Term
Acute unilateral paralysis of cranial facial nerve VII related to postinfectious viral neuritis is referred to as:
A. Bells Palsy
B. Erbs Palsy
C. Brachial plexus injury
D. Placiocephaly |
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Definition
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Term
Bacterial infection transmitted placentally characterized by frontal bossing, depressed nasal bridge, chronic rhinitis, facial lesions circumorally is:
A. Micrognathia
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Congenital Syphilis
D. Down Syndrome |
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Definition
C. Congenital Syphilis
p. 111 |
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Term
Ventricle enlargement in dura cuase by increase production and blockage of or impaired absorption of csf; increased head circumference is:
A. Plagiocephaly
B. Potter's syndrome
C.Down syndrome
D. Hydrocephalus
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Definition
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Term
Microcephaly, short palpebral fissures, wide and flattened philtrum/thin lips; developmental delay:
A. Fetal alcohol syndrome
B. Down Syndrome
C. Potters syndrome
D. Turners Syndrome |
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Definition
A. Fetal alcohol syndrome |
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Term
Renal agenesis characterized by low set ears broad nose, underdeveloped chin line, blank appearance:
A. Turners Syndrome
B. Potters Syndrome
C. Down syndrome |
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Definition
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Term
Underdeveloped Mandible:
A. Torticollis
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Micrognathia
D. Plagiocephaly |
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Definition
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Term
Genetic disorder, a female phenotype characterized by short stature, webbed neck, pectus excavatum, primary ammenorrhea, no development of secondary sexual characteristics:
A. Potters syndrome
B. Fetal alcohol syndrome
C. Turners syndrome
D. Down syndrome |
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Definition
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Term
Narrowness of the skill caused by premature closure of the sutures
A.Craniostenosis
B.Craniosynostosis
C. Plagiocephaly |
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Definition
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Term
Premature closure of the cranial sutures:
A. Craniostenosis
B. Craniosynostosis
C. Plagiocephaly |
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Definition
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Term
Asymmetrical head shape or flattening from persistent positioning of infant on one side during first 6 months of life:
A. Plagiocephaly
B. Microcephaly
C. Macrocephaly
D. Micrognathia |
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Definition
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Term
This diseas in infant and young children presents with systemic symptoms including hypotonia, lethargy, distended abdomen, and enlarged tongue:
A. Down syndrome
B. Thyroid disease
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Potters syndrome |
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Definition
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Term
Hyperextension of the neck an spine indicates severe meningeal irritation:
A. Kernig or Brudzinski sign
B. Opisothotonos
C. Torticollis
D. Erbs Palsy |
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Definition
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Term
Infants with increased ICP will have a resonant or cracked pot sound when tapping or percussing on the scalp with the forefinger. What is this sign called?
A. Craniotabe
B. Macewen
C. Transillunimation
D. Metopic |
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Definition
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Term
Abnormal softness of the cranium noted on palpation of the skull in the term infant:
A. Plagiocephaly
B. Meningismus
C. Craniotabes
D. Craniosynostosis |
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Definition
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Term
Lymph node most commonly missed on examination/palpation:
A. Axillary
B. Inguinal
C. Occipital
D. Supraclavicular |
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Definition
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Term
Funnel chest is also known as:
A. Pectus excavatum
B. Pectus carniatum |
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Definition
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Term
Pigeon Breast is also known as:
A. Pectus excavatum
B. Pectus Carniatum |
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Definition
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Term
Apnea that is prolonged >15 seconds or is accompanied by central cyanosis is:
A. Normal, the child will grow out of it
B. Abnormal, this requires immediate further evaulation |
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Definition
B. Abnormal, this requires immediate further evaulation |
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Term
This type of breathing is characterized by cycles of increasing and decreasing tidal volume separated by apnea:
A. Paradoxical breathing
B. Seesaw breathing
C. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
D. Periodic apnea |
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Definition
C. Cheyne-Stokes Breathing |
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Term
A high pitched loud inspiratory sound produced by upper airway obstruction:
A. Grunting
B. Wheezing
C. Snoring
D. Stridor |
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Definition
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Term
A Low pitched expiratory sound caused by a partial closure of the glottis
A. Grunting
B. Snoring
C. Wheezing
D. Stridor |
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Definition
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Term
_____ is often heard in the presence of nasal polyps , T&A hypertrophy or concenital anamalies that involve the upper airway.
A. Grunting
B. Stridor
C. Snoring
D. Rhonchi |
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Definition
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Term
The childs _______ should not be evaluated in isolation of respiratory parameters and should be correlated with the other physical findings.
A. Pulse rate
B. Heart rate
C. Respiratory rate
D. Apnea rate |
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Definition
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Term
Bronchophony, egophony, and pectoriloquy are all positive signs for:
A. Adventitious sounds
B. Consolidation
C. Inflammation
D. Hyperresonance |
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Definition
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Term
Asymmetrical chest excursion in a newborn may be a sign of:
A. Diaphragmatic hernia
B. pneumothorax
C. Mass
D. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
A shift in the trachea occurs when there is a difference in volume or pressure between the tow side of the chest as seen in:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pleural effusion
C. Abnormal chest wall shape
D. Both A & B |
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Definition
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Term
Sounds heard over the entire surface of the lungs, inspiration is louder/longer than expiration:
A. Vesicular
B. Bronchovesicular
C. Bronchial |
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Definition
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Term
Loud, high pitched sounds heard over intrascapular area; inspiration and expiration are equal:
A. Bronchial
B. Bronchialvesicular
C. Vesicular |
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Definition
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Term
Very loud breath sound over the trachea near the suprasternal notch; inspiration is shorter than expiration:
A. Vesicular
B. Bronchialvesicular
C. Bronchial |
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Definition
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Term
Continuous low pitched sounds, clears with coughing caused by secretions/mucus in larger airways as in bronchitis and lower respiratory tract infections:
A. Wheezes
B. Crackles
C. Rhonchi
D. Rales |
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Definition
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Term
Discontinuous sounds, heard on inspiration mainly, do not clear with coughing, associated with pneumonia, bpd, cf:
A. Rhonchi
B. Crackles
C. Wheezes
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Definition
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Term
Inflammatory obstruction of small airways caused by edema mucus plugging, occurs during first 2 years of life with peak incidence at 6 mos of age:
A. Acute bronchiolitis
B. Cystic Fibrosis
C. Foreign body aspiration
D. Aute epiglotitis |
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Definition
A. Acute bronchiolitis
Viral etiology common with >50% of all acute bronchiolits cases are caused by RSV |
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Term
Obstructive inflammatory process of airway that is supraglottic abrupt onset of high fever, sore throat, drooling, dysphagia, dyspnea, increasing airway obstruction (2-7 yoa):
A. Croup
B. Laryngotracheobronchitis
C. Acute epiglotitis
D. Foreign body aspiration |
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Definition
C. Acute epiglotitis
Bacterial with market decrease in incidence because of widespread use of the H. influenzae vaccine |
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Term
Inflammatatory process initiated by irritability/hyperreactivity of airway to variety of stimuli, obstruction/bronchoconstriction; inflammation leads to cough, wheezing, tachypnea, dyspnea with prolonged expiration:
A. Cystic Fibrosis
B. Asthma
C. GERD
D. Bronchiolitis
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Definition
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Term
Acute upper airway obstructin; inflammation; edema or airway leads to hoarse, barking cough, intermittent stridor, respiratory distress occurs in some cases:
A. Epiglotitis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Foreign body aspiration
D. Croup |
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Definition
D. Croup
75% is parainfluenza virus |
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Term
An inherited autosomal recessive trait causing multisystem disorder in children characterized by obstruction; infection of airways caused by dysfunction of epithelial surface leading to thickened secretions:
A. Asthma
B. Cystic Fibrosis
C. Croup
D. Epiglotitis |
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Definition
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Term
The initiation of sinus assessment should begin when children are _____:
A. Infants
B. Toddlers
C. Preschooler
D. School Aged |
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Definition
D. School aged
Sinuses are not normally assessed in children until school age because of their limited development |
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Term
When do tonsils begin to atrophy?
A. Infancy
B. As Toddlers
C. As preschoolers
D. As school aged |
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Definition
D. School aged
Tonsils and adenoids usually bgin to atrophy returning to size +1 to 2+ druing school age |
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Term
Supernumery nipples have a weak association with:
A. Turners Syndrome
B. Potters Syndrome
C. Down Syndrome
D. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome |
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Definition
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Term
If peak ____levels occur before _____ levels, the result is gynecomastia.
A. Androgen; Estrogen
B. Estrogen; Androgen
C. Estrogen; Testosterone
D. Testosterone; Estrogen |
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Definition
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Term
Klinefelter syndrome, testicular neoplasm, thyrotoxicosis, and cirrhosis is also present in relation to:
A. Hypogonadism
B. Puberty
C. Gynecomastia
D. Adrenal neoplasm |
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Definition
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Term
______especially estadiol, influences ductal development, whereas ______ influences additional lobular alveolar development.
A. Estrogen; Progesterone
B. Progesterone; Estrogen
C. Estrogen; Androgen
D. Progesterone; Androgen |
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Definition
A. Estrogen; Progesterone |
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Term
Tanner stage in which Areola continues to enlarge but remains in contour with breast.
A. Stage 2
B. Stage 3
C. Stage 4
D. Stage 5
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Definition
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Term
The preferred position for the assessment of the adolescent breast is:
A. Sitting, hands pressed together
B. Sitting; arms extended overhead
C. Supine with one arm under her head
D. Standing with arms by side |
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Definition
C. Supide with one arm under her head |
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Term
Once called fibrocystic breast disease, many authorities now consider increased nodularity to be
A. Deadly
B. A variation of normal
C. Occurring in more than 50% of women of reproductive age
D. Both B & C |
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Definition
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Term
All adenexal masses should be imaged first with:
A. CT
B. Ultrasound
C. MRI
D. Xray |
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Definition
B. Ultrasound
Ultrasound first then (if needed) with CT or MRI |
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Term
The infant has a ____ shaped spine at birth, compared to a double ____ shaped spine in adolesence:
A. C; S
B. S; C
C. J; S
D. C; J |
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Definition
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Term
The lumbar curvature of the spine begins:
A. In infancy
B. As Toddlers
C. In School age
D. In adolescence |
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Definition
B. As Toddlers
The lumbar curvature appears later as the child begins to walk. |
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Term
The presence of supernumary digits:
A. Polydactyly
B. Numodactyly
C. Syndactyly
D. Aracnodactyly |
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Definition
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Term
webbing or fusion between adjacent digits of the hands or feet may be indicative of profound developmental delay
A. Microdactyly
B. Polydactyly
C. Syndactyly
D. Aracnodactyly |
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Definition
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Term
the rate of bone growth is greatest in the lower extremeties:
A. After the onset of puberty
B. Before the onset of puberty
C. As Toddlers when they begin walking
D. At the end of infancy when they begin standing |
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Definition
B. Before the onset of puberty |
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Term
The rate of muscle growth increases rapidly beginning:
A. During adolescence
B. At 2 years of age
C. At 4 years of age
D. During middle childhood |
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Definition
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Term
The greatest increase in muscle cell size occurs during:
A. School Age
B. Puberty
C. Infancy
D. Late adolescence |
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Definition
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Term
The humerous and the ulna are:
A. Pivital joint
B. Condyloid Joint
C. Saddle Joint
D. Hinge Joint |
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Definition
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Term
The radial-ulnar joint is a ____joint that allows for rotation only:
A. Pivotal
B. Condyloid
C. Saddle
D. Hinge |
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Definition
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Term
The thumbs are examples of these kind of joints:
A: Condyloid
B. Saddle
C. Pivotal
D. Gliding |
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Definition
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Term
The hips and shoulder joints are examples of ____joints:
A. Ball and socket
B. Saddle joints
C. Gliding Joint
D. Hinge Joint
E. Both A&C |
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Definition
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Term
This partial dislocation of the radius from the humerous is most common in children from 2 to 4 years of age:
A. Hyperextention
B. Subluxation
C. Erb's palsy
D. Legg-Calve-Perthes |
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Definition
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Term
Dislocation of the shoulder is most common in the:
A. School Aged child
B. Adolescent
C. Preschooler
D. Toddler |
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Definition
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Term
The most common cause of toeing-in in children less than 3 years of age, which normally resolves with growth is:
A. Genu valgum
B. Genu Varum
C. Tibial Torsion
D. Pes Planus |
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Definition
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Term
A foot that is rigid on range of motion:
A. Is normal, but continue to watch
B. Is abnormal and will require immediate orthopedic evaluation
C. Is abnormal and will require immediate amputation
D. Is normal and will heal on its own upon ambulation |
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Definition
B. Is abnormal and will require immediate orthopedic evaluation
Management begins with manipulation and serial casting |
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Term
The longitudinal arch in the food appears:
A. at 6 mos
B. at 1 year
C. at 2 years
D. is always present |
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Definition
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Term
Mother is primipara, infant is female, positive family history, breech presentation are all predisposing factors for:
A. Cognitive delay
B. pes planus
C. Unstable hips
D. Bowleggedness |
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Definition
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Term
This test is used to test for meniscus damage:
A. Anterior/posterior drawer
B. Varus/Valgus
C. McMurray/Apley
D. Ballottement/Bulge |
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Definition
C. McMurray/Apley
Tests for damage to medial, lateral, posterior meniscus, or meniscal tear |
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Term
Exaggerated lordosis is _____in the toddler
A. Normal
B. Abnormal |
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Definition
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Term
Evaluation of the _______ is key to determining skeletal and spinal maturity:
A. Scoliometer
B. Forward bend test
C. Tanner Stage
D. Adam's Test |
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Definition
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Term
A circumscribed elevated, disc shaped lesion >1 cm and commonly formed by the confluence of papules is considered to be :
A. Patch
B. Macule
C. Wheal
D. Plaque |
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Definition
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Term
A distinctive type of solid elevation, formed by local, superficial, transient edema, white to pink/pale red in color and blanches with pressure (varying in size and shape) is considered to be a:
a. wheal
b. patch
c. plaque
d. telangiectasia |
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Definition
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Term
A linear lesion produced by tunneling of animal parasite in stratum corneum is:
a. burrow
b. fissure
c. scale
d. lichenification |
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Definition
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Term
HEADSSS assessment assesses for all of the following except:
A. Drugs
B. Environment
C. Sexual Abuse
D. Suicide and depression |
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Definition
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Term
CRAFFT assesses for all of the following except:
a. family member who does drugs
b. doing drugs alone
c. getting into trouble while doing drugs
d. riding in a car with someone doing drugs |
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Definition
a. family member who does drugs |
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Term
what age should BP be assessed at all routine well child visits:
a. 2 years
b. 1 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years |
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Definition
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Term
Under what age do children require an apical pulse to be palpated?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 6 mos |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most important caveat to the adolescent psychosocial history
a. it should occur in a quiet room
b. it should be conducted w/o a parent/guardian in the room
c. it should include a HEADSSS assessment
d. it should include a CRAFT assessment |
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Definition
B. it should be conducted w/o a parent/guardian in the room |
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Term
Fibromas, neurofibromas, intradermal nevi, and hemangiomas are all examples of:
a. nodule
b. cyst
c. telangiestia
d. patch |
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Definition
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Term
Herpes simplex, varicella, and insect bites are all examples of:
a. cyst
b. vesicle
c. nodule
d. pustule |
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Definition
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Term
Uticaria, insect bite, dermographia, and erythema multiform are all examples of:
a. vesicle
b. cyst
c. wheal
d. burrow |
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Definition
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Term
Roughened, thickened epidermis secondary to persistent rubbing, itching or skin irritation is:
a. atopic dermatits
b. lichinification
c. chronic dermatitis
d. scale
e. A, B, & C |
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Definition
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Term
Psoriasis, seborrheic dermatitis, tinea versicolor are all examples of:
a. scale
b. fissure
c. patch
d. plaque |
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Definition
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Term
Keloid, healed wounds, inactive herpes zoster or burns could all be examples of:
a. fissure
b. papule
c. scar
d. erosion |
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Definition
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Term
A lesion that is formed by accumulated of compact desquamation of stratum corneum layers; yellowish in color, silvery, fine, barely visible or large, adherent and lamellar is considered to be:
a. fissure
b. lichinification
c. wheal
d. scale |
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Definition
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Term
An infant or young child who ahs a skin turgor that returns to normal in 2-3 seconds has what % dehydration?
a. <5% loss of body weight
b. 5-8% loss of body weight
c. 9-10% loss of body weight
d. >10% loss of body weight |
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Definition
b. 5-8% loss of body weight |
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Term
A benign reddish blue mottling or marbling of the skin in response to temperture change is
a. acrocyanosis
b. cutis marmorata
c. erythema toxicum
d. cyanosis
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Definition
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Term
Miliaria rubra, a pattern of clear thin vesicles or papules seen on the forehead, neck in creases, or groin
A. is immediate cause for concern and should be seen by health care provider that day
b. occurs from an obstructed sweat glands in humid environments and is benign
c. occurs in response to rubbing
d. will require antibiotics to treat
e. both B & C |
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Definition
B. occurs from obstructed sweat glands in humid environments and is benign |
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Term
Erythema toxicum presents as small white to yellow papules or vesicle with erythematous base, occurs in response to rubbing and:
a. may continue until the baby is 2 weeks old
b. should not last more than 24 hours
c. starts as early as early as 24 hours of life
d. remain for up to 3 months after birth
e. both A & C
f. both B & C |
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Definition
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Term
Impetigo is typically characterized by:
a. Erythematous macule or vesicle that leaves honey colored crust
b. Small white to yellow papules with an erythematous base
c. clear, thin vesicle that leave scales and pigmented macules
d. reddish blue mottling or marbling of the skin |
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Definition
a. erythematous macule or vesicle that leave honey colored crust. |
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