Term
Bone disorders are derived from a. infection b. tumor growth c. abnormal ossification d. imbalance in bone remodeling e. all of the above |
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Definition
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Osteogenesis Imperfecta is an inherited defect in collagen synthesis resulting in a. hyperkalemia b. faulty ossificaiton c. glomularnephritis d. azotemia |
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Definition
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Osteoporosis is a gradual progressive loss of bone mass leading to weakened bones and fractures. Why does this happen? a. osteoclasts excessively resorb bone b. osteoclasts make too much bone c. the liver makes enzymes that breakdown bone matter. d. bone marrow produces too many B-cells causing bone brittleness |
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Definition
a. osteoclasts excessively resorb bone |
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Term
Rickets is a Vitamin D deficiency which causes soft bones that deform, bowed legs. Which of the following statements are true? a. irreversible disease b. affects the elderly most often c. affects children most often d. due to inadiquate mineral deposition in developing skeleton. e. both c & d. |
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Definition
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Osteomyelitis is bone inflammation condition usually a result of: a. infection by pyrogenic bacterium (staph or streptococcal organism) b. sharing needles c. studying pathophysiology d. too much exercise |
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Definition
a. infection by pyrogenic bacterium (staph or streptococcal organism) |
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Term
Primary bone tumors arise from a. bone b. BUN levels above normal c. elevated glucose levels d. result of metastasis from other form of cancer |
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Definition
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Term
One example of an osteogenic sarcoma is a. Retinalblastoma b. Wilms tumor c. Ewing's Tumor sarcoma d. aortic stenosis sarcoma |
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Definition
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Term
In response to inadequate contraction stimulus, skeletal muscle a. strengthens and hypertrophies b. atrophies and weakens c. wither away |
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Definition
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Term
Myositis is inflammation of your skeletal muscles, which are also called the voluntary muscles. Caused by a. systemic infections b. autoimmune conditions c. injury d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Congenital Myopathies cause muscle weakness and progress slowly. These problems occur a. soon after birth b. usually in the elderly c. teenagers d. age 30-40 |
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Definition
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Term
Muscular Dystrophy a. is a group of diseases b. result in progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle c. genetic etiologies d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Gas Gangrene is infection of the muscle tissue caused by a. crushing syndrome b. H1N1 c. clostridium bacteria d. weight lifting |
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Definition
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Term
Treatment for Leprosy includes: a. antihistamine b.antibiotics c.glucocorticoids d.predrisone e.a and c f. b and d |
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Definition
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Term
Leprosy is an infectious disease caused by what? a. bacteria b. fungi c. virus d. any of the above can cause Leprosy |
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Definition
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Who is most easily infected with Leprosy? a. elderly b. adult men c. adult female d. children |
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Definition
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Sensory loss in the extremeties is a characteristic of what integumentay condition? a. skin lesions b. contact dermetitis c. cold sores d. Leprosy |
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Definition
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What type of Leprosy produces large, disfiguring nodules? a. Tubercoid b. Lepromatous c. Lepromin |
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Definition
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There has been _________ in drug-resistant Leprosy in the last few years. a. an increase b. a decrease c. no change |
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Definition
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What are the main attributes of Leprosy? a. nerve damage and pruritis b. exudate and progressive debilitation c. nerve damage and progressive debilitation d. exudate and pruritis |
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Definition
c. nerve damage and progressive debilitation |
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Term
When do symptoms of Leprosy usually present? a. asymptomatic b. immediately c. short incubation time d. long incubation time |
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Definition
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Leprosy complications of disfigurment primarily affect which area of the body? a. face b. hands c. feet d. all of the above |
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Definition
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How many cases of Leprosy effect the United States yearly? a.50 b.200 c.135 d.100 |
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Definition
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What test is used to determine which type of the two Leprosy's you may have? a. acid-fast balance test b. skin scraping c. lepromin skin test d. skin biopsy |
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Definition
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What best defines the skin lesions of Leprosy? a. lighter than normal skin color, decreased sensation b. darker than normal skin color, decreased sensation c. lighter than normal skin color, increased sensation d. darker than normal skin color, increased sensation |
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Definition
a. lighter than normal skin color, decreased sensation |
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Term
Damage to the left hemisphere leads to: a. Problems with spatial orientation b. Loss of logical thinking and communication skills c. Behavior problems d. No complications |
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Definition
b. Loss of logical thinking and communication skills |
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Term
The lowest level of consciousness is a. REM Stage of sleep b. Terminal stage with loss of all reflexes c. Coma in which the person does not respond to painful or verbal stimuli d. Death |
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Definition
c. Coma in which the person does not respond to painful or verbal stimuli |
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Term
Damage to the motor neurons in the cerebral cortex of the frontal lobe interferes with: a. vision b. voluntary movement on the same side of the body c. voluntary movement on the opposite side of the body d. both sides of the body simultaneously |
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Definition
c. voluntary movement on the opposite side of the body |
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Term
Sensory deficits include: a. Touch b. Pain c. Temperature d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Hemianopia is loss of: a. Urine b. Vision c. Hearing d. Touch |
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Definition
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Term
How does the body compensate for increased intercranial pressure in the brain? a. Shifts CSF to spinal cord b. Increasing venous return from the brain c. Decrease in heart rate d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Transient ischemic attacks result from: a. Temporary localized reduction of blood flow in brain b. Increased protein production of the gallbladder c. Gout d. Thrush |
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Definition
a. Temporary localized reduction of blood flow in brain |
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Term
Encephalitis is an infection of: a. Epithelial tissue skin b. Smooth muscle tissue of the heart c. Connective tissue in the brain or spinal cord d. Cartilage tissue within joints |
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Definition
c. Connective tissue in the brain or spinal cord |
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Term
Progressive demyelination of neurons in the brain, spinal cord and cranial nerves is associated with which disease: a. Spina bifida b. Multiple sclerosis c. Tay sachs d. Rheumatoid arthritis |
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Definition
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Term
Progressive loss of intellectual function and dementia, due to cortical atrophy and widening of sulci is an example of: a. Cerebral palsy b. Alzheimers disease c. Lupus d. DVT |
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Definition
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Term
Huntingtons disease causes progressive atrophy of the: a. heart b. liver c. lungs d. brain |
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Definition
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Term
A disease marked by muscle wasting and sclerosis of cortiocospinal tracts is: a. Hydrocephalus b. Lou Gehrigs disease c. Meningitis d. CVA |
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Definition
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Term
Ductal obstructions of the penis may be caused by: A. congenital defects B. edema C. scar tissue from a prior infection D. both A and C |
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Definition
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Term
Male problems of infertility/sterility are NOT caused by: A. changes in sperm or semen B. hormone abnormalities C. physical obstruction of sperm passage D. use of antibiotics |
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Definition
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Term
Tumors of the testes: A. are malignant B. is familial C. affect males 15-35 year olds D. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Signs and Symptoms of testicular cancer are: A. soft, painful mass B. pain in lower abdomen C. testicular enlargement D. both B and C |
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Definition
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Term
The etiology of most cases of prostate cancer are: A. adenocarcinomas B. benign tumor C. problems with posterior pituitary D. dehydration |
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Definition
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Term
Symptoms of prostate cancer include which of the following: A. bladder infections B. urinary urgency C. hard nodule or mass D. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
What is the meaning of Epispadias? A. formation of the urethral opening on the ventral surface of the penis B. failure of one of the testes to descend into the sacral sac C. formation of the urethral opening on the dorsal surface of the penis D. the opening is located in or behind the scrotum. |
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Definition
C. formation of the urethral opening on the dorsal surface of the penis |
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Term
What kind of treatment is needed for hypospadias? A. surgical reconstruction B. hormone replacement C. biopsy D. pyelogram |
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Definition
A. surgical reconstruction |
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Term
How is cryptorchidism treated? A. vitamins B. surgery C. hormonal replacement therapy D. stimulation to the prostate gland |
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Definition
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Term
What is potential risk of hydrocele? A. death B. inguinal hernia C. hiatal hernia (Rolling) D. Sliding hiatal hernia |
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Definition
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Term
Prostatitis can manifest as a/an ___________ condition a. Acute b. Chronic c. Life altering d. Both A and B |
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Definition
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Term
Prostatitis is usually associated with what type of infection? a. Acute bacterial infection b. Urinary tract infection c. Chronic bacterial infection |
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Definition
b. Urinary tract infection |
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Term
Female Infertility contributes to what percent of couple infertility? A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100% |
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Definition
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Term
Female infertility can be cased by: A) Hormonal imbalances B) Structural abnormalities C) Reduction of sperm access and Systemic health issues D) All of these are correct |
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Definition
D) All of these are correct |
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Term
Female infertility caused by hormonal imbalances is caused by problems with the: A) Hypothalamus B) Pituitary gland C) Ovaries D) All of these are correct |
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Definition
D) All of these are correct |
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Term
The Presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus on structures such as the ovaries, ligaments, or colon is called: A) Dysmennorrhea B) Dyspareunia C) Endometriosis D) Infertility |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is NOT a treatment of endometriosis? A) Hormonal suppression of endometrial tissue B) Surgical removal of ectopic tissue C) Anti-inflammatory drugs D) Pregnancy and lactation |
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Definition
C) Anti-inflammatory drugs |
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Term
Sometimes endometriosis can even affect distant places like: A) The heart B) The lungs C) The urinary system D) The breasts |
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Definition
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Term
7. All of the following statements about a vaginal Candidiasis infection are true except: a. is a form of vaginitis b. it is caused by the Candida albicans fungus c. can be transmitted from person to person through sexual contact d. is more commonly known as a yeast infection |
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Definition
c. can be transmitted from person to person through sexual contact |
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Term
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease, and infection of the female reproductive tract, involves: a. inflammation b. abscesses c. adhesions and strictures d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
All of the following statements regarding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease are correct except: a. It can be acute or chronic b. usually begins as vaginitis c. can lead to infertility or ectopic pregnancy d. the most common cause of death in women with PID is hypovolemic shock |
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Definition
d. the most common cause of death in women with PID is hypovolemic shock |
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Term
What are small fluid-filled sacs that form beneath the serosa and may become large enough to cause discomfort and menstrual irregularities? a. Ovarian cysts b. Nodules c. Cervical cysts d. Synovial cysts |
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Definition
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Term
What can result in amenorrhea and atrophy of the ectopic tissue? a. Yeast infection b. Pregnancy and lactation c. Hemorrhoids d. Inflammation |
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Definition
b. Pregnancy and lactation |
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Term
With endometriosis, the blood irritates tissues causing what? a. Ovarian cysts b. Infertility c. Local pain and inflammation d. Hemorrhoids |
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Definition
c. Local pain and inflammation |
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Term
Who is primarily affected my Duchenes Muscular Dystrophy? a). females b). males c). newborns d). seniors |
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Definition
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Term
What is the etiology of Duchenes Muscular Dystrophy? a). trauma b). adenoma c). genetics d). chemotherapy |
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Definition
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Term
What is dystrophin's function? a). actively transports Na. b). regulates the action of tropomyosin c). decreases strength to the muscle cells d). gives strength to the muscle cells |
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Definition
d). gives strength to the muscle cells |
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Term
Duchenes Muscular Dystrophy can be diagnosed by.. a). high serum levels of creatine kinase b). MRI c). X-ray d). psychics |
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Definition
a). high serum levels of creatine kinase |
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Term
People with Duchenes Muscular Dystrophy by age 15 are usually... a). deceased b). paralyzed c). bedridden d). colorblind |
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Definition
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Term
What is a sign/symptom of Duchenes Muscular Dystrophy? a). muscle weakness b). heart dysrhythmias c). scoliosis d). all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
What is a complication of Duchenes Muscular Dystrophy? a) cyanosis b) respiratory insufficiency c) muscular hypertrophy d) jaundice |
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Definition
b) respiratory insufficiency |
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Term
When can Duchenes muscular Dystrophy be diagnosed? a). after puberty/adolesence b). middle age onset c). autopsy d). at birth |
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Definition
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Term
A secondary form of treatment for Duchenes Muscular Dystrophy would include a). bed rest b). physical therapy c). hormone replacement therapy d). acupuncture |
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Definition
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Term
What is the second most common type of primary bone tumor in children and adolescents? a). Ewing Sarcoma b). Kaposi's Sarcoma c). Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma d). benign prostate cancer |
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Definition
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Term
How is Ewing Sarcoma diagnosed? a). MRI b). CT scan c). tissue biopsy d). all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Treatment of Ewing Sarcoma includes.. a). chemotherapy b). surgery c). radiation therapy d). all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
1. Which of the following can cause myasthenic crisis? a. infection b. trauma c. alcohol d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
A thymectomy used to treat myasthenia gravis may result in a. permanent remission b. suppression of the immune system c. exacerbation of symptoms d. a tumor of the thymus gland |
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Definition
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Term
Onset of myasthenia gravis commonly occurs in a. women age 20-30 b. young children c. older men d. both a and c |
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Definition
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Term
Which diagnostic test uses edrophonium chloride to prolong the action of Ach? a. electromyography b. tensilon test c. MRI d. assay of serum antibodies |
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Definition
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Term
Which of these is not affected by myasthenia gravis? a. voice b. facial expressions c. chewing/swallowing d. hearing |
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Definition
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Term
What is electromyography? a. an anticholinesterase inhibitor b. technique to detect involvement of the thymus gland c. technique for evaluating and recording the activation signal of muscles d. treatment used to temporarily improve neuromuscular transmission |
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Definition
c. technique for evaluating and recording the activation signal of muscles |
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Term
What is plasmopheresis? a. treatment to help suppress the immune system b. filtration of blood plasma to reduce autoantibodies c. spontaneous loss of facial expression d. treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin |
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Definition
b. filtration of blood plasma to reduce autoantibodies |
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Term
Muscles in which part of the body are initially affected by myasthenia gravis? a. arms b. legs c. face d. trunk |
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Definition
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Term
In myasthenia gravis, which antibodies are responsible for blocking the Ach receptors at the neuromuscular junction? a. IgA b. IgM c. IgD d. IgG |
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Definition
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Term
The following anticholinesterase agent prolongs the action of Ach at the neuromuscular junction a. pyridostigmine b. neostigmine c. glucocorticoids d. both a and b |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most common immunosuppressive treatment for myasthenia gravis? a. NSAIDS b. barbiturates c. glucocorticoids d. AZT |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following would not be a symptom of myasthenia gravis? a. muscle weakness in face and eyes b. dry mouth c. fatigue with activity d. impaired vision |
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Definition
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Term
1) All of the following are tests that can diagnose skin lesions except: a. biopsy b. blood tests c. scrapings d. Tensilon test |
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Definition
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Term
2) All of the following are general treatments for skin infections except: a. soaks b. topical antimicrobials c. use of hot and cold contact to lessen effect of irritant d. compresses |
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Definition
c. use of hot and cold contact to lessen effect of irritant |
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Term
3) Chronically inflamed skin, increased cell proliferation, thickening of the dermis and lesions found on face, scalp and extremities is an example of: a. Psoriasis b. Cellulitis c. Urticaria d. Atopic dermatitis |
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Definition
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Term
4) What is the most common cause of cold sores? a. Impetigo b. Herpes Simplex c. Keratoses d. Allergy |
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Definition
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Term
5) Skin lesions are caused by which of the following? a. systemic disorders b. systemic infections c. localized problems d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
6) The release of histamine in a hypersensitivity response is a possible etiology of: a. Pruitus b. Herpes c. Atopic Dermatitis d. Contact Dermatitis |
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Definition
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Term
7) Furuncles is classified as: a. Skin lesions b. Skin infections c. Skin tumor d. Inflammatory disorder |
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Definition
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Term
8) Keratoses is classified as: a. Malignant skin lesions b. Benign skin infection c. Malignant skin infection d. Benign skin lesions |
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Definition
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Term
One identifier of Karposi's sarcoma is multiple purplish macules. On which of the following surfaces would these macules be seen? a. face b. scalp c. oral mucosa d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following skin tumors is most commonly associated with HIV? a. Karposi's Sarcoma b. Keratosis c. Squamous cell and basal cell carcinomas d. Malignant melenoma |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is a childhood bacterial infection? a. Impetigo b. Furuncles c. Cellulitis d. Herpes simplex |
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Definition
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Term
Inflammatory disorders associated with Type I hypersensitivity reactions include: a. Contact dermatitis b. Urticaria c. Atopic dermatitis d. Lichen Planus e. A and D f. B and C |
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Definition
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