Quiz 5

1. At what point should the ongoing assessment be performed?

a. Upon completing patient interventions

b. Prior to the detailed assessment

c. Prior to treating life-threatening injuries

d. Upon arrival at the hospital

2.  Your patient is a 24-year-old female who swallowed a handful of an unknown type of pills. Although she was initially alert and oriented with no complaints, you note that she is now beginning to slur her words and is becoming progressively lethargic. What is the highest priority in dealing with this patient?

a. Checking the patient's pupil size and reactivity to light

b. Maintaining an open airway

c. Notifying the receiving facility of the change in mental status

d. Finding out exactly what she took

3.  

Your patient is a 23-year-old male with a stab wound to the abdomen. You have bandaged the wound and are transporting the patient to a trauma center. During your assessment, you note that the bandage has become soaked with blood. What should your priority be with this patient?

a. Control the bleeding.

b. Check the patient's blood pressure.

c. Notify the receiving facility that the patient has developed arterial bleeding.

d. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position.

4.  Which of the following is FALSE in regards to the purpose of immediately documenting vital signs once they are obtained?

a. You will be able to compare each set of vital signs with the previous ones to detect trends in the patient's condition.b. You will be able to report the vital signs accurately when contacting the receiving facility.c. It may be difficult to recall the vital signs accurately later on.d. Failure to record the vital signs immediately is considered falsifying the medical record.

5.

What is the purpose of reassessing and recording findings of the ongoing assessment so they can be compared to earlier findings often called?

a. Trending

b. CQI

c. Analysis

d. Averaging

6.

As you arrive at the emergency department with an unresponsive trauma patient, the nurse asks for your trending assessment. Why is this information important to the nurse?

a. So she can determine if you understand the assessment process

b. So she can evaluate the quality of care you provided

c. So she can evaluate whether or not the patient is improving

d. So she can critique your technique of taking vital signs

7. You are transporting a victim of domestic violence, a 25-year-old female, who was struck on the head several times with a baseball bat. On the scene she was responsive to verbal stimuli and was bleeding profusely from an open head wound. During transport the patient becomes unresponsive. Which of the following should you do next?

a. Detailed physical exam

b. Initial assessment

c. Focused history and physical exam

d. Vital signs and SAMPLE history

8. You are alone in the back of the ambulance, where you are ventilating an apneic patient. Which of the following is the best way to manage the ongoing assessment?

a. Have your partner stop the ambulance every 5 minutes to help you perform an ongoing assessment.b. Stay on the scene and request additional help so you'll have someone to perform an ongoing assessment.c. Stop ventilating the patient every 5 minutes so you can perform an ongoing assessment.d. Continue ventilating the patient during transport and skip the ongoing assessment.

9. Your patient's initial vital signs were a pulse of 120 per minute and weak, a blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 24 per minute. After 15 minutes, you note that the patient now has a weak pulse of 100 per minute, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 20 per minute. Which of the following can you conclude from this information?

a. The patient will survive.

b. You can transport the patient to a lower level trauma center.

c. The patient's condition may be improving.

d. The baseline vital signs were inaccurate.

10. During your ongoing assessment you note that oxygen is not filling the reservoir bag on the non-rebreather you have placed on the patient. Which of the following should you check?

a. The liter flow of the oxygen

b. The amount of oxygen in the tank

c. The connection between the regulator and the supply tubing

        d. All of these

11. While transporting a patient in cardiac arrest to the hospital, you are performing CPR with the assistance of a fireman. When should your ongoing assessment be performed?

a. Prior to transferring care to the hospital staff

b. Prior to leaving the scene

c. En route to the hospital

d. None of these

12. Which of the following is an action of insulin?

a. Increase the circulating level of glucose in the blood

b. Increase transfer of sugar from the stomach and small intestine to the bloodstream

c. Decrease the circulating level of glucose in the blood

d. Block the uptake of sugar by the body's cells

13.

If the blood sugar level is very high, which of the following may result?

a. Excessive urination

b. Sugar in the urine

c. Excessive thirst

d. All of these

14.

The primary problem in older patients with diabetes is:

a. overproduction of insulin.

b. cells are not as responsive to insulin.

c. sugars cannot be easily digested in the stomach and small intestine.

        d. insufficient insulin production.

15. Your patient is a 44-year-old male with a history of diabetes. He is lying on the living room floor, unresponsive to all stimuli. He has a respiratory rate of 12 per minute, heart rate of 112 per minute, and is pale and sweaty. Which of the following should you do to treat this patient?

a. Apply oral glucose solution to a tongue depressor and insert it between the patient's cheek and gums.b. Place the patient in recovery position to protect the airway and place oral glucose solution under the patient's tongue.c. Place the patient in recovery position, administer oxygen and monitor his airway status.d. Encourage the patient's family to administer his insulin.

16.

Which of the following may result from hypoglycemia?

a. Bizarre behavior

b. Altered mental status

c. Brain damage

        d. All of these

17.

Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is true of hyperglycemia?

a. Its onset is more gradual.

b. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia.

c. Its onset is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors.

d. Its onset is more sudden.

18.

Which of the following conditions may be mimicked by hypoglycemia?

a. Respiratory distress

b. Intoxication

c. Heart attack

d. All of these

19.

Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an adult?

a. 150 mg/dl

b. 180 mg/dl

c. 80 mg/dl

d. 40 mg/dl

20.

Which of the following best describes a seizure?

a. Muscular convulsions

b. Fainting spell

c. Sudden change in the brain's electrical activity

        d. Loss of consciousness

21.   

Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in adults?

a. Head trauma

b. Fever

c. Withdrawal from alcohol

d. Failure to take prescribed medication

22.

In children, what is the most common cause of a seizure?

a. Fever

b. Congenital brain abnormalities

c. Poisoning

        d. Trauma

23. Your patient is a 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She has just experienced a seizure, although she has no previous history of seizures other than hypertension associated with the pregnancy. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the seizure?

a. Eclampsia

b. Trauma

c. Hypoglycemia

d. Any of these

24. Your patient is a 21-year-old female with a history of epilepsy. She is having a convulsion on your arrival. Which of the following should you do?

a. Restrain the patient's extremities to prevent injury from flailing of the arms and legs.

b. Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury.

c. Place a tongue depressor or spoon in the back of the mouth to prevent the patient from swallowing her tongue.

        d. Insert a bite block, cloth, wallet, or similar item between the patient's teeth to prevent her from biting her tongue

25.

Which of the following best describes status epilepticus?

a. Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness

b. A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body

c. A period of drowsiness following tonic-clonic seizures

d. A seizure that occurs without a known cause

26.

The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the following?

a. Stroke

b. Transient ischemic attack

c. Aphasia

d. Seizure

27.

Which of the following is the cause of most strokes?

a. A ruptured cerebral artery due to hypertension

b. A spasm in an artery supplying part of the brain

c. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain

d. A ruptured cerebral artery due to an aneurysm

28.

Which of the following is one of the most common characteristics of a stroke?

a. Projectile vomiting

b. Sudden, severe headache

c. Sudden onset of bizarre behavior

d. Weakness on one side of the body

29.

Which of the following refers to difficulty in speaking or understanding speech as a result of a stroke?

a. Ataxia

b. Aphasia

c. Hemiparesis

d. Ischemia

30. Your patient is a 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the patient, who responds, "Not until nine o'clock." How is this phenomenon best described?

a. Receptive aphasia

b. Expressive aphasia

c. Unresponsive to verbal stimuli

d. Disorientation to time

31. You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your arrival, the patient denies signs and symptoms, is alert and oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that prior to your arrival the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be "slack." Which of the following has most likely occurred?

a. The patient is suffering from aphasia.

b. The patient suffered a cerebral vascular accident.

c. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.

d. The patient has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage.

32.

The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack may last up to:

a. 1 hour.

b. 6 hours.

c. 30 minutes.

d. 24 hours.

33.  

Which of the following is the correct position of transport for a stroke patient with left-sided paralysis and a decreased level of consciousness and who is unable to maintain his or her airway?

a. Lying on the left side

b. Supine

c. Semi-sitting

d. Lying on the right side

34.  

Which of the following is characteristic of the patient with hyperglycemia?

a. Cool, moist skin, agitated behavior, and increased heart rate

b. Sudden onset of altered mental status

c. Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake

d. Flushed, hot, dry skin and a "fruity" odor of the breath

35.   

For the EMT, which of the following is the most important question to ask of a diabetic patient or his family members?

a. What kind of insulin do you take?

b. Do you have a family history of diabetes?

c. When was the last time you had something to eat?

d. Do you have a fruity taste in your mouth?

36.

Which of the following would be an acceptable substitute for the administration of commercially prepared oral glucose solution?

a. Diet soda

b. Having the patient drink a glass of milk

c. Having the patient eat something high in protein, such as a deli sandwich

d. Cake icing

Quiz 6 :

1. Which of the following structures is technically not located in the abdominal cavity?

      a. Liver

      b. Spleen

      c. Kidneys

      d. Stomach

2.Pain that originates in an organ, such as the intestines, is called ________ pain.

   a. visceral

   b. acute

   c. parietal

   d. referred

3.Which of the following is true concerning parietal pain?

    a. It arises from solid organs.

    b. It is usually intermittent in nature.

    c. It is often described as "crampy" or "colicky."

    d. It is generally localized to a particular area.

4.With the exception of the ________, most abdominal organs are not able to sense tearing sensations.

      a. colon

     b. aorta

     c. liver

     d. ovaries

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of referred pain?

a.      a. It is only felt in hollow organs.

b.      b. It is caused by psychological stress.

c.      c. It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.

d.      d. It is usually described as "crampy" or "colicky."

6.Which of the following is the main focus of the EMT's assessment and history taking of the patient with abdominal pain?

  a. Determining the possible need for immediate surgery

  b. Determining the presence of shock

  c. Determining if the patient meets criteria to refuse treatment and transport

 d. Determining the cause of the pain

7.  At which of the following stages of assessment should the EMT be alert to the possibility of shock in the patient with abdominal pain?

   a. SAMPLE history

   b. Scene size-up

   c. Initial assessment

   d. All of these

8.  Which of the following is NOT true concerning abdominal pain in geriatric patients?

 a. The elderly person may not be able to give a specific description of the pain. b. The causes of abdominal pain in the elderly are rarely serious.  c. The elderly have a decreased ability to perceive pain. d. Medications may mask signs of shock associated with an abdominal complaint.

9.   The detection of a pulsating mass upon palpation of a patient's abdomen should make the EMT suspicious that the patient may be suffering from which of the following?

  a. A hernia

 b. Gastroenteritis

   c. An ulcer

 d. An abdominal aortic aneurysm

10.    Your patient is a 35-year-old female with abdominal pain. Which of the following findings CANNOT be attributed to the patient experiencing pain?

   a. Shallow respirations

   b. Increased heart rate

   c. Decreased level of consciousness

   d. Slight increase in blood pressure

11.   Which of the following is NOT a cause of abdominal pain?

  a. Heart attack

 b. Stroke

 c. Food poisoning

 d. Diabetes

12.  Your patient is a 40-year-old female who has been experiencing abdominal pain and vomiting for two days. She is now responsive to verbal stimulus, has cool, dry skin, a heart rate of 116, respirations of 24, and a blood pressure of 100/70. Which of the following is the best position for transporting this patient?

 a. Supine with the knees bent

  b. Sitting up at a 45 degree angle

  c. Sitting up at a 90 degree angle

  d. Left lateral recumbent with the legs bent

13.  Your patient is a 17-year-old with a history of asthma. She is complaining of pain in her lower abdomen. Assessment reveals that her breath sounds are clear and equal, she has a respiratory rate of 28 per minute, a heart rate of 96 per minute, and a blood pressure of 112/74 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate?

a. Have the patient breathe into a paper bag to rebreathe some of her carbon dioxide.b. Provide high-flow oxygen.c. Assist the patient in the administration of her metered-dose inhaler.d. All of these.

14.   Which of the following is a general term for a substance to which the body may have an anaphylactic reaction?

a. Pyrogen

b. Allergen

c. Antibody

d. Pathogen

  15.  What is another name for a severe allergic reaction?

a. Anaphylaxis

b. Asthma

c. Psychosomatic reaction

d. Dermatitis

16.   Which of the following does NOT commonly lead to anaphylaxis?

a. Wasps

b. Sulfa drugs

c. Cat dander

d. Peanuts

17.  As you prepare to enter a patient's room in a nursing home, you see a sign posted on the door indicating that the patient has a latex allergy. Which of the following is the best way to care for the patient?a. Put on latex gloves anyway; you must protect yourself with BSI.b. Ask the nursing staff if the patient has an epinephrine auto-injector available in case of a reaction to your gloves.c. Ask the nursing facility staff to find synthetic exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient.d. Only perform a history on this patient, not a physical exam, so you can avoid contacting him with your gloves

18.  A severe allergic reaction will usually occur within what time period following exposure to the substance to which the patient is allergic?

a. 2 to 4 minutes

b. 15 to 30 minutes

c. 10 to 15 minutes

d. 30 minutes to 2 hours

19.  Which of the following concerning severe allergic reactions is true?

a. Allergies do not develop until a person is in their late teens to early 20s.b. The quicker the onset of symptoms, the greater the likelihood of a severe allergic reaction.c. A severe allergic reaction can be prevented by the use of an epinephrine auto-injector prior to exposure to the substance.d. A severe allergic reaction occurs only when the patient has never been exposed to the substance before

20.  Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the skin?

a. Itching

b. Flushing

c. Cyanosis

d. Hives

21.  Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic reaction?

 a. Wheezing

 b. Fine, wet crackles or rales

c. Coarse sounding rhonchi

d. Clear, adequate air movement

22.  Which of the following is included in the initial assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic shock?

 a. Looking for hives and swelling

 b. Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic

 c. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty

d. Determining whether the patient's systolic blood pressure is over 100 mmHg

23.  You are managing a patient who has been stung by a bee and has had an allergic reaction to bee stings in the past. The patient has some localized redness and swelling in the area of the bee sting but is not having difficulty breathing. Of the following, which would be performed first for this patient?

a. Perform a head-to-toe exam.

b. Advise him to take an oral antihistamine, such as Benadryl.

c. Continue the focused assessment.

d. Assist him with his epinephrine auto-injector.

24.  Your patient is experiencing signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. Which of the following is a priority in this patient's care?

a. Administer oxygen by non-rebreathing mask.

b. Assist her with her epinephrine auto-injector.

c. Decontaminate the patient by flushing with copious amounts of water.

d. Begin rapid transport.

25.  Which of the following explains why a patient may experience difficulty breathing during anaphylaxis?

a. Allergens clump together and block blood flow through the lungs

b. Swelling of the airway tissues

c. Allergens bind to hemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen

d. Swelling in the brain decreases the respiratory drive

26.  Which of the following is the adult dosage of subcutaneous epinephrine in anaphylaxis?

a. 30 mg

b. 3 mg

c. 0.3 mg

d. 0.03 mg

27.  Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed to him. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?a. Assist him with the administration of his epinephrine auto-injector.b. Transport the patient rapidly before the onset of anaphylaxis. c. Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood.                 d. Advise the patient that he does not require treatment and transport at this time.

28.  Your patient is a 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty breathing, and she has hives, watery eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the best course of immediate action?

 a. Insert an oropharyngeal airway.

 b. Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is.

 c. Transport immediately.

 d. Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector.

29.   Within what period of time should the EMT expect most anaphylaxis patients to respond to the administration of subcutaneous epinephrine?

a. Within 20 minutes

b. Within 10 minutes

c. Within 15 to 30 seconds

d. Within 2 minutes

30.  Your patient has a history of severe anaphylaxis and carries several auto-injectors. You have administered one of the auto-injectors, but the patient's condition continues to worsen. Which of the following is the next best course of action?

a. Immediately administer a second auto-injector.

b. Contact medical control.

c. Divert transport to a hospital with critical care capabilities.

d. Continue supportive care en route to the hospital.

31.  After activating the auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the patient's thigh?

a. 1 minute

b. 30 seconds

c. 10 seconds

d. It should be removed from the injection site immediately.

32.   A 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition?

a. Shock

b. Mild allergy

c. Dyspnea

d. Anaphylaxis

33.  You are transporting a 41-year-old female suffering from severe anaphylaxis. Her respiratory rate is 42 per minute, she is cyanotic, and she has a decreased level of responsiveness. Which of the following is the highest priority of care for this patient?

a. Transport rapidly.

b. Assist ventilations with a BVM.

c. Search for an epinephrine auto-injector.

d. Elevate the patient's head.

34.  You are treating a 28-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant. She has a history of bee sting anaphylaxis and was stung by a bee while in the garden. She is having severe respiratory distress and her blood pressure is 72/50 mmHg. Which of the following is the best option for the EMT?

 a. Transport rapidly, bypassing the emergency department and taking the patient directly to the obstetrics unit of the hospital.

b. Do not administer the EpiPen under any circumstances.

c. Administer the EpiPen only on the advice of medical control.

d. Immediately administer the patient's EpiPen.

35.  You are unsure if a patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?

a. Consult with a paramedic on your service for advice.

b. Administer the epinephrine; better safe than sorry.

c. Ask a family member if this is the type of situation when the patient usually takes his auto-injector.

d. None of these.

36.  If a patient was having a myocardial infarction, not an allergic reaction, and received an epinephrine auto-injection, which of the following would be most likely to occur?

a. The medication is harmless if administered inadvertently.

b. Bradycardia

c. Make the heart beat stronger and faster

d. Relief of shortness of breath

Quiz 1

1. Which of the following best describes the purpose of modern emergency medical services (EMS) systems?

 a. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital b. To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm"c. To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of emergency medical cared. To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene

2.  Which of the following agencies is responsible for developing and updating the National Standard Curriculum for EMT-Basic training programs?

  a. The U.S. Department of Emergency Medical Services

 b. The U.S. Department of the Interior

 c. The U.S. Department of Homeland Security

 d. The U.S. Department of Transportation

3.   The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians was founded to establish which of the following?

a. Professional standards for emergency medical services personnel

b. Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices

c. Specifications for emergency ambulance design

d. Safety guidelines for the protection of EMS personnel

4.  Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT?

a.       a. Protect and stabilize the patient.

b.       b. Communicate with other responders on the scene.

c.       c. Provide emergency care.

d.       d. Maintain his own health and safety.

5. Which of the following is an example of patient advocacy?

a.       a. Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury

b.       b. Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath

c.       c. Building a rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital

d.       d. All of these

6.  Which of the following is NOT a role the EMT should take in the quality improvement process?

a.       a. Obtaining feedback from patients and hospital staff

b.       b. Keeping carefully written documentation

c.       c. Maintaining the equipment on the ambulance in proper working order

d.       d. All of these are the role of the EMT in the quality improvement process.

7.  Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs in services in which they work or volunteer?

a.       a. To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan for them

b.       b. To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence

c.       c. To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted

d.       d. To guarantee that the public receives quality emergency medical care

8.  Who is the person who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT?

a.       a. Director of quality assurance

b.       b. EMS supervisor

c.       c. EMT

d.       d. Medical director

9.  Which of the following best describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing different emergency medical situations?

a.       a. Protocols

b.       b. Standard operating procedures

c.       c. On-line medical direction

d.       d. Standing orders

10.  Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system?

a.       a. Quality improvement

b.       b. Total quality management

c.       c. Quality assurance

d.       d. System effectiveness management

11.  What best defines direction given to the EMT-Basic by a physician over the telephone or radio?

a.       a. Verbal medical direction

b.       b. Virtual medical direction

c.       c. Off-line medical direction

d.       d. On-line medical direction

12.  The application of oxygen for a patient that is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department is an example of which of the following?

a.       a. On-line medical direction

b.       b. Standards of care

c.       c. Breach of duty

d.       d. Standing orders

13.   Which of the following descriptions best describes the term "pathogen"?

a.       a. A medication taken after exposure to an infectious disease

b.       b. An organism that causes infection and disease

c.       c. A substance that helps the body fight infection

d.       d. A helpful organism found in the body that helps promote healing

14.   What is another term to describe the items needed for standard precautions or body substance isolation precautions?

a.       a. Infection control

b.       b. Acquired immunity

c.       c. Personal protective equipment

d.       d. Biohazardous material protection

15.   When covering a patient's mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is the primary risk?

a.       a. Interfering with the patient's circulation

b.       b. Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway

c.       c. Interfering with the ability to communicate with the patient

d.       d. Upsetting the patient

16.  Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response experienced in response to a stressor?

a.       a. Central nervous system

b.       b. Parasympathetic nervous system

c.       c. Sympathetic nervous system

d.       d. Brain

17.  Which of the following is a critical hormone in the body's ability to adapt to and cope with stress?

a.       a. Cortisol

b.       b. Testosterone

c.       c. Epinephrine

d.       d. Adrenalin

18.  Which of the following is a term for the body's response to stress?

a.       a. General sympathetic syndrome

b.       b. General adjustment syndrome

c.       c. General adaptation syndrome

d.       d. General relaxation syndrome

19.   Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for weeks and thus should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment?

a.       a. Hepatitis A

b.       b. Tuberculosis

c.       c. Hepatitis B

d.       d. AIDS

20.   Of the following, which is the lowest priority of the EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

a.       a. Safety of others

b.       b. Personal safety

c.       c. Recognizing potential problems

d.       d. Assessment and treatment of the ill and injured

21.   What is the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected of and limitations placed on the EMT?

a.       a. Licensing requirements

b.       b. Professional responsibility

c.       c. Scope of practice

d.       d. Legal duty

22.   Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult?

a.       a. Expressed consent

b.       b. Unconditional consent

c.       c. Implied consent

d.       d. Conscious consent

23.  Which of the following conditions creates the most liability for an EMT who allows refusal of care and transport?

a.       a. The patient willingly signs a release of liability form.

b.       b. The patient and EMT do not share a common language.

c.       c. The patient states he is fully aware of the consequences of not seeking medical care.

d.       d. None of these would create liability; the EMT is protected by the Good Samaritan law.

24.   If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision?

a.       a. Begin resuscitative measures.

b.       b. Consult with the patient's physician.

c.       c. Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing.

d.       d. Withhold resuscitative measures.

25.  What is sharing a patient's medical history with a person not involved in his care without written legal authorization by the patient?

a.       a. Negligence

b.       b. Libel

c.       c. Breach of confidentiality

d.       d. Slander

26.  A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following?

a.       a. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma

b.       b. Two fractures in the same femur

c.       c. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh

d.       d. Fractures of both femurs

27.   With regard to anatomical locations, which of the following is NOT true?

a.       a. The mouth is proximal to the nose.

b.       b. The foot is distal to the knee.

c.       c. The umbilicus is located on the ventral aspect of the body.

d.       d. The ears are located on the lateral aspect of the head.

28.   Which of the following best describes the location of the mid-axillary line?

a.       a. A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body

b.       b. A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone

c.       c. A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel

d.       d. A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest

29.   Which of the following best describes the Trendelenburg position?

a.       a. Lying on the side with the legs drawn up and the arms clasped around them

b.       b. Semi-sitting

c.       c. Lying on the side

d.       d. Lying on the back with head lower than the legs

30.  What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine?

a.       a. Sacral and coccygeal

b.       b. Lumbar and sacral

c.       c. Cervical and lumbar

d.       d. Cervical and thoracic

31.    What is the large, wing-shaped bone on either side of the pelvis?

a.       a. Acetabulum

b.       b. Ischium

c.       c. Pubis

d.       d. Ilium

32.    What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs?

a.       a. Smooth muscles

b.       b. Skeletal muscles

c.       c. Striated muscles

d.       d. Voluntary muscles

33.   Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles?

a.       a. Expiration

b.       b. Gas exchange

c.       c. Inspiration

d.       d. Bifurcation

34.  Which of the following types of blood vessel allows the exchange of substances between the blood and the cells of the body?

a.       a. Arterioles

b.       b. Capillaries

c.       c. Alveoli

d.       d. Venules

35.    What is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart?

a.       a. Right ventricle

b.       b. Right atrium

c.       c. Left atrium

d.       d. Left ventricle

36.    Which of the following best describes the medical condition of shock?

a.       a. Hypotension

b.       b. Delayed capillary refill

c.       c. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event

d.       d. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion

37.   Failure of the liver would result in which of the following?

a.       a. Inability to secrete insulin

b.       b. Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells

c.       c. Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream

d.       d. None of these

38.    Which of the following structures best describes the makeup of the torso?

a.       a. Thorax, abdomen, pelvis, lower extremities

b.       b. Region from the nipple-line to the navel

c.       c. Thorax and abdomen

d.       d. Head, neck, thorax, abdomen

39.    A patient with a pulse rate of 120 beats per minute is considered which of the following?

a.       a. Dyscardiac

b.       b. Tachycardic

c.       c. Normocardic

d.       d. Bradycardic

40.     Which of the following is NOT a category used to describe respiratory quality?

a.       a. Noisy

b.       b. Abnormal

c.       c. Normal

d.       d. Labored

41.    Which of the following is the best way to assess a patient's skin temperature?

a.       a. Place the back of your hand against the patient's abdomen.

b.       b. Place your cheek against the patient's forehead.

c.       c. Place your cheek against the patient's abdomen.

d.       d. Place the back of your hand against the patient's forehead.

42.     Which of the following best describes the normal size of the pupils under normal lighting conditions?

a.       a. Dilated

b.       b. Constricted

c.       c. Midpoint

d.       d. Pinpoint

43.    What is the pressure remaining in the arteries after the pulse wave has passed through?

a.       a. Diastolic blood pressure

b.       b. Resting blood pressure

c.       c. Venous pressure

d.       d. Systolic blood pressure

44.   Vital signs should be reassessed every ________ minutes for a stable patient.

a.       a. 5

b.       b. 20

c.       c. 15

d.       d. 10

45.   Upon assessment of your patient, you notice that he has cool, sweaty skin. This finding is best described as which of the following?

a.       a. A diagnosis

b.       b. A sign

c.       c. A symptom

d.       d. A complaint

46.  At what point should the vital signs and SAMPLE history be obtained?

a.       a. During the initial assessment

b.       b. During the scene size-up

c.       c. During the primary survey

d.       d. During the focused history and physical exam

47.    Which of the following describes the midline of the body?

a.       a. An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion

b.       b. An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves

c.       c. The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus

d.       d. An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion

48.    Which of the following describes Fowler's position?

a.       a. Lying on the side

b.       b. Sitting upright with the legs straight

c.       c. Lying flat on the back

d.       d. Lying on the stomach

49.   What are the small bones that make up the wrist called?

a.       a. Tarsals

b.       b. Metacarpals

c.       c. Metatarsals

d.       d. Carpals

50.   What is the ability of the heart muscle that describes its ability to generate its own electrical impulses called?

a.       a. Conductivity

b.       b. Irritability

c.       c. Automaticity

d.       d. Contractility

Quiz 2

1. Which one of the following factors should be considered prior to lifting any patient?

a.      a. Your physical limitations

b.      b. Communications

c.      c. The weight of the patient

d.      d. All of these

2.  Where should you position the weight of the object being lifted?

a.      a. An arm's length away from the body

b.      b. As close to the body as possible

c.      c. Below your waist

d.      d. As far from the body as possible

3.  Which of the following is NOT correct body mechanics when using the power lift?

a.      a. Your back should be locked in.

b.      b. Raise your lower body prior to your upper body.

c.      c. Keep the weight primarily on the balls of your feet.

d.      d. Raise your upper body prior to your lower body.

4.  How many pounds are most battery-powered hydraulic systems rated to safely lift?

a.      a. 300

b.      b. 200

c.      c. 700

d.      d. 500

5. How far apart should your hands be when using a power grip?

a.      a. 12 inches

b.      b. 24 inches

c.      c. 10 inches

d.      d. 15 inches

6.   When moving an object across the floor, which of the following is the best technique?

a.      a. Stand behind the object and push it in front of you.

b.      b. Face away from the object and walk forward, pulling it behind you.

c.      c. Face the object and walk backward, pulling it toward you.

d.      d. Place your back against the object and push backwards with your legs to move the object.

7.  During an emergency move, which of the following techniques should be used, whenever possible, to minimize the possibility of further aggravating a possible spinal injury?

a.      a. Pull the patient from the feet, not the shoulders.

b.      b. Move the patient sideways, alternating moving the shoulders, then the hips.

c.      c. Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body.

d.      d. Roll the patient over.

8.  Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log-roll?

a.      a. Keep your back straight.

b.      b. Use your shoulder muscles.

c.      c. Roll the patient away from you.

d.      d. Lean forward from the hips.

9.  Which of the following patients should NOT be transported in a stair chair?

a.      a. A patient with difficulty breathing

b.      b. A patient who is nauseated

c.      c. A patient found lying in bed

d.      d. A patient with a suspected spinal injury

10. The structures within the lung that allow exchange of gasses with the bloodstream are known as:

a. a. bronchioles.

b. b. pleura.

c.  c. carina.

     d.  d. alveoli.

11.   Which of the following structures is found in the lower airway?

a.      a. Bronchi

b.      b. Pharynx

c.      c. Tonsils

d.      d. Uvula

12.  The point at which the trachea divides into the two main stem bronchi is called the:

a.      a. xiphoid process.

b.      b. hypopharynx.

c.      c. carina.

d.      d. sternal notch.

13.  Which of the following is the best description of inadequate breathing?

a.      a. The respiratory rate is slower than normal.

b.      b. The minute volume is greater than normal.

c.      c. The respiratory rate is faster than normal.

d.      d. The minute volume is less than normal.

14.  You have arrived at the scene of a call for a "man down." As you enter the residence you note that your patient is a male in his mid-60s who is awake but does not seem to acknowledge your presence. He is perspiring profusely, has cyanosis of his ears and lips, and has rapid, shallow respirations. Which of the following should you do first?

a.      a. Obtain the patient's medical history.

b.      b. Listen to his lung sounds.

c.      c. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask and supplemental oxygen.

d.      d. Check for a radial pulse.

15.  Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway?

a.      a. It can only be placed in the right nostril.

b.      b. The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal airways.

c.      c. The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum.

d.      d. If water soluble lubricant is not available, a silicon spray can be substituted.

16.  Which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the airway of a pediatric patient?

a.      a. Due to their short necks, pediatric patients require a greater degree of hyperextension to open the airway than do adults.

b.      b. Gastric distention is unlikely.

c.      c. The tongue is not as likely to obstruct the airway as in an adult.

d.      d. The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling.

17. Your patient is a 4-year-old male who was struck by a vehicle and is now unresponsive with an obvious head injury. As you are ventilating him with a bag-valve-mask device, you detect increasing resistance to ventilation. Which of the following should you do?

a.      a. Perform a head-tilt, chin-lift to ensure that the airway is open.

b.      b. Stop ventilations for one to two minutes to allow trapped air to escape from the lungs.

c.      c. Switch to a flow-restricted oxygen-powered ventilation device.

d.      d. Check your rate of ventilation.

18.  You are transporting a 44-year-old female with chest pain and sudden respiratory distress. She is agitated and anxious and refuses to have a non-rebreather applied. Which of the following is the best option?

a.      a. Do not make further attempts to administer oxygen as it will only agitate the patient further.

b.      b. Consult with medical control about restraining the patient.

c.      c. Use a nasal cannula instead.

d.      d. Have her breathe into a paper bag to control her hyperventilation.

19.      Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of breath, leaning forward to breathe, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this patient?a. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minuteb. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device.c. You should not increase the patient's oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing.

20.  Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene size-up?

a.       a. Potential hazards to the EMS crew

b.       b. Mechanism of injury

c.       c. The need for additional resources

d.       d. Chief complaint

21.    At what point is the scene size-up completed?

a.       a. When the number of patients has been determined

b.       b. At the end of the call

c.       c. When crashed vehicles have been stabilized

d.       d. When initial patient contact is made

22.   Which of the following is NOT a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing the size of the danger zone?

a.       a. Wind direction

b.       b. Fire

c.       c. The amount of equipment needed

d.       d. Presence of hazardous materials

23.   Which of the following is NOT true concerning the potential for violence at the scene of an EMS call?

a.       a. Signs of impending violence are obvious if you know what to look for.

b.       b. An unusual lack of activity at the scene may signal impending violence against the EMT.

c.       c. There is an association between alcohol use and the potential for violence.

d.       d. Some addresses or locations should automatically increase your awareness of the potential for violence.

24.  Your patient is a 29-year-old female who was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger's side door by a vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred?

a. The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.b. The patient took the "down and under" pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities.c. The patient took the "up and over" pathway, striking her head on the windshield.d. The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine.

25.   Which of the following is NOT a consideration when assessing the mechanism of injury and forming an index of suspicion about particular injuries in a motor vehicle collision?

a.       a. Speed of the vehicle at the moment of impact

b.       b. Whether or not the patient had ingested alcohol prior to the collision

c.       c. Where the patient was sitting in the vehicle before the crash

d.       d. Whether or not the patient was wearing a seat belt

26.   When considering the potential for injury from a fall, which of the following is LEAST important?

a.       a. The height of the fall

b.       b. Whether the patient struck anything with his body on the way down

c.       c. The patient's weight

d.       d. The type of surface onto which the patient fell

27.  Which of the following best describes blunt force trauma?

a.       a. The object is not sharp, but, it penetrates the body when enough force is used.

b.       b. The object penetrates soft tissue, but, it cannot penetrate bone.

c.       c. An object strikes the body, but, it does not penetrate the body tissues.

d.       d. All of these are considered blunt force trauma.

28.   Which of the following situations requires action by the EMT during scene size-up?

a.       a. The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence

b.       b. A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of a vehicle collision

c.       c. A vehicle collision involving a tractor-trailer that has a placard indicating it is carrying a corrosive substance

d.       d. All of these

29.  As you arrive at the scene of a house fire a very upset man screams at you to help his young son, who is trapped under a piece of burning wood on the ground. Which of the following should you do first?

a. Size-up the scene before acting.

b. Use a blanket to put out the fire on the piece of wood.

c. Perform an initial assessment on the patient.

      d. With the father's help, grab the boy by the arms and pull him from underneath the wood.

30.   The first step in the focused history and physical exam of any trauma patient is to reconsider which of the following?

a.       a. Glasgow Coma Scale score

b.       b. Scene size-up

c.       c. Trauma severity score

d.       d. Mechanism of injury

31.  You are dispatched on a call for chest pain. On your arrival, a neighbor of the patient tells you, "I saw Mr. Fields fall down his porch steps. He hit his head and he's bleeding." You enter the residence and find Mr. Fields lying on the floor. He says," I have a cramping feeling in my guts." As you begin your assessment, the patient goes into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the chief complaint?

a.       a. A cramping feeling in his guts

b.       b. Fell down the stairs and cut his head

c.       c. Chest pain

d.       d. Cardiac arrest

32.   When a patient describes what or how he feels, he is telling you which of the following?

a.       a. His diagnosis

b.       b. His syndrome

c.       c. His symptoms

d.       d. His signs

33.  Which of the following statements regarding cervical collars is true?

a.       a. There may be some patients for whom a properly sized cervical collar is not manufactured.

b.       b. A proper sizing of a cervical collar is based on the width of the patient's neck.

c.       c. Most cervical collars are measured in French sizes, based on their internal diameter.

d.       d. A properly positioned cervical collar allows for examination of the back of the neck.

34.  For a patient whom you have assigned a high transport priority, you should consider all of the following EXCEPT:

a.       a. not moving the patient until all extremities have been splinted.

b.       b. reassessing the patient's mental status.

c.       c. calling for advanced life support.

d.       d. transporting the patient to the nearest trauma center, even if it is not the closest hospital.

35.  Which of the following is the preferred way to determine the mechanism of injury at the scene?

    a. Ask the first person on the scene or any bystanders how severe they think the mechanism is.

    b. Ask law enforcement for their professional opinion.

    c. Make your own assessment of the mechanism.

        d. Check the Department of Transportation Emergency Response Guidebook.

36.  Your patient is a 35-year-old male patient involved in a high speed vehicle collision. The patient is not entrapped, but you have determined the patient is a high priority for transport due to suspected internal bleeding. The trauma center is 15 minutes away, and an ALS response unit is 10 minutes away. Which of the following is the best decision?a. Begin transport and meet the ALS unit en route to the hospital.b. Transport the patient to the hospital.                                                  c. Call for an ALS transporting unit and stabilize the patient on the scene.                                                                                                                  d. Request helicopter evacuation of the patient.

37.  You are treating a 59-year-old man who was severely beaten during a mugging. His respirations are inadequate and you notice he has a stoma. Which of the following is the next step in his management? a. Request ALS assistance while continuing your initial assessment.b. Consult with medical direction regarding the use of a flow-restricted oxygen-powered ventilation device.                                 c. Ventilate by bag-valve-mask over the nose and mouth as usual.d. Ventilate the patient through the stoma using a bag valve mask with supplemental oxygen using a pediatric mask over the stoma.

38.  Your patient was a driver in a lateral impact motor vehicle accident. During the assessment of his chest, the EMT notes a segment of the chest wall moving in the opposite direction from the rest of the chest. Which of the following best describes this finding?

a.       a. Tension pneumothorax

b.       b. Paradoxical movement

c.       c. A flutter segment

d.       d. Intercostal retractions

39.  Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching sensation felt when air has escaped from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin is called:

a.       a. infiltration.

b.       b. crepitus.

c.       c. friction rub.

d.       d. subcutaneous emphysema.

40.   The term "priapism" means ________ and may be found in injuries of the ________.

a.       a. a painful muscle spasm; spine

b.       b. a persistent penile erection; spine

c.       c. abnormal pulsation; abdomen

d.       d. unequal pupils; brain

41.  Your patient is a 27-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle that then rolled over on her. She is complaining of pain in her pelvic region. Which of the following techniques should be used to assess the injury?

a.       a. Perform a rectal exam to check for blood.

b.       b. Place your hands on the patient's hips and gently compress the hips.

c.       c. Place your hands on the patient's hips and rock the pelvis back and forth.

d.       d. Do not palpate the pelvis.

42.  Your patient is a 22-year-old college student complaining of abdominal pain. She is alert and oriented, although somewhat uncomfortable. Which of the following should be your first action?

a.       a. Take the patient's roommate aside and ask about the patient's medical history.

b.       b. Ask the patient to describe the pain and find out if she has other complaints.

c.       c. Palpate the patient's abdomen for tenderness and guarding.

d.       d. Perform a rapid head-to-toe physical examination.

43.  After assisting Mrs. Peterson take two of her nitroglycerin tablets, she states her chest pain is completely gone. She has just informed you that she does not wish to be transported to the hospital. Which of the following should you do next?

a. Attempt to find out why she does not wish to go to the hospital.b. Have a family member keep an eye on her and call 9-1-1 if the pain returns.c. Transport her under the assumption that she is not competent to consent.d. Have her sign a waiver or release of liability and return to service.

44.   For a patient without a previous history of chest pain, which of the following questions would be most useful in obtaining the history of a patient with a complaint of chest pain?

a.       a. Does this pain make you think you're having a heart attack?

b.       b. Would you say the pain is crushing and heavy?

c.       c. How would you describe the way the pain feels?

d.       d. Has anyone in your family had pain like this?

45.  For which of the following patients is a focused physical examination appropriate?

a.       a. A 30-year-old male with a history of diabetes and who is found unresponsive by his son

b.       b. A 19-year-old female with a history of epilepsy and who is found responsive to painful stimuli only by her roommate

c.       c. A 70-year-old male with dementia whose caretaker called because he "didn't seem like himself today"

d.       d. A 25-year-old female with a history of asthma and who is complaining of difficulty breathing

46.  Immediately following a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive medical patient, which of the following should you do next?

a.       a. Find out who the patient's doctor is.

b.       b. Obtain baseline vital signs.

c.       c. Perform a focused physical exam.

d.       d. Check the scene for medications.

47.  For which of the following patients would a focused physical exam be appropriate?

a.       a. A 28-year-old man complaining of a rash on his legs

b.       b. An 80-year-old woman who could not be awakened from her nap

c.       c. A 36-year-old female who is drowsy and confused

d.       d. A 45-year-old male with slurred speech, weakness, and a headache

48.  In the assessment of a responsive medical patient, which of the following will provide you with the most important information?

a.       a. Focused physical exam

b.       b. Detailed physical exam

c.       c. Baseline vital signs

d.       d. The patient's medical history

49.  Your patient is a 66-year-old man complaining of a headache for the past two days. Which of the following should be done during a focused physical examination?

a. Palpating the abdomen

b. Taking the patient's blood pressure

c. Inspecting the scalp

      d. Listening to breath sounds

50.   You have just arrived on the scene where a 25-year-old woman is unresponsive to voice and painful stimuli. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of EMT-B actions?

a. Head-tilt, chin-lift, rapid physical exam, baseline vital signs

b. Obtain baseline vital signs, get a history from bystanders, perform a focused physical exam

c. Check for a pulse, obtain a SAMPLE history, perform a rapid physical exam

d. Place the patient in recovery position, obtain blood pressure, look for medical alert jewelry

Quiz 3

1.   Which of the following best describes a base station?

A.  Two-way radio at a fixed site

B.  Device used to receive and then amplify transmissions that must be carried over long distances

C.  Two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

D.  Two-way radio mounted in a vehicle  

2.  Which of the following best describes an EMS provider's "sixth sense"?

                 A. General impression

                 B. Scene safety

                 C. Clinical judgement

                 D. Diagnostic ability

3.   Which of the following is NOT assessed during the "Breathing" phase of the initial assessment?

A.  Determining the presence of respirations

B. Determining the depth of respiration

C. Obtaining a pulse oximetry reading

D. Counting the respiratory rate

4. In EMS, which of the following best describes the term "intervention"?

A.  Creating a permanent record of patient care

B.  Determining if there is a problem

C.  Steps taken to correct a problem

D.  Decreasing the EMT's liability for negligence

5.  Which of the following best describes a repeater?

A. A two-way radio at a fixed site

B.A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

C.A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle

D.A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances

6.   Which of the following may vary from one ambulance service to another?

A. When a radio report is required

B.Terminology for expressing the priority level of the transport or response mode

C.Terms used to acknowledge a radio transmission

D.All of these 

7.  You are responding to a nursing home for an 85-year-old patient complaining of difficulty breathing. How would you initiate contact with this patient?

A.Pick up the patient's wrist and begin taking her pulse.

B.Place yourself at eye-level, identify yourself, and ask the patient what she would like to be called.

C.Stand near the head of the bed and shout to make sure the patient can hear you.

D.Sit on the foot of the bed and ask the patient what's up.

8.  For which of the following patients would capillary refill be a reliable sign of circulatory status?

A.A 3-year-old child with a fever and cough

B.A 50-year-old woman complaining of chest pain

C.A 92-year-old man complaining of weakness on his right side

D.A 24-year-old homeless man who has spent the night outside in the rain

9.   Which of the following best describes the importance of effective communication of patient information in the verbal report?

A.Changes in the patient's condition can be communicated.

B.Patient treatment can be based on this information

C.Additional information that was not given in the radio report can be provided.

D.All of these

10.  Your patient is a 43-year-old woman with chest pain. You have called the communications center and asked for an ALS unit to be dispatched to your location. While en route, the ALS unit calls you for a report. Which information is most important to the ALS unit at this time?

A.The patient's level of consciousness and chief complaint

B.Patient's medications

C.Patient's past medical history

D.The length of time you have been on the scene

11.  You have arrived on the scene at a high school football field where a 17-year-old male is lying on the ground. He is unresponsive and cyanotic, and he is making obvious respiratory effort without moving adequate amounts of air. Which of the following should be done first?

A.Apply high-flow oxygen by non-rebreather mask.

B.Open the patient's airway using a manual maneuver.

C.Insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway.

D.Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.

12.  After you give your radio report to the hospital, your patient loses consciousness. Which of the following should you do next?

A.Notify dispatch of a change to emergent transport mode

B.Reassess the patient.

C.Immediately notify the hospital of a change in patient priority.

D.None of these

14.  What best defines the immediate sense of the patient's degree of distress, formulated from the patient's immediate environment, appearance, and chief complaint?

A.General impression

B.Focused exam

C.Initial assessment

D.Scene size-up

15.  Which of the following statements regarding eye contact with a patient is NOT true?

A.  It shows you are interested in the patient

B.  It shows you are attentive.

C.  Eye contact is always appropriate.

D.  It shows you are confident

16.  Which of the following is part of the minimum data set developed by the U.S. DOT for purposes of data collection in conducting research?

A.Patient's name

B.Patient's insurance coverage

C.Amount charged for ambulance services

D.Time of arrival at the patient

17.  The portion of the patient care report in which the EMT writes his description of the patient's presentation, assessment findings, treatment, and transport information is called the:

A.narrative

B.data set.

C.text.

D.deposition.

18.  Which of the following is NOT performed during the "Airway" phase of the initial assessment?

A.Suctioning

B.Obtaining the respiratory rate

C.Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway

D.Head-tilt, chin-lift

19.   Which of the following is NOT an objective element of documented patient information?

A.Position in which patient was found

B.Patient's age