Term
| 5 Eras in Civil Service Concepts |
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Definition
Government by Gentlemen, 1789-1829
Government by the Common Man, 1829-1883
Government by the Good, 1883-1906
Government by the Efficient, 1906-1937
Government by Administrators, 1937-1955 |
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Term
| Who set up the Government by Gentlemen |
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Definition
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Term
| What is meant by "fitness of character?" |
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Definition
| A person's character is based on a good family background, educational attainment, social status, and patriotic military or political service during the American Revolution. |
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Term
| What 2 things did the Wickersham Commission call for? |
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Definition
Paying employees more money
better education |
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Term
| Name 5 Laws calling for affirmative action practices. |
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Definition
Veterans Preference Act of 1944
The Equal Pay Act of 1963
The Civil Rights Act of 1964
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
The Equal Employment Opportunity Acts of 1972, 1973
The Rehabilitation Act of 1973
Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
Uniformed Services Employment an Reemployent Rights Act of 1994 |
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Term
| What is the Veterans Preference Act of 1944? |
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Definition
| The Veterans preference Act of 1944 defined to whom and under what circumstances preference would be granted. It provided that Preference be given in competitive examinations, in appointments to positions in the Federal service, in reinstatement to positions, in reemployment, and in retention during reductions in force. Preference would apply to civilian positions — permanent or temporary ;— in all departments, agencies, bureaus, administrations, establishments, and projects of the Federal Government, and in the civil service of the District of Columbia. |
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Term
| What is the Equal Pay act of 1963? |
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Definition
| Requires that men and women be paid the same amount for doing the same job (assuming the jobs demand equal skill, effort, and responsibility and are performed under the same working conditions). |
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Term
| What 3 things can you base a person's pay off of? |
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Definition
Seniority
Performance
Qualifications |
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Term
| What is the Civil Rights Act of 1964? |
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Definition
| a landmark piece of legislation in the United States that outlawed major forms of discrimination against racial, ethnic, national and religious minorities, and women |
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Term
| What did Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibit? |
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Definition
| discrimination on the basis of sex, race, color, religion, or national origin in all of the employment relationships. |
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Term
| Name the 7 employment relationships discussed in Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. |
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Definition
Hiring
Layoff
Discharge
Discipline
Compensation
Access to Training
Promotion |
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Term
| Which act is involved with many complaints on hiring practices? |
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Definition
| Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 |
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Term
| What is the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967? |
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Definition
| It applies to the same types of employers and situations as Title VII but outlaws discrimination against people between the ages of 40 and 69. |
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Term
| What do the Age Discrimination Act and Title VII require? |
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Definition
| passive non-discrimination |
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Term
| What is the difference between the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972 and Affirmative Action? |
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Definition
Equal Employment Opportunity law provides for equality of treatment.
Affirmative Action law provide for preferential treatment of certain groups. |
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Term
| What is the Rehabilitation Act of 1973? |
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Definition
| Prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability in programs conducted by Federal agencies, in programs receiving Federal financial assistance, in Federal employment, and in the employment practices of Federal contractors. |
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Term
| What is the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)? |
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Definition
| The ADA protects the interests of potential public service workers with handicaps that can be overcome with reasonable accommodations. Determining what is a reasonable accommodation is decided situationally, reflecting the demands of the employment and the limitations imposed by the disability. |
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Term
| What does the ADA not protect against? |
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Definition
| drug abusers; homosexuals, bisexuals; persons who engage in aberrational sexual behavior; compulsive gambling, theft, or pyromania; persons whose disorders have been caused by drug abuse; or persons whose disabilities are only temporary. |
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Term
| What is the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994? |
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Definition
| USERRA seeks to ensure that members of the uniformed services are entitled to return to their civilian employment upon completion of their service. They should be reinstated with the seniority, status, and rate of pay they would have obtained had they remained continuously employed by their civilian employer. The law also protects individuals from discrimination in hiring, promotion, and retention on the basis of present and future membership in the armed services. |
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Term
| What 5 things must a manager do to study candidates closely? |
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Definition
Review their biographies and resume carefully.
Check their official records.
Test for their essential aptitudes and abilities.
Contact their references.
Assess their attitude. |
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Term
| What is a real problem in today's workforce? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the difference between an Application and a resume? |
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Definition
| Application forms allow the company to determine what information it wants from the prospective employee, whereas resumes allow the applicant to determine what information to voluntarily give up. |
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Term
| What is a safegaurd against dishonest applicants having someone else fill out the application form for them? |
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Definition
| have all job seekers fill out the application form on the premises where one can keep an eye on them. |
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Term
| Why would it be a red flag if an applicant lists simultaneous gaps of 30, 60, and 90 days or 1, 5, or 10 years? |
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Definition
| These gaps may indicate that the person has been incarcerated. |
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Term
| How do employers reduce the risk of an invasion of privacy claim? |
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Definition
| Have the employee sign a consent form. |
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Term
| What questions should be asked when checking educational credentials? |
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Definition
| ask not only if the person attended the school, but the dates of attendance, the program or major studies, and whether he or she graduated. |
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Term
| Who can get educational credentials information? |
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Definition
| Anyone because it is public information. |
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Term
| What Act regulates credit checks? |
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Definition
| Fair Credit Reporting Act |
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Term
| What is the Fair Credit Reporting Act? |
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Definition
| it justifies an employer to check a potential employee's credit and it requires employers to disclose if the reason for not hiring was based on a credit check. |
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Term
| Why would a law enforcement agency not want to hire applicants with a large amount of debt? |
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Definition
| Because they are at a high risk for corruption. |
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Term
| T/F: It is illegal to ask someone if they have been arrested, but inquiring about convictions is another matter. |
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Definition
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Term
| Name the 3 types of testing. |
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Definition
Skill-based competence.
Aptitude.
honesty. |
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Term
| What is the advantage of skill-based testing? |
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Definition
| items can be marked simply and accurately. |
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Term
| How do employers benefit from skill-based testing? |
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Definition
First, candidates can be ranked from “most qualified” to “least qualified” using predetermined criteria.
Second, these tests can uncover training needs and help a company develop a better training program. |
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Term
| Why are Aptitude tests going out of fashion? |
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Definition
First, the multiple-choice tests may reflect testing-taking ability rather than actual job skills which may discriminate against minority applicants.
Second, employers may invade an applicant’s privacy.
Finally, the ADA sets special requirements when testing people who have impaired skills. |
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Term
| What are the 3 major categories of honesty tests? |
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Definition
The personal Security Inventory (PSI).
The psychological stress evaluator (PSE).
The polygraph or “lie detector” test. |
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Term
| What are the 3 well-known PSI tests? |
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Definition
The California Personality Inventory (CPI).
The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI).
The Inwald Personality Inventory (IPI). |
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Term
| What is the disadvantage of aptitude and skill-based testing? |
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Definition
| expensive, time consuming, and if improperly used may lead to litigation. |
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Term
| What are the advantages of Personal Security Inventory (PSI) tests? |
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Definition
| they can be administered on company property and are relatively inexpensive. |
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Term
| What is the Psychological Stress Evaluator (PSE)? |
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Definition
| The PSE is a machine that measurers changes in voice quality from tension in the vocal cords. |
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Term
| What 4 types of Employer behavior does the Federal Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1998 prohibit? |
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Definition
This act prohibits most private employers from requesting, requiring, suggesting, or causing job applicants or current employees to submit to a polygraph test as a condition of employment or as a condition of keeping their current job.
Second, employers may not discharge, discipline, or make adverse employment decisions based on an employee’s refusal to take the test.
Third, employers are prohibited from using or asking about the results of a lie detector test given to either an employee or job applicant.
Finally, employers may not retaliate against an applicant or employee for filing a complain or otherwise asserting their rights under this federal law. |
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Term
| Who is not covered under the Federal Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1998? |
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Definition
| federal, state, or local government employees, employees of the DOD, or FBI contractors. |
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Term
| T/F: employers for drug and pharmaceutical companies can require employees to take a polygraph if the applicants will have a job that allows direct access to controlled drugs. |
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Definition
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Term
| What 4 conditions must an employer meet to request that employees submit to a polygraph? |
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Definition
First, the test must be given in conjunction with an ongoing investigation.
Second, the employee must have had access to the missing property.
Next, the employer must have reasonable suspicion that the employee was involved in the incident or activity.
Finally, the employer must give the employee a written notice of the incident being investigated and the reason the employee is considered a suspect at least 48 hours before the test. |
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Term
| Can an employee be disciplined or discharged solely on the basis of the results of the polygraph test or for refusing to take the exam? |
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Definition
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Term
| What makes honesty tests controversial? |
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Definition
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Term
| Why don't employers use honesty tests? |
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Definition
First, the tests are often inaccurate.
They may invade a person’s right to privacy.
Third, they may violate the ADA if an applicant must use any impaired skills, unless they are required for the job.
Honesty tests may reflect test-taking ability rather than actual job skills which may discriminate against minority applicants. |
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Term
| What 3 reasons allow companies to require a pre-employment physical examination? |
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Definition
First, to safeguard the health and safety of others.
Second, to safeguard the health of vulnerable groups.
The last reason for a physical exam is to safeguard the health of those who are working with or around toxic or hazardous materials. |
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Term
| What 2 Acts impact the employer's ability to request pre-employment medical examinations? |
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Definition
| The ADA and The Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 |
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Term
| What 2 conditions have to be met for an employer to make job offers conditional on passing a medical examination? |
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Definition
All medical results must be maintained in separate, confidential files
all employees in the job category are given the examination. |
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Term
| What three things must an employer be able to show if a medical examination or inquiry results in the withdrawal of a conditional job offer? |
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Definition
The reasons were job-related and consistent with business necessity
The person was excluded to avoid a direct threat to health and safety and no reasonable accommodation could be made
Such an accommodation would cause undue hardship. |
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Term
| How often are job accidents directly related to drug or alcohol use? |
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Definition
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Term
| What three Acts impact drug and alcohol testing? |
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Definition
| The ADA, The Rehabilitation Act of 1973, and the Drug Free Workplace Act of 1988 |
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Term
| What must an applicant be willing to do to use the Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to avoid drug or alcohol testing? |
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Definition
| They must be willing to admit that they have abused drugs or alcohol and then they could claim the disability. |
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Term
| What 3 factors can be used to determine whether an employee can be fired or an applicant can be refused a job because of any contagious disease? |
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Definition
The employer must examine the nature, duration and severity of the risk
The potential harm to others
the probability of transmission. |
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Term
| What act lists persons with AIDS as qualified disabled individuals? |
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Definition
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Term
| What 2 reasons are reference checks used for? |
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Definition
to get some idea of whether an individual is suited to the job and how he or she will perform.
to confirm who they say they are and that they actually possess the experience and qualifications they claim to have. |
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Term
| Why should an interviewer ask "why" questions? |
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Definition
| In explaining the “why,” a person reveals his or her judgment, motivation, and personality. |
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Term
| T/F: You should ignore your gut feeling about aspiring personnel. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: You can decide to no hire someone based on your gut feeling. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the three ways to train? |
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Definition
1. On-the-job (OJT) training with normal supervisors.
2. In-house training programs with staff providing trainers.
3. Contracted-out training programs using specialists. |
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Term
| What are the 3 stages of occupational socialization? |
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Definition
| Anticipatory, Formal, Informal |
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Term
| What is the anticipatory stage of occupational socialization? |
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Definition
| Involves what the potential applicant perceive the organization to be like. |
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Term
| What is the formal stage of occupational socialization? |
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Definition
| Post-entry training creates the capacity--by which Kaufman means the skills, knowledge,and factual premises--to facilitate adherence to the work noms of the organization. |
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Term
| What is the informal stage of occupational socialization? |
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Definition
| The formal rules and authority systems do not contro the worker as much as the cltural norms, values, beliefs, nd assumptions of the coworkers--the organizational culture. |
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Term
| What 4 things are criminal justice managers called upon to allocate? |
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Definition
1. time
2. funds
3. equipment
4. facilities |
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Term
| What are some advantages of rotating shifts? |
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Definition
Skills are balanced on every shift. Because all crews take equal turns at covering the undesirable shifts (weekends and nights), there is no incentive for all of the senior, more skilled workers to pool together on a single crew.
All workers are given equal exposure to day shift. As crews rotate through their turn on day shift, they are exposed to managers, engineers, vendors, and company support personnel.
Training assets can be consolidated. Because all employees rotate through day shifts, there is no need to duplicate training efforts on all shifts.
Product uniformity goes up. As result of equal training, equal exposure to support and management, and equal skills, all crews will perform in a much more uniform manner |
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Term
| What are some disadvantages of rotating shifts? |
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Definition
Employees prefer fixed shifts. About 90 percent of all shift workers prefer fixed shifts to rotating shifts.
Unbalanced workloads are difficult to manage with rotating shifts. If the work to be done on different shifts differs greatly, there may be a problem with essentially identical crews being assigned to the work.
It is generally more difficult for the body to adjust to rotating shifts. [Slowing down the rotation rate can mitigate this.] |
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Term
| What are some advantages of fixed shifts? |
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Definition
More employees prefer fixed shifts.
Senior people want to get (and stay) on day shift.
Most people want the stability of knowing when they will be at work and when they will be off--allowing them to better plan their family and social lives.
Unbalanced workloads can be more easily matched. |
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Term
| What are some disadvantages of fixed shifts? |
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Definition
Recruiting new employees becomes more difficult.
After a brief training period, new hires are generally assigned to the least desirable shifts.
Different shifts become different teams. As the disparities between the crews (skills, seniority, morale, etc.) grow, the teams themselves become independent of each other. This can affect productivity, safety, quality, attrition, and other performance measures. |
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Term
| What are the four budgeting approaches? |
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Definition
1) Line-Item (Incremental) Budgeting
2) Program Planning and Budgeting System (PPBS) and Performance Budgeting
3) Zero-Based Budgeting (ZBB)
4) Pay-As-You-Go (PayGo) Budgeting |
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Term
| What are the 2 most common budgeting approaches? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is line-item budgeting? |
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Definition
the traditional approach to preparing a budget.
Usually this method uses expenditure from past budget periods to project expenses for the coming period, usually done by “line-item.” |
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Term
| What is program planning and budgeting system and performance budgeting? |
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Definition
are related to managing by objectives (MBO).
Just like in other MBO applications, the criminal justice manager preparing or revising the budget first considers the agency mission, then its needs, goals, objectives, and conducts a search for alternative ways to accomplish the objectives.
When a good alternative is found, then a program is designed or modified and its budget prepared. |
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Term
| What is the PayGo budgeting approach? |
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Definition
involves matching expenditures to revenues.
Some criminal justice agencies and activities actually raise revenues.
In a PayGo budgeting plan, the more revenues collected, the more that will be available for agency operations, equipment or facilities.
The approach approximates the private, for-profit approaches of business. |
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Term
| What is zero based budgeting? |
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Definition
related to MBO, using a “from the ground up” approach to build a budget.
All of an agency’s activities are subdivided into components, and the programs are then prioritized.
Then each program is subdivided into its component activities, and these also are prioritized, using a task-oriented approach.
In this way, every activity and program is reassessed for its importance each budgetary term.
ZBB often is used when agencies are facing severe financial and program reductions. |
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Term
| How often MUST every employee be evaluated? |
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Definition
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Term
| When SHOULD every new employee be evaluated? |
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Definition
| Before the end of their probationary period. |
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Term
| What is a residential academy? |
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Definition
You stay there.
It is a military style training. |
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Term
| What is a commuter academy? |
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Definition
You leave instead of staying there.
The instructors have less control over you.
Typically used for community service officers. |
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