Term
If your patient takes some medications for several months – sometimes they become tolerant to the drugs
because their systems become able to breakdown the drugs faster. Such a slow increase in the capacity
of the drug clearance pathway is most likely to occur through |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient of yours has a heart attack and is under your care. You are monitoring recovery by measuring
serum enzymes. Over the next two days, you find that his CK – MB levels are decreasing towards
normal but CK-MM levels are increasing. It is most likely that |
|
Definition
The patient is recovering from the heart attack but is having some other muscle damage
|
|
|
Term
The most efficient storage of energy in the body is in the form of: |
|
Definition
Fat because fat is very dry and very reduced |
|
|
Term
An alcoholic patient of yours presents with confusion and disorientation. You suspect alcoholic
ketoacidosis. Under alcoholic ketoacidosis:
|
|
Definition
Most of the NAD will be present as NADH |
|
|
Term
Which ion has the lowest intracellular concentration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antibiotics in the fluoroquinolone family |
|
Definition
block action of bacterial DNA topoisomerase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
function is eukaryotic mRNA processing |
|
|
Term
Gene expression profiles are quickly made by which method?
Cloning
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
. In the RNA interference (RNAi) technique |
|
Definition
genes are silenced by miRNAS |
|
|
Term
. In the mid 1800s, there was a cholera outbreak that was associated with the ingestion of contaminated
water from the Broad Street well in London. This outbreak was attributable to |
|
Definition
the mixing of sewage and drinking water |
|
|
Term
Which of the following osteopathic physicians developed the technique known as “facilitated positional
release” (FPR)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During intrathoracic surgery to remove a lung tumor, the gray ramus communicans at the level of T2 is accidentally severed, while the white ramus is left intact. Which of the following structures will most likely remain unaffected? Arrector pili muscles Arterioles Cardiac muscle Sebaceous glands Sweat glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pathways of sympathetic nerves can be distinguished anatomically from those of parasympathetic nerves because: A.Parasympathetic ganglia are located near the target organ
B. Parasympathetics have longer postganglionic fibers C.Parasympathetics pass through paravertebral ganglia D.Sympathetics arise from the sacral and head regions.
E. Sympathetics do not enter the body wall or limbs |
|
Definition
parasympathetic ganglia are located near the target organ |
|
|
Term
An 80-year-old man presents with back pain. Which of the following findings would be most an abnormal finding in the spine? A cervical spine lordotic curve A lack of spinal curvature in the coronal plane A lumbar spine kyphotic curve A sacral spine kyphotic curve A thoracic spine kyphotic curve |
|
Definition
Lumbar spine kyphotic curve |
|
|
Term
A 65-year-old female presents with left sided back pain. She points to the region medial to her left scapula. The pain hurts more when she moves her shoulder blade out laterally. You are able to palpate a tight muscle spasm just medial to the scapula. Which of the following muscles is the most likely one causing her pain? Iliocostalis Multifidus Rhomboid major Rotatores thoracis Serratus posterior inferior |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A neurosurgeon discovers a lesion on a white ramus communicans that is affecting the preganglionic sympathetic outflow to thoracic organs. Where is this lesion most likely located? C1 L2 L5 T1 T12 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following will form from the hypaxial part of the myotome? Deep muscles of the back Heart Upper limb muscles Vasculature Visceral pleura |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which pleura are located immediately adjacent to the innermost intercostal muscles? Cervical Diaphragmatic Mediastinal Parietal Visceral |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The right pulmonary veins drain into the: Left atrium Left lung Pulmonary trunk Right atrium Right lung |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient has a posterior heart wall myocardial infarction. The most likely coronary vessel that has been injured is: Anterior descending interventricular Left coronary Left circumflex Nodal branch Right coronary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 46-year-old patient complains of chest pain. MRIs and CTs find a tumor on the root of the right lung. Blood flow in which of the following veins is most likely to be blocked by this tumor? Accessory hemiazygos vein Arch of azygos vein Hemiazygos vein Right brachiocephalic vein Right subclavian vein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following drains blood from most of the left intercostal spaces? Azygos vein Hemiazygos vein Inferior vena cava Right brachiocephalic vein Superior vena cava |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
As you evaluate vertebral motion at the functional spinal unit, you know that with rotation left of the anterior portion of the vertebral body, there is a coupling of: Contralateral translatory slide Ipsilateral translatory slide Roll and slide Vertical translatory compression of the disc Vertical translatory distraction of the disc |
|
Definition
vetical translatory compression of the disc |
|
|
Term
Your patient is 38 weeks pregnant, and she presents with a complaint of ankle swelling. Her blood pressure is normal at 112/70. She has no other complaints at this office visit. You prepare to perform an osteopathic structural examination, and you consider that her somatic dysfunction may most likely be caused by a functional and physiologic interrelationship between her gravid state and which of the following anatomic structures? Arteries Arthrodial tissues Lymphatics Muscles Nerves |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 67-year-old man complains of mid-back pain after lifting his granddaughter the previous day. You diagnose T6 on T7 as flexed, rotated right, sidebent right. The right erector spinae muscles in the mid-back area are boggy and warm to the touch. As you have your patient flex forward to confirm your diagnosis, you expect to feel: The T6 right transverse process become more anterior and asymmetrical when compared with the left transverse process The T6 right transverse process become more posterior and asymmetrical when compared with the left transverse process The T6 right transverse process become more symmetrical when compared with the left transverse process The T7 right transverse process become more posterior and asymmetrical when compared with the left transverse process The T7 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On her general surgery rotation, a third-year osteopathic medical student is asked to describe the usual location of the heart in the chest. Which of the following descriptions should she use? Anterior to the pectoral muscles Deep to the sternum Distal to the shoulders Lateral to the lungs Superior to the neck |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Endemic describes which of the following? A disease that affects a large part of the world at the same time A disease that exhibits a seasonal pattern, year after year A disease that is always present in the population being studied, generally in a given geographic area A disease that is prevalent among animals and humans alike A disease that occurs way in excess of normal expectancy |
|
Definition
A disease that is always present in the population being studied, generally in a given geographic area |
|
|
Term
Mortality may serve as a surrogate marker of incidence when which of the following situations occur? Case-fatality rate is high Duration of disease survival is short, but with effective therapy a cure always results Incidence is high Mortality rates cannot be determined because of poor data collection Prevalence is very low |
|
Definition
case-fatality rate is high |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a good index of the severity of a short-term, acute disease? Case-fatality rate Cause-specific death rate Standardized mortality ratio 5-year survival |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You are seeing a young Asian woman, who has a complaint of irregular vaginal bleeding. While taking the history, you note that she avoids all eye contact with you. You should: Ask her open ended questions and make her feel comfortable and safe during the interaction Chastise her for being disrespectful Immediately realize that she appears to be hiding some aspect of the events leading up to her complaint Make her look directly at you during the interview Refuse to continue the interview and ask a colleague to take over the case |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To be an effective culturally proficient clinician, it is important: That we use printed material to always supplement our instructions. To assume that the beliefs, values, norms and behaviors of one’s own culture are the correct ones, and that those of other cultures are inferior or misguided To learn the culture of specific groups rather than have a broader framework that can be applied to any culture To understand that a health care system where ‘one size fits all’ is the most cost effective and successful approach to providing good health care To understand that a patient’s religion, literacy and perception of illness, can have a significant impact on their compliance with medical treatment |
|
Definition
to understand that a patient's religion, literacy and perception of illness, can have a significant impact on their compliance with medical treatment |
|
|
Term
The leading cause of death worldwide in children under the age of 5 is: HIV/AIDS Malaria Neonatal causes Pneumonia Tuberculosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the predicated leading cause of death worldwide in 2010: AIDS Cardiovascular disease Lung cancer Malaria Tuberculosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following measures can be considered an indicator of risk and can be looked at in any specific population group as well? Incidence Predictive value Prevalence Sensitivity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following values, in relation to a test being performed, is dependent on the underlying prevalence of the actual disease in the population being studied? Case-fatality rate Incidence Positive predictive value Sensitivity Specificity |
|
Definition
positive predictive value |
|
|
Term
The ability of a test to accurately identify those without the disease best describes which of the following? Negative predictive value Positive predictive value Point prevalence Sensitivity Specificity |
|
Definition
negative predictive value and specificity |
|
|
Term
Which of the following may be calculated from the results of a cohort study? Odds ratio Prevalence rate Relative risk Standardized mortality ratio Type 1 error |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following study types describes study groups by outcomes, rather than by exposures? Case-control Case-series Clinical trial Cohort Surveillance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During your physical exam of a 21-year-old medical student, you find he has a heart murmur. This physical finding would be correctly documented in the: Assessment Labs Objective Plan Subjective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 32-year-old female presents to the office following admission to the hospital for pneumonia. After she is done explaining what happened, you state to her "So, I understand that you were admitted to Southside hospital for 3 days and discharged with instructions to take amoxicillin for 7 more days." This would be an example of: Close-ended question Echoing style Graded response Open-ended question Yes/No |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Instructions to the patient for warm compresses every 4-6 hours for the next 3 days to an abscess would be included in the following portion of the SOAP note: Assessment Lab portion Objective Plan Subjective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A physician suspects that a middle aged man has developed chronic lead poisoning. He takes a detailed social and occupational history. Which of the following might be associated with this diagnosis? The patient is a chemist The patient is a drug addict The patient is married to an alcoholic The patient lives in a newly constructed apartment complex The patient works as a baker |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neurodevelopmental delay can occur in children exposed to lead. Which of the following can help prevent this? Consulting with a neurologist while the child is asymptomatic Fortifying formula with iron Painting the child’s room with new paint Screening the child for blood lead levels Updating all the child’s vaccinations |
|
Definition
screen the child for blood lead level |
|
|
Term
A 42-year old male presents to the office for a routine physical. During the medical interview he tells you that he has an allergy to penicillin. Which would be the correct section to document this finding: Assessment Labs Objective Plan Subjective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 12-year old boy presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath and difficulty swallowing after being stung by a wasp. The diagnosis of allergic reaction to wasp sting would be correctly documented for this visit in the: Assessment Labs Objective Plan Subjective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 24-year old female presents with vaginal discharge. Which of the following is the best style of question to ask first? Closed-ended Echoing Graded response Open-ended Yes/No |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following question styles allows the patient to know that their physician is demonstrating empathy? Close ended question Echoing style question Graded response Multiple choice question Yes/No question |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A postganglionic sympathetic cell destined to innervate a sweat gland in the axilla will send an impulse through axons in the: Cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerve Dorsal ramus Gray ramus communicans Greater splanchnic nerve Vagus nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ßHCG is produced by the: Corpus luteum Endometrium Mesoderm Syncytiotrophoblast Yolk sac |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At ovulation, the oocyte: Arrests at prophase of meiosis I Is separated from the zona pellucida Produces the first polar body Reduces its cytoplasm Re-arrests at the metaphase of meiosis II |
|
Definition
re-arrests at the metaphase of meiosis II |
|
|
Term
Which structure is between the follicular cells and the membrane of the ovum? Acrosomal enzymes Corpus albicans Corpus luteum Cortical granules Zona pellucida |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What structure is sandwiched between the ectoderm and the endoderm during the initial process of neurulation (19-21 days)? Hypoblast The amnion The connecting stalk The notochord The yolk sac |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 44-year-old woman presents to the clinic with symptoms of fatigue for the past three months. You suspect the patient has anemia. Which of the following findings would be most consistent with this diagnosis? Atrophy of the right foot Difficulty speaking Normal abdominal exam Pale appearing conjunctiva Rash on the skin |
|
Definition
pale appearing conjunctiva |
|
|
Term
In the clinical calculation of the plasma osmotic concentration the contribution of electrolytes is taken to be equal to: [Na+] + [K+] + [Cl-] + {HCO3-] 2[Na+] [Na+] – ([Cl-] + {HCO3-]) 3[K+] 2([Na+] + [Cl-]) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement is true for DNA synthesis on the lagging strand? DNA made after primer removal is not proofread Most DNA synthesis is catalyzed by DNA polymerase III Okazaki fragments replace DNA after primer removal Only one RNA primer is used The new DNA strand grows chemically from 3' to 5' |
|
Definition
most dna synthesis is catalyzed by DNA polymerase III |
|
|
Term
Which one of the following occurs in prokaryotic transcription? A helicase unwinds the DNA helix A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of the new RNA Introns are removed from the primary transcript RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter The sigma factor is released during termination |
|
Definition
RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter |
|
|
Term
Eukaryotic transcription differs from prokaryotic transcription because in eukaryotic transcription: Introns are part of the mature mRNA Messenger RNA is made in the cytoplasm Only one type of RNA polymerase is active RNA polymerase II catalyzes formation of mRNA The DNA helix does not have to be opened |
|
Definition
RNA polymerase II catalyzes formation for mRNA |
|
|
Term
Which one is a correct statement about DNA mismatch repair? DNA glycosylase is used It repairs double stranded breaks It replaces only the one wrong base Mutations in this process may cause xeroderma pigmentosum The new DNA strand is identified by its nicks |
|
Definition
the new DNA strand is identified by its nicks |
|
|
Term
A 50-year-old male patient of yours complains of chest pain. You suspect a heart attack. You order the serum tests. If the patient did in fact have a heart attack, you will expect to see: A decrease in myoglobin levels in serum An increase in alkaline phosphatase levels in serum An increase in creatine kinase MB levels in serum An increase in hemoglobin levels in serum An increase in M4 lactate dehydrogenase levels in serum |
|
Definition
an increase in creatine kinase MB levels in serum |
|
|
Term
High serum amylase levels indicate trouble in the: Brain Heart Kidney Liver Pancreas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Methanol poisoning is treated by administering ethanol because ethanol: Is a competitive inhibitor of methanol oxidation Is structurally very different from methanol Reacts rapidly with methanol to neutralize it Will increase the rate of |
|
Definition
is a competitive inhibitor of methanol oxidation |
|
|
Term
Allosteric control of an enzyme involves: Binding of effector at the active site Binding of effector at the control site Binding of inhibitor at the active site Binding of substrate at a control site Multiple subunits of the enzyme |
|
Definition
binding of effector at the control site |
|
|
Term
A patient took 2,4 dinitrophenol in an effort to lose weight. You expect that in the patient’s mitochondria under the influence of 2,4 dinitrophenol: Respiration will be increased, ATP synthesis will be decreased and the membrane gradient will be low Respiration will be decreased, ATP synthesis will be decreased and the membrane gradient will be low Respiration will be increased, ATP synthesis will be increased and the membrane gradient will be low Respiration will be increased, ATP synthesis will be increased and the membrane gradient will be high Respiration will be increased, ATP synthesis will be decreased and membrane gradient will be high |
|
Definition
respiration will be increase, ATP synthesis will be decreased and the membrane gradient will be low |
|
|
Term
A person is 30 pounds overweight person consumes nearly 3000 calories daily, mostly in carbohydrates and fat. After his usual meal of Big Mac, fries and soda, he will have: High insulin, low gluconeogenesis, high glycogen synthesis in liver and high fat synthesis in fat cells High glucagon, low gluconeogenesis, high glycogen synthesis in liver and high fat synthesis in fat cells High glucagon, high gluconeogenesis, high glycogen synthesis in liver and high fat synthesis in fat cells High insulin, high gluconeogenesis, high glycogen synthesis in liver and high fat synthesis in fat cells High insulin, low gluconeogenesis, low glycogen synthesis in liver and high fat synthesis in fat cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Consider a starving refugee arriving at a camp: This person will have: High glucagon, low sugar and high keto acids in blood High Insulin, low sugar and high keto acids in blood High Insulin, low sugar and low keto acids in blood Low Glucagon, high sugar and high keto acids in blood Low Glucagon, low sugar and high keto acids in blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gluconeogenesis will be high, ketoacidosis will be high and blood sugar will be low Gluconeogenesis will be high, ketoacidosis will be high and blood sugar will be high Gluconeogensis will be low, ketoacidosis will be high and blood sugar will be high Gluconeogenesis will be low, ketoacidosis will be low and blood sugar will be high Gluconeogenesis will be low, ketoacidosis will be low and blood sugar will be low |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the term LIPEMIA, ‘lip’ is the ______________. It is modified by the _______________ ‘emia’, which means ________________. Of the choices listed, which correlates best with the above (terms and the sequence must correspond correctly)? Prefix – suffix – fat Prefix – root - cholesterolemia Root – suffix - blood condition Root – prefix – high white blood cells Suffix – root – fat-free condition of red blood cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the portions of the world most affected by the reemergence of Tuberculosis. Australia Europe Middle East North America Sub-Saharan Africa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select from the following list the ranking of the United States in Infant Mortality Worldwide. 19 18 28 52 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Viagra increases the apparent Km of its target enzyme but does not affect the Vmax; this suggests that sildenafil (Viagra): Is a weak inhibitor of the enzyme Binds at the active site of the enzyme Is a strong inhibitor of the enzyme Is an irreversible inhibitor of the enzyme Is a positive allosteric effector of the enzyme |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You have just finished examining a 54-year-old male patient in the emergency department for joint pain. The patient has a known history of rheumatic fever and osteoarthritis. Which of the following best describes the type of joint pain seen in a patient with rheumatic fever? Pain in multiple joints at one time Pain in multiple joints at different times Pain in the hip joint only Pain in the shoulder joint Pain in the hip and knee |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 20-year-old soccer player presents with back pain after a fall. You palpate his thoracic spine and find that at the level of the inferior angle of the scapula his right transverse process is more prominent compared to the left when he bends forward. When he bends backwards the transverse processes feel equal. Which of the following best describes the somatic dysfunction? T7ERS right T7FRS left T7FRS right T8ERS right T8FRS right |
|
Definition
T7ERS right and T8ERS right |
|
|
Term
PAIN is always a symptoms as there is no measurement FEVER is typically a sign as it can be measured - TENDERNESS - I would rate it more as a "sign" especially when the surrounding information points towards being elicited by the physician or other health care practitioner, for that matter... |
|
Definition
Subjective = symptom = what patient reports is "happening to him/her" Objective = signs = what can be observed by another person (other than patient) |
|
|
Term
WHY BOTHER DOING THIS?! YOU WILL FAIL ANYWAY!!! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Still want to continue? Okay! here we go |
|
Definition
by the way you are failing! |
|
|
Term
When temperatures rise into the 32°C range Malaria transmissibility is affected by: Decreased biting frequency Decreased transmission potential Increased biting frequency Increased breeding period Longer incubation period |
|
Definition
Increase biting frequency
increase breeding period |
|
|
Term
A 35-year-old man developed frank urinary bleeding and was subsequently diagnosed with kidney failure. Which of the following terms refers to the presence of red blood cells in the urine? Anemia Hepatitis Hematuria Leukocytosis Melena |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Doctor Wilson is presenting a lecture to first year medical students and mentions that one of his patients has a diminished red blood cell count per laboratory studies. Which of the following terms refers to this observation? Anemia Hepatitis Hematuria Leukocytosis Melena |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are most frequently involved in Wilson’s disease? Central nervous system and muscles Bones and kidneys Heart and lungs Liver & central nervous system Stomach & liver |
|
Definition
Liver and central nervous system |
|
|
Term
A 26-year-old man is diagnosed with disease involving creatine phosphokinase. This enzyme can be found in which type of tissue? Bone Eye Liver Muscle Skin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the Emergency Department, blood tests demonstrate that your patient may be having a heart attack. Of the following choices listed, which blood tests are most specific to heart tissue? CPK BB & Troponin T CPK MB & Troponin I CPK MM & Troponin I CPK MM & Troponin T CPK MM & Troponin C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 34-year-old man was diagnosed with carnitine palmitoyltransferase deficiency. The following symptom/ sign would be most consistent with the disease: Muscle hypertrophy Jaundice Myalgia Neuralgia Gastritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The leading cause of death in developed and developing countries is: HIV/AIDS Lower respiratory infections Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) Ischemic heart disease Lung cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does “a change in the pattern of disease in a country away from infectious diseases towards degenerative diseases” define? The Epidemiologic Transition The Demographic Transition The Nutrition Transition The Urban Transition The Suburban Transition |
|
Definition
The epidemiologic transition |
|
|
Term
Which of the following represents the correct pairing? Anatomy – mostly Greek origins Endocarditis – inflammation of the external covering of the heart Gastritis – “itis” is the prefix Psychooncology – teaching/study of the psychosocial factors associated with cancer Pyelonephritis – inflammation of the veins of the kidney |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 23-year-old first year law student presents to the osteopathic clinic for her initial evaluation. She reports being tired, has difficulty getting out of a chair, and simply feels weak, and her muscles feel achy but can be quite painful at times as well. After you have performed a detailed initial history and examination your preceptor queries as to whether the patient has complained of myalgia. Which of the following would be the most appropriate answer? No, the patient said nothing about muscle swelling Yes, the patient confirmed that she experienced muscle swelling No, the patient said nothing about muscle pain Yes, the patient confirmed that she experienced muscle pain No, the patient said nothing about muscle spasms |
|
Definition
Yes, the patient confirmed that she experienced muscle pain |
|
|
Term
A retired 67-year-old teacher had previously been seen in the clinic for unresolved foot swelling and pain after she had sustained a major ankle strain/sprain (almost a real case!). Osteopathic manipulation has helped improve her pain and range of motion when, unfortunately, the patient struck her small toe against her computer and re-injured the same foot. In yesterday’s follow up visit, three weeks after the re-injury, she reports having such pain in the lateral portion of the foot that even putting on socks would cause her to experience excruciating pain. Which of the following would be the most appropriate term to describe the current presentation? Allodynia Hyperalgesia Hypoesthesia Myalgia Neuritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DNA polymerase I: Lacks proofreading activity Catalyzes DNA synthesis on the lagging strand Acts to remove primers from the 3’ end of new DNA Has high processivity Connects Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand |
|
Definition
catalyze DNA synthesis on the lagging strand |
|
|
Term
Which one is a correct statement about DNA replication?
Mismatched nucleotides are removed from the 3' end Primase is required to separate the two strands DNA polymerase I acts on the leading strand Addition of all new nucleotides is done by DNA polymerase III Telomerase relaxes positive supercoils
|
|
Definition
Mismatched nucleotides are removed from the 3' end
DNA polymerase I acts on the leading strand
|
|
|
Term
Which enzymatic activity proofreads new DNA? 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase II 5' to 3' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III 5' to 3' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I Polymerizing activity of DNA polymerase I |
|
Definition
3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III |
|
|
Term
Topoisomerases: Only add more DNA supercoils Act during DNA replication Relax negative supercoils during replication Introduce positive supercoils before replication starts Are active in DNA repair |
|
Definition
act during DNA replication |
|
|
Term
Which of the following amino acids is most likely to be found on the surface of a globular protein? Leu Val Ile Asp Pro |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following amino acids is likely to be found in the hydrophobic core of a globular protein? Asp Lys Glu Arg Ile |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following amino acids is likely to be present at the binding site for calcium ions on a protein? Asp Lys Gly Arg Ile |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A sample of a purified protein was analyzed for amino terminal end group. Valine and Leucine were detected as amino end groups. This suggests that: The protein is pure The protein is pure and has two amino ends The protein is pure and has at least two amino ends The sample contains more than one protein The sample contains cyclic proteins |
|
Definition
The sample contains more than one protein
or
the protein is pure and has at least two amino ends |
|
|
Term
Only multi subunit proteins have: Primary structure Secondary structure Tertiary structure Quaternary structure Native structure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cytochrome oxidase has a tightly bound copper ion essential for its activity. This copper ion is: Not necessary for the enzyme activity An apoenzyme A cofactor A vitamin A coenzyme |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fasciculin is a snake venom protein which increases the activity of the enzyme acetylcholine esterase. Fasciculin binds to acetylcholine esterase at site away from the active site. Such binding increases the activity of acetylcholine esterase. This is an example of: Enzyme induction Allosteric control Feedback inhibition Reversible covalent modification Precursor activation |
|
Definition
allosteric control (binding to site other than active site) |
|
|
Term
Persons that take sleeping tablets may increase levels of monooxygenase enzymes many fold. Such a change in enzyme activity levels is an example of: Enzyme induction Allosteric control Feedback inhibition Reversible covalent modification Precursor activation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Methanol ( CH3OH) poisoning is caused by methanol being converted to formaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase. Methanol poisoning is treated by administering ethanol (CH3CH2OH). This could be because: Methanol is soluble in ethanol Ethanol is soluble in methanol Ethanol stimulates alcohol dehydrogenase competitively Ethanol inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase competitively Ethanol inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase noncompetitively |
|
Definition
EtOH inhibits alcohold dehydrogenase competitively |
|
|
Term
In the overall scheme of metabolism, it is difficult to convert: Amino acids to Acetyl CoA Acetyl CoA to pyruvate Glucose to pyruvate Acetyl CoA to fatty acids Fatty acids to acetyl CoA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most of the carbon dioxide produced in the body is produced: During glycolysis During protein synthesis In the tricarboxylic acid cycle During oxidative phosphorylation During the conversion of glucose to pyruvate |
|
Definition
In the tricarboxylic acid cycle |
|
|
Term
Ketone bodies are routinely used as fuel by: Muscle Adipose tissue Liver Brain Kidney |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Proton pumping during respiration is minimal at: Complex I Complex II Complex III Complex IV Cytochrome Oxidase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygen binds only to: Complex I Complex II Complex III Complex IV Cytochrome Oxidase |
|
Definition
complex IV is also named CYtochrome Oxidase |
|
|
Term
Which of the following structures contains ONLY motor (efferent) axons? Dorsal root Ventral root Spinal nerve Dorsal ramus Ventral ramus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 25-year-old male medical student presents with bilateral posterior neck pain. He was in a motor vehicle accident earlier in the day. Upon physical exam you find he feels pain with active range of motion in all planes of motion. After ruling out fractures and head injury, you contemplate treating the patient with osteopathic manipulation. Muscle energy treatment would most likely be painful to this patient because: Muscle Energy is an active-direct treatment Muscle Energy is an active-indirect treatment Muscle Energy is a passive-direct treatment Muscle Energy is a passive-indirect treatment Muscle Energy is a passive-direct and indirect treatment |
|
Definition
Muscle Energy is an active-direct treatment |
|
|
Term
A 37-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of right-sided neck pain. After taking a thorough history and performing a complete exam on your patient, you decide to treat the somatic dysfunction, C3 ERS right, with the muscle energy technique. According to current understanding, which of the following is the most likely physiologic principle that applies to muscle energy technique? The muscle spindle reflex, reciprocal innervation and elastic stretch The golgi tendon reflex, the muscle spindle reflex and elastic stretch The Babinski reflex, reciprocal innervation and elastic stretch The golgi tendon reflex, reciprocal innervation and the babinski reflex The golgi tendon reflex, reciprocal innervation and elastic stretch |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The placenta is formed from the: Cytotrophoblast Inner cell mass Embryoblast Syncytiotrophoblast Uterine wall |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which structure is originally a solid rod, then a hollow elongated tube, subsequently becoming flat, then solid again and eventually segmented? Somite Cumulus oophorus Primitive streak Zona pellucida Notochord |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A doctor inspects the internal surface of a uterus with an implanted embryo. The location is termed: Decidua parietalis Decidua capsularis Smooth chorion Intervillus space Endometrium |
|
Definition
decidua capsularis
or
more generally the Endometrium |
|
|
Term
which structure will fuse to the chorion?
- The amnion
- The back of the embryo
- The placenta
- The connecting stalk
- Oropharyngeal membrane
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most of the long muscles in the body utilize:
- A first-class lever action, with the fulcrum placed between the point of effort and resistance
- A concentric contraction only
- A second-class lever action, with the resistance placed between the fulcrum and the point of effort
- A third-class lever action, with the point of effort between the fulcrum and resistance
- A static contraction action only
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Your patient complains of upper thoracic pain after studying for an exam for several days at a low desk. You diagnose T3 Extended, Rotated Right, Sidebent Right (T3 ERrSr). Which facet is involved and which function is it unable to perform?
- The right facet cannot open
- The left facet cannot open
- The right facet cannot close
- The left facet cannot close
|
|
Definition
The right facet cannot open |
|
|
Term
A 38-year-old mother presents to the office with her 17-year-old son who was apparently injured in football tackle three days ago. He has low back pain but there is no pain elsewhere. He is healthy otherwise and denies any other problems. History and physical examination were otherwise entirely negative except for increased muscle tone in the lumbar paravertebral muscles. The mother insists to have an X-ray taken as well as an MRI and a bone scan, and specific rheumatological laboratory studies, because she states that “this is what I have read on the internet should be done.” Which of the following statements would be the most appropriate in this situation?
- You order the tests and labs requested by the mother, since all osteopathic tenets apply to thissituation
- You advise the mother that the tests should not be done as they are too expensive, and there is noestablished connection between structure and function
- You order an X-ray to “please the mother,” because you want to demonstrate that you care
- You refer the patient to an orthopedic surgeon in order for the patient to have the benefit of the fullscope of osteopathic medical practice
- You explain to the mother your rationale of how to proceed, an activity which you see as part ofbeing a “health navigator”
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about “manual medicine” is correct?
- It is one of the youngest healing arts
- Its practice remains “separate and alternative” as its techniques cannot be integrated into the
- standard/orthodox medical approach
- Is the overarching term that includes such approaches as osteopathic manipulative medicine, ancient
- manipulation techniques, and others
- Is associated with a large number of major complications
- Has failed to analyze to date its own successes and failures as there exists no formal research
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Recent advances in the field of manual medicine that have improved scientific understanding include which of the following?
- Increasing numbers of manipulation performed each year
- Successful marketing campaigns by various professional groups
- Growth of various rehabilitation programs that include manual medicine procedures
- The development of standardized, internationally recognized, terminology
- Introduction of specific terms such as “osteopathic lesion”, “subluxation”, and “joint blockage”
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Vaccination, water and sewage treatment, and safe food handling have all vastly improved our ability to control which type of disease?
- Cancer
- Cardiac Disease
- Cerebrovascular accidents
- Certain infectious diseases
- Diabetes
|
|
Definition
certain infectious disease |
|
|
Term
Beta Alpha Beta is a common motif primary structure quaternary structure antigen binding site posttranslational modification |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NADH) is a coenzyme derived from ascorbic acid a cofactor derived from ascorbic acid a coenzyme derived from niacin a holoenzyme without protein an apoenzyme without protein |
|
Definition
a coenzyme derived from niacin |
|
|
Term
An enzyme that catalyzes a reaction changes
- the free energy change of the reaction
- the equilibrium of the reaction
- the equilibrium concentration of the product
- the rate of the reaction
- the temperature of the reaction
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For the reduction of NAD+ to NADH, the standard reduction potential is - 0.320 V (negative 0.320V) . This suggests that, under standard conditions,
- the equilibrium will be to the product (NADH) side
- the equilibrium will be to the reactant (NAD+) side
- the system is at equilibrium
- NADH will oxidize Oxygen to water
- NADH cannot be oxidized
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Reducing equivalents (electrons) may enter the mitochondria from the cytosol as
- NADH
- NAD+
- Malate
- Aspartate
- Dihydroxyacetonephosphate
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When reentry of protons into the mitochondria through the ATP synthase is inhibited by Oligomycin
- the proton gradient and respiration will increase
- the proton gradient will be steady at a high value and respiration will decrease
- the proton gradient will be steady at a low value and respiration will decrease
- the proton gradient will be steady at a high value and respiration will increase
- the proton gradient will be steady at a low value and respiration will increase
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DNA polymerase III
- Has moderate processivity
- Has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity
- Acts to remove primers
- Removes mismatched nucleotides
- Acts to extend telomeres
|
|
Definition
4. remove mismatched nucleotide
|
|
|
Term
During transcription
- The mRNA has the same sequence as the antisense strand
- RNA polymerase requires a primer for initiation
- Both DNA strands are copied simultaneously
- Topoisomerases help form the transcription initiation complex
- The sigma subunit of RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter
|
|
Definition
5. The signma Subunit of RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter |
|
|
Term
The first enzyme to act during base excision repair is
- AP (apurinic/apyrimidinic) endonuclease
- DNA ligase
- DNA polymerase
- DNA glycosylase
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patients with xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) are prone to developing skin cancer due to sensitivity to sunlight. One form of XP is due to the absence of
- Topoisomerase
- Exonuclease
- Endonuclease
- DNA glycosylase
- DNA ligase
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The electron transport chain component that is entirely outside the matrix
- NADH
- Complex II
- Complex III
- Succinic acid
- Cytochrome c
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the terms for fast heart rate & slow heart rate respectively?
- Tachycardia & Angina
- Tachycardia & Bradycardia
- Bradycardia & Tachycardia
- Bradycardia & Jaundice
- Angina & Myocardial Infarction
|
|
Definition
2. TachyCardia and Bradycardia |
|
|
Term
A 22-year-old woman with Wilson disease is about to receive a liver transplant. The transplant surgeon, an osteopathic physician, enters the following information in the medical chart: “Palpation of the abdomen reveals an enlarged liver. Even slight palpatory pressure over the liver caused significant discomfort to the patient. Palpation of the tissues surrounding the right transverse processes of T6, T7 and T8 was associated with significant tenderness, increased muscle tone and swelling. There was a somatic dysfunction at T8-T9 on the right.” Which of the following is an objective finding associated with the diagnosis of somatic dysfunction?
- Abdominal tenderness
- Tenderness in the area of the T8 transverse process
- Enlarged liver
- Increased muscle tone at T7, on the right
- Absence of swelling at the T 9 level on the left
|
|
Definition
4. Increased Muscle tone at T7, on the right |
|
|
Term
Facet Joints of the spine
- are Formed by the inferior and superior articular processes
- are pseudo-synovial joints since they lack a joint capsule
- typically allow greater than 40 degrees of motion at each joint
- have similar inclination angles in the thoracic and lumbar spine
- are located anterior to the vertebral body
|
|
Definition
1. are formed by the inferior and superior articular processes |
|
|
Term
Which of the following would be listed under the subjective section in the SOAP format when making a diagnosis of somatic dysfunction?
- Tissue texture change
- Asymmetry
- Motion restriction
- Swollen facet joint
- Tenderness
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During examination of a 16-year-old girl , a group curve is noted that is concave to the left. The curve includes the thoracic vertebral units from T3 through T7. These segments remain markedly rotated in the same direction whether this thoracic spinal region is flexed or extended. The examiner concludes that this region displays neutral Type I Fryette spinal mechanics. The expected segmental spinal diagnosis in this group from T3 through T7 is:
- extended, side-bent right, rotated right
- flexed, side-bent right, rotated right
- side-bent left rotated left
- side-bent left rotated right
- side-bent right, rotated left
|
|
Definition
4. side-bent left rotated right |
|
|