Term
The key to energy savings with daylighting is:
(a) to have very high daylight factors throughout a building
(b) to provide responsive and operable controls for the electric lighting system
(c) to use both sidelighting and toplighting approaches
(d) to design the daylighting system using a computer simulation program |
|
Definition
| (b) to provide responsive and operable controls for the electric lighting system |
|
|
Term
Daylight factor (at a point) is best described as:
(a) the ratio of daylight illuminance to total illuminance
(b) the ratio of daylight illuminance to code-required illuminance
(c) the ratio of interior daylight illuminance to exterior daylight illuminance
(d) the ratio of exterior daylight illuminance to interior daylight illuminance |
|
Definition
| (c) the ratio of interior daylight illuminance to exterior daylight illuminance |
|
|
Term
Assuming a given sky type, daylight factor (DF):
(a) at a specific point is generally constant throughout the day
(b) at a specific point will vary substantially throughout the day
(c) is constant throughout the day for all points within a given room |
|
Definition
| (a) at a specific point is generally constant throughout the day |
|
|
Term
The daylight within a building consists of the following components:
(a) sky component, reflection component, absorption component
(b) source component, ground component, finish component
(c) sky component, externally reflected component, internally reflected component
(d) reflected component, transmitted component, radiated component |
|
Definition
| (c) sky component, externally reflected component, internally reflected component |
|
|
Term
Daylight factor (DF) is expressed:
(a) as a subjective rating from 0 to 10
(b) in lux (or footcandles)
(c) in lumens/watt equivalent
(d) as a percentage or decimal value |
|
Definition
| (d) as a percentage or decimal value |
|
|
Term
Bilateral daylighting requires:
(a) daylight apertures on two different solar orientations
(b) both toplighting and sidelighting apertures
(c) daylight apertures on two opposite sides of a space
(d) a 2 to 1 final illuminance ratio from maximum to minimum |
|
Definition
| (c) daylight apertures on two opposite sides of a space |
|
|
Term
An office building has multiple floors, each with an area of 900 ft. The following building form is ideal from a daylighting standpoint:
(a) an elongated, narrow plan that maximizes north and south exposure
(b) an elongated narrow plan that maximizes east and west exposure
(c) a square plan with windows on the north and south faces
(d) a square plan with windows on the east and west faces |
|
Definition
| (a) an elongated, narrow plan that maximizes north and south exposure |
|
|
Term
Splaying the walls of a sidelight aperture will:
(a) reduce heat gain at certain times of the year
(b) bring light further into an interior space
(c) reduce the potential for glare
(d) direct light toward the ceiling |
|
Definition
| (c) reduce the potential for glare |
|
|
Term
In the CIE Method of daylight analysis, service daylight factor is:
(a) a daylight factor that relates to real-world system performance
(b) a daylight factor that relates to ideal system performance
(c) a daylight factor adequate for maintenance of mechanical/electrical equipment
(d) the same as what is known as a design criterion value in the United States |
|
Definition
| (a) a daylight factor that relates to real-world system performance |
|
|
Term
A heliostat is used in daylighting essentially to:
(a) deliver direct solar radiation to a space without associated heat gains
(b) store daylight collected during the daytime for use at night
(c) adjust the chromaticity of ambient daylight
(d) deliver a concentrated source of daylight |
|
Definition
| (d) deliver a concentrated source of daylight |
|
|
Term
11. Physical models are used in daylighting design:
(a) often, they are the only way to predict daylight factor before building construction
(b) often, they are a useful and easy to understand tool
(c) rarely, they are too expensive for typical design work
(d) rarely, they are too inaccurate for typical design work |
|
Definition
| (b) often, they are a useful and easy to understand tool |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) daylight simulation programs are only available to lighting consultants and researchers
(b) physical daylight models are a quick and easy way to investigate complex daylighting phenomena
(c) it is difficult to test more than one configuration with a physical daylight model
(d) daylight simulation programs do not have the ability to accurately model daylight conditions |
|
Definition
| (b) physical daylight models are a quick and easy way to investigate complex daylighting phenomena |
|
|
Term
| List two factors (aside from date and location) that impact the availability of daylight. |
|
Definition
| Weather, Terrain, Site Obstructions |
|
|
Term
Efficacy of a light source is best defined as:
(a) the ratio of lumens provided to energy used
(b) the ratio of energy used to heat produced
(c) the ratio of lumens provided to lumens actually used
(d) the ratio of energy input to energy output |
|
Definition
| (a) the ratio of lumens provided to energy used |
|
|
Term
The sky luminance pattern that is typical of a completely overcast sky is:
(a) luminance L at the zenith, with luminance L/3 at the horizon
(b) luminance L at the zenith, with luminance 3L at the horizon
(c) maximum luminance at the horizon, with luminance decreasing by L/90 to the zenith
(d) generally unpredictable |
|
Definition
| (a) luminance L at the zenith, with luminance L/3 at the horizon |
|
|
Term
Daylighting design for climates with lots of clear sky conditions should typically:
(a) assume completely overcast sky conditions as a default “worst-case”
(b) include contributions from direct sun to improve DF values
(c) exclude contributions from direct sun to decrease glare and overheating
(d) be avoided, as clear skies are too difficult to deal with |
|
Definition
| (c) exclude contributions from direct sun to decrease glare and overheating |
|
|
Term
Light is best described as:
(a) a small portion of a continuous range (or spectrum) of electromagnetic radiation
(b) a unique and specialized form of solar energy
(c) a form of energy not yet understood by science
(d) being identical to solar radiation
|
|
Definition
| (a) a small portion of a continuous range (or spectrum) of electromagnetic radiation |
|
|
Term
For some given building material, transm
ittance is 0.4 and reflectance is 0.4; what is the absorptance:
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.0
(c) 0.2
(d) It is impossible to say. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
“White” light is composed of:
(a) a generally even mix of light from across the visible spectrum
(b) light from only the very center of the visible spectrum
(c) light from only the infrared end of the visible spectrum
(d) light from only the ultraviolet end of the visible spectrum |
|
Definition
| (a) a generally even mix of light from across the visible spectrum |
|
|
Term
Match the lighting terminology below (column 1) with the parameter (column 2) it describes:
(a) luminous intensity (1) density of light falling on a surface
(b) luminous flux (2) density of light leaving a surface
(c) illuminance (3) quantity of light leaving a source
(d) luminance (4) output of a light source in some direction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The relationship between illuminance and luminance for an opaque surface is best described as:
(a) Luminance and illuminance are numerically identical.
(b) Luminance and illuminance have the same magnitude, but opposite signs.
(c) Luminance is illuminance as modified by reflectance.
(d) Luminance and illuminance are not at all related in this situation. |
|
Definition
| (c) Luminance is illuminance as modified by reflectance. |
|
|
Term
An illuminance meter will provide readouts in which of the following units:
(a) lux (or footcandles)
(b) lumens (or candles)
(c) candela per square meter (or footlamberts)
(d) watts (or Btu per hour) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The inverse square law states that, for a point source:
(a) illuminance = (source intensity)(distance)^2
(b) illuminance = (distance) / (source intensity)^2
(c) illuminance= (source intensity) / (distance)^2
(d) illuminance = (distance)^2/ (source intensity)^2 |
|
Definition
| (c) illuminance= (source intensity) / (distance)^2 |
|
|
Term
The primary nonpersonal factors influencing visual acuity include:
(a) object size, illuminance, contrast, time for viewing
(b) illuminance, object color, time of day, contrast
(c) object size, contrast, luminance, time permitted for viewing
(d) illuminance, luminance, distance, time |
|
Definition
| (c) object size, contrast, luminance, time permitted for viewing |
|
|
Term
The apparent brightness of an object is dependent upon which of the following (choose two):
(a) the adaptation level of the eye
(b) object luminanc
(c) object illuminance
(d) object opacity |
|
Definition
(a) the adaptation level of the eye
(b) object luminance |
|
|
Term
Illuminance levels and illuminance categories are used to:
(a) establish quantitative lighting system design criteria
(b) establish qualitative lighting system design criteria
(c) select appropriate illuminant colors
(d) evaluate lighting system glare potentials |
|
Definition
| (a) establish quantitative lighting system design criteria |
|
|
Term
Room illuminance values are typically measured:
(a) on the ceiling
(b) on the floor
(c) at eye level
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Glare caused by light sources in the field of vision is known as:
(a) direct glare
(b) reflected glare
(c) a veiling reflection
(d) photopic overload |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
“Veiling reflections” are primarily a problem that occurs with:
(a) matte surfaces and transparent materials
(b) VDTs and specular materials
(c) occupants susceptible to the aging eye
(d) gaseous discharge lamps |
|
Definition
| (b) VDTs and specular materials |
|
|
Term
Equivalent spherical illuminance (ESI) is primarily a measure of:
(a) the ratio of natural to artificial light falling on a task
(b) the quality of light falling on a task
(c) the ability of a lighting system to meet energy conservation standards
(d) the light output of an incandescent lamp or fixture |
|
Definition
| (b) the quality of light falling on a task |
|
|
Term
The “offending zone” is best described as:
(a) that portion of the ceiling plane likely to cause glare problems
(b) that portion of the visible spectrum most commonly blamed for headaches
(c) that portion of the Munsell Color System with colors that most people find ugly
(d) those illuminance categories that typically lead to glare problems |
|
Definition
| (a) that portion of the ceiling plane likely to cause glare problems |
|
|
Term
All of the following terms are used to define coloration EXCEPT:
(a) hue
(b) brilliance
(c) opacity
(d) saturation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A light-adapted human eye (photopic vision) is most sensitive to the following wavelengths (colors):
(a) red-orange
(b) yellow-green
(c) green-blue
(d) blue-indigo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Color temperature is best described as:
(a) the subjective interpretation of color as a thermal sensation
(b) the temperature of an incandescent lamp filament when colored light is emitted
(c) the temperature of a black body radiator that would produce light of similar color to a given light source
(d) the operating temperature of a lamp emitting a given color of light |
|
Definition
| (c) the temperature of a black body radiator that would produce light of similar color to a given light source |
|
|
Term
|
Which of the following presents a list of electric lamps properly ordered from lowest to highest luminous efficacy:
(a) mercury vapor, incandescent, fluorescent, low-pressure sodium
(b) incandescent, fluorescent, low-pressure sodium, mercury vapor
(c) incandescent, mercury vapor, fluorescent, low-pressure sodium
(d) incandescent, metal halide, fluorescent, low-pressure sodium |
|
Definition
(c) incandescent, mercury vapor, fluorescent, low-pressure sodium
or
(d) incandescent, metal halide, fluorescent, low-pressure sodium |
|
|
Term
|
Efficacy of a light source is best defined as:
(a) the ratio of lumens provided to energy used
(b) the ratio of energy used to heat produced
(c) the ratio of lumens provided to lumens actually used
(d) the ratio of energy input to energy output |
|
Definition
| (a) the ratio of lumens provided to energy used |
|
|
Term
|
Electric lighting in U.S. nonresidential buildings consumes:
(a) 25%–60% of the electric energy utilized
(b) 80%–90% of the electric energy utilized
(c) 10%–20% of the electric energy utilized
(d) less than 10% of the electric energy utilized |
|
Definition
| (a) 25%–60% of the electric energy utilized |
|
|
Term
|
The quartz-iodine (tungsten-halogen) lamp is an example of:
(a) a fluorescent lamp
(b) an incandescent lamp
(c) an electric discharge lamp
(d) a metal halide lamp |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
A ballast is required for correct operation of:
(a) all electric lamps
(b) only incandescent lamps
(c) electric (gaseous) discharge lamps
(d) only fluorescent lamps |
|
Definition
| (c) electric (gaseous) discharge lamps |
|
|
Term
|
The basic principle of operation of an incandescent lamp is best described as:
(a) electric current in a tube activates electrons that emit UV radiation that causes a coating to fluoresce and emit light
(b) electric current in a tube activates electrons that cause a fill gas to emit light
(c) electric current heats a filament causing it to emit light
(d) electric current heats a filament that emits UV radiation that activates a phosphor coating causing it to emit light
|
|
Definition
| (c) electric current heats a filament causing it to emit light |
|
|
Term
|
The basic principle of operation of a fluorescent lamp is best described as:
(a) electric current in a tube activates electrons that emit UV radiation that causes a coating to fluoresce and emit light
(b) electric current in a tube activates electrons that cause a fill gas to emit light
(c) electric current that heats a filament causing it to emit light
(d) electric current that heats a filament that emits UV radiation that activates a phosphor coating causing it to emit light |
|
Definition
| (a) electric current in a tube activates electrons that emit UV radiation that causes a coating to fluoresce and emit light |
|
|
Term
The color rendering index (CRI) of a fluorescent lamp depends upon the:
(a) phosphor coating applied to the interior of the lamp
(b) amount of electric current passing through the lamp
(c) color of the lamp’s glass tube
(d) metallic composition of the lamp filament |
|
Definition
| (a) phosphor coating applied to the interior of the lamp |
|
|
Term
|
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a light emitting diode (LED):
(a) a fast response time
(b) available in a range of colors
(c) uses very little power
(d) uses a phosphor coating on the lamp interior to produce light |
|
Definition
| (d) uses a phosphor coating on the lamp interior to produce light |
|
|
Term
|
An electronic ballast uses solid state components to transform the frequency of the power from 60 Hz to:
(a) 20,000 Hz
(b) 1000 Hz
(c) 200 Hz
(d) 50 Hz |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Organizations involved with ballast standards and testing include:
(a) ASHRAE and DF
(b) ANSI and UL
(c) SBSE and ASES
(d) LED and CFL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
There are three basic types of _________ : magnetic, hybrid, and electronic:
(a) lamps
(b) LEDs
(c) bulbs
(d) ballasts
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
At normal operating temperature, an expected ballast life is:
(a) 1 to 3 years
(b) 5 to 10 years
(c) 12 to 15 years
(d) 20 to 30 years
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
The MR-16 lamp is approximately:
(a) 1 inch in diameter
(b) 2 inches in diameter
(c) 4 inches in diameter
(d) 6 inches in diameter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The lighting design approach presented in this chapter can be described as:
a) more analytical than intuitive
b) the brightness design approach
c) relying on a designer’s visual/mental picture of lighting in a space
d)requiring trial-and-error field work |
|
Definition
| a) more analytical than intuitive |
|
|
Term
ASHRAE Standard 90.1 sets forth design requirements for efficient use of energy for
the following environmental systems of a building:
a) lighting and HVAC systems
b) lighting systems only
c) lighting, HVAC, electrical, power, water, and energy management systems
d) power, water, and energy management systems |
|
Definition
| c) lighting, HVAC, electrical, power, water, and energy management systems |
|
|
Term
The recommended horizontal to vertical illuminance ratio for general diffuse
lighting is:
a)3:1
b)1.5:1
c)2.5:1
d)1:1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In commercial buildings lighting is estimated to account for ____ percent of the building’s electric energy consumption.
a)10 to 15
b)20 to 30
c)50 to 60
d)over 60 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The maximum, recommended luminance ratio occurring anywhere within the field
of view is:
a)10:1
b)20:1
c)30:1
d)40:1
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The recommended reflectance range for a ceiling finish is:
a)80% –92%
b)49% –60%
c)20% –40%
d)60%–80% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the five generic types of lighting delivery systems directs between 90% and 100% of light output from the luminaire up to the ceiling and upper walls?
a)indirect
b)semi-indirect
c)diffuse
d)direct |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The coefficient of utilization (CU) for a luminaire is an indication of:
a)lamp luminous efficacy
b)luminaire efficiency
c) the effectiveness of a luminaire in delivering light in a given space
d)the numbers of hours a lighting system will operate |
|
Definition
| c) the effectiveness of a luminaire in delivering light in a given space |
|
|
Term
The______ method can be used to calculate uniform illuminance in a space.
a)the point-by-point method
b)the zonal cavity method
c)the average lumens method
d)the coefficient of performance method |
|
Definition
| b)the zonal cavity method |
|
|
Term
The inverse square law is used to:
a)estimate the luminance of specular surfaces
b)estimate the illuminance from a point light source
c)estimate the life of many types of lamps
d)estimate the life-cycle cost of lighting systems |
|
Definition
| b)estimate the illuminance from a point light source |
|
|
Term
The inverse square law is used to:
a)estimate the luminance of specular surfaces
b)estimate the illuminance from a point light source
c)estimate the life of many types of lamps
d)estimate the life-cycle cost of lighting systems |
|
Definition
| b)estimate the illuminance from a point light source |
|
|
Term
Which of the following are not light loss factors (LLF):
a)room surface dirt depreciation
b)lamp burnouts
c)lamp lumen appreciation
d)luminaire surface depreciation |
|
Definition
| c)lamp lumen appreciation |
|
|
Term
Which of the following will affect the coefficient of utilization (CU) for a luminaire:
a) the reflectances of room surfaces
b) the reflectance of the outside ground plane
c) the lumen output of installedlamps
d) luminaire-related light loss factors
|
|
Definition
| a) the reflectances of room surfaces |
|
|
Term
The purpose of a luminaire is to hold, protect and electrify a lamp—and to:
a)increase lamp output
b)increase luminous efficacy at the work plane
c)control and direct the lamp output
d)reflect light off interior finishes |
|
Definition
| c)control and direct the lamp output |
|
|
Term
Shielding of lamps is accomplished with:
a)ballasts
b)reflectors, baffles, and louvers
c)dimmers
d)absorber elements |
|
Definition
| b)reflectors, baffles, and louvers |
|
|
Term
The maximum reflectance of the best silver reflectors is about
a)60%
b)70%
c)85%
d)95% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Simple cleaning of a very dirty fixture body can restore _____ of the light loss:
a)1%–5%
b)20%–25%
c)40%–45%
d)60 %–65% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lighting fixtures constitute _____ of a project’s electrical budget:
a)10%–15%
b)15%–20%
c)20%–25%
d)25%–30% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The coefficient of utilization (CU) is the:
a)ratio of lumens required at a work plane to generated lumens
b)ratio of lumenoutput per watt of input
c)ratio of lumens reaching a work plane to lamp -generated lumens
d)ratio of the number of luminaries to generated lumens |
|
Definition
| c)ratio of lumens reaching a work plane to lamp -generated lumens |
|
|
Term
The luminaire efficacy rating (LER) is the:
a)ratio of lumens required at a work plane to generated lumens
b)ratio of fixture lumen output per watt of lamp input
c)ratio of lumens reaching a work plane to generated lumens
d)ratio of the number of luminaries to generated lumens |
|
Definition
| b)ratio of fixture lumen output per watt of lamp input |
|
|
Term
Control function(s) for lighting systems include:
a)switching only
b)dimming only
c)switching and dimming
d)switching, dimming and reflecting |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For fluorescent lamps, dimming down to ____ of output is possible without substantially reducing luminous efficacy.
a)10%
b)20%
c)40%
d)50% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The method used to calculate the average maintained illuminance in a space is the:
a)zonal cavity method
b)illuminance method
c)point-by-point method
d)the output method |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The zonal cavity method divides a space into the following cavities:
a)
total direct cavity, total indirect cavity, and semi-
direct cavity
b)below working plane cavity and above working plane cavity
c)ceiling cavity, floor cavity, and room cavity
d)left-hand cavity, center cavity, right-hand cavity |
|
Definition
| c)ceiling cavity, floor cavity, and room cavity |
|
|
Term
The illuminance at a given location from a point light source—for any given lamp/luminaire combination—s a function of:
a)room reflectances and geometry
b)distance between the fixture and the illuminated surface
c)the number of ballasts in the fixture
d)the CRI of the illuminating light |
|
Definition
| b)distance between the fixture and the illuminated surface |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a recommended energy efficiency strategy for residential lighting?
a)provide for multiple lighting levels in all areas
b)use daylight in areas occupied during daylight hours
c)use incandescent lamps throughout
d)provide dimming and switching for accent lighting |
|
Definition
| c)use incandescent lamps throughout |
|
|
Term
Design criteria for residential spaces are included in which of the following
publications:
a)ASHRAE Standard 90.1
b)DOE:Energy Efficient Lighting for the Home
c)IESNA publication RP-11:Design Criteria for Interior Living Spaces
d)DWLH:Lighting Handbook |
|
Definition
| c)IESNA publication RP-11:Design Criteria for Interior Living Spaces |
|
|
Term
The following are all general design suggestions for residential lighting design, except:
a) provide general lighting that is sufficient for movement and casual seeing in all space
b)avoid ceiling light sources
c)light stairs from directly above
d) adhere to general luminance ratio guidelines in order to reduce glare potential |
|
Definition
| b)avoid ceiling light sources |
|
|
Term
Which of the following correctly lists light sources in order from highest to lowest efficacy:
a)daylight, HPS, fluorescent, metal halide
b)incandescent, fluorescent, HPS, metal halide
c) metal halide, fluorescent, HPS, daylight
d) daylight, incandescent, metal halide, fluorescent |
|
Definition
| a)daylight, HPS, fluorescent, metal halide |
|
|
Term
When calculating lighting system illuminance for educational facilities, a reasonablelight loss factor (LLF) would be:
a)0.1
b)0.25
c)0.5
d)0.75 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not an appropriate design guideline for lighting classrooms
in an educational facility:
a) provide equipment that is extremely hardy,vandal proof, and as low-maintenance as possible
b) use some type of daylight compensation
c) use incandescent lamps for generation classroom illumination
d)incorporate low-brightness luminaries for high VCP in all viewing directions |
|
Definition
| c) use incandescent lamps for generation classroom illumination |
|
|
Term
In office areas with a large daylight contribution, the correlated color temperature of the electric lighting system lamps should be at least:
a)1000K
b)2000K
c)2000K
d)4000K |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The greatest challenge in lighting a commercial office space is:
a) providing adequate lighting for varied visual tasks while avoiding glare on computer monitors
b)providing a constant and uniform horizontal illuminance level of about 30 fc (300 lx)
c)providing an automated lighting system with very little operability required of the user
d) providing a very uniform high illuminance level both horizontally and vertically for the varied visual tasks of the office |
|
Definition
| a) providing adequate lighting for varied visual tasks while avoiding glare on computer monitors |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not an advantage to using desk lamps for task lighting in an office:
a) luminance ratios in the near and far surround can exceed recommended levels
b) the problem of furniture layout and layout changes is eliminated
c) energy requirements are lowered because of short distances between light source and task
d) maintenance is greatly simplified because the fixtures are readily accessible |
|
Definition
| a) luminance ratios in the near and far surround can exceed recommended levels |
|
|
Term
The term light trespass is defined as:
a) unwanted light in public places
b) unwanted light on private property
c) excessive brightness of lighting
d) stray light that finds its way into the night sky |
|
Definition
| b) unwanted light on private property |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a fiber-optic lighting technology application:
a)retail display lighting
b)accent lighting
c)stair and path lighting
d)street lamps |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hollow light guide technology is used to conduct light from one place to another by using the principle of:
a)fiber optics
b)reflectance
c)conduction
d)absorption |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The goal of architectural acoustics is as follows:
a)choose background music everybody likes
b)design spaces to meet hearing needs
c)control the speed and frequency of sound
d)reduce audio transmissions |
|
Definition
| b)design spaces to meet hearing needs |
|
|
Term
The critical frequency range for human speech communication is:
a)3 to 40 Hz
b)30 to 400 Hz
c)300 to 400 Hz
d)300 to 4000Hz |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Human beings can hear sounds with frequencies ranging from:
a)10 to 10,000 Hz
b)20 to 20,000 Hz
c)50 to 50,000 Hz
d)100 to 100,000 Hz
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In architectural acoustics, frequency is sometimes referred to as:
a)pulse
b)tone
c)pitch
d)Hz |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following terms does not relate to sound magnitude:
a)soundpower
b)sound pressure
c)sound frequency
d)sound intensity |
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Definition
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Term
The decibel is best defined as the following:
a) a numerical scale devised to conveniently describe sound magnitude
b) the ratio of frequency to intensity
c) a numerical scale devised to conveniently describe sound frequency
d) the equivalent sound intensity of ten bells |
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Definition
| a) a numerical scale devised to conveniently describe sound magnitude |
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Term
Sound intensity level changes by 3 dB with every doubling or halving of power and changes by ____ dB with every doubling or halving of the distance from a point source.
a)4
b)6
c)10
d)12 |
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Definition
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Term
A typical sound pressure level (dBA) for human breathing is 10, and for a jet plane takeoff is 150. The threshold of discomfort is about ____ dBA.
a)150
b)130
c)110
d)80 |
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Definition
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Term
The following is not a definition of noise:
a) unwanted sound
b) sound with no intelligible content
c) broadband sound
d) sound outside of the normative frequency ranges |
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Definition
| d) sound outside of the normative frequency ranges |
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Term
Which of the following is not a correct conclusion regarding annoyance as a result of noise. Annoyance is:
a) greater for high-frequency than low-frequency noise
b) greater for intermittent than continuous noise
c) greater for moving noise than for fixed -location noise
d) greater for nonsense noise (foreign language) than information-bearing noise (a neighbor’s radio) |
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Definition
| d) greater for nonsense noise (foreign language) than information-bearing noise (a neighbor’s radio) |
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Term
Prolonged exposure to high noise levels can lead to hearing loss. Which of the following US-based agencies publishes acceptable noise exposure limits for workers.
a)OSHA
b)ASHRAE
c)ANSI
d)ALEX |
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Definition
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Term
The Articulation Index (AI) is determined by reading a carefully selected set of phonetically balanced nonsense syllables to a test audience in the presence of different levels of background noise. An AI (ratio of correctly identified syllables to total syllables) of ____ is usually deemed an acceptable level of intelligibility for a male voice.
a)0.25
b) 0.3
c) 0.5
d) 0.75 |
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Definition
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Term
The two primary acoustical characteristics of an enclosed space are:
a) power and length
b) energy and direction
c) frequency and intensity
d) absorption and reverberation |
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Definition
| d) absorption and reverberation |
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Term
The term used to define a material’s sound absorption characteristic is:
a)magnitude of intelligibility
b)coefficient of absorption
c)absorption magnitude
d)density coefficien |
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Definition
| b)coefficient of absorption |
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Term
Reverberation is the persistence of sound after a sound source has ceased. Such persistence of sound is a result of:
a)absorption
b)repeated reflections
c)intermittent intensity
d)frequency of sound |
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Definition
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Term
Reverberation time (TR) is defined as the time required for the sound pressure level to decrease ____ dB after the sound source has stopped producing sound.
a)3
b)20
c)60
d)100 |
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Definition
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Term
The converse of reverberation is articulation. An articulate environment keeps each sound event separate rather than running them together. Spaces for speech activities should be:
a)more reverberant, less articulate
b)more articulate, less reverberant
c)strictly having no articulation
d)strictly having no reverberation
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Definition
| b)more articulate, less reverberant |
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Term
Most indoor spaces contain the following sound fields:
a) a here field and a there field
b) a near field and a far field
c) a near field, a reverberant field, and a free field
d) a near field, an articulate field, and a far field |
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Definition
| c) a near field, a reverberant field, and a free field |
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Term
Sound power level (PWL) is a measure of the amount of sound generated by a source _____ of its environment.
a)inside
b)outside
c)dependent on the characteristics
d)independent |
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Definition
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Term
The noise reduction coefficient (NRC) is:
a) an arithmetic average of absorption coefficients at four frequencies
b) a maximum absorption coefficient
c) a minimum absorption coefficient
d) the sum of absorption coefficients at four frequencies |
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Definition
| a) an arithmetic average of absorption coefficients at four frequencies |
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Term
The optimum reverberation time in seconds, for speech, can be approximated using a formula based on the _____ of the space.
a)echo potential
b)absorption coefficient
c)spatial volume
d)construction materials |
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Definition
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Term
Concave domes, vaults, or walls will lead reflected sound into certain areas of a room. This is called:
a)focusing
b)creeping
c)diffusion
d)flutter |
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Definition
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Term
_______ is a design procedure for analyzing the reflected sound distribution throughout a hall using the first reflection only.
a) Room acoustics
b) Source-point method
c) Ray diagramming
d) Trial and error |
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Definition
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Term
Generally, sound amplification systems will be required in spaces larger than ____ft2(m2).
a)10,000(930)
b)30,000(2790)
c)50,000(4645)
d)100,000(9290) |
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Definition
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Term
The process of converting acoustical energy into heat is called:
a)synergism
b)accountability
c)noise reduction
d)sound absorption |
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Definition
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Term
Absorption techniques are generally useful and effective:
a)in spaces with few hard surfaces
b)to change room reverberation characteristics
c)to reduce sound intensity levels in the free field
d)for controlling airborne contaminants in a room |
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Definition
| b)to change room reverberation characteristics |
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Term
Structure-borne sound transmission is generally ______ than airborne sound.
a)easier to control
b)much less a concern in buildings
c)more difficult to control
d)of much lower speed |
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Definition
| c)more difficult to control |
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Term
The noise reduction (NR) between two spaces separated by a barrier is defined as:
a)the sum of the power intensity levels in the two rooms
b)the difference between the sound intensity levels in the two rooms
c)the difference between the reverberance in the two rooms
d)sound control |
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Definition
| b)the difference between the sound intensity levels in the two rooms |
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Term
The mass law is based on the principle that:
a)the larger the mass, the less it will vibrate
b) the larger the mass, the more it will vibrate
c) mass has no affect on vibration
d) mass in motion will remain in motion |
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Definition
| a)the larger the mass, the less it will vibrate |
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Term
Stiffness in a panel construction reduces damping, making it a good ______
a)attenuator
b)transmitter
c)insulator
d)buffer |
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Definition
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Term
The stiffness of a barrier is a function of its ______ and the rigidity of its mounting.
a)frequency to attenuation ratio
b)incident sound pressure
c)material composition
d)surface reflectivity |
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Definition
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Term
Transmission loss for a cavity wall increases with the width of the air space at the rate of 5 dB per doubling. Performance can be improved still further by:
a)adding frequent rigid interconnections between the leaves, like a commonstud wall
b)filling the void with a solid massive material
c)filling the void with water
d)filling the void with porous, sound-absorbent material |
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Definition
| d)filling the void with porous, sound-absorbent material |
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Term
______ is a function of the degree of sound isolation provided by the barriers between rooms and the ambient sound level in the receiving room.
a)flanking
b)speech privacy
c)sound manageability
d)intelligibility |
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Definition
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Term
An AI (Articulation Index) of 0 indicates:
a)silence
b)speech privacy is nil
c)ideal speech privacy
d)more masking noise is needed |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is not a reason that impact noise is at least as serious a problem as airborne noise:
a) resilient cushioning materials eliminate vibration
b) there is no air cushion between the source and the structure
c) additional mass does not usually block impact noise
d) the entire structure constitutes a network of parallel paths for sound transmission |
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Definition
| a) resilient cushioning materials eliminate vibration |
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Term
Which of the following is not a form of isolation for structure -borne sound.
a)floating a floor
b)reducing mechanical equipment sound power
c)suspending a ceiling
d)isolating piping |
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Definition
| b)reducing mechanical equipment sound power |
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Term
The unit of electric current is:
a)thevolt
b)the watt
c)the ampere
d) the hertz |
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Definition
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Term
The name given to the force driving electron flow between positive and negative terminals is:
a)voltage
b)wattage
c)ohms
d)current |
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Definition
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Term
The “ohm” is a unit of measurement for:
a)voltage
b)resistance
c)current
d)frequency |
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Definition
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Term
In a series circuit, voltages and resistances are:
a)subtracted
b)added
c)divided
d)multiplied |
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Definition
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Term
In a parallel circuit, current at each load depends upon:
a)the current in each successive load
b)the resistance of all loads
c)the resistance of each load
d)the current in a series circuit |
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Definition
| c)the resistance of each load |
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Term
Direct current can be defined as a condition where:
a)the flow of current is periodically varying in time and direction
b)the current travels directly from the power generation source to an outlet
c)an electrically powered generating source generates the current
d)a low of current takes place at a constant rate in the same direction around
a circuit
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Definition
d)a low of current takes place at a constant rate in the same direction around
a circuit
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Term
Which of the following is not a typical use of dc power?
a)high-voltage transmission lines
b)building controls
c)telephones
d)battery powered devices |
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Definition
| a)high-voltage transmission lines |
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Term
Energy is the technical term for the more common expression:
a)“power”
b)“work”
c)“electricity”
d)“voltage” |
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Definition
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Term
The overall load factor is:
a)the maximum load generated by a residential household
b)the average load generated by all electrical customers in a given area
c)the ratio between the average and maximum power demands of a building
d)the maximum dc load plus the maximum ac load |
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Definition
| c)the ratio between the average and maximum power demands of a building |
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Term
A “ratchet” clause in a utility billing plan is disadvantageous for which type of user?
a)users with consistent energy demand
b)users with a low yearly load factor
c)users witha high yearly load factor
d)infrequent power consumers |
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Definition
| b)users with a low yearly load factor |
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Term
Devices that carry the description “energy management” have a primary function of controlling:
a)demand
b)energy use
c)resistance
d)voltage |
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Definition
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Term
What is the primary disadvantage of an automatic instantaneous demand control system for electric power?
a)The system cannot readily adapt to varying load patterns.
b)The system cannot be controlled by humans once it is brought online.
c) The system cannot be operated unless the facility it serves has at least 20% sheddable loads of at least 150 kVA
d) The system cannot be operated as part of a larger building energy control system.
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Definition
| a)The system cannot readily adapt to varying load patterns. |
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Term
A power utility will most likely find overhead transmission economically feasible for voltages greater than:
a)1000 V
b)5000 V
c)200,000 V
d)500,000 V |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following transmission line methods is the most expensive?
a)overhead
b)direct burial
c)Type I burial
d)Type II burial |
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Definition
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Term
A “step-down” transformer:
a)has a greater number of turns in its primary coil than its secondary coil
b)has a greater number of turns in its secondary coil than its primary coil
c)changes electric current from alternating to direct current
d)changes electric current from direct to alternating current |
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Definition
| a)has a greater number of turns in its primary coil than its secondary coil |
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Term
In a transformer, ___ remains constant.
a)voltage
b)current
c)power capacity
d)resistance |
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Definition
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Term
A load center pad-mounted unit substation would typically have a primary voltage range of:
a)120–600 V
b)2.5–34.5 kV
c)2.5–67 kV
d)2.5–15 kV |
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Definition
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Term
The most popular form of exterior transformer installation for individual buildings is:
a)mounted on a pole
b)mounted on a concrete pad
c)underground
d)incorporated into the building façade |
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Definition
| b)mounted on a concrete pad |
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Term
Oil-insulated transformers can be expensive to install indoors because:
a)they must be placed in a fire-resistant vault
b)the price of oil is rising
c)of their high purchase cost
d)most contractors do not understand how to install them |
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Definition
| a)they must be placed in a fire-resistant vault |
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Term
The use of non flammable liquid coolants has largely been discontinued in transformers because:
a)this was the most expensive and least efficient way to cool the devices
b)of their tendency to explode
c)the coolants contain PCBs, which are banned in new installations
d)they presented a higher than normal risk of electroccution |
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Definition
| c)the coolants contain PCBs, which are banned in new installations |
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Term
Which of the following is not a valid electrical switch class?
a)250 V
b)600 V
c)1.5 kV
d)5 kV |
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Definition
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Term
The advantage of using a contactor rather than a switch is that:
a)a contactor can be remote controlled
b)a contactor is less likely to fail
c)a contactor can handle higher voltages
d)a contactor can handle more current
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Definition
| a)a contactor can be remote controlled |
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Term
To protect against all types of weather conditions, one should specify an equipment enclosure of type:
a)3R
b)3S
c)4
d)4R |
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Definition
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Term
A “drawout” switchboard is:
a) a type of switchboard that has a breaker that trips when a current of more than 3000 A is drawn
b) a type of switchboard that has circuit breakers mounted in a movable
drawer
c) a type of switchboard that can be easily removed from its mounting and transported
d) a switchboard that has been recovered from a demolished building and repaired to meet the needs of its current building |
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Definition
b) a type of switchboard that has circuit breakers mounted in a movable
drawer |
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Term
Almost all indoor unit substations use ____ transformers.
a)oil-filled
b)nonflammable fluid-filled
c)liquid-insulated
d)dry-type |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following would be a typical dimension of a single-phaseuninterruptible power supply (UPS) unit?
a)6 in. x 6 in. x 12 in. (152 x 152 x 305 mm)
b)18 in. x 10 in. x 24 in. (457 x 254 x 610 mm)
c)36 in. x 12 in. x 36 in. (915 x 305 x 915 mm)
d)60 in. x 24 in. x 36 in. (1525 x 610 x 915 mm) |
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Definition
| c)36 in. x 12 in. x 36 in. (915 x 305 x 915 mm) |
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Term
Which building electrical sub-system includes panelboards and circuit breakers?
a)wiring and raceways
b)power-handling equipment
c)utilization equipment
d)limiters |
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Definition
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Term
In a typical building electrical power system wiring closet, dry-type transformers aretypically placed between:
a)plug-in busways and 120-V panelboards
b)a plug-in switch and a 277-V panelboard
c)the building switchboard and a centralized motor control
d)the service feeder and a plug-in busway
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Definition
| a)plug-in busways and 120-V panelboards |
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Term
The current rating of an electrical service item is determined by:
a)the wattage of all devices that are to be connected to the item
b)the voltage rating of all devices that are to be connected to the item
c)The maximum temperature at which its components can operate at full load
d)the maximum operating voltage at which its components can operate at full load |
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Definition
| c)The maximum temperature at which its components can operate at full load |
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Term
Which type of interior wiring system is typically only used in industrial applications?
a)exposed insulated cables
b)insulated cables in open raceways
c)insulated conductors in closed raceways
d)combined conductor and enclosure |
|
Definition
| b)insulated cables in open raceways |
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Term
A single conductor of No. 8 AWG standard ____.
a)is heavier than a No. 7 conductor
b)is referred to as a“cable”
c)is the largest AWG designation
d)is referred to as a “wire” |
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Definition
| d)is referred to as a “wire” |
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Term
A conductor’s current-carrying capacity is referred to as its:
a)American Wire Gauge (AWG)
b)wattage
c)ampacity
d)capacitation |
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Definition
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Term
Use of AC cable is typically confined to:
a)dry locations
b)underground conduits
c)overhead transmission lines
d)small buildings |
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Definition
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Term
A busway or busduct is ideally used when ______.
a)outdoor temperatures drop below 0oC (32oF)
b)it is necessary to carry large amounts of current
c)it is necessary to carry high voltages
d)direct connection to service feeders must be achieved indoor
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Definition
| b)it is necessary to carry large amounts of current |
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Term
The advantage of using a cablebus over a busduct is that:
a)it is less bulky
b)it can be run for longer distances
c)it generates less heat
d)it has a higher amperes-per-dollar first-cost |
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Definition
| d)it has a higher amperes-per-dollar first-cost |
|
|
Term
Lighting tracks are generally rated at:
a)10 A
b)20 A
c)40 A
d)100 A |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Raceways have now become a major architectural consideration that must be
addressed early in the design process because:
a) the proliferation of computers and networking equipment require the distribution channels to be much wider than before
b) building codes have become stricter
c) extensive knowledge of electrical equipment is now required to obtain an architectural registration
d) the excessive reliance on electricity to power an increasing number of devices presents a greater fire hazard |
|
Definition
| a) the proliferation of computers and networking equipment require the distribution channels to be much wider than before |
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Term
In a two-level underfloor duct system, ducts are run near the center of a bay in a depressed-slab system:
a)to avoid running into walls
b)so as not to become a trip hazard
c)to avoid intersection with water pipes
d)to avoid the steel in beams or joists near columns |
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Definition
| d)to avoid the steel in beams or joists near columns |
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Term
Electrical energy cost is directly related to energy consumption, except in the case of:
a)utility demand charges
b)low-wattage bulbs
c)industrial applications
d)three-phase contactors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following occupancy types exhibits the highest air -conditioning load?
a)art gallery
b)cafeteria
c)auditorium
d)school classroom |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 120/208-V single-phase, three-wire system would be used primarily to serve:
a)a load that does not exceed 20 A
b)a single family residence or small commercial building
c)a load that involves many three-phase motors
d)resistive loads |
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Definition
| b)a single family residence or small commercial building |
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Term
The best distribution system for a large, multistory building that principally uses fluorescent or HID lamps is:
a)120V, single-phase,2- wire
b)120/240V, single-phase, 3-wire
c)120/208V, single-phase, 3-wire
d)277/480V, 3-phase, 4-wire |
|
Definition
| d)277/480V, 3-phase, 4-wire |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a maxim for the safe grounding of a secondary wiring system?
a) The neutral wire in a secondary system must never be interrupted by switches or other devices.
b)The neutral wire must be connected to the ground only at one point—the service entrance.
c) The neutral wire must be color-coded yellow on any insulation color other than blue, along at least half the conductor length.
d)The neutral must be color-coded white, natural gray, or by three continuous white stripes on any insulation color other than green, along the entire conductor length. |
|
Definition
| c) The neutral wire must be color-coded yellow on any insulation color other than blue, along at least half the conductor length. |
|
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Term
To avoid the risk of electric shock, it is recommended that appliance housings be grounded to a:
a)junction box
b)cold-water pipe
c)raceway
d)another appliance |
|
Definition
|
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Term
In the design procedure for wiring a building, one would compute panel loads before:
a)data-processing and signal apparatuses are located
b)lighting is designed
c)the electrical rating of all building equipment is determined
d)feeder and protective equipment ratings are computed |
|
Definition
| d)feeder and protective equipment ratings are computed |
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|
Term
In commercial spaces, an electrical closet might be preferable to a stand-alone panelboard for a building of ___ or more stories.
a)2
b)4
c)6
d)10 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would be a good location for an electrical closet?
a)a location where conduits can enter and leave the location vertically and horizontally
b)on an outside wall
c)adjacent to a stairwell
d)adjacent to a column |
|
Definition
| a)a location where conduits can enter and leave the location vertically and horizontally |
|
|
Term
Which of the following volt-amperage values would be logical for a 15-A residentialcircuit operating at 25% expansion?
a)1440 V-A
b)1920 V-A
c)1150 V-A
d)1520 V-A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To accommodate a home office worker, master bedrooms should be provided with a minimum of:
a)six duplex 15 -A or 20-A receptacles connected to at least two different circuits
b)five duplex 15-A or 20-A receptacles connected to the same circuit
c)three telephone jacks
d)a separately insulated ground wire, connected only at the service point, that connects to three or more receptacles
|
|
Definition
| a)six duplex 15 -A or 20-A receptacles connected to at least two different circuits |
|
|
Term
For the purpose of predicting overall building electrical load, continuous loads should be calculated at ___ of their actual value.
a)50%
b)80%
c)125%
d)175% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a building’s emergency power supply consists of batteries, the batteries must have a full-load capacity of:
a)60 minutes
b)90 minutes
c)120 minutes
d)240 minutes |
|
Definition
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