Term
| B. human resource inventory. |
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Definition
1. Steve is gathering information about the names, ages, education, specialized skills, and capabilities of all of his firm's employees. The information Steve is acquiring suggests he is working on a:
A. performance evaluation.
B. human resource inventory.
C. job description.
D. Gantt chart. |
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Term
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Definition
2. Kandew Electronics requires all employees who work as research specialists in its electrical engineering department to have a minimum of a bachelor's degree in electrical engineering (BSEE). This educational requirement would most likely be stated in the job _____ for this position.
A. analysis
B. description
C. designation
D. specification |
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Term
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Definition
3. When determining the human resources needs for a well-known engineering firm, the HR director realized that the company lacked a critical mass of engineers under the age of 30. The company could not afford to get caught short in this competitive business climate. An important recruitment strategy for the HR director's department was to start attending college fairs as well as considering hiring interns. We define his recruitment efforts as developing relationships with _____.
A. external sources
B. internal sources
C. median sources
D. civilian sources |
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Term
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Definition
4. When Zoe began her Ph.D. program at Vanderbilt University, she was immediately assigned to a female ____ who would serve as a coach and guide to shorten the learning curve and help Zoe meet the right people who could enhance her career. Her program also required _____, where she would spend four to six weeks in different labs, gaining experience and exposure to a variety of research in her field of study.
A. mentor; off-the-job training
B. journeyman; network
C. understudy; vestibule training
D. mentor; job rotation |
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Term
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Definition
5. At Washington Seat Belt Industries, new workers are immediately assigned to jobs. They learn by doing the actual work and by watching longer-term employees. This company uses a policy of:
A. vertical assimilation.
B. on-the-job training.
C. operational apprenticeships.
D. vestibule training. |
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Term
| B. establish an effective performance appraisal system. |
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Definition
6. Managers at Rise & Schein want to make sure their decisions about compensation, promotions and firings are based on sound information that meet legal requirements. One way to achieve this objective would be to:
A. outsource all such decisions to an outside expert.
B. establish an effective performance appraisal system.
C. make sure that these decisions are not influenced by the employee's immediate supervisor.
D. base all pay, promotion, and firing decisions on the Hay system. |
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Term
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Definition
7. Managers at the Allerton Bank get a performance appraisal one time each year. The bank uses a relatively new evaluation process that provides feedback about performance not only from superiors but also from subordinates and other managers at the same level. This type of evaluation is known as a(n):
A. organization- wide appraisal.
B. 360-degree review.
C. circular analysis.
D. multilevel assessment. |
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Term
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Definition
8. At a large law firm, Gina works daily as a secretary from 9:00 a.m. until 1:00 p.m., when she is replaced by Cassie who works from 1:00 until 5:00 p.m. The arrangement Gina and Cassie have at the law firm is known as:
A. job enlargement.
B. job sharing.
C. job rotation.
D. job allocation. |
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Term
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Definition
9. Wal-Mart stores in northern Illinois have gone to a , where management works four 10-hour days, and has four days off.
A. flextime system
B. compressed workweek
C. job rotation system
D. constrained workweek |
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Term
| B. an accountant hired to help during the busy tax season |
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Definition
10. Which of the following workers would be the best example of a contingent worker?
A. an assembly line worker who belongs to a union and has 17 years of seniority
B. an accountant hired to help during the busy tax season
C. an elementary school teacher who just received tenure
D. an electrical engineer who frequently travels out of the country to the various manufacturing facilities owned and operated by his firm |
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Term
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Definition
11. Antonio received specific training to become an electrician. He belongs to a union with other skilled electricians. Antonio belongs to a(n):
A. industrial union.
B. craft union.
C. open union.
D. company union. |
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Term
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Definition
12. Geraldo works on the assembly line for a major automobile manufacturer. He was hired for the job without any specific training or skill. Geraldo joined a union with other assembly-line workers who perform a variety of jobs that do not require a highly specialized skill. Geraldo belongs to a(n):
A. industrial union.
B. craft union.
C. assembly union.
D. traditional union. |
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Term
| D. negotiate a labor-management agreement that both the union and management are willing to accept. |
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Definition
13. The primary purpose of collective bargaining is to:
A. ensure worker participation in setting the goals and objectives of the company.
B. establish and communicate clear guidelines for performance appraisals.
C. limit the authority of management to set job categories and direct worker activities.
D. negotiate a labor-management agreement that both the union and management are willing to accept. |
|
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Term
| B. National Labor Relations Board |
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Definition
14. Bob believes that management is treating him unfairly because of his efforts to organize a vote for union representation. Which organization should Bob contact to report his concerns?
A. Federal Board of Labor Rights
B. National Labor Relations Board
C. Federal Trade Commission
D. Federal Commission on Unfair Labor Practices |
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Term
| A. workers must join the union within a stipulated time period (usually 30, 60, or 90 days) in order to keep their jobs. |
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Definition
15. In a union shop:
A. workers must join the union within a stipulated time period (usually 30, 60, or 90 days) in order to keep their jobs.
B. workers must belong to the union before the company can hire them.
C. workers who do not join the union must pay a union fee.
D. workers are required to sign yellow-dog contracts. |
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Term
| C. workers who do not join the union must pay a fee or regular dues, while in an open shop workers who choose not to join the union do not have to pay any union fees or dues. |
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Definition
16. The key difference between an agency shop agreement and an open shop agreement is that in an agency shop:
A. workers must join the union within a stipulated time period (usually 30, 60, or 90 days) in order to keep their jobs, but in an open shop the workers are not required to join the union.
B. the union is restricted to a limited number of employees who perform specific types of jobs, but in an open shop membership in the union is available to all workers.
C. workers who do not join the union must pay a fee or regular dues, while in an open shop workers who choose not to join the union do not have to pay any union fees or dues.
D. workers must agree not to join a union in order to keep their jobs while in an open shop workers are free to join a union if they wish, but they are not required to do so. |
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Term
| C. an arbitrator can settle a labor-management dispute by rendering a binding decision, while a mediator can only make suggestions and encourage the two sides in a dispute to continue negotiating. |
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Definition
17. A key difference between a mediator and an arbitrator is that:
A. a mediator is appointed by labor and management, while an arbitrator is appointed by the federal government under terms set forth in the Taft-Hartley Act.
B. a mediator is an unpaid volunteer, while an arbitrator is a paid professional.
C. an arbitrator can settle a labor-management dispute by rendering a binding decision, while a mediator can only make suggestions and encourage the two sides in a dispute to continue negotiating.
D. a mediator is a lawyer who represents either labor or management in a labor dispute, while an arbitrator is an impartial advisor who listens to both sides of the dispute and offers suggestions that help the two parties reach a mutually acceptable agreement. |
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Term
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Definition
18. You've been on your lunch break for less than 45 minutes when your boss orders you to return to work immediately or be docked an hour's pay. You complain that the current labor contract specifies a full hour for your lunch break and you still have over 15 minutes left. Your boss stands firm on his order for you to return to work. Under protest, you return to work, but plan to file a grievance. The first step you should take is to contact a(n):
A. arbitrator.
B. mediator.
C. strikebreaker.
D. shop steward. |
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Term
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Definition
19. Which of the following tactics would management be most likely to use during a labor-management dispute?
A. picketing
B. secondary boycotts
C. lockouts
D. primary boycotts |
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Term
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Definition
20. At Play-it-Safe Pharmaceuticals Company, a maker of sun screen products, the union reps strongly discouraged the firm's union employees from buying the company's products during the forthcoming summer season. Recently, they also took out an ad with an important message for consumers: "Don't give Play-it-Safe your money. They don't share it with their employees!" These actions describe:
A. secondary boycott.
B. primary boycott.
C. direct strikebreaker initiative.
D. strikebreaker tactic. |
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Term
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Definition
21. Andre is a real estate agent who has an idea for a software program that will help perform real estate appraisals more quickly and more accurately. He has worked with a buddy who is good at programming to develop a detailed description of what the software will do and how it differs from existing applications. Now Andre has taken this description and shown it to a number of fellow real estate agents to see if his idea appeals to them. Andre is engaging in:
A. prototype outsourcing.
B. test marketing.
C. concept testing.
D. word-of-mouth promotion. |
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Term
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Definition
22. Roosevelt Community College has experienced declining enrollment for the past three years. In the past the college has relied strictly on enrollment from newly graduated high school students. In order to identify other potential markets, Roosevelt Community College would benefit from:
A. test marketing.
B. sales promotions.
C. marketing research.
D. a stakeholder audit. |
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Term
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Definition
23. All-Star Collectibles focuses its marketing efforts on high-income buyers of unique collectible items. The firm realizes that the number of buyers in this segment of the collectible market is small. However, they are confident that this approach will be profitable since these buyers will pay premium prices for their unique products and superior customer service. All-Star's approach is an example of:
A. competitive benchmarking.
B. niche marketing.
C. relationship targeting.
D. target positioning. |
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Term
| B. relationship marketing. |
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Definition
24. In an effort to increase customer loyalty, management at Phat International has worked to create a personal dialogue with their customers. This dialogue will enable Phat to offer products that exactly meet their customers' needs and provide personalized service before and after the sale. Phat International's new strategy illustrates:
A. a production orientation.
B. relationship marketing.
C. personalized promotion.
D. niche marketing. |
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Term
| A. a consumer orientation |
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Definition
25. Which of the following is a part of the marketing concept?
A. a consumer orientation
B. avoidance of risk
C. financial return orientation
D. emphasis on efficient production |
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Term
|
Definition
26. Which of the following describes a word, letter, or group of words or letters that differentiate the goods and services of a seller from those of competitors?
A. brand name
B. product designation
C. prototype name
D. generic name |
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Term
| B. determining the best pricing strategy for a product |
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Definition
27. Which of the following would be considered part of a firm's marketing mix?
A. identifying the best source of funds to finance a firm's marketing activities
B. determining the best pricing strategy for a product
C. establishing a production schedule that enables the firm to meet forecasted sales
D. designing the most efficient production plan |
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Term
| D. environmental scanning. |
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Definition
28. Roberto Martinez is a marketing manager for Friendly Financial Services. He has been looking at a variety of factors, such as technological, socio-cultural and economic trends as well as competitive conditions. Martinez is confident that these factors will impact Friendly's future marketing success. His efforts are an example of:
A. target marketing.
B. competitive benchmarking.
C. relationship marketing.
D. environmental scanning. |
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Term
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Definition
29. Nature's Sun, a company that designs and manufactures clothing for active people, focuses their marketing efforts on people who participate in strenuous outdoor activities such as running and mountain climbing. For example, the firm advertises heavily in magazines for runners. Nature's Sun is using ____ factors to segment its market.
A. demographic
B. value
C. volume
D. psychographic |
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Term
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Definition
30. Cool People Publications focuses their marketing efforts on reaching African-American teenage girls. The firm believes that they are positioned to profitably serve this group of consumers. Cool People utilizes the strategy of:
A. narrowcasting.
B. target marketing.
C. primary marketing.
D. focus group selection. |
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Term
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Definition
31. Borden, Inc. makes pasta, dairy items, and adhesives. These different types of products are referred to as Borden's:
A. product line.
B. product mix.
C. product differentiation.
D. product life cycle. |
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Term
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Definition
32. The Procter & Gamble Company is a major producer of bar soaps. In fact, Procter & Gamble produces Ivory, Camay, Lava, Safeguard, Zest, and Coast bar soaps that all claim a variety of benefits. These products are part of Procter & Gamble's in bar soaps.
A. product mix
B. product concentration
C. product store
D. product line |
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Term
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Definition
33. Suits for Success is a men's clothing store in a large suburban shopping mall. The managers of the store know that their customers usually comparison shop, looking carefully at quality and price before deciding to buy. Armed with this information, Suits for Success carries quality clothing, offers competitive pricing, and friendly, helpful service. The target customers apparently view men's suits as a:
A. specialty good.
B. convenience good.
C. shopping good.
D. unsought good. |
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Term
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Definition
34. Anheuser-Busch/In Bev Company, Inc. has been given the exclusive right to the name Budweiser and is legally protected from others using this name by the they hold.
A. licensing agreement
B. brand name
C. copyright
D. trademark |
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Term
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Definition
35. Green Giant Green Beans, Chevy Corvette, Coca Cola, Dole Pineapple, and Peter Pan Peanut Butter are all examples of:
A. private brands.
B. wholesaler brands.
C. manufacturers' brands.
D. registered generic brands. |
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Term
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Definition
36. Sales of cell phones in the United States are still increasing, but the rate of growth has slowed. Sales are expected to peak somewhat soon in the U.S. Based on this information, cellular phones are in what stage of the product life cycle in the U.S.?
A. introduction
B. growth
C. maturity
D. decline |
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Term
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Definition
37. Virtual Electronics is considering a strategy to charge a very high introductory price for their automobile video theater. After identifying that their rival firms did not carry this new product, they chose this pricing strategy to achieve maximum profits. Virtual Electronics has chosen a ____ strategy.
A. high-low pricing
B. penetration
C. bundling
D. skimming |
|
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Term
| D. If the firm sells 100 units, its total revenues will equal its total costs. |
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Definition
38. What does a break-even point of 100 units mean to a firm?
A. The firm must sell 100 units to maximize its profits.
B. Fixed costs plus variable costs equals 100 units.
C. By producing 100 units, the firm can ensure that variable costs completely cancel its fixed costs.
D. If the firm sells 100 units, its total revenues will equal its total costs. |
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Term
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Definition
39. LoRider Wheels sells high-quality bicycles and accessories. The store is known for a pleasant environment, friendly salespeople and an excellent service department. All of these elements are part of the _____ offered by LoRider.
A. total product offer
B. product line
C. competitive environment
D. marginal utility package |
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Term
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Definition
40. Some businesses use nostalgic ads to rekindle the memories and emotions of consumers to an earlier time and place. This technique of linking a brand name to a pleasant memory or favorable image is the goal of brand:
A. association.
B. tie-ins.
C. insistence.
D. preference. |
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Term
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Definition
41. Nina Corby owns a card shop in a small shopping center where she sells cards produced by a national company. Nina sells to final customers, so she is a:
A. merchant wholesaler.
B. retailer.
C. rack jobber.
D. channel captain. |
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Term
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Definition
42. Robbie Veath brings together buyers and sellers of used heavy construction equipment, and helps them negotiate the terms of the sale. However, Robbie never actually takes title to any of the equipment himself, nor does he provide any financing for the buyer. Robbie is acting as a:
A. channel captain.
B. broker.
C. wholesaler.
D. logistics specialist. |
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Term
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Definition
43. Rita Sauer stocks several local supermarkets and discount stores with Luminaire Cosmetics. She sets up displays of various cosmetic products carrying the Luminaire brand name, and sells the goods on consignment, sharing any profits on the sales with the retailer. Rita is a:
A. cash-and-carry wholesaler.
B. truck jobber.
C. broker.
D. rack jobber. |
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Term
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Definition
44. Comstock Coal Distributors does not mine coal itself. In fact, the firm does not even store or handle coal. Instead, Comstock solicits orders for low sulfur coal from other firms, then purchases the required amount from suppliers and directs them to ship the coal to its customers. Comstock is a:
A. drop shipper.
B. resource delivery facilitator.
C. cash-and-carry wholesaler.
D. limited distribution broker. |
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Term
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Definition
45. The most likely type of utility that's provided by convenience stores is:
A. form.
B. place.
C. information.
D. service. |
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Term
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Definition
46. Producers of snack foods (such as candy bars or potato chips) are most likely to use a(n) distribution strategy for their products.
A. intensive
B. exclusive
C. selective
D. restrictive |
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Term
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Definition
47. Lazario Motor Car Company produces some of the most luxurious and expensive cars in the world. The company typically authorizes only a single dealership to sell its cars in certain major metropolitan areas. In less populous areas, Lazario authorizes a single dealer for an entire state or region. The manufacturer of Lazario automobiles is using a(n) distribution strategy for its product.
A. intensive
B. primary
C. extrinsic
D. exclusive |
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Term
| B. corporate distribution system. |
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Definition
48. Kumquat Computers is a major computer manufacturer that also owns all of the organizations in the channel of distribution for its computers, including a chain of Kumquat Direct retail stores. Kumquat is using a:
A. franchise distribution system.
B. corporate distribution system.
C. administered distribution system.
D. retail cooperative system. |
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Term
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Definition
49. Marcia Baker ships orchids and other perishable flowers from her greenhouses near San Francisco, California to florists thousands of miles away in cities such as New York, Boston, and Philadelphia. Since the flowers must reach the florists as quickly as possible, the best mode of transportation for Marcia to use would be:
A. railroads.
B. trucks.
C. air.
D. ships. |
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Term
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Definition
50. Kidder Manufacturing wants to ship a large quantity of its goods across the country. They have contacted Wayback Shipping, Inc. to find out what the shipment would cost. Wayback has shown Kidder how it can arrange to use a combination of barges, trains, and trucks to complete the shipment at a low cost. Wayback's strategy is an example of:
A. on-line shipping.
B. intermodal shipping.
C. supply chain shipping.
D. multilevel distribution. |
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Term
| C. integrated marketing communication |
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Definition
51. The management of GamesPeople designed a comprehensive strategy that unifies advertising, personal selling, public relations and sales promotion activities creating a consistent message. This effort to promote a positive brand image represents a(n)____ program.
A. global marketing
B. interactive promotion
C. integrated marketing communication
D. unified segmentation |
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Term
| D. calls for attention to cultural differences and possible translation problems. |
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Definition
52. When marketing to consumers in the global population, it's important for companies to remember that promoting products:
A. is easy and profitable if they are well-known brands.
B. can be accomplished using a global approach since consumers are more alike than most people think.
C. is best done by using personal selling and product sampling.
D. calls for attention to cultural differences and possible translation problems. |
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Term
| D. prospecting and qualifying. |
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Definition
53. As a new salesperson for a textbook publisher, Kylie is creating a list of professors that decide what texts their schools use. She plans to email these schools to determine what texts they are currently using and if they plan to adopt a new text. Identifying those decision makers that are willing to consider one of her texts is called:
A. personal development.
B. sales identification.
C. preliminary sales analysis.
D. prospecting and qualifying. |
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Term
| A. publicity to help create a positive image for her firm and its products. |
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Definition
54. Bonnie faces the challenge of developing the promotion mix for a new business. Given the uniqueness of the new products and a very limited budget, Bonnie confronts a creditability problem. She realizes that the promotional messages of an unknown firm may be met with skepticism. Bonnie should consider:
A. publicity to help create a positive image for her firm and its products.
B. the extensive use of persuasive advertising.
C. emphasizing personal selling rather than public relations.
D. changing jobs because this situation is hopeless. |
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Term
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Definition
55. Chip Off The Old Block is a new chocolate chip cookie created by the Arizona Cookie Company. To generate interest for this new product, the company sent a free package of six cookies to selected homes along with a 50-cent coupon. Arizona Cookie's activities represent:
A. trade advertising.
B. consumer publicity.
C. sales promotion.
D. public relations. |
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Term
| A. word-of-mouth promotion. |
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Definition
56. Professor Beenthere shared with his students the wonderful experience he had at a local Asian restaurant. He described the location in relation to campus and encouraged his students to give it a try. The professor's comments represent:
A. word-of-mouth promotion.
B. public relations.
C. academic sampling.
D. viral promotion. |
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Term
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Definition
57. Wee Be Irish produces authentic Irish gifts and clothing. Wee Be Irish uses a good deal of television advertising and sales promotion activities to attract consumers to retail shops in search of its brand. Wee Be Irish utilizes a ____ strategy:
A. systems
B. placement
C. push
D. pull |
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Term
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Definition
58. The Maryland Department of Travel and Tourism promotes tourism in the state by sending travel agents and bus tour companies information about the state's many attractions. The hope is that by stimulating interest in tour and travel agents, they will in turn encourage their customers to visit Maryland. This example represents a _____ promotional strategy.
A. push
B. pull
C. sampling
D. product placement |
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Term
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Definition
59. The goal of ____ is to inform and remind people in a target market about specific products, eventually persuading them to participate in an exchange.
A. promotion
B. market research
C. market segmentation
D. marketing loyalty |
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Term
| B. maintain close ties with the media, community leaders, government officials and other stakeholders. |
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Definition
60. A major responsibility of the public relations department is to:
A. decide on the appropriate mix of advertising media.
B. maintain close ties with the media, community leaders, government officials and other stakeholders.
C. identify appropriate markets for the firm's products, and then select the most likely customers in each market.
D. train salespeople to interact better with their company's customers. |
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