
Natural habitat of the organism that causes wooden tongue |
|
|
Term
Actinobacillus
pleuropneumoniae
|
|
Definition
Cause of contagious pleuropneumonia in swine |
|
|
Term
Fusobacterium
necrophorum
|
|
Definition
Anaerobe commonly found in uterine infections of
dairy cattle |
|
|
Term
Fusobacterium
necrophorum
|
|
Definition
Anaerobe commonly causing thrush in horses
(frog infection) |
|
|
Term
Brachyspira
hyodysenteriae
|
|
Definition
Causes bloody dysentery in swine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Common cause of infectious food poisoning associated with improperly handled poultry meat |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Most pathogenic Brucella species in humans |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Brucella species with the widest host range |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cause of several manifestations of porcine proliferative enteropathy |
|
|
Term
Ticks and cotton-tailed rabbits |
|
Definition
Two common causes of Francisella tularensis transmission in humans |
|
|
Term
Septic shock
(DIC and endotoxemia)
|
|
Definition
Major cause of death in individuals that develop fulminating infections of Neisseria meningiditus and N. gonorrhoeae |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cause of cholera in humans |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Commonly involved in fistulous withers in horses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Why is fistulous withers not seen as caused by Brucella abortus anymore? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Two most important clinical diseases of Leptospira interrogans in domestic animals |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Disease primarily Clostridium novyi type B |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Caused by Treponema pallidum subspecies partenue in humans |
|
|
Term
Redwater disease
This is associated with Clostridium hemolyticum
|
|
Definition
Disease of cattle associated with damage by liver flukes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Common disease of waterfowl caused by Clostridium botulinum |
|
|
Term
Clostridium botulinum grows in sediment at the bottom of ponds because it is anerobic. They eat veatation from the bottom of the pond and ingest it. |
|
Definition
Where do waterfowl get the toxin that causes limberneck? |
|
|
Term
Delayed calving, poor conception rates, and heifers keep coming into heat for 4-5 months before settling. |
|
Definition
What is the predominant clinical presentation of Camplobacter fetus subspecies vernerealis when first introduced to a herd of cattle? |
|
|
Term
A) the amount of Leukotoxin produced
B) Whether it is a biotype A organism |
|
Definition
What determines whether Fusobacterium necophorum is able to survive within the liver and produce abscesses? |
|
|
Term
The toxins bind to the target sites irreversibly and produce long-term inhibition of function, so treatment needs to be administered until regeneration occurs. |
|
Definition
Why do treatments for tetanus and botulism need to be continued for several weeks to several months |
|
|
Term
Bordetella bronchiseptica causes mild destruction of the nasal turbinates by releasing dermonecrotic toxin. This allows for colonization with Pasteurella multocida, which has a toxin that causes turbinate atrophy. |
|
Definition
What is the role of Bordetella bronchiseptica in atrophic rhinitis in swine? |
|
|
Term
Chronic (4-6 wks), dry, non productive cough, vomiting
Cause: damaged tracheal ciliated epithelium |
|
Definition
What is the clinical presentation of infectious canine tracheobronchitis? |
|
|
Term
Pseudomembranous colitis in humans is E)both associated with antimicrobial therapy that destroys normal flora and predisposes the intestine for infection, and is caused by Clostridium difficile.
Although guinea pigs , rabbits and hamsters may get infected with C. difficile, the major Clostridial infection effecting LAB RODENTS is Clostridium piliformae. |
|
Definition
Pseudomembranous colitis in humans:
A) commonly associated with antimicrobial therapy that destroys the normal intestinal flora
B) is caused by Clostridium difficile
C) is associated with lab rodents, cats and other species
D) All of the above are correct
E) only A and B are correct |
|
|
Term
Leptospira interrogans is a UNIQUE bacterial pathogen because A) it can actively invade mucosal surfaces such as eyes, mouth, nose, genitalia, water-softened skin, wounds. It does so VERY AGGRESSIVELY and only needs a few seconds of contact to penetrate.
Leptospira interrogans DOES survive in ponds & streams.
It also IS SHED IN URINE, as most serovars can be naturally found in proximal convoluted tubule of kidneys.
It DOES NOT require an intermediate host, but MAY cause life threatening disease.
|
|
Definition
Leptospira interrogans is rather unique among bacterial pathogens because:
A) It can actively invade through mucosal surfaces
B) It survives in ponds and streams
C) It is transmitted in urine
D) It requires an intermediate host
E) It almost always causes life-threatening disease |
|
|
Term
D) serological tests to detect antibody against toxin is LEAST effective in detecting organisms involved in Clostridium infections because the diseases are too acute to generate antibody |
|
Definition
Which of the following would be least effective method for detecting organisms involved in Clostridium infections:
A) Gas- liquid chromatography of isolated bacteria
B) Anaerobic carbohydrate fermentation tests with isolated bacteria
C)Flourescent antibody test on affected tissues
D)Serological tests to detect antibody against toxin
E) Toxin detection tests |
|
|
Term
Foot rot in sheep B) can be transmitted in sale barns by turning sheep into pens that recently held infected sheep.
The organism can survive in a pen for a week or two.
Contagious foot rot in sheep is caused by Dichelobacter nodosus, Fusobacterium necrophorum is the primary invader that causes EPIDERMIS only.
It is most often seen in LUSH, DAMP pastures
It is also quick spread and hard to eliminate. |
|
Definition
Foot Rot in sheep:
A) is easily eliminated from a flock
B) can be transmitted in sale barns by turning sheep into pens that recently were occupied by infected sheep
C) is more likely seen in dry seasons where cracking of the hoof causing predisposing lesions
D) is primarily caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum
E) none of the above |
|
|
Term
Rusty nails are good at inducing tetanus because E) the rust reduced the Eh in the local area where sore are introduced, allowing spores to germinate AND are contaminated with facultative anaerobes that remove oxygen from the injury site
|
|
Definition
Rusty nails are good at inducing tetanus because:
A) the rust reduced Eh in the local area where sores are introduced, allowing spores to germinate
B) Rusty nails are contaminated with facultative anaerobes that remove oxygen from the injury site
C) The rust elicits a stronger inflammatory response allowing the toxin to be carried into the bloodstream faster
D) All of the above
E) Only A and B above
F) This is actually a myth |
|
|
Term
Brucella abortus is true of E) none of the above.
Brucella species are susceptible to most chemical disinfectants.
B. abortus can cause disease in cattle, humans, SHEEP, GOATS, horses, boars, wild undulates and other animals.
It causes LATE TERM abortion in cattle.
It can cause EPIDIDYMITIS and ORCHITIS leading to sterility in BULLS. |
|
Definition
Brucella abortus:
A) is resistant to many common disinfectants
B) only causes diseases in humans, cattle and horses
C) causes primarily an early term abortion in cattle
D) Does not cause significant disease in bulls
E) None of the above |
|
|
Term
Reduction of nitrates in cured meats could lead to a higer incidence of C) Botulism
This is why nitrites are added to cured meats preserve them.
Meat transmission of Campylobacteriosis is often assocaited with the chilling process in poultry.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections are most often caused by shellfish. |
|
Definition
Reduction of nitrates in cured meats could lead to a higher incidence of:
A) Campylobacteriosis
B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus infection
C) Botulism
D) All of the above
E) Only B and C |
|
|
Term
Brucella suis is A) more likely to cause sterility than other Brucella spp.
Brucella suis is NOT eradicated, but not often found in the US, except FERAL swine.
Swine DO NOT produce a Humoral reponse, and are thus diagnosed by AGGLUTINATION test.
The DISEASE of Brucella is generalized and causes focal abscesses in organs, lamness, and sterility
|
|
Definition
Brucella suis:
A) is more likely to cause sterility than other Brucella sp
B) is commonly found in commercial swine in southern US
C) has been eradicated from the US
D) is easily detected by serologic testing
E) is localized to the reproductive tract |
|
|
Term
Brucella canis is unique among the Brucella species because B) it is shed in urine and other excretions of male and female dogs
Brucella canis PRIMARILY causes disease in dogs, but can infect humans. Felines DO NOT serve as a reservoir host.
Also it produces a PERSISTANT BACTEREMIA. |
|
Definition
Brucella canis is unique among the Brucella species because:
A) it only causes diseases in dogs
B) it is shed in urine and other excretions of male and female dogs C) is a reservoir host in domestic cats and felines
D) it is readily cleared by immune system to produce short term infections
E) All of the above |
|
|
Term
The main receptors of the epsilon toxin of Clostridium perfringens type D are located E) in the vasculature of the brain causing neurological signs.
C. perfringens type D causes Enterotoxemia known as OVEREATING disease in sheep.
It DOES cause Pulpy Kidney, but not main receptor site. |
|
Definition
The main receptors of the epsilon toxin of Clostridium perfringens type D:
A) are in the kidneys causing "pulpy kidney" disease
B) are in the liver causing severe hepatitis C) are in the neurons causing neurological signs
D) are in the small and large intestines causing severe enteritis
E) are in the vascular endothelium of the brain causing neurological signs |
|
|
Term
FALSE
IgA is the protective antibody of the VAGINA, immobilizing the organism to prevent it from ascending the reproductive tract.
|
|
Definition
Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis is cleared from the uterus of cattle when specific IgA is produced thus preventing invasion of the endometrium
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Clostridium tetani DOES NOT ACTIVELY INVADE and multiply. The organism relys solely on toxin production at local tissue sites.
|
|
Definition
Clostridium tetani found in horse feces is more invasive and produces higher quantities of tetanospasmin.
True or False |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tetanus is frequently associated with improper use of elastrators in tail docking and castration
True or False |
|
|
Term
FALSE
The Brucella abortus RB51 vaccine is infectious for humans (as well as the old strain 19 vaccine, which was infectious to the testes of bull calves)
|
|
Definition
Brucella abortus RB51 vaccine is not pathogenic for any species of animal
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Animals infected with Brucella abortus are infected for life unless early and aggressive antimicrobial therapy is administered.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
SYMMETRICAL weakness to flaccid paralysis occurs following infection. The epitopes of lipopolysaccharide of organism mimic host neural tissue, causes host to make anti-bodies against it own neurons.
|
|
Definition
Guillian-Barre syndrome is currently thought to be associated with auto-immune antibody stimulated by ganglioside-like epitopes produced by Campylobacter jejuni
True or False |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Brucella melitensis is NOT found in the US, but is common in the Mediterranean, central Asia, Latin America, and Mexico. Primarily effects GOATS, but can be fatal in humans.
|
|
Definition
Brucella melitensis is widespread is US goat populations but exact prevalence figures are not known because there is no eradication program in place.
True or False |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Brachyspira pilosicoli is an organism all by itself, causing porcine intestinal spirochetosis.
Both of these organisms are in the Order Spirochaetale.
|
|
Definition
Brachyspira pilosicoli is an old name for Leptospira interrogans.
True or False |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Pretty much the only thing Lyme, Connecticut has brought to us...
|
|
Definition
Lyme disease seems to be localized not only to specific regions of the US, but is also much more prevalent in specific sections of these regions.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
There is no mentioned OspB in the reading material, and the OspA (a lipoprotein) vaccine is currently the better product, despite causing autoimmune reactions.
Im asking him about this and will update it...
|
|
Definition
OspA vaccines to prevent infection with Borrelia burgdorferi were recently replaced with vaccines containing OspB component
True or False
SORRY NEXT EXAM |
|
|
Term
Enterotoxemia
Overeating disease
Pulpy liver disease
|
|
Definition
What is the name of the disease caused by Clostridium perfringens type D in sheep? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It is the cause of severe diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps in humans. The diarrhea can result in tremendous fluid loss. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the name of the frog infection cause by Fusobacterium necrophorum and other bacteria? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the name of the toxin that is produced by Clostridium tetani that produces clinical signs? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the most important bacterial agent that is involved in respiratory disease of cattle and sheep in the US? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of Fowl Cholera?
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of proliferative enteritis in swine and horses? |
|
|
Term
Bordetella bronchiseptica |
|
Definition
What is the organism that causes kennel cough in dogs? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which orgnaism produces an RTX toxin that is specific for ruminant leukocytes and platelets? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which organism is frequently involved in clostridial infections but does not cause a specific disease on its own? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium novyii type D |
|
Definition
Which organism causes severe and often fatal hemolytic anemia in cattle and is often associated with migration of larvae of liver flukes? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which organism causes epididymitis and testicular atrophy in dogs? In the US is most common in large kennels. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which organism causes shigellosis or equulosis in foals? |
|
|
Term
Arcanobacterium pyogenes
& Fusobacterium necrophorum
|
|
Definition
What are two organisms that contribute to development of footrot in sheep but are not a cause of footrot in cattle? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of ulcerative enteritis or "quail disease" in avain species? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of mesocolonic edema resulting in diarrhea in neonatal pigs? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the name of the disease caused by Clostridium piliforme in laboratory rodents? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the Gram negative organism that is found in high numbers in bovine keratoconjunctivitis but is not the real cause of the disease? |
|
|
Term
UV light
Dust
Trauma from long stemmy grass
Face flies
Mycoplasma bovoculi
|
|
Definition
What are 3 common predisposing factors in infectious bovine keratinoconjunctivitis? |
|
|
Term
Septicemia
TEME (Throboembolic Meningioencephalitis)
Pneumonia |
|
Definition
What are 2 MAJOR diseases caused by Haemophilus somnus in cattle? |
|
|
Term
Feeder lambs are on a high energy grain ration (older ewes are not), this provides the necessary environment for Clostridium perfringens type D that produces epsilon toxin |
|
Definition
Why do we only see enterotoxemia in feeder lambs and NOT in breeding-age ewes? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pasteurella multocida capsular type A is most commonly seen as the cause of respiratory disease in mammals
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Pasteurella multocida capsular type A causes fowl cholera. Birds are effected as an acute septicemia, not respiratory.
|
|
Definition
Pasteurella multocida capsular type A is most commonly seen as a cause of respiratory disease in birds
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Typical lesions of Tularemia in rabbits are small, necrotic granulomatous foci in liver, spleen, and lymph nodes.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
The immune response to Fransciella tularensis cell mediated, making live attenuated vaccines the best prevention. The organism survive for a long time inside monocytes allowing for relapse. |
|
Definition
Immunity to Tuleremia is primarily humoral and is readily generated in susceptible animals with immunization with killed bacterins
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
The pneumonic form in humans is if the organism is inhaled.
The typhoidal form is if the organism is ingested.
|
|
Definition
Tuleremia in humans can occur in pneumonic and thyoidial forms
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Blackleg is caused by Clostridium chauvoei in ruminants, effecting the best of the herd (unusually fat rapid growing animals). This lesion appears as black necrotic muscle with gas bubbles.
|
|
Definition
Blackleg usually effects cattle 6 months to 2 years of age but may effect older animals
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
There is a vaccine of aluminum hydroxide-precipitated from formalinized cultures.
Black leg is caused by Clostridium chauvoei
|
|
Definition
The most common method for protecting cattle against blackleg is to give tetracycline in the feed until they are beyond 2 years of age
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Clostridium novyi is normally present in low numbers in the liver, so would be an insignificant finding of liver culture. The alpha is readily absorbed into the bloodstream and can be tested for in serum or tissue.
Black disease = infectious necrotic hepatitis
|
|
Definition
Diagnosis of Black Disease in sheep is dependent upon demonstrating the presence of alpha toxin of Clostridium novyi in effected tissues or serum.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
In the US, it is only a problem in feral swine, but it occurs commonly in most swine-raising countries.
2004 question 39
|
|
Definition
Brucella suis is only a problem in feral swine in the US.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
The other species are more localized: Brucella abortus - placenta, epididymus (cattle), liver (humans)
Brucella canis - epididymus, testes |
|
Definition
Brucella suis causes a more generalized infection than other species
True or Flase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Brucella suis is a problem in reindeer in Alaska
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Brucella maris is the proposed name of a Brucella species that has been isolated in marine mammals.
Include: B. pinnipediae and B. cetaceae
|
|
Definition
Brucella maris has been associated in a high number of infections in mares in the US.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Although Brucella abortus IS nearly eradicated in the US, calfhood vaccination (as well as blood testing, and culling of positive cattle) is part of the STATE-FEDERAL cooperative control program.
The vaccine used is the LIVE RB51.
|
|
Definition
With near eradication in the US it is not necessary to vaccinate calves against Brucella abortus.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
The Ring Test is part of the STATE-FEDERAL COOPERATIVE CONTROL PROGRAM in the US, which requires each dairy herd to be tested 3 times per year.
|
|
Definition
With near eradication of Brucella abortus in the US, we no longer require the ring test on dairy herds.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Brucella melitensis causes the most signifcant disease in humans. Typically asymptomatic in the primary host of goats, it can often be FATAL in humans who have consumed unpasteurized milk.
|
|
Definition
Brucella abortus is the species of Brucella that causes the most significant disease in humans.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Brucella abortus can localize in the liver, lymph nodes and bone and remain in these sites for years.
True or False |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Brucella melitensis is typically asymptomatic - mild in infected goats, but when infected, unpasteurized milk is consumed by humans it can be FATAL.
|
|
Definition
Brucella melitensis usually causes severe disease in infected goats.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
The Strain 19 and the newer RB51 vaccine both cause infections of the testes and should not be administered to bull calves. |
|
Definition
Bull calves are not vaccinated against Brucella abortus because it causes orchitis.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The strains of Dichelobacter nodosus that can cause ovine footrot are obligate parasites of the hooves of sheep and will not survive more than a few days in the environment, even under ideal conditions.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The immune mediated response against Dichelobacter nodosus in ovine footrot is primarily cell mediated.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Somatic antigens
Capsular antigens
|
|
Definition
The systems for typing Pasteurella multocida are based on what two antiges? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which organism causes the gangernous mastitis known as "Blue Bag" in sheep? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the most common cause of chronic respiratory tract infections in commerical and laboratory rabbits? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism has been associated with severe respiratory disease in dairy cattle, especially in the Northwestern US, and septicemia in lambs? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of severe enteritis in humans and late term abortion in sheep? |
|
|
Term
Fusobacterium necrophorum |
|
Definition
Which obligate anaerobe is often found in post-martem metritis of dairy cattle? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the name of the disease caused by Pasteurella multocida in chickens, turkeys, ducks and other birds? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the common name for the disease caused by Haemophilus paragallinarum in chickens? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism causes proliferative enteritis in foals? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism causes disease pandemics initially asssociated with undercooked shellfish? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which halophilic organism causes moderate to severe enterocolitis in association with infected shellfish? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the primary toxin associated with enterotoxemia in feeder lambs? |
|
|
Term
A - Abortus
M - Melitensis
R - Rough |
|
Definition
What are the A, M, and R antigens of Brucella? |
|
|
Term
This toxin has an A-B structure.
The A subunit enters the intestinal epithelial cell,
acts as a adenylate cyclase. |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of action in Cholera toxin? |
|
|
Term
1) Too many fibrial types that would need to be included in vaccine.
2) Limited antibody is present in the area of lesions, until lesions are severe. |
|
Definition
What are two reasons why the vaccine against ovine footrot has limited efficacy? |
|
|
Term
C) Bibersteinia trehalosi produces a RTX toxin that is toxic SPECIFICALLY to ruminant leukocytes and platelets.
Fransciella tularensis - no mention of toxins
Clostridium septicum - produces 4 toxins, none described, but produce edema
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae - produces 3 RTX toxins but against SWINE
Histophilus somni - effects ruminants, mainly produces ENDOTOXIN |
|
Definition
Which of the following organisms produces an RTX toxin that is toxic to ruminant leukocytes and platelets?
A) Fransciella tularensis
B) Clostridium septicum
C) Bibersteinia trehalosi
D) Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia
E) Histophilus somni |
|
|
Term
The most common method for diagnosing Tuleremia is an E) Agglutination test on patient serum.
This organism is difficult to grow on isolation, and biochemical indentification is difficult and hazardous.
ALSO, fluorescent antibody test can be used to identify the organism itself. |
|
Definition
What is the most common method for diagnosing Tularemia?
A) Culture of lymph node aspirate and blood, followed by biochemical idenification in the lab.
B) Observation of clinical signs and hostory of contact with ticks or rabbits.
C) Innoculation of guinea pig and observation of clinical signs
D) Response to specific therapy
E) Agglutination test on patient serum |
|
|
Term
Actinobacter species C) are commonly resistant to available antibiotics.
Actinobacter species typically causes tissue infections, septicemia, enteritis, respiratory disease.
Not a disease of goats. |
|
Definition
Actinobacter species:
A) Are some of the most common urinary tract pathogens
B) Are most commonly involved in meningitis in goats C) Are commonly resistant to available antibiotics
D) All of the above E) None of the above |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Several sertypes are needed to cause disease in sheep and goats which includes septicemia in newbrons, pneumonia in adults, and mastitis (BLUE BAG) in sheep.
|
|
Definition
The disease caused by Mannheimia haemolytica in sheep and goats is caused by many serotypes of the organism.
True or Flase? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
The habitat of Fransciella tularensis is within ticks and in wild rodents and rabbits that all act as reservoirs.
Disease primarily occurs in rabbits and humans.
|
|
Definition
Fransciella tularensis is commonly found in the oropharynx of cats and is readily transferred in bit wounds.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE****
It is under control in the US, and is not found in the general population. There are strict regulations on importing, and horses must have 2 negative tests.
|
|
Definition
Taylorella equigenitalis has been eradicated from the US but is present in many other countries that ship horses to the US.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Although this organism is isolated to the reproductive tract causing contagious equine metritis, vaginitis, cervicitis, and endometritis this organism DOES NOT CAUSE ABROTION.
|
|
Definition
Taylorella equigenitalis is a common cause of abortion in horses.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Bovine foot rot is caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum and this organism has miminal to no invasive capabilities but can enter and multiply in damaged tissues. Typical lesions have a FOUL ODOR.
|
|
Definition
Bovine footrot requires some sort of damage to the foot because the main causitive organism is not highly evasive.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Contagious Ovine Footrot, typically caused as by an injury + invasion of Fusobacterium necrophorum then infection with Dictelobacter nodosus, is a rapidly spreading disease. The disease is both severe and difficult to eliminate and treat.
|
|
Definition
Ovine footrot tends to be a rather mild disease and is not a big problem in flocks that have it.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Calves vaccinated with RB51 are serologically negative for Brucella on standard testing, which includes the card test.
|
|
Definition
If the Card test for Brucella abortus is positive, it usually means the animals was vaccinated with RB51 when the animal was too old.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Brucella abortus has been eliminated from almost all of the US
B. melitensis, B. ovis, canis and maris do not typically occur in cattle.
|
|
Definition
The incidence of Bovine Bruceolisis is very low in the US, but when it does occur Brucella suis is the most common agent involved.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A positive RSAT (rapid slide agglutination test) for canine brucellosis should be repeated id the dog's serum has been treated with a reducing agent to destroy cross-reactive IgM antibodies.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Brucella canis does NOT typically present with clinical signs. In humans, there have been relatively rare and mild infections.
|
|
Definition
Most dogs infected with Brucella canis have no clinical signs of infection but infection in humans is commonly severe and fatal.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Brucella pinnipediae and Brucella cetaceae are lumped into the category Brucella maris and are the appearent cause of abortion in marine mammals.
|
|
Definition
The names Brucella pinnipediae and Brucella cetaceae have been proposed as the names for Brucella species found in marine mammals.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus is best diagnosed by characteristic liver lesions, or smears from cotyledon and stomach contents.
|
|
Definition
Diagnosis of Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus infection is best accomplished by direct examination of fetal membranes or detection of antibody in serum.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
clearing of the uterus by IgA is a mechanism assocaited with Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis. IgG would be the antibody to clear the organism from the uterus and oviducts.
|
|
Definition
The role of IgA antibody in Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus infection is to clear it from the uterus.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Campylobacter species are all transmitted from feces to oral, and are inhabitants of the intestinal tract.
This is except for C. fetus subspecies fetus which is spread venereally and lives in the genatalia.
|
|
Definition
Campylobacter species are almost always transmitted venereally.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE *** i copied down false 2003
The cytotoxin of Maxorella bovis/bovoculi is an RTX toxin that lyse corneal epithelial cells and neutrophils. Extensive ocular damage is caused by the neutrophilic degrading enzymes being released.
|
|
Definition
The cytotoxin of Maxorella bovis/Maxorella bovoculi is a cytotoxin that lyses corneal epithelial cells and neutrophils.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
CAUSE: Clostridium septicum
HOST: cattle, horses, humans and others |
|
Definition
What is the most common cause and host of MALIGNANT EDEMA?
|
|
|
Term
Clostridium perfringens type A |
|
Definition
What is the cause of Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in adult dairy cattle? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What major lesion caused by Clostridium perfringens type A in PIGS? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium perfringens type C |
|
Definition
What causes enterotoxemia in pigs? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium novyi type B
Host: Sheep
|
|
Definition
What organism causes Black disease, and what is the primary host? |
|
|
Term
HOST: Primarily CATTLE
DISEASE: EARLY embryonic death and infertility |
|
Definition
What species does Campylobacter fetus subspecies verenealis commonly effect, and what are the typical lesions seen? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What causes FLACCID PARALYSIS in WATERFOWL? |
|
|
Term
Fusobacterium necrophorum |
|
Definition
What organism causes THRUSH in HORSES? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism causes MESOCOLONIC EDEMA in SWINE? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism causes foot rot in sheep? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism causes brucellosis in goats? |
|
|
Term
Bordetella pertussis
HOST: HUMANS |
|
Definition
What causes the disease PERTUSSIS and what species is effected? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What causes Rhinotracheitis in turkey poults? |
|
|
Term
Fransciella tularensis biovar tularensis |
|
Definition
What causes Tuleremia in cottontail rabbits? |
|
|
Term
Lesions/Diseases: QUAIL'S DISEASE, ulcerative colitis
HOST: Quails, many other bird species |
|
Definition
What lesions or diseases are caused by Clostridium colinum and what host(s) are effected ? |
|
|
Term
Normal flora of bovine UPPER respiratory tract + Stress → entry to LOWER respiratory tract → pneumonia
→ enters monocytes → carried to bloodstream
→ joints, pericardium (SEPTICEMIA)
= Endotoxin → apoptosis vascular endothelium → TEME
= Fc receptor protein → release of GMP, adenine, guanine → inhibited phagosome/lysosome function → inhibited host immune function |
|
Definition
What is the pathogenesis of Haemophilus somni? |
|
|
Term
Spread via water → infects trachea of turkey poults →
damage to cilliated epithelium → secondary invaders enter respiratory tract (E. coli) → toxins and virulence factors released like Histamine sensitizing factor |
|
Definition
What is the pathogenesis of BORDETELLOSIS in TURKEY POULTS? |
|
|
Term
The PRIMARY HOST is YOUNG HUMANS,
and older vaccines were composed of type B polysaccharide antigen, that humans less than 2-3 yo could not build an immune response against. |
|
Definition
Why do older versions of the Haemophilus influenza
type B vaccine fail to be useful in protecting the primary age group effected by this organism? |
|
|
Term
The most common source of botulinum toxin in horses comes from small animals being baled in hay.
The organism is in the normal intestinal flora and is released with decay, toxins are produced, and consumed by the horse. |
|
Definition
What is the common source of Botulinum toxin in horses? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium difficile
This organism is associated with enteric infections of primarily horses and humans as a result of notmal flora destruction by antimicrobial therapy.
|
|
Definition
What is a Clostridium organism that causes enteric infections subsequent to antimicrobial therapy? |
|
|
Term
Bordetella bronchiseptica
This can be transmitted between cats and dogs in the same household, and vaccinations are recommended in shelters, kennels and catteries.
|
|
Definition
What organism causes rhinitis, tracheobronchitis, and sometimes pneumonia in cats (most likely associated with a viral agent)? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium colinum
Causing Quail disease or ulcerative enteritis that is transmitted orally.
|
|
Definition
Which organism causes ulcerative enteritis in the lower 1/3 of intestines in a variety of wild and domestic birds? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of contagious epididymitis in rams, and abortion and fertility in ewes? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism causes abortion in sheep and enteritis in humans? |
|
|
Term
Actinobacillus lignieresii
Causes WOODEN TONGUE in cattle, occurs primarily in soft tissue and causes granulomatous abscesses and granules of the bacteria are found in these as causes by their cementing gylcocalyx. |
|
Definition
What facultative anaerobic organism that causes granulomatous, tumor-like lesions in the head and neck area of cattle? |
|
|
Term
Haemophilus paragallinarum
The cause of FOWL CHORYZA in chickens
|
|
Definition
What organism causes acute inflammation of the nasal turbinates, acute air sacculitis, swelling of the head and wattles, decreased food intake and marked loss in egg production in egg-laying hens? |
|
|
Term
Taylorella equigenitalis
Very difficult to culture, and will only make pinpoint colonies. Spread venereally, and causes CONTAGIOUS EQUINE METRITIS.
|
|
Definition
Which difficult to culture organism that is venereally but which has been virtually eradicated from the US horse population? |
|
|
Term
Bordetella pertussis
Obligate anaerobe causing WHOOPING COUGH in humans
|
|
Definition
Which organism causes tracheobronchitis and chronic paroxysmal coughing and toxemia in humans? It is most damaging to infants under 1 year of age. |
|
|
Term
Clostridium septicum
Causes disease in various species that includes pitted edema which results in malignant edema. This is primarily assocaited with wound invasion, and can be a secondary agent in blackleg.
|
|
Definition
What organism causes pitted edema and occasionally infects wounds? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium piliformae
This organism causes hepatic necrosis and enteritis in laboratory rodents called TYZZER's DISEASE. This occurs primarily in younger, stressed animals.
|
|
Definition
Which organism causes enteritis and focal hepatic necrosis in laboratory rodents? |
|
|
Term
GUILLIAN - BARRE syndrome
This often symmetrical paralysis is associated with infection with Campylobacter jejuni. The ganglioside-like epitopes of endotoxin that mimic host neural tissue. This causes an autoimmune response against neurons.
|
|
Definition
What is the name of the syndrome involving flaccid paralysis subsuquent to infection with Campylobacter jejuni. |
|
|
Term
Haemophilus influenza and Neisseria menigiditis
Neisseria is the PRIMARY cause of human meningitis, effect adults
Haemophilus is the leading cause of INFANT bacterial meningitis
|
|
Definition
What are the two main causes of bacterial meningitis in humans? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium novyi Type B and Clostridium haemolyticum (novyi Type D) |
|
Definition
What are two organisms that cause disease in ruminants that is assocaited with swampy areas and liver fluke migration? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which organism usually enters via a wound, tick bite or conjunctiva of humans? It spreads through the regional lymph nodes to the spleen, liver, bone marrow, and lymhoid tissue, forming granulomatous nodules that tend to ulcerate. |
|
|
Term
Clostridium botulinum
The main cause of forage poisoning in horses - specifically from baled up animals decomposing and releasing C. botulinum from intestines.
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of forage poisoning in horses? |
|
|
Term
Brucella canis
Dogs often have NO clinical signs, and may present with generalized lymphadenitis, splenitis, embryonic death and UNILATERAL testicular atrophy |
|
Definition
What is a cause of persistant bacteremia, epididymitis, and testicular atrophy in dogs? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the substance that is supplied to some Haemophilus species by a Staphylococcus nurse colony? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What vaccine is currently used to prevent brucellosis in cattle? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium perfringens Type D
EPSILON TOXIN
Causes "overeating disease/ pulpy kidney disease" in sheep (enterotoxemia)
The Spsilon toxin is activated by cleavage of prototoxin by trypsin, and has permease activity to enahnce its absorption. There are receptors in vascular endothelium of brain which causes liquefactive necrosis, edema and hemorrhage |
|
Definition
Which clostridial toxin produces liquefactive necrosis, edema and hemorrhage in the brains of sheep? |
|
|
Term
LEUKOTOXIN
This toxin is potent against neutrophils, macrophages, and hepatocytes by inducing apoptosis at low concentrations, and lyses them at higher concentrations. |
|
Definition
What is the major toxin in infections with Fusobacterium necrophorum? |
|
|
Term
Brucella melitensis
In prevalent in Mexico, often associated with consumption of unpasteurized milk, causing severe disease to fatality.
Although Brucella abortus also effects humans by causing uldulant fever, but is less severe.
|
|
Definition
What is the most pathogenic species of Brucella for humans? |
|
|
Term
Brucella abortus
It also is the primary cause of abortion in cattle. |
|
Definition
What is the cause of undulant fever in humans? |
|
|
Term
RING TEST
This is used to detect immunoglobulins in milk and is run 3 times a year on dairy herds as part of State-Federal cooperative control program in the US. |
|
Definition
What is the test that is used to screen milk samples for Brucella abortus in infected cows? |
|
|
Term
It is difficult to ISOLATE, easy to grow on culture.
Also the clinical presentation is very characteristic of Fusobacterium necrophorum. |
|
Definition
Why do we NOT routinely preform bacterial cultures for Fusobacterium necrophorum? |
|
|
Term
Fowl cholera (acute septicemia) - Capsular type A - birds
Cat and Dog bite wounds - Type D - Cats and dogs
Hemorrhagic septicemia - B&E - bison, cattle, water buffalo |
|
Definition
What are the three diseases in which Pasteurella multocida is NOT a primary respiratory tract antigen? What are the capsular types and hosts involved? |
|
|
Term
The leukotoxin of Mannheimia haemolytica is toxic for ruminant leukocytes and platelets.
In low concentrations it causes inhibiton of leukocytes.
In high concentrations it causes lysis of leukocytes and releases hydrolytic enzymes from neutrophils. |
|
Definition
By what mechanism does the leukotoxin of Mannheimia haemolytica causes a marked inflammatory reaction in pulmonary tissues? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Why are some clostridial immunizing products toxoids and some formalinized whole cells?
|
|
|
Term
DESCENDING TETANUS
Wound → organism enters as SPORE → germination of spores → production of tetanospasmin →
absorption into BLOOD AND LYMPH →
acts as protease & blocks neurotransmittor release →
first nerves effected are those most sensitive of the head and neck @ level of spinal cord / brain stem →
LOCKJAW → respiratory muscles then effected |
|
Definition
What is the pathogenesis of descending tetanus? |
|
|
Term
POLYVALENT ANTITOXIN
Clostridium botulinum has many types of toxins.
To produce an antitoxin that is inclusive of all toxin strains → hyperimmunize a horse with toxoids of all the main types of toxins
Then TITER to make sure you have adequate serum antibody against ALL toxins
Then COMBINE different antibodies to produce a POLYVALENT antitoxin
|
|
Definition
How is a Clostridium botulinum polyvalent antitoxin generated? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Calves do not maintain infections, but adults (both male and female) carry the organism for life. Cows can shed the organism post partuition.
|
|
Definition
Young calves do not usually maintain infection with Brucella abortus.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
In the US, brucellosis in cattle is now more commonly caused by Brucella suis than by Brucella abortus.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
It causes coryza in turkey poults, which is a rhinotracheoitis.
Kennel cough is associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica infections in dogs that causes a tracheobronchitis.
|
|
Definition
Bordetella avium causes "kennel cough" in turkeys.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
It is most often seen during periods of wet weather and is associated with transportation. Infection typically occurs 2-4 weeks after shipment. |
|
Definition
Thromboembolitic meningioencephalitis (TEME) in feedlot cattle is usually seen in the spring and summer and is associated with a change in diet.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Both Mannheimia haemolytica and Bibersteinia trehalosi produce a similar RTX class leukotoxin (pore forming cytolysin) the is specifially toxic for ruminant leukocytes and platelets.
In low concentrations it inhibits function.
In high concentrations it lyses cells.
|
|
Definition
Essentially all serotypes of Mannheimia haemolytica and Bibersteinia trehalosi produce the same leukotoxin.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
PIGS are NOT effected by Bibersteinia trehalosi because the leukotoxin is specific for ruminant leukocytes and platelets ONLY>
|
|
Definition
Cattle, sheep, goats and pigs are the major domestic animal species effected by Bibersteinia trehalosi.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
It can also cause septicemia in feeder lambs, where entry is gained via esophagus.
|
|
Definition
Bibersteinia trehalosi causes only respiratory disease in domestic animals.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mannheimia haemolytica type A2 is commonly found in the upper respiratory tract and tonsils of normal cattle.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Most adult cattle haev antibody to Fusobacterium necrophorum
|
|
Definition
Most cattle sent to slaughter in the US have antibody against the organism that causes foot rot in cattle.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Most adult cattle have antibody to Fusobacterium necrophorum, although a vaccine is available to limit liver abscesses.
|
|
Definition
Most feeder cattle going to slaughter in the US have antibody to the organism that causes liver abscesses.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Actinobacillus equuli is often found in the joints of foals causing the lamness associated with Sleep foal syndrome. Other lesions include purulent nephritis and kidney abscesses.
|
|
Definition
Actinobacillus equuli frequently infects leg joints of foals with "sleepy foal syndrome".
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Vaccinations in mares has been shown to be of benefit in preventing sleepy foal syndrome but treatment of foals with hyperimmune antisera is not effective.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
It is also a disease of high health status swine, and the disease is more severe in older pigs.
|
|
Definition
Clinical disease caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae are usually most severe in endemically infected herds of swine.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae causes exudative and proliferative bronchopneumonia with fibrinous pleuritis.
Haemophilus parasuis causes polyserositis, arthritis and meningitis.
|
|
Definition
The clinical disease and lesions caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae are almost indistinguishable from those caused by Haemophilus parasuis.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
The causative agent is Haemophilus paragallinarum. Treatment is not usually preformed and control is maintained by depopulation.
|
|
Definition
The best control mechanism for fowl coryza is to maintain the birds on therapeutic level of tetracycline in their rations for at least 3 weeks and then closely monitor their health for a month after.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
SHEEP - Campylobacter jejuni
CATTLE - Brucella abortus, Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis and fetus
|
|
Definition
Histophilus somni is a major causative agent in abortion of cattle and sheep in the US.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Endotoxin is the major toxin, and the O-Ag side chain (LOS) lacks complexity, which induces apoptosis of endothelial cells.
|
|
Definition
Endotoxin is thought to be the major toxin of Histophilus somni involved in disease production.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Systemic infections with Histophilus somni in feedlot cattle usually occur 2 -4 weeks after shipment and are more common in cold, wet weather.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Contagious equine metritis is caused by Taylorella equigenitalis. Immunity of mares to this is poor and they often relapse.
|
|
Definition
The immune system response to contagious equine metritis is relatively good and mares and stallions will usually clear the infection in 3-4 weeks.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Both species are not invasive under normal circumstances. Occurs in cattle especialyl in summer and fall, predispoing factors include dust, UV light, and face flies.
|
|
Definition
Maxorella bovis and Maxorella bovoculi are not considered to be very invasive species under normal circumstances.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Fransciella tularensis biovar palaeartica is typically found in Russia and is known as the "beaver strain". The most prevalent strain in the US is biovar tularensis.
|
|
Definition
Most of the cases of tuleremia in the US are cause by biovar palaeartica.
True or False?
|
|
|
Term
FALSE
ONLY RTX class cytolytic toxins form pores in target cell membranes.
|
|
Definition
Essentially all cytolytic toxins act by forming pores in target cell membranes.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Equine manure should not be used to fertilize gardens because it markedly increases the chances of the gardener getting tetanus.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
subspecies necrophorum is more virulent to cattle, and produces higher amounts of leukotoxin.
|
|
Definition
Fusobacterium necrophorum subspecies funduliforme is more important in human disease than in diseases of domestic animals.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Campylobacter jejuni is the cause of sheep abortions, and cannot be prevented using antibiotics in feed.
|
|
Definition
Campylobacter abortions can easily be prevented by placing ewes on feed grade antibiotics beginning 6 weeks prior to lambing.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Campylobacter abortions in sheep can at least partly be prevented by vaccinating ewes during the early part of gestation.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
It only seems to produce disease in humans, resulting in enteritis. It is carried in the intestinal tract of pigs, but doesnt seem to produce disease in them.
|
|
Definition
Campylobacter coli is a relatively common cause of disease in both domestic animals and humans.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE/FALSE
According to our notes - it is transmitted from pig intestinal flora to humans. But th eexam exam from 2006 (#61) claims that this is false.
|
|
Definition
Campylobacter coli is thought to be transmitted to humans through normal intestinal flora of pigs.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis can be spread through semen.
|
|
Definition
It is important to identify the species of any Campylobacter species found in the semen of bulls bound for export.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Brucella abortus can cause sterility but as sequelae to epididymitis and orchitis.
|
|
Definition
Brucella suis is more likely to cause sterility in swine than any other Brucella species in their main hosts.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
These are both under the grouping of Brucella maris
|
|
Definition
Brucella pinnipediae and Brucella cetaceae are proposed names of organisms that cause abortions in marine mammals.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
E) HAEMOPHILUS PARASUIS does not have an RTX class cytotoxin
Maxorella bovis has a RTX cytotoxin that lyses corneal epithelial cells and neutrophils
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae has 3 RTX toxins
Mannheimia haemolytica has a leukotoxin against ruminant leukocytes and platelets.
Actinobacillus suis has Apx1 and Apx2 RTX cytotoxins |
|
Definition
Which of the following organisms does NOT have an RTX toxin that is important in disease production?
A) Maxorella bovis
B) Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
C) Mannheimia haemolytica
D) Actinobacillus suis
E) Haemophilus parasuis |
|
|
Term
Clostridium perfringens type A does NOT cause
A) Malignant edema.
Malignant edema is caused by Clostridium septicum. |
|
Definition
Which of the following is NOT caused by or associated with Clostridium perfringens type A?
A) Malignant edema
B) Yellow lamb disease
C) Enteritis in neonatal pigs
D) Gangrene in humans
E) Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in some diary cattle |
|
|
Term
When isolating Bordetella bronchiseptica it is best to use MacConkeys agar with 1% dextrose because A) it is one fo the few organisms that grows on MacConkeys and does NOT ferment dextrose or lactose.
|
|
Definition
MacConkey's agar with 1% dextrose is useful in isolating Bordetella bronchiseptica from nasal swabs because:
A) It is one of the few organisms that grow on MacConkeys and does NOt ferment dextrose or lactose
B) It is one of the few organisms in the nasal passage of pigs that grows on MacConkeys
C) It produces a green colony that is characteristic of this organism
D) All of the above
E) None of the above |
|
|
Term
Turkey poults can be partially protected against rhinotracheitis (coryza) by D) All of the Above.
The cause of of turkeu poult coryza is Bordetella avium and it is routinely protected against by:
Maternal immunization in breeder hens
Antibiotics to newly hatched poults
Chlorination and sanitation of water
|
|
Definition
Turkey poults can be partially protected against rhinotracheitis (coryza) by:
A) Vaccinating the breeder hen turkeys so that antibody is passed to the egg.
B) Injecting all poults shortly after hatching
C) Keeping the water fountains cleared out and the water adequately cholrinated
D) All of the above
E) None of the above |
|
|
Term
Pink eye vaccines in cattle protect by E) None of the above
Pink eye is caused Moraxella bovoculi/bovis and the antibody response in tears (which would be IgA) is not highly protective.
Vaccines against Moraxella bovoculi/bovis are fimbrial, and only reduce severity of disease. |
|
Definition
In order to properly protect cattle, pink eye vaccines:
A) Need to stimulate IgM antibody production against multiple fimbrial strains
B) Need to stimulate IgA antibody production against the Ag-O antigen of M. bovis
C) Need to stimulate IgG antibody production against the cytotoxin/hemolysin
D) All of the above
E) None of the above |
|
|
Term
Brucella species should be rerun after serum is treated with reducing agent because
C) the reducing agent breaks up non-specific IgM that could have been formed against other bacterial antigens similar to Brucella.
|
|
Definition
Serologic test for some Brucella species have to be rerun after treating an animals serum with a reducing agent because:
A) The reducing agent clarifies the serum so test result can be seen
B) The reducing agent breaks up non-specific IgG that could have formed against other bacterial antigens that are similar to those found in Brucella species
C) The reducing agent breaks up non-specific IgM that could have been formed against other bacterial antigens that are similar to those found in Brucella species
D) All of the above E) None of the above
|
|
|
Term
Contagious foot rot in sheep is A) most common during wet season.
Chances of Contagious foot rot in sheep in increased during periods of extended wet weather.
The causing bacteria Dichtelobacter nodosus is difficult to eliminate from a flock involving;
Putting sheep on clean pasture, paring away necrotic areas, foot bath (which cannot be easy with sheep..), and topical sprays. |
|
Definition
Contagious foot rot in sheep:
A) is most common during wet season
B) Is most common in arid areas where sheep have to forage over large distances and are more prone to foot trauma.
C) Can be easily eradicated from a flock of sheep with a single, relatively simple foot bath
D) Only A and C above
E) Only B and C above |
|
|
Term
Treatment of Brucella canis is not recommended because A) it is difficult to completely clear and they remain carriers for life.
Euthanization is recommended for positive animals, and can be placed on antibiotics but owners should be warned that even long term antibiotics have equivocal results. |
|
Definition
Treatment of dogs infected with Brucella canis is not usually recommended because:
A) It is difficult to completely clear the organism from the dogs and they ferquently remain carriers for life.
B) The organism is resistant to most antibiotics
C) The dogs are usually very debilitated due to the infection and do not respond well to treatment.
D) The dog can develop neurological signs following development of brain lesions and can become aggressive
E) Only A and C above |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the causative agent of Legionaire's disease? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of acute, fatal septicemia in 1-8 week old piglets, and pneumonia, arthritis and subcutaneous abscesses in older swine? |
|
|
Term
Calf Diptheria
Foot Rot
Liver Abscesses
Metritis |
|
Definition
What diseases of CATTLE are caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium botulinum
Most often from small mammals getting baled into hay, as natural flora of intestines it thrives when the animal deteriorates then horses comsume the infective hay.
|
|
Definition
What organism causes forage poisoning in horses? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium perfringens type A |
|
Definition
What is the cause of Yellow Lamb Disease? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium perfringens type A |
|
Definition
What Clostridial organism has been recently associated with mild diarrhea syndrome in piglets 1-30 days of age? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of mesocolonic edema in pigs 1-7 days of age? |
|
|
Term
ENTEROTOXEMIA
Overeating disease
Pulpy kidney disease
|
|
Definition
What disease in sheep is caused by Clostridium perfringens type D? |
|
|
Term
Clostridium chauvoei
Which causes BLACKLEG the term associated with the gas producing necrotic lesions.
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of large necrotic lesions of cattle that are characterized by large amounts of gas? |
|
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Term
Clostridium hemolyticum
This disease is termed REDWATER DISEASE or Bacillary Hemoglobinuria, because of the blood in urine.
Disease assocaited with swampy areas and liver fluke migration.
|
|
Definition
What organism produces a toxin that causes massive intravascular hemolysis and capillary damage resulting in high mortality of cattle? |
|
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Term
Brucella suis
Can also effect other species such as humans, dogs, horses, rodents, and more.
Although only a problem in the US among feral swine, it is still found in most-swine raising countries.
|
|
Definition
What is the species of Brucella that is of major concern in feral swine and reindeer? |
|
|
Term
Campylobacter jejuni
Most associated with undercooked or mishandled poultry, and can spread through the chilling step of poultry processing.
|
|
Definition
What is the number one cause of food borne bacterial disease in the world? |
|
|
Term
BRUCELLA MILK RING TEST
Used to detect immunoglobulinin milk from a bulk tank, as part of the State-Federal cooperation control program in the US. |
|
Definition
What is the test that is run to detect Brucella antibodies on Diary herds three times a year as regulated in the US? |
|
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Term
Brucella canis
Lacking A and M antigens. This organism causes generalized disease in dogs, often showing no clinical signs. Few cases have been seen in human lab workers. |
|
Definition
What organism is associated with large puppy mills in the US and is of major concern because it causes infections in humans? |
|
|
Term
CELL SURFACE ANTIGENS
and
LEUKOTOXIN
Both components are needed to produce an adequate immunizing agent, because Leukotoxin alone failed to provide protection.
|
|
Definition
What are the two most important components of Mannheimia haemolytica that are targeted to produce an effective immunizing agent? |
|
|
Term
Haemophilus paragallinarum
Occurs in CHICKENS causing acute inflammation of turbinates, acute air sacculitis, sneezing, conjunctivitis, swelling of head and wattles, decreased food intake and marked loss of egg production!
When this occurs in turkey poults it is caused by Bordetella avium.
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of FOWL CORYZA? |
|
|
Term
Pasteurella multocida type A
This is one of the few NON respiratory diseases associated with Pasteurella multocida.
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of FOWL CHOLERA? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of Turkey CORYZA (rhinotracheitis)? |
|
|
Term
TEME
PNEUMONIA
SEPTICEMIA
Lameness
|
|
Definition
What are three common disease manifestations of Histophilus somni infections in cattle? |
|
|
Term
CONTAGIOUS EQUINE METRITIS
DOES NOT CAUSE ABORTION
|
|
Definition
What is the name of the disease caused by Taylorella equigenitalis? |
|
|
Term
VENEREAL
Spreads the disease of Contagious Equine Metritis,
DOES NOT CAUSE ABORTION.
|
|
Definition
What is the route of transmission of Taylorella equigenitalis? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of rabbit fever? |
|
|
Term
Pasteurella multocida type A
Causes "snuffles", a respiratory tract infection that can lead to pneumonia, septicemia, and death.
Bordetella bronchiseptica
Causes upper respiratory disease
|
|
Definition
What are two gram negative rods that commonly cause respiratory disease in domestic rabbits? |
|
|
Term
IN CATTLE
Pasteurella multocida type A: is a component of shipping fever, can cause abscesses in lungs,
Pasteurella multocida type B & E: causes hemorrhagic septicemia and can effect water buffalo, reindeer, elk and bison |
|
Definition
What is the difference in disease production in cattle in Pasteurella multocida type A versus type B & E? |
|
|
Term
Chronic joint infections
Arthritis
|
|
Definition
In Pasteurella multocida type A infections in poultry, there is a high rate of mortality, but in those that survive what is the common sequellae? |
|
|
Term
NASOPHARYNGEAL
Can be found in the nasopharynx in normal swine, is highly contagious and spread through aerosol and contact.
|
|
Definition
What is the common route of infection with Haemophilus parasuis in swine? |
|
|
Term
The tetanspasmin (toxin) is produced locally at the site of infection and travels through the bloodstream and lymph.
This process referred to as descending tetanus.
At the level of the brain stem and spinal cord, tetanospasmin effects the most sensitive nerves first - -
which are those of the head and neck.
Lesions seen first are lockjaw, followed by respiratory problems. |
|
Definition
Why would clinical signs begin in the head and neck if there is a local lesion like a nail puncture? |
|
|
Term
It is difficult to diagnose Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis because it is present in contaminated environment and it is hard to find viable organisms among them. It is also biochemically inert.
For diagnosis we rely on clinical signs of poor conception rates in replacement animals.
OR direct smear of fetal membranes. |
|
Definition
Why is it difficult for laboratories to diagnose Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis?
What do we rely on for diagnosis? |
|
|
Term
SEVERE DEHYDRATION
Cholera toxin gets into cells and causes excessive cAMP production which stimulates fluid loss. Fluid replacement is the key to recovery. |
|
Definition
What is the major cause of mortality in individuals infected with Vibrio cholerae? |
|
|
Term
Antitoxin is a antibody to the toxin produced.
This is made by hyper immunizing a horse with toxoid and using the serum containing this toxin antibodies. |
|
Definition
What is antitoxin, as it is given to humans and horses to treat and prevent tetanus, and how is it produced? |
|
|
Term
Initial infection from Bordetella bronchiseptica, destroys nasal mucosa and predisposes the nasal cavity to colonization of Pasteurella multocida type D.
The Pasteurella causes dermonecrotic toxin increases the osteoclastic activity and decreases new bone formation. This causes turbinate atrophy. |
|
Definition
What is the sequential pathogenesis and organisms involved in the developemnt of atrophic rhinitis in swine? |
|
|
Term
IgA in the serum can bind to Neisseria meningiditis and block IgG and IgM from binding.
Since IgA cannot opsonsize, so it does nothing to kill the bacteria which allows it to multiply and produce septicemia. |
|
Definition
What is the role of IgA in meningococcal meningitis? |
|
|
Term
Causative agent: Moraxella oculi
Predisposing agents: UV light, long grass, dust, flies and Mycoplasma bovoculi |
|
Definition
What is the causative agent and three predisposing factors in contagious bovine keratinoconjunctivitis? |
|
|
Term
LPS is found on the OUTER SHEATH of Spirochaetales,
which is the "envelope" of the organism that is analogous to the Outer Membrane of a gram negative organism.
|
|
Definition
Where is LPS found in organisms of the Order Spirochaetales? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
In the Genus Leptospira, infection or vaccination with one member of a serogroup provides some protection against other members of that serogroup.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
DARKFIELD or PHASE CONTRAST microscopy is best,
even though Spirochetes are gram-negative they do not stain well with Grams stain. |
|
Definition
What is the best microscopic technique in identifing of the Order Spirochaetales ? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Spirochetes have flagella at both ends of the protoplasmic cylinder and attach at the basal insertion plate. All of this in contained WITHIN the Outer sheath. |
|
Definition
The periplasmic flagella of organisms in the Order Spirochaetales are not contained within the Outer Sheath.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the term used to describe the ability of Spirochetes to move through viscid substances ? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the basic taxonomic unit when classifying organisms in the Genus Leptospira? |
|
|
Term
Motile, Spiral rods, one or both HOOKED ends.
Tightly coiled, thin
Outer envelope covered by a SLIME LAYER.
Two axial filaments that extend towards the middle but DO NOT OVERLAP.
|
|
Definition
How would the morphology of Leptospira be described? |
|
|
Term
In liquid: Corkscrew (rotatory)
In semisolid: Serpentine, Flexing |
|
Definition
What type of motility does Leptospira use in LIQUID media?
SEMISOLID media? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
This is true for all organisms of the Order Spirochaetales |
|
Definition
Leptospira organisms stain poorly with aniline dyes and are best visualized by Darkfield Microscopy.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Microaerophilic conditions
The growth is seen a few milimeters below the surface in an area known as a "DINGER ZONE" |
|
Definition
What type of environment do Leptospira prefer to grow best in on primary isolation?
|
|
|
Term
Cytotoxic factor
Resistant to killing by Neutrophils and Complement
VISCOTAXIS
|
|
Definition
What are the Virulence factors of Leptospira? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What type of CLIMATE is Leptospira most commonly isolated from in animals? |
|
|
Term
PROXIMAL CONVOLUTED TUBULE
of the KIDNEY
This means large numbers of the organism are shed in the URINE!
|
|
Definition
What is the natural habitat of most serovars of Leptospira? |
|
|
Term
Since the organism is shed in urine,
the organism is transmitted by direct contact with urine or indirectly with contaminated water, food and soil.
The organism enters through mucous membranes of the eye, mouth, nose, genitalia, and skin (abraded or water softened) |
|
Definition
What is the route of transmission for infection with Leptospira? |
|
|
Term
NOT clinically ill
** SHED organism for a LONG TIME **
(key to maintaining Leptospirosis in a population)
No high titer and fall rapidly |
|
Definition
What are the characteristics of a Maintenance host of Leptospira? |
|
|
Term
Clinically ill: Fever and Acute Illness
Acute sever hepatitis, jaundice, leading to nephritits
Shed organism in urine for a period of time
(not responsible for maintaining a population with leptosporosis)
Develop HIGH antibody titer |
|
Definition
What are the characteristics of an Incidental host of Leptospira? |
|
|
Term
THE LIVER
This occurs during a time of initial bacteremia (4-7 days)
The organism then spreads to many body sites.
Then organisms is cleared from the blood by circulating anitbodies (10-12 days), but remain localized in kidney, brain, liver, lung, where antibody cannot access. |
|
Definition
Where does primary multiplication of leptospires take place in the body? |
|
|
Term
Abortion without premonitory signs
stillbirths, weak calves
Low fertility syndrome
"cold mastitis" milk drop syndrome
Hemolytic anemia, icterus, hemoglobinuria
The common serovars are: Hardjo, Pomona, Grippotyphosa, Icterohaemorrhagiae |
|
Definition
What are the diseases associated with Leptosporosis in Cattle? |
|
|
Term
SWINE
They tend to shed large numbers of leptospires in urine
Most common serovars: POMONA, Grippotyphosa, Icterohaemorrhagiae, Bratislava |
|
Definition
What species of animal is a good source of infection with leptospirosis to other animals and humans? |
|
|
Term
Abortions, stillbirths, weak foals
Periodic opthalmia --
ANTERIOR UVEITIS
Caused by antibody-antigen complex deposition resulting in vasculitis. |
|
Definition
What diseases are associated with leptospirosis in HORSES? |
|
|
Term
Vaccines widespread for Canicola and Icterohemorrhagiae causing Pomona and Grippotyphosa to become more clinically prevalent.
Anaphylactic reactions have been associated in dogs with the vaccine |
|
Definition
What are the issues with the canine Lepto vaccine causing an increase in cases? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Cats and Birds are not susceptible to Leptospira |
|
Definition
Abortion and hemolytic anemia are assocaited with leptospirosis in dogs, cats and birds.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Icterohemorrhagiae which is highly virulent |
|
Definition
What serovar is most associated with hepatic or renal failure in humans with Leptospirosis ? |
|
|
Term
Microscopic agglutination test (MAT) - the standard, but is a biohazard since working with live organisms.
Urine PCR - rapid, but cannot determine serotype and false negatives if antibiotics have been given.
ELISA, CF, IHA - can have cross-reactions, antibiotics interfere. Paired serum samples recommended.
Culture - provides serotype, but EXPENSIVE and time consuming
Fluorescent Ab test (FAT) - rapid, and can detect when leptospires not viable
Darkfield Microscopy of urine - not accurate |
|
Definition
What are the different ways to diagnose leptospirosis, and what are the problems with each? |
|
|
Term
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
This produces a muco-hemorrhagic diarrhea primarily in weanling pigs. |
|
Definition
What causes Swine Dysentery? |
|
|
Term
Complex media (BJ) -
Trypticase-soy agar with bovine blood, 5 antimicrobials, and extract from pig feces
Anaerobic
42 degrees C
Up to 6 days incubation
|
|
Definition
What is required to grow Brachyspira hyodysenteriae on primary isolation? |
|
|
Term
Hemolysin
LPS
Attachment
Mucin (from lining of intestinal cells - acts as chemotactic stimulus for organism) |
|
Definition
What virulence factors enhance the disease of Brachspira hyodysenteriae? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae does NOT penetrate the lamina propria, only effecting the epithelial cells.
It DOES cause bloody diarrhea, and the epithelial lining of the intestines can become so havily involved that it can shed as a pseudomembrane. |
|
Definition
The organism Brachyspira hyodysenteriae penetrates past the lamina propria in the cecum, colon, and rectum causing blood to be shed in the feces.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae |
|
Definition
What organism produces the ring phenomenon on isolation where there is no surface colony but a ring of intensified Beta hemolysis occurs when a hole of agar is removed? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae has been isolated in causing disease in what species? |
|
|
Term
Swine Dysentery
Ingestion (fecal-oral)
diarrhea -> mucoid diarrhea -> bloody diarrhea
epithelial pseudomembrane shed
recover -> 2-3 bouts of disease
shed in feces between bouts
complete recovery
shed in feces for 90 days
Full immunity -> passed in colostrum |
|
Definition
What is the pathogenesis of the disease in swine associated with Brachyspira hyodysenteriae? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism is referred to as the "weakly beta-hemolytic intestinal spirochete"? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Attach in large numbers |
|
Definition
Brachyspira pilosicoli attaches to the colonic epithelium by only one end of the cell, referred to as "end-on" attachment.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Treponema succinifaciens - PIGS
Treponema bryantii - RUMINANTS |
|
Definition
What are some spirochetes that are found as normal flora but are not associated with disease production? |
|
|
Term
Treponema paralius cuniculi
Causes venereal lesions -- chancres on genitialia
This is an important disease of lab animal medicine.
Easily demonstrated by Darkfield microscopy
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of Syphilis in rabbits? |
|
|
Term
Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum
Produces disease in 3 stages
Primary - genital chancres
Secondary - fever, rash, headache, lymphadenopathy
Tertiary - (immune complexes) neurosyphilis and cardiovascular syphilis |
|
Definition
What is the cause of human syphilis? |
|
|
Term
Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue |
|
Definition
What is the cause of YAWS in humans? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Treponema pallidum sbsp pertenue causes YAWS which is typically acquired during CHILDHOOD by direct contact.
The disease is seen in tropical regions of Africa, S. America, India, Indonesia and Pacific Islands.
The skin lesions found with this disease are granulomatous in nature. |
|
Definition
The disease produced by Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue is primarily transmitted venereally.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Treponema pallidum sbsp endemicum
primarily found in the Middle East in children in contact with unhygienic conditions.
Infected individuals will test positive for syphilis. |
|
Definition
What organism produces Endemic Syphilis or Bejel? |
|
|
Term
Treponema carateum
Disease is found in the tropical areas of Central and South America. It produces skin lesions (non granulomatous, differentiating in from Yaws).
Pinta can be treated with Penicillin. |
|
Definition
What organism causes Pinta? |
|
|
Term
Borrelia burgdorferi
This is the RASH (skin infection) associated with LYME DISEASE.
|
|
Definition
What organism produces the distinctive skin lesions "erythema chronicum migrans"? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Although the organism Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted by ticks and CAN be passed from one stage of tick to another, it CANNOT be passed transovirally. |
|
Definition
Several tick species can transmit the organism Borrelia burgdorferi and is passed from one stage of tick to another and is passed transovirally.
True or False. |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Lyme disease often presents as minor, ambigious amnifestations and can delay diagnosis - allowing the disease to progress. |
|
Definition
Subsequent complications of Lyme disease are arthritis, neuritis, cardiac complications, and even death.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
OspA, (Outer surface protein A), a lipoprotein.
Although it can cause autoimmune reactions in dogs, and possibly people. |
|
Definition
What is the basis of vaccines against Borrelia burgdorferi? |
|
|
Term
Auto-immune reactions against the OspA vaccines.
Antigenic shift occuring on the outer membrane proteins.
Variations in the organism. |
|
Definition
What are the difficulties in designing an appropriate vaccine for Borrelia burgdorferi? |
|
|
Term
Fever, myalgia, anorexia, acute recurrent episodes of arthritis.
NO BONE LESIONS on radiographs
NO skin lesions, cardiac, or neurological signs.
High titers
|
|
Definition
What is the clinical presentation of Borrelia burgdorferi in dogs? |
|
|
Term
Borrelia anserina
The disease of Fowl Spirochaetosis in not commonly seen in the US. It primarily effects young birds, chickens, turkeys, ducks, and geese.
|
|
Definition
What organism causes Fowl Spirochaetosis? |
|
|
Term
Tick prevention - the disease is transmitted via tick bites
Bacterin - CEO : Chick Embryo Origin |
|
Definition
How can disease caused by Borrelia anserina be prevented? |
|
|
Term
Borrelia theileri
Disease is divided into the Louse borne and Tick borne
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of Human Relapsing Fever? |
|
|
Term
Streptobacillus moniliformis
Rat Bite Fever : from a bite wound most often from laboratory rats. The wound heals but develops a chronic relapsing illness of fever, rash, and polyarthralgia.
Also Spirillum minus but this is more common in Asia and Africa, and causes a dark purple lesion at the site of the bite. |
|
Definition
What is the cause of Rat Bite Fever? |
|
|
Term
Streptobacillus moniliformis
Haverhill Fever: Similar to rat bite fever, where relapsing illness occurs. This is acquired most often from contaminated food or water. The presentation of GI and respiratory signs are more common. |
|
Definition
What orgainsm causes Haverhill fever in humans? |
|
|
Term
Isolation of Streptobacillus moniliformis from blood or joint fluid |
|
Definition
What is the best method of diagnosing Rat Bite Fever? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism causes dark purple lesions assocaited with rat bites, occuring most commonly in Africa and Asia? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the primary organism associated with Cat Scratch Fever? |
|
|
Term
CATS: NONE - Persistant bacteremia
HUMANS: Granulomatous regional lymphadenitis
|
|
Definition
What lesions are seen in cats infected with Bartonella henselae?
What about in humans? |
|
|
Term
Skin Test
Lymph node aspirates - microscopic examination with Warthin-Starry stained smears
|
|
Definition
What is the best methods for diagnosing infection with Bartonella henselae? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the disease produced by Bartonella quintana?
|
|
|
Term
Trench fever primarily effects HUMANS and is spread by the BODY LOUSE. This is most commonly associated with the socially disadvantaged. |
|
Definition
What species does Trench Fever effect?
How is it spread? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Organisms in the Order Chlamydiae do not require vectors and have a developmental cycle.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Rickettsiae DO require vectors (unlike Chlymadiae) and have no developmental cycle. |
|
Definition
Organisms of the Order Rickettsiae do not require vectors and have no developmental cycle.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Chlamydia trachomatis Biovar II
This is the leading cause of sexually transmitted disease in the US.
Presents as urethritis in males, urethritis and infertility in females. |
|
Definition
What specific organism is resposibly for causing the STD Chlamydia in humans? |
|
|
Term
BIOVAR I
LGV - Lymphogranuloma venereum - sexually transmitted displaying enlarged lymph nodes
BIOVAR II
Sexually transmitted Chlamydia - urethritis and infertility (only in females) - #1 STD in US
Trachoma - Chronic Keratinoconhunctivitis - #1 cause of preventable blindness in the world |
|
Definition
What diseases are associated with Chlamydia trachomatis in humans? |
|
|
Term
BIOVAR II
This includes the Lymphoganuloma venerum (LGV) strains.
This species is invasive beyond mucosal membranes and infects many cells types.
The lesions produced are plagues - which allow the organism to exit the cell via lysis. |
|
Definition
Which biovar of Chlamydia trachomatis is more invasive? |
|
|
Term
Chlamydia trachomatis Biovar II
Causes Trachoma = chronic keratinoconjunctivitis |
|
Definition
What is the leading cause of preventable blindness in the World? |
|
|
Term
Chlamydia trachomatis Biovar II
Causes Chlamydia which produces urethritis in males and females and infertility in females. |
|
Definition
What is the leading cause of sexually transmitted disease in the US? |
|
|
Term
Chlamydia trachomatis Biovar II
Causes Chlamydia which can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and INFERTILITY |
|
Definition
What causes Pelvic Inflammatory Disease in humans? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism can be spread from human to human causing pneumonia and encephalitis and has been linked to atherosclerosis, heart attacks and stroke? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Avian and mammalian strains of Chlamydophila psittaci are NOT antigenically similar.
BIRDS - infection precipitated by stress causing enlarged spleen and liver, ocular-nasal discharges and fibrinous pericarditis
MAMMALS - abortions, infertility, follicular conjunctivitis, polyarthritis |
|
Definition
Avian strains and mammalian strains of Chlamydophila psittaci are closely related antigenically and cause similar disease across most species.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Chlamdophila abortus and Chlamydophila psittiaci
Chlamydophila pecorum has also been indicated but has lower virulence and is hardly mentioned. |
|
Definition
What two species of Chlamydophila produce disease in ruminants? |
|
|
Term
TURKEYS
Causes large outbreaks with high mortality |
|
Definition
Avian chlamydiosis-psitticosis is most virulent in what species? |
|
|
Term
The INTESTINAL TRACT
Chlamydophila abortus and psittaci are then shed in the feces and serve as a source of infection for other animals |
|
Definition
In ruminants infected with Chlamydophila, where does multiplication of the organism occur? |
|
|
Term
PIGEONS, and possibly other wild birds.
Chlamydophila psittaci is widespread in pigeons, and since they shed the organism in their discharges for a long time after recovery they serve to infect other animals. |
|
Definition
What animal serves as a reservoir for Chlamydophila psittaci? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Chlamydial infections resulting in abortion are more common in sheep than in cattle.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Younger - Acute, severe disease
Older - few clinical signs
Latent, inapparent disease MOST COMMON - precipitated by STRESS |
|
Definition
What effect does age have on the clinical appearance of Avian chlamydiosis-psittacosis? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Although infections with Chlamydophila do NOT REQUIRE a vector, transmission can be spread via face flies resulting in follicular conjunctivitis. This is often seen with polyarthritis.
However, last trimester abortion and infertility are spread directly by feces of infected cattle. |
|
Definition
Chlamydophila infections in ruminants do not use a vector to produce clinical disease.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
The vaccine available for Chlamydophila felis is a modified-live vaccine. This is typical mixed in with rhinotracheitis, calici and panleukopenia viruses.
However it is true that the vaccine does NOT provide solid immunity. |
|
Definition
There is a killed bacterin vaccine available against Chlamydophilus felis, but there it doesnt provide solid immunity.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Phagocytosis - lysome fuses and organism is digested
Receptor-mediated endocytosis - endosome-lysosome fusion is inhibited and Chlamydiae survives |
|
Definition
How do Chlamydophila species interact with phagocytes of the hosts? |
|
|
Term
CMI - Cell Mediated Immunity
Phagocytes lysosomal-endomsal fusion can be blocked if endocytosis is receptor mediated.
The antibody response to Chlamydial infections can provide to opsonize, but are short lived and easily overwhelmed. |
|
Definition
What is the most important aspect of host immunity against Chlamydial infection? |
|
|
Term
Exfoliative Cytology
This is done on infected tissues that are stained with Gimenez, Giemsa or Macchiavello to observe cytoplasmic inculsions.
Isolation of the organism is hazardous and can cause lab-acquired infections, they are also time consuming.
Serological ELISAs are available but there is cross reactivity. |
|
Definition
What is the safest and most effective method in diagnosing Chlamydial infections? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tetracyclines are used to treat Chlamydial infections, but they only supress growth and multiplication and do not eliminate the infection without an adequate immune system.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Enters cell - Parasite induced phagocytosis
Escapes digestion in phagolysosome
Escape into cytoplasm
Resist digestion from within vacule
Multiply via binary fission
No developmental cycle
Released from cell
Cell Lysis
Endocytosis
|
|
Definition
What is the pathogenesis of Rickettsia (How does it enter and exit the cell)? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the most important reservoir of infection with Chlamydophila species? |
|
|
Term
ALL of them
All strains of Chlamydophila pose a threat to humans, but the avian serovars are more infectious to humans. |
|
Definition
Which strains of Chlamydophila are infectious to humans? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Avian serovars of Chlamydophila are more infectious to humans than mammalian serovars.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Species in the order Rickettsia are OBLIGATE intracellular parasites, however they DO multiply by binary fission. |
|
Definition
Species in the order Rickettsia are facultative intracellular parasites that multiply by binary fission.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Rickettesia enter host cells via parasite-induced phagocytosis - CMI
Escape digestion in the phagolysosome by resisting digestion and remaining in vacule or escaping into the cytoplasm.
Here they multiply via binary fission, then released when the cell is lysed or by exocytosis.
|
|
Definition
Explain the immune reaction that occurs within the host in response to Rickettsia organisms.
|
|
|
Term
Rickettsia prowazekii
it is spread by body louse (vector) and can be more readily spread in situations of war, poverty and famine.
The body louse will also spread the disease further by jumping off a host with the displeasure of an increase in body temperature associated with fever and move to another host. |
|
Definition
What is the cause of Epidemic Typhus and how is it spread? |
|
|
Term
Rickettsia typhi
spread by body louse or rat flea - - can be accidentally passed to humans |
|
Definition
What is the cause of Mouse Typhus? |
|
|
Term
"Chigger-borne typhus" or "Scrub typhus"
caused by Rickettsia tsutsugamusi
It is spread via Mite Larvae (Chiggers) |
|
Definition
What organism causes fatal disease and is endemic in Japan, Korea, Australia, and Vietnam?
How is it spread? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
|
|
|
Term
The vector is Ixodid ticks, which maintains the organism in the environment by cycling through ticks, small rodents, wild animals and domestic animals.
DOGS are major carriers - often asymptomatic.
This causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
Which is only accidentally contracted in humans.
|
|
Definition
How is infection with Rickettsia rickettsii spread? |
|
|
Term
Vascular endothelium
here Rickettsia rickettsii invades and causes endothelial damage which results in thrombosis, microhemorrhage, necrosis, shock and death
Initial signs occur 2 days after tick bite |
|
Definition
What host cell type is the target of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? |
|
|
Term
Coxiella burnetti
and it is spread TWO WAYS:
1. tick - vertebrate tranmission
2. ** airborne animal-animal transmission (most prevalent) |
|
Definition
What is the cause of Q fever?
How is it spread? |
|
|
Term
Ehrlichia ruminatium
Which causes Heartwater
Organism invades circulating leukocytes |
|
Definition
What organism causes economically significant disease of Africa causes hydropericardium in ruminants? |
|
|
Term
Ehrlichia canis
CANINE circulating leukocytes
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of canine erlichiosis?
What type of cell does it attack? |
|
|
Term
The brown dog tick
Rhipicephalus sanguineus
YOU THOUGHT YOU WERE DONE WITH PARASITOLOGY MUAWHAHAHAHA
|
|
Definition
What is the vector for Ehrlichia canis? |
|
|
Term
Occurs in Summer months
Acute: (first 2 wks) multiples in mononuclear cells - spread to tissues. Mononuclear cells attack to endothelium - vasculitis - thrombocytopenia
Subclinical: (40 - 120 days) anemia, thrombocytopenia but last stage and eliminated by immunocompetent dogs
Chronic: terminal pancytopenia in susceptible dogs - esp German shepards
|
|
Definition
What are the effective stages of Canine Ehrlichiosis? |
|
|
Term
Ehrlichia canis
Chronic phase |
|
Definition
What causes terminal pancytopenia in German Shepard dogs? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Dogs that are not able to clear the orgnaism - immune to reinfection
If FULLY cleared - susceptible to mild reinfection |
|
Definition
Recovered dogs with Ehrlichia canis are immune for life.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Ehrlichia equi
Can also infect dogs - but produces a more mild infection that with Ehrlichia canis |
|
Definition
What is the cause of Equine ehrlichiosis? |
|
|
Term
Neorickettsia risticii
PCR of Feces
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of Potomac Horse Fever?
How would you confirm diagnosis? |
|
|
Term
Vector: Water borne insects
which are ingested by horses causing Potomac Horse Fever.
Can also be spread by blood contact amungst horses |
|
Definition
How is Neorickettsia risticii transmitted? |
|
|
Term
Acute: Sudden depression, colitis, laminitis, fever, diarrhea, can be fatal if untreated.
Subacute: Depression and fever - NO DIARRHEA
Inapparent: Determined by serologica studies
Caused by Neorickettsia risticii -
KILLED VACCINE AVAILABLE
|
|
Definition
What are the stages of effective disease in Potomac Horse Fever? |
|
|
Term
Neorickettsia risticii
Also invades macrophages, mast cells, and circulating monocytes |
|
Definition
What Rickettsial organism grows in the intestinal epithelium of mammals? |
|
|
Term
This is a pathognomonic combination of lesions that is associated with Neorickettsia helminthoeca
This can be FATAL within 7-10 days of clinical signs! |
|
Definition
What organism would be suspected in a dog with sudden onset of high fever with enlarged lymph nodes? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Operculated eggs are highly suggestive, but not definitive and diagnosis should be confired with a GIEMSA stained smear of LN aspirates. |
|
Definition
A fecal exam on a dog suspected to have Salmon poisoning is the best diagnostic method because trematods carry the organism and have very distinct operculated eggs.
True or false? |
|
|
Term
Incubation: 3- 8 weeks
Developmen: Anemia occurs,
Convalescent: Reticulocyte count returns to normal
Carrier: clinically recovered animals, non detectable and act as reservoirs! |
|
Definition
What are the stages of effective clinical disease assocaited with Anaplasma marginale? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Cattle younger than 6 months are relatively resistant |
|
Definition
The mortality of infections with Anaplasma marginale increase with age.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
centrally located inclusion in the RBC |
|
Definition
Where would Anaplasma centrale be found in the host? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anaplasma ovis causes disease in sheep and goats but is not found in cattle.
True or false? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What class of fungi are non pathogenic and is comprised of mushrooms, toadstools, smuts, and rusts of plants? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What yeast has been indicated in causing abortions and mastitis in cattle? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What yeast produces thick walled chlamydospores on Rice Infusion or cornmeal agar |
|
|
Term
Overgrowths of the digestive tract
WHITISH plaques of the mouth, crop, proventriculus, and gizzard. |
|
Definition
What lesions are produced in poultry by Candida albicans? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What yeast is the major cause of canine otitis externa? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which yeast has characterisitic peanut shaped cells and grows strep like colonies? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What yeast has been indicated in causing superficial nodules on the distal portion of the hair? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What yeast will cause polyp formation? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism forms characteristic "Cigar bodies" in yeast form? |
|
|
Term
Sporothoriz schenckii
Invades skin incontact with soil |
|
Definition
What is the cause of Rosegardener's disease? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dermatophytes are unable to survive inflammatory reaction and move to the periphery creating a ringed lesion of alopecia with central healing.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Microsporum LACK microconidia and macroconidia serve well for indentification |
|
Definition
Microsporum growth is characterized by the presence of microconidia and tend to lack macroconidia.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which zoophilic microsporum species is often subclinical in cats, more severe in dogs and often effects the head? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the most common cause of ringworm in the US amungst dogs, cats, horses and man? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the most common cause of ringworm in swine? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which dermatophye requires nictonic acid for growth and can be isolated from horse skin? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What "parking lot diagnosis" can be made of cattle with prolific plaques most often found in winter months? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of club lamb fungus? |
|
|
Term
They are metabolites produced by fungus
Most involved are:
Aspergillus, Pennicillum and Fusarium |
|
Definition
What are mycotoxins and who produces them? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What mycotoxin seen in warm, humid areas is hepatotoxic and carcinogenic? |
|
|
Term
Zearalenone - produced by Fusarium |
|
Definition
What mycotoxin has estrogenic effects and can cause infertility in swine?
What produces this? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of brooder pneumonia? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What has been indicated in respiratory disease of captive penguins? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What fungus is most assocaited with gutteral pouch infections of horses? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What neurotrophic fungus is associated with pigeon feces? |
|
|
Term
Chronic granulomatous and suppurative lesions that tend to start as pulmonary infections because it can be readily inhaled. |
|
Definition
What type of lesions are seen with infections with Blastomyces dermatitidis? |
|
|
Term
Coccidiodes immitis
Rapidly forms arthrospores and be inhaled and potentially dangerous to lab workers
Valley fever is the pulmonary and most common form of infection and produces granulomatous lesions in the lungs. |
|
Definition
What is the cause of Valley Fever? |
|
|
Term
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae |
|
Definition
What organism produces very little surface colony and appears as a zone of complete hemolysis that can be enhanced by removing a plug of agar under the colony? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the only dermatophyte that produces metabolic byproduct that fluoresces when exposed to a UV light? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism is an obligate intramammary pathogen of cattle? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What term denotes the ability od an organism to move through a viscous substrate such as mucus? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the basic taxonomic unit to identify members of the genus Leptospira? |
|
|
Term
Liver
The organism then spreads to many body sites where immune response is initiated.
Organisms then localize in the kidney, brain, and lung where antibodies cannot readily access them. |
|
Definition
Where is the site of primary multiplication of leptospires in the first week of infection? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the major clinical manifestation of Leptospirosis in cattle? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the primary cell type infected by members of the genus Rickettsia? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What are produced by Fusarium and primarily cause a feed refusal syndrome? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is a heterotrph that can live on dead or decaying organic matter? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the Fc-receptor protein of Staphylococcus aureus? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the name of a protein antigen that is of major importance in development of resistance to Group A Streptococci? |
|
|
Term
Coagulase** Most important: Staphylocoagulase + prothrombin = staphylothrombin (which cleaves fibrinogen into fibrin)
DNase: works on RNA and DNA, stimulate the production of abscesses |
|
Definition
What are two Staphylococcus aureus enzymes that are most closely related to pathogenicity of the organism? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism is harbored in the intestinal tracts of animals and causes mesenteric lymphadenitis and sever enterocolitis in humans that can sometimes mimic appendicitis? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the bacterial genus that may be able to fuse with host membranes and thus exchange antigens with those membranes? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism commonly invades burn wounds and can ultimately cause the death of the patient? |
|
|
Term
Burkholderi mallei
Pulmonary
Nasal
Farcy or Cutaneous glanders |
|
Definition
What is the cause of glanders in solipeds?
What three types of disease does it produce? |
|
|
Term
Burkholderi pseudomallei
Can be transmitted via biting insects and is harbored in rodents and water
Common in military dogs |
|
Definition
What is the cause of meliodoisis? |
|
|
Term
Burkholderi pseudomallei
Ehrlichia canis
|
|
Definition
What organisms are commonly isolated from disease in military dogs? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of columnaris disease in catfish ? |
|
|
Term
Flavobacterium psychrophilum |
|
Definition
What is the cause of coldwater disease of adult freshwater salmon and trout and rainbow trout fry syndrome? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the name of the disease in water buffalo, bison, and cattle that is caused by Pasteurella multocida type B and E ? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism canbeen assocaited with severe respiratory disease in adult cattle especially in the western US, and respiratory disease in goats and septicemia in lambs? |
|
|
Term
Actinobacillus lignieresii |
|
Definition
What is the cause of granulomatous, tumor-like lesions in the soft tissues of the head and neck of cattle? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism causes fatal, acute septicemia in 1-8- week old pigs and is also recognized as a cause of arthritis, pneumonia dn subcutaneous abscesses? |
|
|
Term
Histophilus somni
LOS has lacked complexity of the O-Ag side chain: induces apoptosis of endothelial cells.
releases Adenine, Guanine, and GMP which are important for the intracellular survival of the organism |
|
Definition
What respiratory tract pathogen of cattle produces LOS instead of LPS, has one or more Fc-receptor proteins and releases RNA components? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of rhinotracheitis or coryza in turkey poults? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the clostridial toxin that blocks the release of glycine and gamma-aminobutyric acid at the level of the spinal cord and brainstem resulting in spastic paralysis? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of blackleg in ruminants? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of quail disease (ulcerative colitis) in birds? |
|
|
Term
Lawsonia intracellularis
survives inside epithelial cells of the ileum and is shed when the cells are sloughed off. |
|
Definition
What is the cause of proliferative enteritis in pigs, foals, hamsters, and possibly other animal species? |
|
|
Term
It forms spores which are resistant to heat |
|
Definition
What allows Clostridium botulinum to survive the processing of foods? |
|
|
Term
Because there are a number of serologically distinct toxins and the clinical signs are roughly the same |
|
Definition
Why do we need to treat botulism with polyvalent antitoxin? |
|
|
Term
Afalatoxin
Zearalenone
Ochratoxin
Ergot alkaloids
|
|
Definition
What are the four major mycotoxins? |
|
|
Term
It increases cAMP inside of target cells which initiates fluid loss
Produced by Vibrio cholerae and is antigenically similar to the LPS toxin of E. coli |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of cholera toxin? |
|
|
Term
It gets into target cells and increases cAMP initiating fluid loss
this is produced by Bacillus anthracis |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of Edema factor ? |
|
|
Term
It forms pores in target cell membranes
This is produced by Mannheimia hemolytica |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of Leukotoxin? |
|
|
Term
TSST1 acts as a superantigen
It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of TSST1? |
|
|
Term
It forms pores in target cell membranes
This is produced by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae and Actinobacillus suis |
|
Definition
What mechanism does ApX1 utilize? |
|
|
Term
It increased cAMP inside target cells which stimulates fluid loss
this is produced by E. coli |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of LT toxin? |
|
|
Term
It inhibits protein synthesis by NAD-dependent ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2
This is produced by E. coli |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of Edema disease toxin? |
|
|
Term
It destabilizes and lyses cell membranes by sequestering membrane cholesterol
It is produced by Streptococcus spp |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of Sterptolysin O? |
|
|
Term
It destabilizes and lyses the phagosomal membrane
It is produced by Listeria monocytogenes |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of Listeriolysin O? |
|
|
Term
It hydrolyzes glycerophospholipids and sphingolipids in cell membranes
Causes BETA HEMOLYSIS |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of Phospholipase C? |
|
|
Term
They compete with para-aminobenzoic acid in folic acid synthesis
|
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of Sulfonamides as an antibiotic? |
|
|
Term
Binds to bacterial transpeptidases and clocks cross brindging in peptidoglycan |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of Penicillin as an antibiotic? |
|
|
Term
They inhibit DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase A |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of 4-fluoroquinolones as an antibiotic? |
|
|
Term
They bind to bacterial transpeptidases and block crossbridging in peptidoglycan |
|
Definition
What is the mechanism of cephalosporins as an antibiotic? |
|
|
Term
Intestinal tract of swine, turkeys, and many other animals |
|
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae? |
|
|
Term
Soil and intestinal tracts of birds |
|
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Mycobacterium avium? |
|
|
Term
Intestinal tracts of foals and in soil |
|
Definition
What is the major natural habitat od Rhodococcus equi? |
|
|
Term
Plant material and intestinal tracts of herbivores |
|
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Listeria monocytogenes? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Mycoplasma bovoculi? |
|
|
Term
Soil and skin of sheep and goats |
|
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Dermatophilus congolensis? |
|
|
Term
A. Are relatively hydrophobic |
|
Definition
Bacteria that are most likely to be phagocytosed are :
A. Relatively hydrophobic
B. Relatively hydrophilic
C. Heavily encapsulated
D. Have a complex O-antigen
E. Have a simple O-antigen |
|
|
Term
D. Only A and B
PPD (Purified Protein Derivative) tuberculins have a standard potency and are more specific
This is used in diagnosing infections with Mycobacterium spp |
|
Definition
PPD tuberculins are usually preferred because
A. Give fever cross-reactions (are more specific) than other types of tuberculin
B. They are more standardized than other types of tuberculins
C. They have the extra benefit of immunizing those who are negative on the tuberculin tests
D. Only A and B
E. Only B and C
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The virulence-assocaited protein A (VapA) is thought to be important in the immune response to:
A. Streptococcus equi
B. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var equi
C. Rhodococcus equi
D. Streptococcus suis
E. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae |
|
|
Term
C. Liver abscesses in feedlot cattle
But there is also no where in the notes that mentions foot root too.... and it does say it abscesses in peritoneal and thoracic cavity, but I checked my notes from class and A. pyogenes can be in foot rot and thrush |
|
Definition
In which of the following does Arcanobacterium pyogenes NOT play an important role?
A. Post-partum metritis in cattle
B. Foot-rot in cattle
C. Liver abscesses in feedlot cattle
D. Subcutaneous abscesses in cattle
E. Chronic, abscessing mastitis in cattle |
|
|
Term
A. It lacks the genes for the capsule
The genes for the Poly D glutamic acid capsule are present on a plasmid that is seperate from the plasmid of the toxins genes.
So current vaccines only have the plasmid for toxin production :
THREE PART TOXIN:
EF (edema factor) - activates adenylate cyclase
LF (lethal factor) - cleaves kinase of cell transduction
PA (protective antigen)- binding unit to cell membrane (docking station) |
|
Definition
The commonly used modified-live vaccine used to immunize against Brucella anthracis infection:
A. Lacks the genes for the capsule
B. Lacks the genes for the PA antigen
C. Lacks the genes for the EF antigen
D. Lacks the genes for the LF antigen
E. None of the above |
|
|
Term
B. The host generates an antibody response by that time and the antibody restricts the organism to areas that are immunologically privleged
Areas include: KIDNEY,brain and lung |
|
Definition
Pathogenic members of the genus leptospira are cleared from the blood 10-12 days following infection because:
A. the hosst generates a CMI response by that time and is able to kill the organism
B. The host generates an antibody response by that time and the antibody restricts the organism to immunologically privliged areas
C. The organism causes enough tissue damage by that time that defensins, lysozyme and other natural defense mechanisms are able to clear it
D. The organism undergoes antigenic shifting and becomes naturally avirulent
E. None of the above |
|
|
Term
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis- found primarily in decaying wood and moist soil, shaded organic matter
Coccidioides immitis - feces of desert rodents, desert soil
Histoplasma capsulatum- soil with bird and bat feces
Crytococcus neoformans- bird feces, although it has been associated with trees with rotted pockets
Trichophyton equinum - need nicotinic acid for growth (horse skin) |
|
Definition
Which of the following is a soil saprophyte commonly found in decaying wood?
A. Coccidiodes immitis
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
E. Trichophyton equinum |
|
|
Term
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
This is found in the Mississippi River Valley states - prefers low-lying areas
Coccidioides immitis- DESERT - Valley fever
Histoplasma capsulatum- soil with bird and bat droppings
Cryptococcus neoformans - bird feces
Aspergillus flavus
|
|
Definition
Which of the following is most commonly found in low-lying areas near reservoirs and dams?
A. Coccidioides immitis
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
E. Aspergillus flavus |
|
|
Term
C. Cryptococcus neoformans looooves your brain for dinner.
It is a neurotrophic fungus - eating it wont get you high, it will cause meningioencephalitis clinically presenting as severe headaches and fever.
Coccidioides immitis- is inhaled and primarily effects lungs
Histoplasma farciminosum- wound infection
Blastomyces dermatitidis- hematongenous from lungs
Sporothrix schneckii - skin wounds |
|
Definition
Which of the following has a strong prediliction to infect neural tissue?
A. Coccidioides immitis
B. Histoplasma capsulatum farciminosum
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis E. Sporothorix schneckii |
|
|
Term
C. Cryptococcus neoformans - found in trees with rotting holes contaminated with BIRD feces and insect parts YUM
Coccidioides immitis- Desert soil, rodent feces (in desert)
Histoplasma capsulatum - soil in Africa, Middle East, Asia
Blastomyces dermatitidis - MOIST soil Sporothorix schneckii - soil and dead plant material |
|
Definition
Which of the following has been recovered commonly from rotting portions of trees that are contaminated with feces, insect parts and other debris?
A. Coccidioides immitis
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis E. Microsporum canis |
|
|
Term
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
A. Coccidioides immitis- desert rodent feces, soil
C. Cryptococcus neoformans- trees with bird droppings, insects
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis - decaying wood, low level soil E. Cladosporium spp - |
|
Definition
Which of the following is commonly associated with bat feces and bird droppings?
|
|
|
Term
B. Histoplasma capsulatum |
|
Definition
Which of the following has a yeast that is commonly found in circulating phagocytes of clinically infected hosts?
A. Coccidioides immitis
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis E. Aspergillus fumigatus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which of the following is a Biosafety hazard level 3 pathogen transmitted to the respiratory tract by readily aerosolized arthospores?
A. Coccidioides immitis
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis E. Sporothorix schenckii
|
|
|
Term
E. Sporothorix schenckii
This is the cause of Rosegarteners disease |
|
Definition
Which of the following is commonly found on woody plant material and is transmitted by traumatic introduction?
A. Coccidioides immitis
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis E. Sporothorix schenckii
|
|
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Term
Macrophages, needs TLR to allow it into macrophages |
|
Definition
What is the major cell type involve in an adverse reaction to endotoxin?
A. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte
B. Macrophage
C. Eosinophil
D. Mast Cell
E. RBC |
|
|
Term
FALSE
really? MRSA? never heard of it... |
|
Definition
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus are not a concern for veterinarians.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Although MAT (Microscopic agglutination test) is most common and considered the "standard", it requires handling live organisms and is therefore a biohazard.
PCR of urine is RAPID, which is nice, although it doesnt determine the serovar, but who is really interested in that except for researchers?
FAT (fluorescent antibody test) is also rapid and available and can detect infection in cases where leptospires are no longer viable. |
|
Definition
PCR of urine has become increasingly available for diagnosis of leptosporosis, especially in the canine species.
True or False? |
|
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Term
TRUE
It is shed in urine, so soil or water contaminated with urine would be a method of transmission, also they love moist warm environments. |
|
Definition
Leptosporosis should be included in the list of differentials if humans develop a feberile illness within one month of being involved in a flood or flood clean up.
True or False? |
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Term
|
Definition
Recent data indicates that 1/3 of human leptospira infections come from dogs, and 1/3 come from rats.
True or False? |
|
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Term
False
Although a vaccine IS available as a killed product with adjuvant, it is reccomended to be given in two doses and has 65- 85% effectiveness.
Recovered sows owever, pass antibody in colostrum to young, which only lasts until weaning. |
|
Definition
We commonly vaccinate feeder pigs against Brachyspira hyodysenteriae.
True or False? |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Intestinal spirochetes are common but very few have been assocaited with disease.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Erythema chronicum migrans is the name of the rash that occurs in about 80% of individuals within the first month following infection with Borrelia burgdorferi.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Several species of tick carry the organism, although it was originally thought that is was just that one. |
|
Definition
Ixodes scapularis is the only species of tick known to reliably transmit Borrelia burgdorferi.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The human Lyme disease vaccine was pulled off the market and critics claimed that it caused "odd and damaging side effects".
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Many human cases of rat-bite fever are characterized by chronic relapsing illness with episodes of fever and chills that subside within 36 hours, only to reoccur in 3 - 9 days.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Streptobacillus moniliformis wound heals, rare in US, in labs
Spirillum minus dark purple lesion at bite, Asia and Africa |
|
Definition
Streptobacillus moniliformis and Spirillum minus are both causes of rat bite fever.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Haverhill fever is similar to rat-bite fever except that GI and respiratory signs are more common and transmission is through ingestion rather than a bite-wound.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Pigeons and wild birds serve as reservoirs for the disease |
|
Definition
Birds that recover from infections with Chlamydophila psittaci infection can shed the organism in their feces for a very long time and possibly for life.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The primary route of transmission for Chlamydophila psittaci in birds is via respiratory tract by breathing dust contaminated with feces.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Its just cooler to blame it on the Rockies |
|
Definition
Most cases of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever are reported from teh southeastern region of the US.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
This is the cause of Q fever, which is primarily a disease of animals, mostly ruminants.
The cycles pass from tick to vertebrate and ALSO from animal-animal through airborne transmission. |
|
Definition
Coxiella burnetti is most commonly transmitted to humans via ticks and its most commonly found in hunters, hikers and other that spend a lot of time outdoors.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Neorickettsia risticii is diagnosed by preforming a PCR of FECES |
|
Definition
PCR is currently the recommended method for diagnosis of Potomac Horse Fever.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
It is infectious in the blood of recovered animals |
|
Definition
Bovine anaplasmosis can only be transmitted through vectors such as ticks and biting flies.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
This would be in the developmental stage, when clinical signs are present. |
|
Definition
The anemia seen in bovine anaplasmosis is due to clearance of RBCs damaged by infection with the organism and anti-erythrocyte antibody that is generated by the host.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
There is NO isotype restriction in T cell dependent immune response |
|
Definition
Complex polysaccharide and protein antigens are T cell dependent and the immune response is therefore restricted to the IgM isotype of antibody.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
Properties of Exogenously processed antigens
-Organism or protein is phagocytosed or endocytosed
- organism or protein is broken down into antigenic peptides in the phagosome
- Antigenic peptides assocaite with MHC II molecules
- Antigenic peptides are presented to CD4+ T cells
- CD4+ T cells produce cytokines. The end results are either a cytotoxic response or the stimulation of B cells to produce antibody
(pg 27 of your notes) |
|
Definition
Bacterial antigens that are broken down to antigenic peptides in the phagolysosome of macrophages are saif to be exogenously processed.
True or False?
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|
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Term
|
Definition
An autogenous bacterin is an immunizing agent generated from a bacterial isolate obtained from the herd to be immunized.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
The toxins are on one plasmid (which is included in the vaccine)
and the capsule is on the other plasmid (which is not in the vaccine) |
|
Definition
Capsule and toxin production in Bacillus anthracis are dependent on the presence of two large plasmids.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pyleonephritis in both cattle and swine usually require some type of predisposing factor.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Infection with Nocardia asteroides usually requires some type of predisposing factor such as immunosuppression or traumatic introduction of the organism into tissues.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mycobacterium avium sbsp paratuberculosis can remain viable in soil and feces for up to 9 months.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
The Stb toxin has an earlier onset and is longer acting |
|
Definition
E. coli STb toxin is more commonly involved in post-weaning scours in pigs.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
the disease syndrome (edema) is caused by vasotoxin |
|
Definition
F 18 fimbria are essential for the production of edema disease in swine.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
R factors are plasmids carrying antimicrobial resistance genes.
Klebsiella is always resistant to Ampicillin, it has genes for that on the chromosome.
Susceptible to first generation cephalosporins |
|
Definition
Klebsiella pneumoniae is a good recipient for R-factors (antimicrobial resistance genes).
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Bibersteinia trehalosi isolates have the same leukotoxin as Mannheimia hemolytica.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Respiratory disease in sheep and goats is caused by multiple serotypes of Mannheimia hemolytica whereas disease in cattle is almost always serotype A1.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
The Apx1 and Apx2 toxins are hemolysin (RTX type cytotoxins) so it forms pores in RBC membranes. |
|
Definition
Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae produce apparently identical Apx1 adn Apx2 toxins.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
TRUE
it is highly contagious and is readily spread by aerosol and contact |
|
Definition
Haemophilus parasuis is commonly found in the nasopharynx of many normal swine and is transmitted to piglets at a young age.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
It is usually associated with the stress of weaning and shipping. |
|
Definition
Haemophilus parasuis commonly causes disease in young piglets without requiring any predisposing factors or stresses.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
it is not eradicated, but there ARE strict import regulations. |
|
Definition
Contagious equine metritis has been eradicated from the US.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
FALSE
Tularensis is only found in North America
palaeartica is from Russia and Scandinavian countries
novicida - humans |
|
Definition
Francisella tularensis tularensis is only found in the Scandinavian countries whereas biovar palaeartica is found in most of the countries in the northern hemisphere.
True or False?
|
|
|
Term
TRUE
this is what produces Lockjaw from a hematogenous and lymph spread infection |
|
Definition
So called descending tetanus is much more common than ascending tetanus.
True or False? |
|
|
Term
Humans
Syphilis
This is a three stage disease skin, immune complexes, and systemic |
|
Definition
What species does Treponema pallidum pallidum effect?
And what lesion/disease does it produce? |
|
|
Term
Bartonella henselae
Humans
humans develop a granulomatous regional lymphadenitis, where cats develop a non clinical bacteremia - nice kitty, really. |
|
Definition
What organism causes Cat Scratch Disease?
What species is the most common host? |
|
|
Term
Chlamydophila abortus
this is especially common in western states, there is a lesser occurance in cattle. |
|
Definition
What is the organism responsibile for causing Enzootic abortion in sheep? |
|
|
Term
Chlamydophila felis
it is a less common cause of respiratory disease but is a MAJOR cause of conjunctivitis in kittens. |
|
Definition
What organism causes conjunctivitis and rhinitis in kittens? |
|
|
Term
Humans
Trachoma (keratinoconjunctivitis)- #1 cause of preventable blindness in the world
Urogenital tract infections - #1 STD in the US |
|
Definition
What species does the organism Chlamydia trachomatis biovar II effect?
What are the disease/lesions produced? |
|
|
Term
Rickettsia prowaszekii this is a louse borne disease of war, poverty and famine. |
|
Definition
What organism causes Epidemic typhus in humans? |
|
|
Term
Ehrlichia canis the terminal pancytopenia is the chronic form of infection and has predisposing factors like breed (GERMAN SHEPARDS) |
|
Definition
What causes Ehrlichiosis and terminal pancytopenia in dogs? |
|
|
Term
Neorickettsia risticii this organism invades the epithelial cells of the intestine. |
|
Definition
What is the cause of Potomac Horse Fever (in horses)? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of North American Blastomycosis in dogs, humans, and cats? |
|
|
Term
WIDE VARIETY of animals
and it produces Chromomycosis, which are subcutaneous infections entering through wounds. nodular and ulcerative lesions of the feet and legs with regional granulomatous lymphadenitis. |
|
Definition
What species does Hormodendrum, Cladosporium, and Curvularia effect?
What disease does it produce? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of Zygomycosis in a wide variety of animals? |
|
|
Term
Pneumonia
Also causes Brooder pneumonia, guttural pouch infections of horses, abortion in horses, and much more |
|
Definition
What lesions/disease are produced in penguins when infected with Aspergillus fumigatus? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of Club-lamb fungus? |
|
|
Term
Sporothorix schenckii
lesions include small reddish papules that spread to lymph channels resulting in a yellow pus drainage |
|
Definition
What organism is responsible for Sporothoricosis in dogs, humans and horses? |
|
|
Term
Neorickettsia helminthoeca |
|
Definition
What is cause of Salmon Poisoning in dogs? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What yeast is responsible for otitis externa in dogs? |
|
|
Term
Rhinosporidium seeberi
HUMANS
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of rhinosporidiosis and what species does it effect? |
|
|
Term
Candida albicans
Humans, birds and others
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of oral thrush, and which species does it occur in? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of cholera in humans? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of cholera in Chickens, turkeys and geese? |
|
|
Term
Gastroenteritis in Humans |
|
Definition
What species and lesions are associated with Vibrio parahemolyticus? |
|
|
Term
Staphylococcus schleiferi |
|
Definition
What is the most common cause of recurrent pyoderm and otitis externa in dogs? |
|
|
Term
Streptococcus equi - horses |
|
Definition
What causes Strangles and what species does it occur in? |
|
|
Term
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Horses
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of Pigeon fever and what species is effected? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the most common lesion and host of infections with Streptococcus suis? |
|
|
Term
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae in SWINE |
|
Definition
What organism causes Diamond Skin Disease and it is produced in what species? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of cervial lymphadenitis in swine (stangles-like)? |
|
|
Term
Bacillus anthracis
Humans - associated with introduction through a wound. |
|
Definition
What organism and species is associated with Malignant Carbuncles? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What lesion/disease is produced by Bacillus cereus in humans? |
|
|
Term
Listeria monocytogenes
in Ruminants
|
|
Definition
What causes Circling disease and it is seen in what species? |
|
|
Term
Legionare's disease in Humans |
|
Definition
What lesions/disease are produced by Legionella pneumonphila and in what species? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of contagious metritis in horses? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the primary cause of pyelonephritis and cystitis in cattle? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the primary cause of pyelonephritis and cystitis in swine? |
|
|
Term
Sheep and Goats
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
|
|
Definition
Caseous lymphadentitis occurs in what species as a result of an infection with what organism? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of purulent bronchopneumonia and occasional enteritis and arthritis in foals? |
|
|
Term
Actinobacillus equuli or
Escherichia coli
|
|
Definition
What is the cause of severe septicemia in newborn foals? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What causes granulomatous osteomyelitis of the amndible in cattle? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of tuberculosis in swine? |
|
|
Term
SWIMMING POOL GRANULOMAS in humans
grnaulomatous lesions in cold blooded animals
lesions are associated with trauma and contact with water |
|
Definition
What lesions are produced by infections with Mycobacterium marinum? What species are these lesions seen in? |
|
|
Term
Fusobacterium necrophorum |
|
Definition
What is the cause of Calf Diptheria? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism causes Feline Infectious Anemia ? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of severe, chronic pneumonia, polyarthritis and reproductive tract infection in rodents? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the fimbrial type of E. coli most often involve in neonatal diarrhea in pigs? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What fimbrial type of E. coli most often is involved in neonal diarrhea in calves? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What organism is the cause of bacillary dysentery in humans and non human primates? |
|
|
Term
Frequent low volume stool with mucus and blood, abdominal cramping.
This is from the acute inflammation and ulceration of the large intestine epithelium
|
|
Definition
What are the characteristic clinical signs associated with Bacillary dysentery in humans? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of swollen sinuses and relatively sever disease in turkeys usually between 12 and 16 weeks of age ? |
|
|
Term
Mycoplasma capricolum capripneumoniae |
|
Definition
What is the cause of contagious caprine pleuropneumonia? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is a organism that causes severe mastitis, arthritis and sometimes septicemia that is restricted to sheep and goats? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the cause of granular vulvo-vaginitis and infertility in cows? |
|
|
Term
Any Mycobacterium species |
|
Definition
What organism usually induces a delayed type hypersensitivity reaction within 4-8 weeks following infection? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What term best describes a salmonella serotype that has only a single H (flagellar) antigen? |
|
|
Term
Damage to normal flora - increasing infection
frequency of antibiotic resistance - would need susceptibility test.
|
|
Definition
What are two reasons why antimicrobial therapy of salmonellosis is avoided? |
|
|
Term
Respiratory disease and otitis externa |
|
Definition
What are two diseases or clinical conditions that are caused by a Mycoplasma bovis infection? |
|
|
Term
Fistulous withers/poll evil in horses
Lumpy jaw in cattle |
|
Definition
What are two diseases caused by Actinomyces bovis ? |
|
|
Term
Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia |
|
Definition
What disease is produced by Mycoplasma mycoides mycoides SC ? |
|
|
Term
Intestinal tract of animals - but not humans |
|
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Yersinia enterocolitica? |
|
|
Term
Water and intestinal tracts of aquatic animals |
|
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Aeromonas hydrophila? |
|
|
Term
Water, soil, intestinal tracts of rodents in SE asia |
|
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Burkholderi pseudomallei ?
|
|
|
Term
Depends on serotype but mostly intestinal tracts of birds and other animals, some soil |
|
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Mycobacterium avium ?
|
|
|
Term
Intestinal tract of humans and primates |
|
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Salmonella typhi? |
|
|
Term
Intestinal tracts of chickens mostly |
|
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Salmonella pullorum? |
|
|
Term
Upper respiratory tract of sheep |
|
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Mycoplasma ovipneumonaie ?
|
|
|
Term
Sylvatic plague (rats)
Bubonic plague (human wounds)
Pneumonic plague
|
|
Definition
What are the three forms of disease caused by Yersinia pestis? |
|
|
Term
The Sta toxin is too small to be antigenic |
|
Definition
Why is there no vaccine available for the STa toxin of E.coli? |
|
|