Term
|
Definition
Stenosis is a complete obstruction of blood vessels. |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 types of stenosis? |
|
Definition
1. Rapid stenosis = Thrombus/embolism
2. Gradual stenosis = Atheroslerosis |
|
|
Term
Stenosis of the vessels going to the brain cause ___, while stenosis of does going to the heart cause ____. |
|
Definition
Brain = stroke
Heart = Myocardial ischemia or infarction |
|
|
Term
The 3 basic component of blood vessels include: |
|
Definition
1. Endothelial cells
2. Smooth muscles cells
3. Extracellular matrix eg. elastin, collagen and glycosoaminoglycans |
|
|
Term
T/F: To withstand the pulsatile flow and higher blood pressures in arteries, arterial walls are generally thinner than the walls of veins. |
|
Definition
False: To withstand the pulsatile flow and higher blood pressures in arteries, arterial walls are generally thicker than the walls of veins. |
|
|
Term
Arterial wall thickness gradually _____as the vessels become smaller, but the ratio of wall thickness to lumen diameter ___. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In normal arteries, the ____consists of a single layer of endothelial cells with minimal underlying subendothelial connective tissue. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The intima is separated from the media by a dense elastic membrane called the ___. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Diffusion from the lumen is inadequate for the outer portions of the media in large and medium-sized vessels, therefore these areas are nourished by small arterioles called ____, arising from outside the vessel coursing into the outer 1/2 to 2/3rds of the media. |
|
Definition
vasa vasorum, literally “vessels of the vessels” |
|
|
Term
Arteries are divided into three types: |
|
Definition
(1) large or elastic arteries, including the aorta, its large branches (particularly the innominate, subclavian, common carotid, and iliac), and pulmonary arteries;
(2) medium-sized or muscular arteries, comprising other branches of the aorta (e.g., coronary and renal arteries); and
(3) small arteries (less than approximately 2 mm in diameter) and arterioles (20 to 100 μm in diameter), within the substance of tissues and organs. |
|
|
Term
The relative amount and configuration of the basic constituents differ along the arterial system due to local adaptations to __ or ___ |
|
Definition
mechanical or metabolic needs |
|
|
Term
Structural variations in the vessels, from location to location, are principally in the ___ and ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In muscular arteries the media is composed predominantly of ___ or ___ arranged smooth muscle cells. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In the muscular arteries and arterioles, regional blood flow and blood pressure are regulated by changes in lumen size through ___, controlled in part by ___ system and by local ___ factors. |
|
Definition
Smooth muscle cell contraction (vasoconstriction) or relaxation (vasodilation), controlled in part by the autonomic nervous system and in part by local metabolic factors and cellular interactions. |
|
|
Term
Reducing the diameter of a vessel by 1/2 leads to ___, therefore small changes in the lumen size of small arteries caused by structural change or vasoconstriction can have a profound effect. Thus, ____ are the principal points of physiologic resistance to blood flow. |
|
Definition
16-fold increase in resistance to flow (vasocontriction);
Arterioles = principle points of physiologic resistance to blood flow |
|
|
Term
Capillaries, approximately the diameter of a red blood cell (7 to 8 μm), have an endothelial cell lining but no ___. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Blood from capillary beds flows initially into the postcapillary venules and then sequentially through collecting venules and small, medium, and large veins. In many types of inflammation, vascular leakage and leukocyte exudation occur preferentially in _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
T/F: because of their poor support, veins are predisposed to irregular dilation, compression, and easy penetration by tumors and inflammatory processes. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
____ constitute an important pathway for disease dissemination through transport of bacteria and tumor cells to distant sites. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Atherosclerosis affects ___, hypertension affects ____, and specific types of ____involve different vascular segments. |
|
Definition
Atherosclerosis = elastic and muscular arteries
Hypertension = small muscular arteries and arterioles
Vasculitis = vascular segments |
|
|
Term
3 major processes that characterize blood vessel formation and remodeling are: |
|
Definition
1. Vasculogenesis -de novo formation of blood vessels during embryogenesis
2. Angiogenesis - process of new vessel formation in the mature organism.
3. Andarteriogenesis - remodeling of existing arteries in response to chronic changes in pressure or flow, and results from an interplay of endothelial cell–and smooth muscle cell–derived factors. |
|
|
Term
___is critical for maintaining vessel wall homeostasis and circulatory function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___and ___ a protein localized to interendothelial junctions) can be used to identify endothelial cells immunohistochemically. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Important functions of endothelium are: |
|
Definition
1. Maintain homeostasis and circulation
2.Non-thrombogenic blood-tissue
3. Modulate vascular resistance
4. Metabolize hormones
5. Regulate inflammation, and affect the growth of other cell types, particularly smooth muscle cells. |
|
|
Term
___ is defined as an altered phenotype that impairs vasoreactivity or induces a surface that is thrombogenic or abnormally adhesive to inflammatory cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
As the predominant cellular element of the vascular media, _____ cells play important roles in normal vascular repair and pathologic processes such as atherosclerosi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ cells are also responsible for the vasoconstriction or dilation that occurs in response to physiologic or pharmacologic stimuli. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the 6 smooth muscle growth promoters and the 3 growth inhibitors. |
|
Definition
Promoters include:
1. PDGF
2. Endothelin-1
3. Thrombin
4. Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)
5. Interferon-γ (IFN-γ)
6. Interleukin-1(IL-1).
Growth Inhibitors include:
1. Heparan sulfates
2. Nitric oxide
3. TGF-β. |
|
|
Term
A typical response to vascular injury is ___ . |
|
Definition
The thickening of the intima |
|
|
Term
Healing of injured vessels is analogous to the healing process that occurs in other damaged tissues and in vessels, it results in the formation of a ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Explain the process that occurs during response to vessel injury. |
|
Definition
After injury, endothelial cells migrate from uninjured area to injured area, or is made from circulating precursors. Also, precursor from media smooth muscle cells and precursors cells will migrate into the intima, where they proliferate and synthesize extracellular matrix, forming a Neointima. The accumulation of neointima in the vessel leads to obstruction of blood flow. |
|
|
Term
Give and describe the 8 factors that regulate blood pressure. |
|
Definition
1. Blood pressure (BP) = Q * PR (Q or PR is increased = increased BP)
2. Cardiac output (Q -- 100ml/s) = BV * Heart Function
3. Blood volume (BV) = fluid intake * fluid secretion (loss)
4. Heart function (HF) = Heart rate (HR) * Stroke Volume (SV)
5. Pressure gradient (change in BP) / PR = Flow = Q
6. Peripheral resistance = or < metabolic needs and nervous system.
7. Conductance (Q/change in BP) = 1/PR i.e as conductance increases, peripheral resistance decreases or vice-versa.
8. Increase in hematocrit = increase in PR
|
|
|
Term
What are the regulatory feedbacks for blood pressure? |
|
Definition
1. Bloo pressure is down = Stroke volume increases, large venous reservoirs contract to push more blood and peripheral resistance increases.
2. Nervous system = has fast/immediate action during low BP.
3. Kidneys = delayed action |
|
|
Term
Name the 4 major factors that influence blood pressure.
|
|
Definition
1. Age
2. Gender
3. BMI
4. Diet (salt intake) |
|
|
Term
Peripheral resistance is mediated by ___ |
|
Definition
Sympathetic nervous system - catecholamines (epinephrine) |
|
|
Term
Name 5 factors that decreases peripheral resistance (dilation). |
|
Definition
1. Increased Nitric oxide
2. Increased Prostacyclin
3. Increased Kinins
4. Increased Atrial natriuetic peptide (decreases blood volume)
5. Decreased neural factors (beta-adrenergics)
|
|
|
Term
Give 3 factors that decreases cardiac output. |
|
Definition
1. Decreased blood volume (increased ANP)
2. Decreased heart rate
3. Decreased contractility |
|
|
Term
Name 3 factors that increases cardiac output. |
|
Definition
1. Increased heart rate
2. Increased contractility
3. Increased blood volume (aldosterone) |
|
|
Term
Give 5 factors that increases peripheral resistance (constriction) |
|
Definition
1. Increased Catecholamines (sympathetic NS--> epinephrine)
2. Increased Angiotensin II (from liver; needs renin from kidney)
3. Increased thromboxane
4. Increased endothelin
5. Increased neural factor |
|
|
Term
Describe the autonomic nervous system process that leads to vasoconstriction and vasodilation. |
|
Definition
Increased blood pressure= Norepinephrine binds and stimulates alpha-1 and epinephrine on beta-1 receptor in the smooth muscle (vasoconstriction occurs).
Decreased blood pressure (Vasodilation) = Norepinephrine binds to alpha-2 receptor and Epinephrine binds and beta-2 receptors on the muscle muscle.
Note: Epinephrine binds the Beta-1 and 2, while Norepinephrine binds alpha-1 and 2 |
|
|
Term
Stimulation of this receptor cause increased sodium reabsorption. |
|
Definition
Alpha-1 stimulation by norepinephrine = increased Na reabsorption |
|
|
Term
Stimulation of this receptor in the kidney causes increased renin production and therefore increased cardiac output. |
|
Definition
Beta-1 stimulation by epinephrine = increased renin from kidney = increased angiotensin II and aldosterone = increase cardiac output
|
|
|
Term
Describe the process that leads to hypertension via Renin, Angiotensin and Aldosterone. |
|
Definition
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is released from the heart and causes vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure, then to avoid renal stenosis due to low volume, the blood pressure has to increase and this happens when the kidney releases renin and the liver releases angiotensinohgen. The renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I, which is converted to angiotensin II by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE). Some Angiotensin II is converted to aldosterone in the adrenal gland, where aldosterone cause reabsorption of water and increased blood volume, the remaining angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure. |
|
|
Term
Increased sympathetic tone would lead to ___ |
|
Definition
Increased sympathetic tone = vasoconstriction = increased resistance = increased pressure |
|
|
Term
What is the definition of hypertension according to the National Heart, Lung and Blood institute of USA? |
|
Definition
Sustained systolic pressure greater than 139 mm Hg and diastolic of 89 mm Hg.
Normal = less than 140/90 mmHg
|
|
|
Term
__ % of individuals in the general population are hypertensive. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ leads to 1/3 of all stroke, ischemic heart attack or congestive heart failure and 50% mortality rate if left untreated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is a multifactorial disorder resulting from the combination of genetic and environmental factors. |
|
Definition
Hypertensive vascular diseases - etiology is a combination of genetics and environment |
|
|
Term
Describe important facts about Malignant hypertension. |
|
Definition
1. Also known as Accelerated hypertension
2. Has to be 200/120 mm Hg sustained for a long time + renal failure + Retinal hemorrhage and Exudate +/- Papilledema.
 |
|
|
Term
What pathogenesis in arteries lead to hypertension? |
|
Definition
1. Atherosclerosis
2. Hyaline Arteriolosclerosis - when plasma components leak into the walls of the artery.
3. Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis - occurs in kidney and is cause of Malignant hypertension. |
|
|
Term
What is Intermittent Claudication? |
|
Definition
Atheresclerosis of the lower extremities |
|
|
Term
What is Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis? |
|
Definition
Some portion of the glomeruli has fibrosis (due to injury/vascular damage?) that causes the lumen to be enlarged, impairing and compressing capillaries. This reduces the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) |
|
|
Term
Elimination or altered of this receptor in the proximal tubule epithelium of the kidney would decrease or control  hypertension caused by the kidney. What is this receptor. |
|
Definition
AT1 receptors for angiotensin II. Remember angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction of the blood vessels (in this case, those in the kidneys) |
|
|
Term
The ___ in kidney is the key component of RAS and is also the source of angiotensinogen and angiotensin II in the kidney. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ can cause exaggerated changes in blood pressure in a substancial subset of human population. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Explain hypertensive vascular disease as an autoimmune disease. |
|
Definition
In mice, when the RAG-1 gene that codes for B cells and T cells were disrupted or altered, the mice became resistant to hypertension. Why? Because the T cell infiltrates the adventitia (outer layer of blood vessel) where it releases NADPH oxidase and IL-17 causing increase in blood pressure. |
|
|
Term
___ and ____ expression in T cells cause elevation of blood pressure. |
|
Definition
NADPH oxidase and IL-17
Â
Also note: this occurs when T-cells enters the adventitia of the blood vessel |
|
|
Term
New therapy of vaccination against hypertension targets this hormone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Give 3 areas of target for treatment of hypertension. |
|
Definition
1. Lifestyle modification and dietary regimen change
2. Vaccines against angiotensin II
3. Renal denervation in those with refractory hypertension |
|
|
Term
___ nervous system regulates peripheral resistance and the kidney. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cardiac out depends on __ and ___ |
|
Definition
Mycardial contractility and Ventricular filling pressure |
|
|
Term
What is the main function of the kidney? |
|
Definition
Maintenance of normal body fluid volume and electrolyte balance |
|
|
Term
What is the normal filtration rate of the kidney? |
|
Definition
GFR about 120 ml/min = 99% of the filtered fluid and electrolytes are reabsorbed via active and passive transport and urine production is about 1 ml/min. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Basic urine-forming unit that is composed of the glomerulus (where filtration occurs) and the tubules (where reabsorption and conditioning occurs). |
|
|
Term
The ___ brings blood into the nephron, which is then filtered and excreted via the ____. |
|
Definition
Afferent brings blood inÂ
Efferent removes the filtered blood |
|
|
Term
Reabsorption is greatest at the ___ and decreases towards  the ____ |
|
Definition
Proximal tubule = highest reabsorption
Collecting duct = lowest reabsorption |
|
|
Term
Majority of the sodium is reabsorbed at the ___, which is also highly permeable of H2O.
 |
|
Definition
Proximal tubule = 65% of Na+ reabsorbed |
|
|
Term
25% of Na+ is reabsorbed in the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the properties of the thin descending limb of the nephron? |
|
Definition
Water is absorbed but not Na+ or ureaÂ
Â
Â
Â
Â
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is the property of the thin ascending limb? |
|
Definition
Na+ and urea absorption but no water reabsorption |
|
|
Term
What is the property of the thick ascending limb? |
|
Definition
Main segment of the loop of Henle for Na+ reabsorption.
- No water reabsorption, only Na+ |
|
|
Term
What is the main function of the late distal tubule and distal convoluted tubule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Na+ reabsorption is controlled by ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
H2O reabsorption is controlled by the ___ |
|
Definition
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
|
|
Term
The main function of the late distal tubule and collecting tubule (duct) are? |
|
Definition
1. Fine control of ultrafiltrate composition
2. Volume control |
|
|
Term
___ is a major determinant of extracellular fluid volume in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ increases the rate of urine flow and Na+ and Cl- excretion out of the kidney. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The initial blood pressure-lowering effect of diuretics is due to ____ |
|
Definition
Increase Na+ excretion and reduction of extracellular fluid volume. |
|
|
Term
Chronic blood pressure-lowering effect of diuretics is because of the reduction of ____. |
|
Definition
Reduction of peripheral resistance = chronic (long term) reduction in blood pressure (mechanism is not yet fully understood). |
|
|
Term
Site of action of loop (high ceiling) diuretics is the ___ |
|
Definition
Thick Ascending limb of the loop of Henle (25% Na reabsorption occurs here!!) |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action for loop/high ceiling diuretics? |
|
Definition
Direct inhibition of Na+/K/Cl symporter/reabsorption.
Indirect inhibition of Ca2+ and Mg2+ reabsorption |
|
|
Term
Give the 2 main urinary and hemodynamic effects of loop diuretics. |
|
Definition
1. Very high increase in urine flow (output)
a. increase in Na/Cl/K/Ca2+/Mg2+ excretion
b. Increase in uric acid excretion (if used acutely) and decrease in uric acid excretion if used chronically.
2. Reduced blood volume and blood pressure (initially) followed by renin release and SNS activity. |
|
|
Term
Name 5 main therapeutic uses for loop diuretics |
|
Definition
1. Hypertension and Heart failure
2. Acute pulmonary edema
3. Edemas and Ascites (fluid accumulation in peritoneal cavity)
4. Drug overdose (induce diuresis - excessive urin production)
5. Hypercalcemia (in combi with isotonic saline to prevent vol. depletion) |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 main adverse effects of loop diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Electrolyte imbalance
a. Hypokalemia, Hyponatremia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia and hypochloremic alkalosis
2. Ototoxicity - common with Ethacrynic acid
3. Hyperuricemia and hypoglycemia (rarely precipitating gout or diabetes mellitus)
4. May increase LDL cholesterol & decrease HDL cholesterol levels.
|
|
|
Term
Which loop diuretic is most orally bioavailable? |
|
Definition
Ethacrynic Acid (Edecrin) = 100% oral biovailable
then
Bumetanide (Bumex) = Torsemide (Demedex) = at 80%
Least orally bioavailable = Furosemide (Lasix) |
|
|
Term
Which loop diuretic is the most potent, and the least potent? |
|
Definition
Bumetanide (Bumex) = most potent
Ethacrynic Acid (Edecrin) = least potent |
|
|
Term
Which loop diuretic has the longest half-life; shortest half-life? |
|
Definition
Longest half-life = Torsemide (Demedex)
Shortest half-life = Bumetanide (Bumex) - also the most potent. |
|
|
Term
Name the 4 thiazide/ thiazide-like diuretics and their brand names. |
|
Definition
1. Indapamide - Lozol
2.Hyrochlorothiazide - Microzide
3. Chlorthalidone - Hygroton
4. Metolozone - Zaroxolyn
|
|
|
Term
What is the site of action of thiazides. |
|
Definition
Distal convoluted tubule (5% Na reabsorption) |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics? |
|
Definition
Inhibition of Na/Cl symporter and inhibition of Na and Cl reabsorption into cell |
|
|
Term
Give 5 main urinary and hemodynamic effects of thiazide diuretics. |
|
Definition
1. Moderate increase in urine flow (output)
a. increased Na and Cl excretion
b. Indirect increase in excretion of K+
c. Chronic use = decrease excretion of Ca2+ and uric acid
2. Lower blood pressure in result of increase Na+ excretion
|
|
|
Term
Give 5 therapeutic uses for thiazide diuretics. |
|
Definition
1. Hypertension
2. Edema-associated heart failure, cirrhosis of liver and kidney failure.
3. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
4. Ca2+ nephrolithiasis (kidney stones)
5. Osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
Except for ___ and ___ the diuretic effects of thiazide drugs is altered when GFR is ___. |
|
Definition
Altered if GFR <35 ml/min
Exception: Metolozome (Zaroxolyln) & Indapamide (Lozol) |
|
|
Term
give 4 main adverse effects of thiazide diuretics. |
|
Definition
1. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
a. decrease in extracellular fluid volume = hypotension
b. Hyponatremia, hypokalemia (arrhythmia risk), hypochloremia (metabolic alkalosis), hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia. Hyperuricemia (high risk for gout)
2. Reduce glucose tolerance - may unmask latent diabetes (reduced insulin secretion - type 1)
3. Increase risk of sexual potency
4. Increase LDL cholesterol, total cholesterol and triglycerides. |
|
|
Term
which type of diuretic increases risk of gout due to hyperuricemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which diuretic may unmask latent diabetes mellitus. |
|
Definition
Thiazide diuretics - due to reduce glucose tolerance (and reduced insulin levels or K+ levels) |
|
|
Term
What is the site of action of Potassium-sparing diuretics? |
|
Definition
Late distal tubule and Collecting ducts - 2% |
|
|
Term
Give the two classes of K+-sparing diuretics and give the names of the drugs. |
|
Definition
1. Na+ channel inhibitors:
a. Amiloride - Midamor
b. Triamterene - Dyrenium
2. Aldosterone antagonists:
a. Eplerenone - Inspra
b. Spironolactone - Aldactone |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of Na+ channel inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists? |
|
Definition
Both are classes of K+-sparing diuretics: they inhibit Na+ reabsorption and preventing K+ excretion |
|
|
Term
___ is a Na+ channel inhibitor that can reduce glicose tolerance and cause photosensitivity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 main urinary effects of Na+ inhibitors. |
|
Definition
Slight increase in urine flow due to"
1. slight excretion of Na+ and Cl
2. decrease excretion of K+
|
|
|
Term
Give 3 main adverse effects of Na+ inhibitors. |
|
Definition
1. Hyperkalemia - since they reduce K+ excretion
2. Nausea, vomitting, diarrhea and headache
3. Triamterene (Dyrenium) can cause reduce glucose tolerance and photosensitivity. |
|
|
Term
Which class of diuretics causes a fine adjustment of urine composition? |
|
Definition
K+ - sparing diuretics - works on late distal tubule + collecting ducts |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 main therapeutic uses of K+-sparing diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Both classes are used to spare K+ from excretion (reduces heart arrhythmia)
2. Aldosterone antagonist used for Heart failure
3. Spironolactone (Aldactone) is useful in primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism.
4. Spironolactone (Aldactone) is used for hepatic cirrhosis
|
|
|
Term
Give 3 main adverse effects of potassium-sparing diuretics. |
|
Definition
1. Hyperkalemia
2. Spironolactone can cause gynecomastia, secual impotency, decreased libido.
3. Spironolactone may alter clearance of digitalis glycosides |
|
|
Term
Which K+-sparing diuretic:
1. has the longest t1/2? Shortest?
2. Which is most orally bioavailable? Least?
3. All of them are equally potent, but which is the least potent? |
|
Definition
1. Longest t1/2 = Amiloride (Midamor); shortest t1/2 = Spironolactone (Aldactone)
2. Most oral bioavail = Eplerenone (Inspra); least oral bioavail = Amiloride (Midamor)
3. Least potent = Triamterene (Dyrenium) |
|
|
Term
___ is an important regulator of blood pressure (Short and long term regulation) and hydromineral balance of the body. |
|
Definition
Renin-angiotensin system (RAS) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney |
|
|
Term
____ is the rate-limiting step of the RAS system |
|
Definition
Angiotensinogen --> Angiotensin I (inactive peptide) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Angiotensin I --(NEP)-> Angiotensin 1-7
Angiotensin II --(ACE-2)-> Angiotensin 1-7
It is a peptide made by when NEP converts angiotensin I to Angiotensin 1-7 or when ACE-2 converts Angiotensin II to angiotensin 1-7.
It has opposite effects of angiotensin II.
Uses Mas receptor |
|
|
Term
___ is the main active peptide of the RAS system (has 8 amino acids) and acts through AT1 (mostly via AT1) and AT2 receptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is a protease on the membrane of vascular endothelial cells (mainly lungs) and circulating blood. |
|
Definition
Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) |
|
|
Term
___ is the mediator of pressor effects of angiotensin II. |
|
Definition
Type I receptors (AT1 receptors) |
|
|
Term
Give a quick description of the regulation of renin secretion. |
|
Definition
Low Na+ in the distal tubule due to increased filtration/excretion of Na+ leads to reduced blood volume and reduced arterial pressure. The Macula densa senses the reduced flux of Na across it surfaces and sends a signal to the intrarenal baroreceptors of the afferent arterioles of the kidney where the juxtaglomerular cell is located. The afferent arterioles constricts to reduce Na+ filtration, and the reduced pressure activates the beta-1 adrenergic receptors (due to Norepinephrine acting on the sympathatic NS) of juxtaglomerular cells causing the release of renin. |
|
|
Term
__ feedback inhibits the release of renin by juxtaglomerular cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the short-loop negative feedback and the 3 long-loop negative feedback mechanisms that inhibit renin release. |
|
Definition
1. Short-loop negative feedback: stimulating angiotensin receptors (AT1 or AT2) on juxtaglomerular cells decreases renin release
2. Long-loop negative feedback:
a. Macula densa pathway = increased filtration causes more Na in the filtrate.
b. Intrarenal baroreceptor pathway: increased blood pressure on afferent arterioles causes decreased renin released.
c. Beta-adrenergic receptors on juxtaglomerular: decreased norepinephrine from sympathetic NS causes decreased activation of Beta receptors and decreased renin. |
|
|
Term
Both two receptors of the angiotensin II belongs to __ class of receptors. |
|
Definition
G-protein coupled receptors |
|
|
Term
Give the 6 organs of AT1 receptors in the body and their its effect on these organs. |
|
Definition
1. Brain: increases release of vasopressin and regulation of thirst & salt appetite, and increase sympathic NS outflow
2. Heart: stimulate myocardial hypertrophy and collagen synthesis.
3. Kidney: contraction of the efferent and afferent (to lesser decree) arterioles; increase Na reabsorption in proximal tubule; and inhibit renin release from JG cell.
4. Adrenal cortex: aldosterone secretion
5. Adrenal medulla: Epinephrine release
6. Vasculature: vasocontrictio on vascular system; and smooth muscle hypertrophy. |
|
|
Term
Give the 4 mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors. |
|
Definition
1. Decrease angiotensin II
2. Indirectly increases Angiotens 1-7
3. Increase bradykinin levels --> reduction in blood pressure
4. Increase renin activity because negative feedback by angiotensin II is not function.
In other words, ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin (role of dilation of blood vessels) and Angiotensin 1-7 (opposite role of angiotensin I - reduce peripheral resistance) |
|
|
Term
Profound sensitivity towards ACE inhibitors is increased in patients with ___ |
|
Definition
Activated RAS system (due to low salt diet, heart failure etc) |
|
|
Term
Give 5 actions of ACE inhibitors in hypertensive patients. |
|
Definition
Overall reduction in systemic blood pressure:
1. Decrease vascular resistance and blood pressure
2. Decrease glomerular filtration rate and/or filtration fraction
3. Increased compliance of large arteries (reduction in systolic pressure)
4. Aldosterone is slightly decreased = less K excretion and less Na reabsorption - increase risk of arrhythmia
5. Cardiac function is usually unchanged
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|
Term
Name 5 main therapeutic uses for ACE inhibitors |
|
Definition
1. Hypertension
2. Left ventricular systolic dysfunction
3. Acute myocardial infarction
4. Prevention of CAD and stroke
5. Chronic renal failure |
|
|
Term
Which class of hypertensive drug should not be given to pregnant women? |
|
Definition
ACE inhibitors - teratogenic |
|
|
Term
This class of hypertensive drug causes angioedema, dysgeusia (loss of taste) and neutropenia. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Give 6 effects of AT1 receptor antagonists. |
|
Definition
1. Vasodilation and reduction of peripheral resistance
2. Reduction of aldosterone
3. Inhibits sympathetic activity
4. Increase renin secretion and activity (inhibits feedback inhibition of Angiotensin II on renin)
5. Increase angiotensin level
6. Improves hemodynamic profile in heart and kidney |
|
|
Term
List the 8 AT1 receptor antagonist a.k.a ARBs drugs and their brand names. |
|
Definition
1. Azilsartan - Edarbi
2. Candesartan - Atacand
3. Eprosartan - Teveten
4. Irbesartan - Avapro
5. Losartan - Cozaar
6. Olmesartan - Benicar
7. Telmisartan - Micardis
8. Valsartan - Diovan
|
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Term
All of the Angiotensin Receptor Blockers are orally active, except for 2 which are prodrugs. |
|
Definition
1. Olmesartan (Benicar)
2. Candesartan (Atacand) |
|
|
Term
Give the 3 AT1 receptor antagonists/Angiotensin Receptor blockers (ARB) that should not be taken with food. |
|
Definition
1. Losartan (Cozaar)
2. Valsartan (Diovan)
3. Telmisartan (Micardis) |
|
|
Term
Give 4 differences between ACE inhibitors and ARB. |
|
Definition
1. ACE increases renin levels, while ARB increase both renin and Angiotensin II levels.
2. ARB reduces AT1 receptor activities better than ACE inhibitors (duh, ARB inhibit AT1-r directly)
3. ACE inhibitors increases Angiotens 1-7 and bradykinin more than ARBs.
4. In ARBs, the increased Angiotensin II can bind to AT2-r causing opposite effect of AT1 = more reduction in blood pressure. |
|
|
Term
____ is a renin inhibitor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Avoid this type of food while taking Aliskiren (renin inhibitor). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the indication for Aliskiren? |
|
Definition
Aliskiren - renin inhibitor = used for hypertension in monotherapy or in combination. |
|
|
Term
In resting conditions/state, ___ Ca2+ level is low (<0.1um), while ___ Ca2+ level is 10,000 fold higher (~1mM). |
|
Definition
Intracellular Ca2+ is low during resting
while extracellular Ca2+ is 10,000 fold higher |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of Calcium Channel Blockers (CCB)? |
|
Definition
CCBs inhibit/block L-type Ca2+ channels, reducing the infux of Ca2+. |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 types of CCBs and their examples. |
|
Definition
Dihydropyridines CCB:
Amlodipine (Norvasc)
Clevidipine (Cleviprex)
Felodipine (Plendil)
Isradipine (DynaCirc)
Nisoldipine (Sular)
Nifedipine (Procardia XL, Adalat CC)
Nicardipine (Cardene SR)
Non-dihydropyridines CCB:
Verapamil (Calan, Covera, Isoptin, Verelan)
Diltiazem (Cardiaxem, Cartia, Dilacor, Tiazac) |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between dihydropyridine CCB vs. non-hydropyridine CCB. |
|
Definition
Dihydropyridine CCBs access the close-channel state and stabilizes it, and act mainly on arterial muscle cells by causing vasodilation.
Non-hydropyridine CCBs access the open-state Ca2+ and inactivates it, by slowing down recovery of Ca2+. Has more profound effect on heart, |
|
|
Term
Non-hydropyridine has more effect on ____, while hydropyridine have more effect on ____. |
|
Definition
Non-dihydropyridines = heart = open channels
hydropyridines = arterial muscle = closed channels |
|
|
Term
Give the effects (increase, decrease or no effect) of dihyro-and non-dihyropyridines on:
a. Coronary vessel tone
b. coronary blood flow
c. peripheral vasodilation
d. heart rate
e. heart contractility
f. AV conduction |
|
Definition
a. Coronary vessel tone = dihydro (decrease more),
non-dihydro (decreases but less)
b. coronary blood flow = dihydro (increases more),
non-dihydro (increases but less)
c. peripheral vasodilation = dihydro (increases more),
non-dihydro (increases less)
d. heart rate = dihydro (decrease less),
non-dihydro (decreases more)
e. heart contractility = dihydro (slight increase) ,
non-dihydro (slight decreases )
f. AV conduction = dihydro (no effect),
non-dihydro (decreases) |
|
|
Term
Give the 3 main cardiovascular effect of CCBs. |
|
Definition
1. Increase contraction of smooth muscles and Vasodilation of arteries leading to:
a. decreased peripheral resistance
b. decreased coronary vascular resistance
c. Increased blood flow
d. Decreased cardiac output and decreased heart rate
2. Contraction of cardiac myocytes:
a. decreased inotropic effects and decreased oxygen demand
3. Regulates Pacemaker rate in SA node and conduction velocity in AV node - decrease chronotropic effects and decreased oxygen demand |
|
|
Term
List 4 therapeutic uses of CCBs. |
|
Definition
1. Hypertension
2. Migraines
3. Angina Pectoris - chest pains due to ischemia of heart vessels
4. Superventricular arrhythmia |
|
|
Term
List in level of increasing oral bioavailability: Amlodipine, Verapamil, Diltiazem |
|
Definition
Verapamil > Diltiazem > Amlodipine |
|
|
Term
These 2 CCBs are known to cause CYP 3A4 inhibition. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the main, moderate and mild adverse effects of verapamil and diltiazem? |
|
Definition
Main: Cardiodepression
Moderate: hypotension, peripheral edema, AV node blockage, increase liver enzymes
Mild: constipation (mainly verapamil), headache, flushing of face.
Caution: moderate CYP3A4 inhibition |
|
|
Term
What is the most common adverse efffects of Amlodipine (Norvasc)? |
|
Definition
Edema, palpitations, dizziness, flushing and gingival hyperplasia, cardiovascular, CNS and GI side effects |
|
|
Term
Which hypertensive drug causes gingival hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
Amlodipine - Dihydropyridine class |
|
|
Term
Give the 3 representative alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blockers. |
|
Definition
1. Doxazosin (Cadura) - longest t.5
2. Terazosin (Hytrin)
3. Prazosin (Minipress) - shortest t.5 |
|
|
Term
WHat is the MOA of alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blockers? |
|
Definition
Blocks alpha-1 adrenoreceptors on arteries and veins and some central alpha-1 adrenoreceptors causing decrease in peripheral resistance, decrease in venous return, decrease in cardiac preload, suppresses sympathetic outflow in CNS (no reflector tachycardia), decrease LDL and triglyceride, and increase HDL levels. |
|
|
Term
Give 4 main therapeutic effects of alpha-1 adrenergic blockers. |
|
Definition
1. Decreased peripheral resistance
2. decreased venous return (decreased cardiac preload)
3. Suppression of sympathetic outflow
4. Decreases LDL and trilycerides, and increases HDL
|
|
|
Term
Main adverse effect of alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist |
|
Definition
Orthostatic/Postural hypotension - 1st dose effect |
|
|
Term
What are the main representatives of central alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonist. |
|
Definition
1. Clonidine (Catapress)
2. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
3. Guanfacine (Tenex) 4. Guanebenz (Wytensin) |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action for central alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonist. |
|
Definition
Activation of central alpha-2 receptors leading to suppression of sympathetic outflow from the brain. Also, possible stimulation of presynaptic alpha-2 receptor leading to decreased NE release. |
|
|
Term
____ is an central alpha-2 adrenoreceptor that interacts with imidazoline receptor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 4 main adverse effects of central alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonists? |
|
Definition
- sedation & dry mouth (>50% of patients, maybe a reason for discontinuation)
- sexual dysfunction (because of hyperprolactinemia)
- bradycardia
- withdrawal reactions upon abrupt discontinuation |
|
|
Term
What are 3 pharmacological facts about Clonidine (Catapress)? |
|
Definition
1. 100% bioavailability
2. 50% eliminated via kidney as urine (so watch if renal disease/failure)
3. Half life of 12 hours |
|
|
Term
This central alpha-2 agonist is a prodrug. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This central alpha-2 agonist is recommended for preemclapsia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Aldomet (Methyldopa) is
1. a prodrug
2. Recommended for preemclampsia (HTN in pregnant women)
3. Can cause hemolytic anemia and hepatoxicity (all similar to Clonidine, except clonidine can exacerbate renal problems)
4. Effect is delayed for 6 hours, so do not give if emergency.
|
|
|
Term
Give the 4 main representatives of alpha-2 receptor agonist |
|
Definition
1. Clonidine (Catapress)
2. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
3. Guafacine (Tenex)
4. Guanebenz (Wytensin) |
|
|
Term
The first drug that was found to interfere with function of SNS in humans (start of effective antihypertensive pharmacotherapy) |
|
Definition
Riserpine - a sympatholytic
•active alkaloid of Rauwolfiaserpentina |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of Riserpine? |
|
Definition
Irreversibly binds to the vesicular transporter, which are new vesicles needed to be synthesized in order for sympathetic function to recover. This causes reduction in cardiac output and peripheral resistance. Has peripheral and central actions. |
|
|
Term
What are 3 adverse effects of Riserpine? |
|
Definition
1. Increase retention of Na+ & water
2. Sedation & inability to concentrate
3. Depression & suicidal thoughts (~ dose related)
caution: drug should be discontinued at the first sign of depression (may last several months after discontinuation!) |
|
|
Term
2 examples of a direct vasodilator. |
|
Definition
Hydralazine (Apresoline)
Minoxidil (Loniten) |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of Hydralazine (Apresoline)? |
|
Definition
direct vasodilation (mechanism is not clear, some connection with intracellular Ca2+ levels) |
|
|
Term
What are 2 main therapeutic effects of Hydralazine (Apresoline) |
|
Definition
1. Effective decrease in peripheral resistance (with powerful stimulation of SNS → is usually combined with other drugs!)
2. Minimal effect on veins (vsa-blockers) → no postural (orthostatic) hypotension |
|
|
Term
4 adverse effects of Hydralazine (Apresoline) |
|
Definition
1. Drug-induced lupus syndrome (immune reactions)
2. Increase retention of Na+ & water
3. Headache, flushing, hypotension, tachycardia, angina pectoris
4. caution: aggravation of myocardial ischemia |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of Minoxidil (Loniten)? |
|
Definition
activates ATP-depedent K+ channels in smooth muscles leading to efflux of K+ from cells, which causes
hyperpolarization resulting in the relaxation of smooth
muscle. |
|
|
Term
What is the main therapeutic effects of Loniten? |
|
Definition
Loniten (Minoxidil) is a direct vasodilator - it dilates the arterioles (like Hydralazine -Apresoline). Use in combination with other drugs, especially diuretics due to increased Na and H2O retention. |
|
|
Term
What are 3 main adverse effects of Loniten? |
|
Definition
Loniten (Minoxidil)
1. Hypertrichosis (hairy-ness)
2. Angina pectoris, myocardial ishemia and tachycardia
3. Na and water retension (like Hydralazine (Apresoline) and Riserpine) |
|
|
Term
Norepinephrine (NE): is synthesized in ___nerve terminals & CNS as a ____ |
|
Definition
sympathetic; neurotransmitter |
|
|
Term
Epinephrine (Epi): is synthesized in the ___ by ___as a ___ and in CNS as a _____(adrenergic neurons in the brainstem) |
|
Definition
adrenal medulla; Chromaffin cells; hormone
CNS as a neurotransmitter |
|
|
Term
What is the rate-limiting step in epinephrine and norepinephrine synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ cell receptor increases norepinephrine, while ___ receptors decrease norepinephrine. |
|
Definition
alpha-2 receptor = decreased Norepinephrine
Beta-2 receptor = increase norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
____ degrades norepinephrine in the nerve terminals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ degrades norepinephrine in the effector cells. |
|
Definition
Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) |
|
|
Term
T/F: uptake of NE is greater than E in the effector cells. |
|
Definition
False: uptake of epinephrine is greater in effector cells, but uptake of norepi is greater in nerve terminals |
|
|
Term
Give facts about these adrenoreceptors
1. alpha-1
2. alpha-2
3. beta-1
4. beta-2
5. beta-3 |
|
Definition
1. alpha-1 = post synaptic
2. alpha-2 = presynaptic
3. beta-1 = found in juxtaglomerular cells (kidney) and myocardium
4. beta-2 = can be post or pre-synaptic, found in smooth muscles
5. beta-3 = adipose tissue |
|
|
Term
Epinephrine has higher affinity for __ receptors, while norepinephrine has it for ___. |
|
Definition
1. Epinephrine - Beta-1 = Beta-2 > alpha-1 & 2
2. Norepinephrine - alpha-1 & 2 > beta-1 >> beta-2 |
|
|
Term
All adrenorecptors are _____ types of receptors. |
|
Definition
G protein-coupled receptors:
a1is coupled to Gq→ Ýinositoltriphosphate, diacylglycerol & iCa2+
a2is coupled to Gi → ßadenylylcyclase → ßcAMP
all b subtypes are coupled to Gs→ Ýadenylylcyclase→ ÝcAMP |
|
|
Term
The feedback inhibition in NE and Epi synthesis is by ___ |
|
Definition
NE feedback inhibit Tyrosine hydroxylase conversion of tyrosine to DOPA (rate-limiting step) |
|
|
Term
Norepinephrine is degrade by COMT to ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Give main effects seen when epinephrine or norepinephrine binds to these G protein-coupled receptors.
1.alpha-1
2. beta-1
3. beta-2
4. beta-3 |
|
Definition
alpha-1 = vasoconstriction in blood vessels and increased Na reabsorption in kidney
beta-1 = increased chrono-, domo- and inotropic effects in heart and renin release JG cells of kidney
beta 2 - vasodilation of arterioles, relaxation and increase intraocular pressure in eye
Beta-3 = lipolysis in adipose tissue |
|
|
Term
Give info about selectivity of these beta-blocker:
1st generation
2nd gen
3rd gen |
|
Definition
1st gen: non-selective Beta-1 and beta-2 antagonist
2nd gen: selective beta-1 antagonists
3rd gen: non-selective and selective beta antagonists |
|
|
Term
=Give the long term and short-term effects of non-selective beta blockers (1st gen). |
|
Definition
short term effects of non-selective (1st gen) = decreased cardiac out put leading to decreased BP, which causes reflector sympathetic activation causing increased NE/Epi release. NE binds to alpha receptor causing a temporary increased peripheral resistance (Beta-2 are blocked = no vasodilation)
Long term of non-selective (1st gen) = peripheral resistance returns to normal level and cardiac output is lowered further. |
|
|
Term
The primary site of action of beta blocker is __ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Reduction of cardiac output and renin release is due to effects of ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For what types of patients is beta-2 blockers used with caution? |
|
Definition
1. Labile diabetics - hypoglycemic reaction
2. Asthma and COPD patients - causes bronchoconstriction |
|
|
Term
___ is used to reduce intraocular pressure, so is recommended for glaucoma patients. |
|
Definition
non-selective beta-2 blockers |
|
|
Term
Give 6 indications for beta blockers |
|
Definition
1. Glaucoma
2. Migraines prophylaxis
3. angina pectoris
4. hypertension
5. cardiac arrhythmias
6. Myocardial infarction
|
|
|
Term
What is the primary mechanism of action of beta blockers? |
|
Definition
blockade of βadrenoceptors& prevention
of NE (Epi)-mediated effects |
|
|
Term
7 main adverse effects of beta blockers. |
|
Definition
1. heart failure
2. arrhythmias
3. bronchospasm - nonselectives (1st gen and 3rd gens) = could worsen asthma and COPD
4. Hypertriglyceridemia
5. Sexual dysfunction
6. Sedation, sleep issues and depression
7. Worsen peripheral vascular disease
8. Can cause hypoglycemia and can mask hypoglycemia -induced tachycardia
|
|
|
Term
Abruptly stopping beta-blocker therapy can cause ____ |
|
Definition
Angina pectoris and mycardial ischemia = increase risk of death |
|
|
Term
a) 24-hr monitoring documents BP at frequent intervals throughout day
b) Helpful in drug resistance, hypotensive symptoms on Tx, episodic HTN, and autonomic dysfunction.
c) Indicated for “white coat” HTN
d) ≥130/85 abnormal |
|
Definition
Ambulatory blood pressure device |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
During sleep, BP should decrease by 10-20%, and does who do not do this are called Non-dippers. They have higher risk of cardiovascular disease. Monitor with ambulatory BP device. |
|
|
Term
Define these terms:
1. Essential/primary HTN
2. Secondary HTN
3. White coat HTN
4. Pseudo-hypertension
5. Isolated systolic HTN
6. Resistant HTN
7. Hypertensive HTN
8. HTN Urgency |
|
Definition
1. Essential/primary HTN = No known etiology. occurs due to older age
2. Secondary HTN = due to underlying disease (Cushings and hyperaldosteronism), Drugs (NSAIDS and birth controls), alpha-1 agonist (decongestants) and B1-agonists.
3. White coat HTN: false increase in BP in clinical settings
4. Pseudo-hypertension: falsely elevated BP due to brachial artery calcification - use Osler maneuver to test
5. Isolated systolic HTN = common in elderly. decrease elasticity and compliance of arteries.
6. Resistant HTN = blood pressure fails to be controlled after patient is on at least 3 drugs
7. Hypertensive Emergency= BP is greater than stage 2 (>180/120) with organ damage. Treat immediately in minutes to hours with IV drugs. Goal is to reduce diastolic to <100.
8. HTN Urgency = BP is greater than stage 2 (>180/120) but with NO organ damage.Treat in hours to days with oral agents. Goal is to reduce to stage 1 levels. |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment goal for hypertensive emergency? |
|
Definition
target organ damage = reduce diastolic to <100 |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment goal for hypertensive urgency? |
|
Definition
No target organ damage = reduce BP to satge 1 (<160/100) |
|
|
Term
What is the long term complications of high BP? |
|
Definition
left ventricular hypertrophy |
|
|
Term
Classification of blood pressure is base on |
|
Definition
average of 2 readings on after 2 different clinical visits |
|
|
Term
What is considered above goal for ptns with diabetes + micro (>30 -300) and macro-albuminuria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
WHat is normal BP goal for patients without compelling indications according to JNC-7? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Give the classifications levels for hypertension:
Normal
Pre-HTN
Stage I
Stage II |
|
Definition
Normal = <120/80
Pre-HTN = 121-139/80-90
Stage I = 140-159/90-99
Stage II = > 160/100
|
|
|
Term
WHat is the criteria for determining diabetes with chronic kidney disease in order to ___ level goal. |
|
Definition
Microalbuminuria = 30-300 mg/daily from spot urine
Scr = >1.5 for men and >1.4 for women
GFR = <60ml/min/m2
Goal for diabetes + chronic kidney disease :
JNC 7 : 130/80
ADA guideline: 130/80 (but if just diabetes, then 140/80) |
|
|
Term
What is the recommended dietary intake of salt per day in preventing or controlling HTN? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the SBP reduction range for:
1. Weight reduction
2. DASH diet
3. Physical activity
4. Restriction of dietary intake
5. Moderate alcohol consumption
|
|
Definition
1. Weight reduction = 5-20mmHg
2. DASH diet = 8-14 mmHg
3. Physical activity = 4-9mmHg
4. Restriction of dietary Na = 2-8mmHg
5. Moderate alcohol consumption = 2-4 mmHg |
|
|
Term
What is the recommended BMI for HTN control. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the target BP and specific drug indication for General CAD prevention? |
|
Definition
<140/90;
treat with any anti-hypertensive drug or combination if Stage II |
|
|
Term
What is the target BP and specific drug indication for High risk CAD. |
|
Definition
<130/80
Treat with ACEI or ARB or CCB or Thiazide diuretic or combine if Stage II |
|
|
Term
What is the target BP and specific drug indication for Stable Angina? |
|
Definition
<130/80
Treat with beta-blocker + ACEI or ARB
If beta-blocker is contraindicated, then use non-DHP such as Verapamil (80-120mg) or Diltiazem (30-120mg), or DHP CCB. Give thiazide for BP control |
|
|
Term
What is the target BP and specific drug indication for Unstable Angina /NSTEMI. |
|
Definition
<130/80;
Beta-blocker (if hemodynamically stable) + ACEI or ARB
If beta-blocker is contraindicated, then substitute with
non-DHP or DHP CCB. Give thiazide for BP control |
|
|
Term
What is the target BP and specific drug indication for STEMI. |
|
Definition
130/80;
Beta-blockers (if hemodynamically stable) + ACEI or ARB; give non-DHP or DGP CCBs if beta-blockers are contraindicated. Add thiazide for BP control |
|
|
Term
What is the target BP and specific drug indication for left ventricular dysfunction. |
|
Definition
<120/80;
Beta-blocker + Aldosterone antagonist + ACEI or ARB + thiazide or loop diuretic.
Add Hydralazine/Isosorbide dinitrate for blacks
If any contraindication: add Verapmail or Diltiazem, Clonidine (alpha-2 agonist), Moxonidine, and alpha-1 blockers. |
|
|
Term
Clinical pearls:
1. Aim for ___ goal for most patients.
2. Consider ___ goal for DM and CKD patients
3. T/F: data supports AHA recommendation
4. T/F: Always push for normal BP with medication.
|
|
Definition
1. Most patients = 140/90
2. DM or CKD = 130/80mmHg
3. False: AHA sucks
4. False: never push for normal with meds due to side effects |
|
|
Term
2 drug combination is recommended as initial therapy if |
|
Definition
1. Stage II or >20mmHg above goal or >10mmHg DBP
2. Thiazide is included as the addition therapy |
|
|
Term
You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Left Ventricular dysfunction? |
|
Definition
Diuretic + ACEI, then add Beta-blocker |
|
|
Term
You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Post-myocardial infarction. |
|
Definition
Beta-blocker, then add ACEI or ARB |
|
|
Term
You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Coronary Artery Disease? |
|
Definition
Beta-blocker, then add ACEI or ARB |
|
|
Term
You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Diabetes Mellitus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Chronic Kidney Disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Recurrent Stroke Prevention? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the primary anti-hypertensives? |
|
Definition
Diuretic, ACEI, ARB and CCB |
|
|
Term
What are the secondary/alternative anti-hypertensives? |
|
Definition
Beta-blockers
alpha blockers
Central alpha-2 agonists
vasodilators
Adrenergic inhibitors
direct renin inhibitor (Aliskeren)
|
|
|
Term
ALLHAT had 42,429 patients randomized to this 4 drugs. |
|
Definition
Chlorthalidone (Hygroton)
Amlodipine (Norvasc)
Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
Doxazosin |
|
|
Term
Give the 4 conclusions of the ALLHAT study. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you treat a patient with renal dysfunction with thiazide? |
|
Definition
1st gens (Chlorthalidone and HCTZ) do not work if renal dysfunction (i.e, SCr >2.5 mg/dL or CrCl <30 ml/min) ; use 2nd gen (Indapamide and Metolazone) instead. |
|
|
Term
Give the recommended doses for:
1st gen thiazides
2nd gen thiazides` |
|
Definition
1st gen: Chlorthalidone and HCTZ = 12.5-25mg daily
2nd gen: Indapamide(1.25-2.5mg daily) and Metolazone 2.5-10 mg daily |
|
|
Term
Give 4 clinical pearls for thiazide meds |
|
Definition
a. Diuretic effects of thiazides decrease with time.
b. Takes 2 to 3 weeks to see maximum blood pressure drop
c. Chlorthalidone is about 1.5X as potents as HCTZ and has longer t1/2.
d. As you increase dose of thiazide, you increase electrolyte problems; typically |
|
|
Term
___ is a potent diuretic no longer used for HTB |
|
Definition
Furosemide (LAsix) - needs to be dosed frequently (Q6H) and causes excessive urination |
|
|
Term
When should you consider loop diuretics as an alternative? |
|
Definition
Consider if uncomplicated HTN with significant renal dysfunction not responsive to thiazides. |
|
|
Term
Amiloride/HCTZ
Triamterene/HCTZ
Spironolactone/HCTZ |
|
Definition
Amiloride/HCTZ = Moduretic
Triamterene/HCTZ = Maxide or Dyazide
Spironolactone/HCTZ = Aldactazide
|
|
|
Term
This should be avoided when treating T2DM (compelling indication). |
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Definition
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Term
This study compared ACEI and ARBs. What are its conclusion? |
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Definition
ONTARGET - looked at Ramipril (Altace) and Telimisartan (Micardis) in patients with vascular disease or diabetes.
Found no difference in death from stroke, MI, hospitalization for HR between ACEI and ARBs
Conclusion: do not combine ACEI and ARBs |
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Term
This study compared Aliskeren to the drugs from the ONTARGET study |
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Definition
ALTITUDE = compared Aliskeren to ACEI and ARB
Stopped prematurely due to increase adverse effects.
Conclusion: do not combine ACEI and ARBs |
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Term
This class of anti-HTN are classified as class C drugs for pregnancy. |
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Definition
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Term
T/F: according to JNC-7 ACEI is considered 1st line for HTN. |
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Definition
False: ACEI is considered 2nd line according to JNC-7 ( although others recommend it as 1st line if no compelling indication is present) |
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Term
T/F: it is recommended to combine ARB and RAAS inhibitors. |
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Definition
False: do not mix ARB and RAAS inhibitors |
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Term
List the 1st line agents for HTN. |
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Definition
1. Diuretics - thiazide
2. ARBs
3. CCB - only without any compelling indications
4. ACEI - only if without compelling indications (but is 2nd line per JNC-7)
5. Beta-blockers
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Term
Which two classes of anti-HTN are considered 1st line only without compelling indications, but 2nd line by JNC-7? |
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Definition
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Term
This class if drugs is known to cause baro-receptor mediated reflex tachycardia and pedal edema. |
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Definition
Dihydropyridines CCB
Direct vasodilators - reflex tachycardia only |
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Term
What is the most common ADR for non-DHP? |
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Definition
Bradycardia and heart block |
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Term
Why should you NOT combined CCBs and beta-blockers? |
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Definition
They both have negative chronotropic, inotropic and dromotropic effects. Combining both would decrease the effects even more causing heart block. |
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Term
T/F: you should never combine DHP and non-DHP CCB |
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Definition
False: you can combined DHP and non-DHP together, but not with beta-blockers |
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Term
Beta-blockers are considered 1st line for these 3 compelling indications. |
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Definition
1. Myocardial infarction
2. Angina
3. Heart failure |
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Term
T/F: Aliskeren is considered 2nd line agent for HTN. |
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Definition
False: considered 4th or 5th line agent - extremely expensive |
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Term
Which class of anti-HTN causes orthostatic hypotension after one dose? |
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Definition
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Term
This class of drugs cause Na and water retention and should be combined with diuretics (such as thiazide). |
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Definition
Alpha-1 blockers
Reserpine
Direct arterial vasidilators: Hydralazine and Minoxidil |
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Term
This class of drugs is recommended in men with benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH) |
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Definition
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Term
T/F: it is recommended to give methyldopa with diuretics due to Na and water retension. |
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Definition
False: Methyldopa is preferred for pregnant women, but do not add the diuretic. |
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Term
___ is a central alpha-2 agonist that is preferred for pregant women |
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Definition
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Term
This agent is known to cause drug-induced lupus. |
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Definition
Hydralazine (a direct vasodilator) |
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Term
Direct vasodilators agents are reserved for ___ |
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Definition
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Term
This study compared combination drug therapy such as: Benazepril/Amlodipine vs. Benazepril/HCTZ. |
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Definition
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Term
Give an example of an synergistic combination to lower blood pressure. |
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Definition
Diuretic + RAAS inhibitors
or
CCB + RAAS Inhibitor (Aliskeren, ACEI, aldosterone antagonists) |
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Term
Give an example of an additive combination to lower blood pressure. |
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Definition
Diuretic + Beta-blockers
or
Beta-blocker + DHP CCB
or
DHP + non-DHP CCB
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Term
Explain the additive effects of diuretics + beta-blocker. |
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Definition
Diuretics decrease blood volume through Na and water excretion, triggering a compensatory RAS system activation, but Beta-blocker decrease blood volume by inhibiting this activation - inhibits renin production in the kidneys (by blocking kidney's beta-1 receptors). |
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Term
What combination are consider "poor" due to their similar actions? |
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Definition
Diuretics + DHP CCB
or
Beta blocker + ACEI/ARB - combination only used in MI or CAD |
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Term
These 2 agents are not recommended for the elderly. |
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Definition
Central alpha-2 agonist and alpha-blockers |
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Term
Name the 4 agents/classes that are safe for pregnant women. |
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Definition
1. Methyldopa
2. Labetolol - alpha/beta blocker
3. Beta-blockers
4. CCB 5. Diuretics - use if all else fails |
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Term
Name 3 agents that are contraindicated in pregnancy |
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Definition
1. ACEI
2. ARBs
3. Aliskeren |
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Term
Treatment and speed of blood pressure reduction depends on ____ |
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Definition
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Term
What kind of lab test should you obtain to treat HTM emergency or urgency. |
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Definition
CBC
Urine analysis
CMP
EKG
cardiac enzymes
Imaging
echocardiogram
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Term
After admission to the ICU, what 4 steps should be taken to treat emergency HTN? |
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Definition
1. Use IV meds to lower SBP by 20 (25%) in 1 hour and diastolic by 10-15% over 30 mins to 1 hour.
2. Stabilize blood pressure to <160/110 over 2-6 hrs.
3. Assess volume status and gently hydrate with NS to restore fluid/Na.
4. Continuous cardiac monitoring, assess volume and |
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Term
Give 2 facts about these treatment regimen for HTN emergencies.
1. Nitroprusside
2. Nitroglycerin
3. Labetalol (Normodyne or Trandate)
4. Enalaprilat
5. Esmolol
6. Fenoldapam
7. Hydralazine
8. Phentolamine
9. Nicardipine
10. Clevidipine |
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Definition
1. Nitroprusside - arterial and venous vasodilator. For emergency HTN + acute pulmonary edema. Contraindication: MI and renal impairment.
2. Nitroglycerin - more venous dilation than arterial. Adjunct use (not 1st line) for coronary ischemia or acute pulmonary edema.
3. Labetalol (Normodyne or Trandate) - nonselective a-1 and beta blocker. Contraindicated in COPD, Heart failure and heart block.
4. Enalaprilat - For heart failure. CI: MI, eclampsia, bilateral RAS.
5. Esmolol - CI: if already on B-blocker, bradycardiac, or decompensated heart failure.
6. Fenoldapam - Dopamine agonist, conatins sulfite. CI: angina, glaucoma, and high intracranial pressure.
7. Hydralazine - vasodilator (pre-and afterload reducer) for Eclampsia. CI: use as last option due to prolonged effects and unpredictibility.
8. Phentolamine - alpha blocker for sympathetic crisis or catecholamine toxicity, cocaine and amphetamine intoxication , clonidine withdrawal, MOA inhibitor interactions.
9. Nicardipine - Dihydropyridine CCB. CI: Heart failure and coronary ischemia.
10. Clevidipine - short-acting DHP CCB. For all hypertensive emergencies. |
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Term
During treatment for HTN emergency, the patient must be evaluated every ___ after initiating or making changes to therapy. |
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Definition
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Term
During treatment for HTN emergency, the patient must be monitored every ___ one BP goal is attained and there is no target organ damage (i.e. patient is stable). |
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Definition
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Term
Give the monitoring parameter for these classes:
1. Diuretics
2. Aldosterone antagonists
3. Beta-blockers
4. ACEI/ARBS/Renin inhibitors
5. CCBs |
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Definition
1. Diuretics = BP, BUN/Scr, electrolytes, uric acid
2. Aldosterone/ACEI/ARBs/Renin inhibitors = BP/BUN/SCr/K
3. Beta-blockers/CCB = BP and HR
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Term
List agents that can be used in HTN of unknown causes. |
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Definition
1. Synergistic (RAAS inhibitors + diuretic OR RAAS inhibitor + CCB) or Additive ( Beta blocker + diuretic OR beta-blocker + DHP CCB OR nonDHP + DHP)
2. Add loop diuretics (Bumex or Lasix)
3. Add Aldactone
4. Combine alpha-beta blockers
5. Central-acting agents (alpha-2 agonists) |
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