Term
Anticodon in the anticodon loop reads what on what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does the Amino Acid attach to the tRNA? |
|
Definition
It is esterified to the 3' end of the tRNA at Cytosine-cytosine-adenine end (or CCA stem). |
|
|
Term
What are some commonalities between different tRNAs? Why? |
|
Definition
They have all the exactly same structure because they need to fit into any ribosome the same way. |
|
|
Term
What puts amino acids with their appropriate tRNA? |
|
Definition
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases |
|
|
Term
What is the name of the complex made by amino acids and their tRNA? |
|
Definition
Aminoacyl-tRNA -> Covalent compound |
|
|
Term
For each amino acid there is a unique... |
|
Definition
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase to bind it to tRNA. |
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|
Term
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase uses... |
|
Definition
ATP to make a high energy ester linkage between the amino acid and the tRNA. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Large subunit is usually.. |
|
Definition
50s = 23s + 5s RNAs + 34 proteins |
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|
Term
Small subunit is usually... |
|
Definition
30s = 16s RNA + 21 protiens. |
|
|
Term
What are the three sites for tRNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The A site is for the incoming aminoacyl-tRNA group. |
|
|
Term
The P site of Ribosomes are for the... |
|
Definition
Peptidyl site where the previous tRNA is attached to the growing peptide chain. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
...exit site where the deacylated tRNAs leave. |
|
|
Term
In what way are amino acids synthesized? |
|
Definition
They are made amino to carboxylic end. |
|
|
Term
mRNA is read by the ribosomes in what order? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which part of the mRNA is translated? |
|
Definition
The ORF (Open reading frame) |
|
|
Term
How many ribosomes can bind to mRNA? |
|
Definition
Many -- its hard to count. |
|
|
Term
Can the ribosomes catch mistakes if the wrong amino acid is attached to the tRNA? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the initiator codon in prokaryotes? How is it recognized? |
|
Definition
AUG. It is recognized by an initiator tRNA. |
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Term
In prokaryotes, the initiator sequence AUG is the first AUG after what? |
|
Definition
The Shine-Delgarno sequence. |
|
|
Term
What is the Shine-Delgarno sequence? |
|
Definition
The Shine-Delgarno sequence is site where the ribosome binds onto the mRNA. |
|
|
Term
The Shine-Delgarno sequence interacts with which part of the rRNA? |
|
Definition
16s part of the small subunit of the RNA. |
|
|
Term
In prokaryotes, the initiator tRNA carries what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In prokaryotes, there are a bunch of initiation factors which recruit... |
|
Definition
...mRNA, small ribosomal subunit, and the initiator fMet-tRNA complex. |
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|
Term
The large subunit is added when? |
|
Definition
After the addiction of the small subunit. |
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|
Term
After the addition of the large subunit, what gets added next? |
|
Definition
fMet-init-tRNA is in the P site. The A and E sites are open. |
|
|
Term
What type of hydrolysis is uded to make sure that prokaryotic initiation is correct? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In prokaryotes, which elongation factor brings in the new aminoacyl-t |
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Definition
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|
Term
Tu factor elongation is checked by what? |
|
Definition
GTP hydrolysis double-checks codon and anticodon pairing. |
|
|
Term
After the peptide bond forms, where does the growing peptide move to? |
|
Definition
It is transferred to the tRNA on the A site. |
|
|
Term
In Translocation, where does everything go? Which elongation factor mediates this? E site tRNA eventually goes where? |
|
Definition
The A site tRNA goes to the P site. The P site tRNA goes to the E site. Elongation factor G mediates this process while hydrolyzing GTP. The deacylated E site tRNA leaves the ribosome. |
|
|
Term
In prokaryotes, how is termination recognized? |
|
Definition
Release factors recognize stop codons on the mRNA. Triggering termination, they cause the release of the grown peptide to water, rather than the amino acid of another tRNA. |
|
|
Term
In order to keep translation accurate in prokaryotes, which biochemical opathway is used to insure it? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In prokaryotes, where are the three ways in which GTP hydrolysis is used? |
|
Definition
Initiation is at the right place so the right ORF is used. The correct tRNA matches a codon. The ribosome advances exactly three codons to prevent a frame shift. |
|
|
Term
In Eukaryotes, the ribosomes have size of what? |
|
Definition
80s = large subunit is 60s + small subunit 40s. |
|
|
Term
What is different about the subunits between eukaryotic and prokaryotic translation? |
|
Definition
Eukaryotic subunits are bigger and have larger RNAs. The large subunit has an extra rRNA. |
|
|
Term
In eukaryotes, where does initiation start? |
|
Definition
The ribosome loading site is the cap on the 5' end. The poly A tail also somehow helps in loading. |
|
|
Term
What is the initiator sequence? |
|
Definition
It is the the first AUG sequence seen by the ribosome coming in from the 5' cap. |
|
|
Term
In eukaryotes, how is the intiator tRNA different from prokaryotic initiator tRNA? |
|
Definition
The initiator tRNA is not not formylated. It only contains methionine. |
|
|
Term
Because eukaryotic and prokaryotic translation is different... |
|
Definition
...drugs can be used as antibacterial agents which target protien synthesis. (Erythromycin & Azithromycin). |
|
|
Term
After the protein is made, what's next? |
|
Definition
Targeting: we need to figure out where the protien belongs. |
|
|
Term
Information for protein targeting is where? |
|
Definition
Its read from the amino acids of the protein as it emerges from the ribosome. |
|
|
Term
Explain the way the protein is secreted? |
|
Definition
The N-terminal sequence initiates the binding of the SRP - signal recognition particle. |
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|
Term
After the SRP binds to the ribosome, what happens? |
|
Definition
The ribosome and the growing protein are brought to the ER so that it can be direectly released into the ER. |
|
|
Term
Protein enter or cross the membrane where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It does post-translational processing. |
|
|
Term
Efficient Metabolism and differentiation require what? |
|
Definition
Require control of gene expression. |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 kinds of transcriptional control? |
|
Definition
Negative control - repressors prevent transcription. Positive control - activators stimulate transscription |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Group of genes that are under control of the same regulatory system |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
transcription start site for RNA polymerase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a sequence of DNA to which a regulatory protein binds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a protein that binds to the operator to prevent transcription |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a small molecule which makes the repressor leave the operator. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A protein that binds to the operator to enhance transcription. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A small molecule that causes an activator to bind to its DNA site |
|
|
Term
The lac operon is an example of which type of gene control? |
|
Definition
It is prokaryotic gene control. |
|
|
Term
How many protein does does e.coli have to make in order to metabolize lactose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which questions will be asked when the production of lactose metabolism is going to occur? |
|
Definition
Q1: Is there any lactose around for these enzymes to use? Q2: Is there a better energy source (glucose) available? |
|
|
Term
For determination of lactose usage - Q1 needs to be answered _____. Q2 needs to be answered _______. |
|
Definition
Q1 needs to be answered yes. Q2 needs to be answered no. |
|
|
Term
What are the three gene loci for lactose operon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does lac i code for on the lactose operon? |
|
Definition
Lac i translates the repressor protein. |
|
|
Term
What is the CAP protein in the lactose operon? |
|
Definition
A global activator whose action is linked to glucose availability. |
|
|
Term
Which protein is associated with answering of the first question of lactose operon? |
|
Definition
The repressor formed from the lac i. |
|
|
Term
In the absence of lactose what happens to the attached repressor of the lactose operon? |
|
Definition
The inducer is not attached, and so the the protein is in its repressing conformation: it binds to DNA. |
|
|
Term
What happens when lactose is availiable in regards to the repressor protein on the operon? |
|
Definition
The inducer is made and attaches to the repressor. This changes the conformation of the repressor and causes the repressor to be released from the operon. |
|
|
Term
What are the names of the actions done in answering the first question of the lactose operon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is question 2 of the lactose operon? |
|
Definition
Is there a better sugar (like glucose) availiable for fuel? |
|
|
Term
What is the name of the action used to answer question 2 of the lactose operon? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When lactose is absent, the repressor keeps what off the operon? |
|
Definition
It keeps RNA polymerase off the operon the DNA - which stops transcription. |
|
|
Term
Describe the binding mechanism of repressor. How does it affect timing of attachment and release? |
|
Definition
It has cooperative binding - it attaches on fast and is released fast. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Catabolite Activator Protein |
|
|
Term
What is the master element of the positive control of lactose operon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the CAP protein do when there is no glucose in the cell? |
|
Definition
It aids RNA polymerase in recognizing the lac promoter. |
|
|
Term
How is the activity of CAP regulated through? |
|
Definition
Throught the presence of cAMP. |
|
|
Term
The default setting of most eukaryotic genes is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What interferes with gene expression when it comes to structure of chromatin? |
|
Definition
The histone-DNA interactions of the nucleosomes can interfere with translation. |
|
|
Term
In order to loosen the DNA-histone interaction, what needs to be done? |
|
Definition
The histone needs to be acetylated. |
|
|
Term
What acetylates the histone? |
|
Definition
HAT - histone acetyltransferase. |
|
|
Term
What are the three things that need to be done to activate the euchromatin? (make it ready for transcription?) |
|
Definition
1.HAT acetylates histones 2.Remodeling engine moves histones. 3.RNA polymerase, transcription factors, activators and mediators attach. |
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|
Term
Activator proteins bind to what on the DNA? |
|
Definition
They bind to enhancers: DNA sequences. |
|
|
Term
Do enhancer-activator complexes act at a distance or locally? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are all the different locations that an enhancer location can be? |
|
Definition
It can 5' to the intron (upstream) or 3' to the intron (downstream). It can also be found within the neuron. |
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|
Term
The enhancer-activator complex binds to what? |
|
Definition
It binds to the mediator and the preinitiation complex. |
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|
Term
By the binding of the enhancer-activator complex to the mediator and the preinitiation complex, what happens to the DNA strand? |
|
Definition
It becomes looped over itself. |
|
|
Term
What DNA-protein complexes limit the action of enhancer-activator complexes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a multicomponent enhancer-activator complex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Interferon Beta genes has how many kinds of peptides and how many overlapping DNA? |
|
Definition
5 kinds of polypeptides and 8 overlapping sites |
|
|
Term
Eukaryotic regulatory proteins can be multifunctional. Which means? |
|
Definition
They can act as an activator, repressor of transcription, or repressor of translation. |
|
|
Term
Whats the significance of needing multiple activators for one promoter? |
|
Definition
It offers combinatorial control; which means that we can use a different combination the enhanceosomes to turn on different genes. |
|
|
Term
Can a gene have multiple promoters? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Activators can be modulated by what else? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
On the activator - are there separate sites for DNA and estrogen binding? |
|
Definition
Yes. Estrogen acts as a modulator for activator protein. |
|
|
Term
When estrogen attaches to the activator protein, what happens to the activator protein? |
|
Definition
It goes through a conformational change which opens the active site for a coactivator to attach. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Genes that are controlled by one entire developmental pathway. Mutations of this can cause tissues to become another type of tissue. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It is the basic unit of the body plan of insects. |
|
|
Term
Segment formation in fruit flies is determined by what type of gene group? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which gene determines the front of each segment? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What do reporter genes do in regards to the expression of the eve gene? |
|
Definition
They let you know which of the enhancers have activators attached to them. |
|
|
Term
What was the reporter gene used for testing activated enhancers of the eve gene? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
At stripe 2, the eve gene has activators. What are they? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
At strip 2, the eve gene has repressors. What are they? |
|
Definition
The repressors are Kuruppel and giant. |
|
|
Term
How do the repressors repress the eve gene? |
|
Definition
They keep the bicoid and hunchback from binding. |
|
|
Term
What are the connections of fruit flies to mammalian genes? |
|
Definition
They share homeotic genes. |
|
|
Term
What are the group of homeotic genes that are similar in arrangement between mice and fruit flies? |
|
Definition
It is the HOX genes. They control the anterioposterior arrangement of the spine. |
|
|
Term
TOPO cloning is type of way to |
|
Definition
to put DNA fragments into a vector without the use of DNA ligase. |
|
|
Term
TOPO cling ususally has DNA fragments that were amplified by which two types of polymerases? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In TOPO cloning, what is the most important enzyme that breaks the vector and puts allows the PCR products to attach? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
DNA topoisomerase 1 causes the vector to have what type of ends? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Monoclonal antibodies are made from which two types of cells fused together? |
|
Definition
differentiated B-lymphocytes and cancer cells. They make a hybridoma. |
|
|
Term
In random mutagenesis, what happens? |
|
Definition
The DNA is exposed to lots of polymerases and reactive substances to cause mutations. |
|
|
Term
What do you use for site-directed mutagenesis? |
|
Definition
synthetic oligonucleotides. |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 ways of getting genes into cells? |
|
Definition
Microinjection of germ cells, electroporation (transformation through an electric shock), transfection (lipid encapsulated DNA), and Viral transduction. |
|
|
Term
If you designed a peice of DNA, what are two ways that you can insert them into the chromosome? |
|
Definition
Illegitimate (nonhomologous) recombination and General recombination. |
|
|
Term
What is Illegitimate recombination? |
|
Definition
It is nonhomologous recombination between unrelated types of DNA. It introduce DNA anywhere in the chromosome. It is bad becuase uncontrolled but transposons make efficiency better. |
|
|
Term
What is general recombination? |
|
Definition
This can deliver DNA to a precise location. The vectors are circular - just needs to match up the sticky ends. |
|
|
Term
In ecoli, which promoter can we ascribe to certain genes to induce their transcription? |
|
Definition
We can use the lac promoter. |
|
|
Term
tTA is the what to the Myc oncogene? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When mice are treated with tetracycline, what happens to the tTA protein? |
|
Definition
It becomes inactivated - the tetracycline becomes a repressor. |
|
|
Term
A displaced insulin enhancer/promoter can do what? |
|
Definition
It can turn on neighboring genes, but usually only in pancreatic cells. |
|
|
Term
What can show succesful incorporation of genes? |
|
Definition
Selectable marker genes and reporter genes. |
|
|
Term
Site specific recombination can reduce |
|
Definition
problems with verification parts of DNA, since its site specific. |
|
|
Term
Transgenic Mice has two ways of breeding the gene of interest. What are they? |
|
Definition
Microinjection of germ cells. Embryonic Stem cell Injection. |
|
|
Term
In the Microinjection of germ cells experiement with transgenic mice, what happens? |
|
Definition
The zygote is injected with the gene of interest. Than the zygote is transplanted into the womb. The progeny trnasgene shown through PCR fragment. |
|
|
Term
In embryonic stem cell injection, what happens? |
|
Definition
The stem cells of a blastocyst is put into another blastocyst with original stem cells. |
|
|
Term
The mice progeny that arises from having their stem cells mixed with another mouse's are called what? |
|
Definition
Chimeric mice. They are mosaics of the two original organisms. |
|
|
Term
What is so good about transgenic mice? |
|
Definition
They allow scientists to knockout sertain genes - act as mouse models of genetic diseases. |
|
|
Term
What does epigenetics do? |
|
Definition
We can change gene expression by not altering the sequence. |
|
|
Term
What are three components of epigenetics studied in class? |
|
Definition
1.Gene dosage and X deactivation. 2.Imprinting 3.Environment ability to change epigenetic state. |
|
|
Term
What are three mechanisms used in epigentics to control gene expression? |
|
Definition
1.Noncoding RNAs (wasted RNAs) 2.DNA methylation 3.Histone modification |
|
|
Term
Males have one X chromosome, but females have two. How do Drosophila and C.elegans balnce this two? |
|
Definition
Drosophila doubles transcription from the male X. C.elegans halves the transcription rate of each X chromosome. |
|
|
Term
In activated chromosomes in mammals are called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is the inactivated X chromosome chosen during development? |
|
Definition
It is chosen early in embryogenesis. |
|
|
Term
How is the agouti gene controlled in mice? |
|
Definition
If methylated it represses expression, it can cause variegated expression of mottled gene. |
|
|
Term
Heterochromatin is transscriptionally active or inactive. |
|
Definition
Transcriptionally inactive. |
|
|
Term
X inactivation in mammals is similar to what we see in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In activations starts where on the chromosomes? |
|
Definition
It starts at the center and drops off with distance. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
X-inactive specific transcript. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It coats the Barr body, establishing inactivation. Some genes are still on though (Xist gene). |
|
|
Term
If xist RNA is removed, is the Barr body still inactivated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the complement and opposer of Xist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Imprinting is when certain genes behave differently because they were inherited from the mom or dad. |
|
|
Term
What does igf2 stand for? |
|
Definition
Insulin-like growth factor. |
|
|
Term
The paternal gene for Igf2 is |
|
Definition
downregulated. It is only expressed by the father's genes. |
|
|
Term
The maternal gene for Igf2 receptor is |
|
Definition
downregulated. It is only expressed by the mother's gene. |
|
|
Term
If the igf2 gene is lost then what happens? |
|
Definition
The baby and the placenta will be very small. |
|
|
Term
If the loss of the Igf2 receptor leads to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the imprinting experiment, the transgene was inserted where? |
|
Definition
Into the immunoglobulin locus. |
|
|
Term
How did insertion of the c-myc gene show imprinting? |
|
Definition
Only males expressed the gene, females repressed it through imprinting. |
|
|
Term
How was the c-myc gene repressed through imprinting by the females? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Methylation prevents what enzyme from doing what? |
|
Definition
It prevents restriction enzymes from cutting their sites. |
|
|
Term
Maternally inherited transgenes are always... |
|
Definition
methylated, regardless of the methylation state of the mother. |
|
|
Term
Paternal transgenes are always |
|
Definition
unmethylated. Regardless of the methylation state of the father. |
|
|
Term
Artificail methylation can... |
|
Definition
turn off gene expression when needed. |
|
|
Term
With what does histone deacylate? |
|
Definition
With a methyl-binding domain it deacetylates a methylcytosine-containing chromatin. |
|
|
Term
Methyl transferases recognize what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does methyl transferases do to CpG? |
|
Definition
It fully methylates them. |
|
|
Term
What the problem with methyl-cytosine? |
|
Definition
It can deaminate to thymine. Mutations can result. |
|
|
Term
Methylation can turn off... |
|
Definition
insulators - causes expression. |
|
|
Term
Children of mother's who survived the hunger winter had what? |
|
Definition
Had different DNA methyaltion patterns whicj were different than their siblings. |
|
|
Term
Changes in the imprinting patterns in twins are associated with... |
|
Definition
observable differences between twins. |
|
|
Term
Rhodopsin is what kind of receptor? |
|
Definition
7TM receptor. G Protein Coupled receptor. |
|
|