Term
At pathologically high levels, what does high levels of TRH stimulate the release of?
What condition commonly has this high level of TRH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What hormone does prolactin inhibit? What other hormones are inhibited as a consequence? |
|
Definition
Inhibits GnRH, which in turn inhibits the release of LH and FSH. |
|
|
Term
A patient with a prolactinoma should NEVER be treated with what as a first line treatment?
What screening test and diagnostic can be done? |
|
Definition
Never surgery as a first resort.
Screening=check blood prolactin levels.
Dx=Get an MRI. |
|
|
Term
When would it be appropriate to perform radiologic imaging on a person with acromegaly? |
|
Definition
After biochemical tests have been performed (IGF-1 levels, high GH with induced hyperglycemia) |
|
|
Term
What is the MOST COMMON type of pituitary gland tumor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a man presents with galactorrhea (spontaneous flow of milk from the breast), what is ONE very important test to perform on him? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the medical uses of somatostatin and what hormones does it inhibit? |
|
Definition
Inhibits GH mostly, but also inhibits:
Insulin
Glucagon
Secretin
Vasoactive Inhibitory Peptide (VIP)
Thyriod Releasing Hormone (TRH)
Somatostatin can be used in medical imaging and the treatment of acromegaly.
|
|
|
Term
Which of the hypothalamic hormones is NOT under stimulatory control?
What allows the release of this hormone? |
|
Definition
Prolactin
Dopamine absence |
|
|
Term
What disorder can result from a posterior pituitary transection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a patient with abnormally high ACTH responds to a high dosage of dexamethazone with lower ACTH levels, what is his or her diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a patient with abnormally high ACTH does not respond to a high dosage of dexamethazone with lower ACTH levels, what is his or her diagnosis?
What is the most common form of this disorder?
|
|
Definition
Cushing's syndrome
iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome |
|
|
Term
What other autoimmune disease often presents with type 1 diabetes?
What percentage of T1DM patients have this disorder? |
|
Definition
Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
30% |
|
|
Term
What are the criteria for metabolic syndrome and how is a diagnosis of this syndrome made? |
|
Definition
Abdominal girth greater than 40 inches in men, 35 in women.
Blood pressure higher than 130/80
Impaired fasting glucose
Triglycerides greater than 150.
HDL less than 40 in men, less than 50 in women.
Dx is made with 3 or more of the above criteria |
|
|
Term
What is the relative risk for a macrovascular event (stroke, etc.) for a patient with insulin resistance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a type 2 diabetic, what is the typical rate of islet beta cells lost per year as a percentage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the screening test used to assess if a patient has gestational diabetes?
If the screening test is abnormal, what are the findings in a 3 hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) that indicate diabetes in the mother? |
|
Definition
50-gram 1-hour glucose challenge test (GCT). Should be less than 140mg/dl.
If the result on the GCT is abnormal, the patient undergoes a 100-gram 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
Fasting blood sugar should be less than 105 mg/dl
1 hour blood sugar should be less than 190mg/dl
2nd hour blood sugar should be less than 165mg/dl
3rd hour blood sugar should be less than 145mg/dl
If 2 of the above are exceeded than the mother has gestational diabetes. |
|
|
Term
Which hormone in pregnant mothers is very similar to HGH?
What condition does this predispose pregnant mothers to? |
|
Definition
Placental lactogen (used to modify maternal metabolism to support the fetus and to help develop things like breast tissue).
Gestational DM (like GH, increases blood sugar). |
|
|
Term
What percentage of women who have suffered from gestational diabetes will develop type 2 diabetes later in life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What signs of diabetes can be seen on the skin and in the eyes?
Which skin manifestation is almost pathopneumonic for diabetes? |
|
Definition
Skin:
Acrochordons
necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum (almost pathopneumonic)
Eruptive xanthomas
Acanthosis nigracans
Eyes:
Cataracts
Cranial nerve palsies
Retinopathy
Rubeosis iridis
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common cranial nerve palsy seen in a diabetic patient?
What is the most likely pathogenesis of cranial neuropathies, and of diabetic neuropathy? |
|
Definition
3rd nerve palsy
Infarct of the vasa nervorum (small blood vessels which provide blood supply to larger nerves). |
|
|
Term
What therapies have been shown to be very effective in preserving the vision in diabetics experiencing retinopathy?
How does each help?
|
|
Definition
laser therapy-destroys the new vessels forming due to VEGF up regulation in the retina and prevents retinal detachment.
vetrectomy-use a needle to drain the vitreous humor and replace it with a synthetic vitreous. This is important in that bleeding can opacify the vision in a diabetic, and to restore vision due to this problem this method can be used. ONLY HELPS WITH A HEALTHY RETINA, which may be hard to assess if the eyeball is opacified with blood. |
|
|
Term
What are the complications of diabetes melitus in terms of neuropathies? |
|
Definition
Somatic: Peripheral loss of sensation and muscle tone.
Proximal neuromyopathy
Autonomic: Gastroparesis Diabeticum
Altered Heart Rate
Diarrhea
Impotence
Urinary retention
altered prespiration |
|
|
Term
What is the best treatment for type 2 diabetes? |
|
Definition
Life style changes including weight loss and increased physical activity |
|
|
Term
What are two options regarding long acting insulin, and what must be a major consideration when considering a patients dosing regimen? |
|
Definition
Glargine (Lantus), Detemir (Levemir)
Consider the patients "morning glucose level" and adjust dosage to have this number below 120mg/dl |
|
|
Term
When considering insulin pumps, what is an example of a closed loop system?
Are these currently availible in the United States? |
|
Definition
A pump which delivers insulin based on its own blood readings. Current systems require user input.
This is not approved by the FDA yet. |
|
|
Term
Name the current biguanide medication used to treat type 2 diabetes and what is the largest CONTRAINDICATION for this medication? |
|
Definition
Metformin; lowers hepatic gluconeogenesis.
Contraindicated in renal insufficiency |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 useful actions of glucagon like peptide 1 (GLP 1) in type 2 diabetics? |
|
Definition
Stimulates acute phase release of insulin
Decreases glucagon release by alpha cells
Slows gastric emptying
Suppresses CNS appetite center |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 incretin drugs and what do they mimic? |
|
Definition
Exenatide (byetta) and Liraglutide (Victoza)
Mimic GLP-1 |
|
|
Term
What is the action of dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DPP IV) inhibitors? What is a currently availible example? |
|
Definition
Inhibit the enzymatic degredation of GLP1; usually used as a conjunction therapy.
Sitagliptin (Januvia)
|
|
|
Term
What are 2 differences in the therapudic action of DPP IV inhibitors and incretins if they both act on the GLP-1 pathway? |
|
Definition
DPP IV inhibitors do not delay gastric emptying and they don't pass the BBB to inhibit appetite. |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 main characteristics of a thyroglossal duct cyst? |
|
Definition
Always located midline and above where the gland should be
Always tethered to the tongue
Because they are tethered, they elevate when swallowing. |
|
|
Term
What are the 6 steps of thyroid hormone synthesis? |
|
Definition
Iodide trapping
Iodidization of tyrosil residues
residue coupling
proteolysis
deidozation with reuse of I.
Deidozation of T4 to T3. |
|
|
Term
Describe the Wolf-Chaikoff effect.
Describe the Jod Basedow effect. |
|
Definition
–Excess iodide
creates an inhibition of organification and
decreased hormonogenesis
-Excessive iodide induces hyperthyroidism. |
|
|
Term
Outside of surgical resection, what is the most common cause of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
Autoimmune distruction of the thyroid (Hashimoto's thyroiditis) |
|
|
Term
What is the etiology of postpartum hypothyroidism in women with autoimmune diseases (except lupus)? |
|
Definition
Decreased immunity causes a remission of these disorders, but postpartum a resurgance can cause hypothyroidism due to autoimmunity. |
|
|
Term
What is a major, and possibly fatal, consequence of chronic uncontrolled hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or false: autoimmune hypothyroidism usually runs in families? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a key measurement in the diagnosis of euthyroidal illness? |
|
Definition
measure rT3 levels in the blood. |
|
|
Term
A pregnant mother with diagnosed hypothyroidism due to a past surgery complains of fatigue, cold intolerance, and constapation. She has been compliant with her perscribed thyroid medication. Why is she experiencing these symptoms, and what can you do as her doctor? |
|
Definition
More TBP due to pregnancy means less free thyroid hormone.
Need to increase her dosage of thyroid hormone as much as 50% during her pregnancy. |
|
|
Term
When might a TST reading be misleadingly low? |
|
Definition
Lowered amounts of Sex Hormone Binding Protein (SHBG) in some diseases such as obesity, hypothyroidism and acromegaly. |
|
|
Term
How can one distinguish primary from secondary hypogonadism?
Which remains infertile even with treatment? |
|
Definition
Both have low testosterone, but:
Primary: Decreased TST with increased LH/FSH.
Secondary: Low TST with low or normal LH/FSH.
Primary |
|
|
Term
In chriptorchidism, what are two possible treatments? |
|
Definition
Orchiopexy – surgical placement of testis into scrotum
IM hCG or intranasal GnRH to promote descent |
|
|
Term
On which testicle do varocosities tend to occur on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drugs induce primary hypogonadism? |
|
Definition
Spironolactone
Ketoconazole
Chemotherapy (alkylating agents)
EtOH |
|
|
Term
What blood level can increase with sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the syndrome which causes an LH/FSH deficiency and hypoplasia or aplasia of the olfactory bulbs leading to hyposmia or anosmia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What makes the restoration of fertility in a male with hypogonadism more likely?
Less likely? |
|
Definition
More likely to work if
Hypogonadism acquired post-pubertal
Partial rather than complete
Secondary hypogonadism
Less likely if
Cryptorchidism
Primary testicular failure |
|
|
Term
When screening for hypogonadism, what blood level should always be measured? |
|
Definition
Prolactin levels to rule in or rule out a prolactinoma. |
|
|
Term
What conditions are associated with MEN I (Werner's syndrome)?
Which is most common? |
|
Definition
Pituitary adenoma
Parathyroid hyperplasia (hyperparathyroidism) MOST COMMON
Pancreatic tumor
"Pity Para Pan" |
|
|
Term
How is the diagnosis of a gastrinoma made?
How? |
|
Definition
Diagnosis made with secretin stimulation test
Secretin stimulates gastrin secretion from gastrinomas but suppresses gastrin levels in normal tissue |
|
|
Term
what is the pathopneumonic sign of a glucaconoma? |
|
Definition
Necrolytic migratory erythema (NME) |
|
|
Term
What is the gene involved in MEN 2a and 2b? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the disorders associated with MEN 2a? |
|
Definition
Hyperparathyroidism
Pheochromocytoma
Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma |
|
|
Term
What disorders are common in MEN 2b? |
|
Definition
Pheochromocytoma
Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma
Mucosal Neuromas
Marfanoid Habitus |
|
|
Term
What is the "rule of 10s"? |
|
Definition
In pheochromocytoma:
10% bilateral
10% malignant
10% familial
10% in children
10% extra-adrenal
10% not associated with hypertension |
|
|
Term
What drug class must be stopped when screening for pheochromocytoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In preparing for surgical resection in a patient with pheochromocytoma, what must be done? |
|
Definition
Must use alpha blockers on the patient 7-10 days before surgery to avoid hypertensive crisis. Beta block afterwards. |
|
|
Term
What characteristics must be present for the diagnosis of PolyGlandular Autoimmune syndrome type I (PGA I)? |
|
Definition
Classic triad (need 2/3 for diagnosis)
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
Autoimmune hypoparathyroidism
Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease) |
|
|
Term
What is Chvostek’s sign?
What is it used for? |
|
Definition
contraction of facial muscles elicited by tapping facial nerve 2cm anterior to earlobe
Used to screen for hypocalcemia as seen in hypoparathyroidism |
|
|
Term
What are the blood test signs common in Addison's disease?
What are the clinical signs? |
|
Definition
Decreased cortisol and mineralocorticoids with increased ACTH
Weakness, fatigue, weight loss, hypotension, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia |
|
|
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for PGA II? |
|
Definition
Classic Triad (need 2/3 for diagnosis)
DM 1
Addison’s disease
Autoimmune thyroid disease |
|
|
Term
What three antibodies can be found in a patient with DM 1? |
|
Definition
Anti-islet cell antibodies
Insulin autoantibodies
Glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) antibodies |
|
|
Term
What antibodies can be found in a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis? |
|
Definition
Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies |
|
|
Term
If a patient has a hypercalcemic blood reading, but is asymptomatic, what is a good measurement to order? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the relationship of PO4 to Ca+2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most potent treatment for osteoporosis and what is its mechanism of action?
What is the risk of overuse? |
|
Definition
Forteo (teriparatide).
Stimulates PTH (synthetic PTH)
Sarcomas become a risk with 2 years of treatment. |
|
|
Term
Where is calcitonin synthesized? |
|
Definition
The C cells of the thyroid gland |
|
|
Term
What is a major marker for medullary thyroid cancer? |
|
Definition
Elevated calcitonin levels. |
|
|
Term
What can cause hypercalcemia and what is the mechanism of each cause? |
|
Definition
Kidney failure
sarcoid and other granulomatous diseases because of their expression of 1 alpha hydroxylase (high active vitamin D) |
|
|
Term
What is commonly measured to detect if a person has high or low levels of vitamin D? |
|
Definition
25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol levels (stored form of vitamin D; inactive) |
|
|
Term
What is a major threat of hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
Muscle spasms, specifically:
Laryngospasm
Arrhythmias
Seizures |
|
|
Term
What is another name of idiopathic PTH inactivity?
What is the etiology and clinical presentation of this disorder? |
|
Definition
DiGeorge syndrome
associated with other developmental abnormalities in branchial pouches III-IV.
Thymic aplasia, aortic arch/vascular abn, mental retardation, craniofacial dysmorphism
Sporadic or autosomal dominant |
|
|
Term
With hypoparathyroidism, what is the modality of treatment? |
|
Definition
Megadose of Vitamin D or activated vitamin D (calcitriol) |
|
|
Term
What is a disorder of psuedohypoparathyrodism type Ia and how do these patients present clinically? |
|
Definition
Albright Hereditary Osteodystrophy (AHO)
Obesity, short stature, round face, short neck, shortening of 4th and 5th metacarpals and metatarsals
May see resistance to other hormones: Gn, glucagon, VP; deficiency TSH/PRL; deficient secretion insulin, thyroid hormone |
|
|
Term
How does a patient with Pseudo-Pseudo Hypo-Para present clincally?
Is there ususally a family history? |
|
Definition
Physical stigmata of AHO but no hypocalcemia
Usually seen in family members of Pseudohypopara IA |
|
|
Term
What disorder commonly presents alongside with allopecia totalis and requires a massive calcitriol dosage if they are to survive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of hyperphosphatemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient with a long Q-T interval would have what reading regarding their blood calcium?
What about with a short Q-T? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What must be watched regarding the calcium blood levels in a patient with pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of primary hyper parathyroidism? |
|
Definition
Solitary adenoma of a parathyroid gland |
|
|
Term
If all 4 parathyroid glands are affected with hyperplasia, what does the patient likely have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can be seen on X-ray in a patient with osteitis fibrosa cystica |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the golden standard regarding the localization of a parathyroid adenoma/hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 4 surgery criteria for hyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
Elevated calcium reading (1mg/dl higher than normal) with symptoms
Renal disease
Age less than 45 years old
Osteporosis on DEXA |
|
|
Term
What are two therapies which are very useful in treating osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
Bisphosphonates and loop diuretics |
|
|
Term
A patient presents in the emergency room in a comatose state. After he is stabilized, He is noted to have a shortened Q-T interval, a normal PTH level, and normal levels of Ca in his urine. After his family arrives, it is noted that his mother had problems with hypercalcemia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
|
|
Definition
Familial Hypercalcemic Hypocalciuria (FHH) |
|
|
Term
A patient with chronic renal failure has recently gone on to dialysis. Before he was on dialysis, the patient had very elevated PTH levels and a short Q-T interval. After his renal transplantation, the patient experiences severe hypercalcemia and enters a comatose state.
What is the most likely diagnosis and what is its etiology? |
|
Definition
Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
Autonomous parathyroid glands due to their chronic overuse. |
|
|
Term
What drug can directly cause elevated PTH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient presents with acute hypercalcemia resulting in heart palpitations. On bloodwork there is an elevated PTH noted. This could be: |
|
Definition
Hyperparathyroidism-MEN syndrome |
|
|
Term
A patient presents with acute hypercalcemia resulting in heart palpitations. On bloodwork there is low PTH noted. This could be:
What test should be done as a follow up?
|
|
Definition
Could be a malignancy causing an excessive release of PTHrP.
Get a PTHrP assay as a followup. |
|
|
Term
A patient presents with chronic hypercalcemia and a low PTH value. What should you suspect? |
|
Definition
Granulomatous disease
FHH
Milk-alkali syndrome
Medications such as lithium or thiazides
Adrenal insufficiency
hyperthyroidism |
|
|
Term
A patient presents with chronic hypercalcemia and a high PTH value. What should you suspect?
|
|
Definition
Hyperparathyroidism primary, secondary or tertiary.
MEN syndromes |
|
|
Term
In a hypercalcemic emergency, what should be administered and in what order? |
|
Definition
Want to start IV saline to dilute the calcium, then follow with lasix (furosemide) as a loop diuretic; IN THIS ORDER. |
|
|
Term
A patient with hypercalcemia presents with osteolytic pain due to a terminal bone cancer. What is one treatment to help with this pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What class of drugsinhibits PTH mediated bone resorption and has survival benefits in multiple myeloma?
What is the most commonly perscribed drug of this class? |
|
Definition
bisphosphonates
Pamidronate |
|
|
Term
What treatment modality must be a last resort in Cushing's patients? |
|
Definition
Surgery; do not heal properly |
|
|
Term
What percentage of patients with Cushing's syndrome have high blood pressure?
What percentage have diabetes or insulin resistance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most significant clinical finding that is suggestive of Cushing's syndrome in a female?
What other two findings are generally very commonly found in Cushing's? |
|
Definition
Severely irregular or absent menses.
Psychiatric disturbances and profound proximal myoneuropathy. |
|
|
Term
Why don't patients with ectopic ACTH secretion present like those who have Cushing's syndrome?
What common characteristics do these patients have? |
|
Definition
They usually die before Cushing's symptoms present.
Hyperpigmentation (high MSH), cachexia, salt retention and hypokalemic alkalosis. |
|
|
Term
What diagnostic test can suggest autonomy of the adrenal glands as seen in some forms of Cushing's syndrome? |
|
Definition
low difference between morning and night cortisol levels. |
|
|
Term
What can interfere with a baseline cortisol reading used in a dexamethazone test?
What should the morning cortisol readings be after a 1mg dexamethzone screening test?
What other conditions besides Cushings can cause a low or absent response to dexamethazone? |
|
Definition
Birth control can artificially elevate cortisol levels.
Should be < 5 or < 50% of baseline
Obesity, ETOH abusers, and psychiatric patients may not suppress |
|
|
Term
What are the ACTH levels in:
Cushing's patients
Ectopic ACTH tumor
Primary adrenal gland pathology |
|
Definition
Normal to slightly high with Cushing’s disease
High to very high with
Ectopic ACTH
Low or nondetectable with
Primary adrenal gland pathology |
|
|
Term
What is the most accurate (most specific) test for Cushing's syndrome? |
|
Definition
A gadolinium MRI of the pituitary |
|
|
Term
What drug can be used to treat Cushing's disease without surgery, or in preparation for surgery?
After surgery, what will most patients require? |
|
Definition
Cyproheptadine (a serotonin inhibitor)
Exogenous cortisol and/or mineralocorticoids (florinef) |
|
|
Term
What is the best drug to use to treat an ectopic ACTH secreting tumor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient with a diagnosed adrenal tumor undergoes bilateral resection of both of his adrenal glands. After resection, the patient complains of bitemporal hemianopsila and headaches. You also note that his complexion is markedly darker than it was previously This is most likely: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency in the world?
What is this called?
What about in the united states? |
|
Definition
TB infection
Addison's disease
Autoimmune |
|
|
Term
A child with a history of adrenal insufficiency presents with nausea, a headache and a slight fever. On physical exam you also note purpura on his skin and low blood pressure. Blood tests show hyperkalemia and hyponatremia with a very slight leukopenia. You suspect:
What causes this condition?
|
|
Definition
Waterhouse Friedrickson Syndrome
Infection of the adrenals with N. meningitidis |
|
|
Term
A 42 year old female on high anticoagulant therapy is noted to have large, dense adrenal glands on MRI. An ACTH stimulation test shows a very minimal rise in blood cortisol levels. She also has psychiatric disturbances such as confusion and an impairment of consciousness. Lastly, she has frequent headaches.
What is a likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
Addisons disease due to adrenal apoplexy |
|
|
Term
How much of the adrenal gland must be destroyed by metastatic disease before clinical signs develop? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 43 year old female patient presents with a loss of 15 pounds in 3 weeks, a "darker than normal" complexion, nausea and hypotension.
Blood tests reveal a potassium level of 6.2mEq/L, Na+ level of 89 mEq/L, blood glucose of 55mg/dL, Calcium level of 12.7 (albumin of 4 Gm/dL), azotemia, and a WBC of 8,500/mm3 with a eosinophil count of 8.8%.
This is most likely: |
|
Definition
Addison's disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) |
|
|
Term
What characteristics differentiate primary adrenal insufficiency from secodnary insufficiency? |
|
Definition
With secondary insufficiency:
No hyperpigmentation
Less hypotension
Na+ and K+ tend to be normal |
|
|
Term
What test can be used to assess for adrenal insufficiency?
What results from this test can differentiate primary from secondary insufficiency? |
|
Definition
Rapid cosyntropin (semisynthetic ACTH) test
Baseline cortisol and aldosterone
Give 250mcg of drug
Check levels at 30 and 60 minutes
If both are low then primary
If cortisol is low but aldosterone responds then secondary
Cortisol level should go above 21 ng/dl
Delta in cortisol should be at least 7 ng/dl
Aldosterone should delta 14ng/dl or more |
|
|
Term
What might a person have trouble with if they take exogenous steroids for more than 10-14 days?
What is a good clinical finding to check to see if a person has this problem?
What blood test can be used for this assessment?
How might a patient protect against this problem? |
|
Definition
May not be able to adequately respond to stressful situations (cannot produce cortisol!) due to the inhibition of the stress axis and reversible ACI. This is called an adrenal crisis.
A proper response to hypoglycemia is usually a good sign.
Metapyrone test.
Increase dosage of their glucocorticoids by as much as 100-200% during stressful moments. May also need a mineralocorticoid. Try to mimic the diurinal pattern of cortisol (2/3 dose in AM, 1/3 in PM) |
|
|
Term
What should all patients with adrenal insufficiency have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the clinical appearance of a patient with primary hyperaldosteronism?
What are the blood results? |
|
Definition
None! Look normal.
Usually hypertensive
K+ low
Renin levels very low (aldosterone:renin ratio as much as 20:1)
Aldosterone levels are high
20 to 1 ratio or more
Not edematous (some escape mechanism) |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?
What other types are possible? |
|
Definition
A unilateral adrenal tumor (Conn's syndrome)
dexamethasone sensitive
idiopathic |
|
|
Term
What are the diagnostic tests and treatments for hyperaldosteronism? |
|
Definition
Diagnostic tests
Aldo/renin ratio (>20:1)
MRI or CT of adrenals
Selective adrenal vein sampling for aldo (make sure the adrenal to be removed is really the problem adrenal!)
Treatment
Surgery for Conn’s syndrome
Steroid for dexa suppressible
spironolactone |
|
|
Term
What are the signs and symptoms of pheochromocytoma?
What diagnostic tests can be used?
How can this be treated? |
|
Definition
Hypertension (sustained or episodic)
Headache
Tachycardia
Diaphoresis
Anxiety
T2 weighted image on MRI
MIBG scan
Plasma catecholamines (good first test)
Urinary metanephrines (good first test)
Selective adrenal drainage
Alpha blocker, then
Beta blocker, then
Resection |
|
|
Term
A patient who is otherwise healthy is noted as having an adrenal mass of 3.4cm in diameter when she underwent an MRI for a different condition. She is asymptomatic and has normal blood levels, including normal blood pressure. What is this and what should be done? |
|
Definition
Probably a adrenal incedentaloma
Observe |
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Term
In a pregnant woman with hypothyroidism, what would be an appropriate adjustement regarding her medication if she is currently taking levothyroxine? |
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Definition
Increase dosage by as much as 50% |
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Term
What can accelerate the clearance or inhibit the absorbtion of L-thyroxine treatment?
What is a commonly missed substance which causes malabsorption? |
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Definition
Accelerated clearance
– Rifampin
– Dilantin/tegretol
• Malabsorption
– Surgery
– Medications
• Questran
• Carafate
• Iron
• aluminum
The calcium in multivitamins can cause malabsorption; often missed due to under-reporting taking multivitamins.
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Term
What should be measured in deducing if a patient has a thyroid condition?
What if the patient is pregnant?
Has undergone pituitary surgery?
Has or has had thyroid cancer? |
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Definition
• Ultrasensitive TSH assay
• Cascade/reflex to free T4
• Pregnancy --TSH + freeT4
• Pituitary surgery –freeT4 + T3
• Thyroid cancer –TSH + free T4 +
thyroglobulin |
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Term
What hormone is elevated in pregnant women which can cause an appearance of abnormally low TSH levels to be seen on blood assay? |
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Definition
HCG through molecular mimicry |
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Term
What is an important test to try and diagnose hyperthyroidism due to Grave's disease? |
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Definition
Thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin test (LATS)
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Term
What areas are affected by Grave's disease |
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Definition
Thyroid
Eye
Shin region (Pre-tibial non pitting myxedema) |
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Term
What is a common sign of an autonomous node or group of nodes in the thyroid gland? |
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Definition
Elevated T3 levels due to overproduction of T3 by the autonomous thyroid nodes. |
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Term
Will a "hot" node or a "cold" node MORE LIKELY have cancer associated with it? |
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Definition
"Cold". Hot nodules almost never have cancer, they are just more efficient than other nodules.
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Term
What is a key differential in diagnosing DeQuervain's thyroiditis?
What would an I123 scan show in this condition?
What results with this condition transiently? |
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Definition
Pain in the neck caused by thyroid inflammation.
Low uptake
Hyperthyroidism (usually resolves as the thyroid glands recover) |
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Term
A 84 year old female in a nursing home has become less and less interested in social interation and prefers to stay in her room. She was once quite social. Blood tests reveal a TSH level of 0.9mIU/L, a total T4 level of 10.8mIU/L and a total T3 of 207mIU/L. Her TSH level in the past has usually been around 3.7mIU/L
What is a likely diagnosis? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the biggest risk of hyperthyroid induced tachicardia (thyrotachicardia)? |
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Definition
The induction of atrial fibrillation. |
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Term
Would a hyperthyroid patient of a hypothyroid patient typically present with elevated LDL? |
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Definition
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Term
What pharmacological treatments can be used to treat hyperthyroidism?
When combined, what two treatments outweigh the risks of another treatment? |
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Definition
Methamiasole
PTU
Beta Blockers
Combined use of methamisole and beta blockers has the advandage of regulating blood pressure, preventing T4-T3 conversion in the periphery (B blocker effect), and preventing the formation of thyroid hormone. This outweighs the risks of using PTU in patients (except in pregnant mothers) |
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Term
In pregnant mothers, which drug used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism has been shown to increase the risk of cutis aplasia? |
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Definition
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Term
A patient presents with a swelling in the knee region. On palpation the area is non-pitting, and has an "orange peel" appearance. This symptom is suggestive of:
What if the patient's knee WAS pitting? |
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Definition
Hyperthyroidism
Hypothyroidism |
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Term
What is Lugol's solution? |
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Definition
An iodine and potassium solution used to elicit the Wolf-Chiakoff effect. |
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Term
A pregnant mother presents with a total T4 reading of 13.7mIU/L and a total T3 reading of 265mIU/L. She is asymptomatic and has a TSH level of 3.2mIU/L
What is a likely explaination for this? |
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Definition
the hCG produced during pregnancy has the ability to mimic TSH, causing a slight elevation in T4 and T3. |
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Term
A 65 year old male has a palpable nodule in the right lobe of his thyroid gland. His last check up a year ago did not have this. Should this patient be worried about thyroid cancer?
What other risk factors would be important to consier? |
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Definition
Yes:
• Nodules appearing at the extremes of age
<20 or >60
• Males
• Rapid growth
• Exposure to external radiation
• Family Hx
• Local, asymmetric adenopathy |
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Term
A I123 scan of the thyroid is useful to detect hot nodules.
True or false: This scan is useful in detecting lobe areas which are cancerous.
What is the best way to visualize cold nodules after an I123 scan?
If a node of concern is found, what is the most cost effective way to test to see if it is malignant? |
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Definition
False: This scan is used to detect areas that are NOT cancer!
After hot nodes are visualized on I123 scan, do a ultrasound of the thyroid. This helps identify cold nodes.
A Fine-needle aspiration biopsy (guided with ultrasound usually) |
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Term
What are the 4 types of thyroid cancer? Order them from least aggressive to most aggressive.
Which tend to spread?
Which tends to indicate cancer elsewhere due to probable oncogene problems?
Which tends to be familial? What gene is involved? |
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Definition
Papillary (MC) (can indicate problems elsewhere)
Follicular (can spread to bone hemotogenously)
Medullary (familial, proto RET oncogene)
Anaplastic (can invasively spread to the trachea and other neck structures, also can be blood borne). |
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Term
After total resection of a thyroid gland due to cancer, what can be used as a biomarker for cancer still left behind? |
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Definition
Thyroglobulin (can only be produced by thyroid tissue) |
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Term
With a thyroid resin uptake test, would the T3U value of a hyperthyroid patient be high or low? Explain.
What about a hypothyroid patient?
What about a pregnant woman? What if she was hyper or hypothyroid? Explain. |
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Definition
High. More binding of thyroid hormone to binding globulins in a hyperthyroid patient makes less sites availible for labeled thyroid hormone to bind; thus more is taken up by the resin.
Low; for the inverse reasoning.
A pregnant woman has more thyroid binding globulin, thus she will appear to have hypothyroidism.
A hypothyroidal pregnant woman would have the LOWEST value of T3U for the reasons above.
A hyperthyroidal pregnant woman may appear NORMAL for the reasons above. |
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Term
What is the difference between primary, secondary and teritiary hyperparathyroidism? |
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Definition
Primary: A tumor causing hypersecretion of PTH, causing hypercalcemia.
Secondary: parathyroid gland over-secretion due to chronig hypocalcemia (low dietary intake, etc.) Can cause parathyroid gland hyperplasia.
Tertiary: as a result of chronic secondary hyperparathyroidism, the parathyroid glands may become autonomous and hyperplastic, oversecreting PTH. |
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