Term
What are the steps of the HIV replication process? |
|
Definition
Entry of virus nucleocapsid into host cytoplasm
Reverse Transcription of viral RNA into DNA by viral reverse transcriptase
Integration of viral DNA with host DNA genome = provirus
Transcription of proviral DNA by host
Polymerase II in host nucleus and subsequest transportation to cytoplasm for translation
Assembly, Budding & Maturation of HIV into infectious particles
|
|
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Term
Which region in the HIV genome codes for protease, reverse transcriptase, ribonuclease, and integrase?
Which region codes for nucleocapsid core and matrix proteins p24, p17, p7 and p6? |
|
Definition
viral enxymes: The POL region
structural proteins: The GAG region |
|
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Term
Which non-structural HIV gene is responsible for down regulating CD+ antigens and inducing cytokine production by macrophages? |
|
Definition
NEF
-encodes negative regulatory factor
-deletion of non-essential NEF gene represents strategy for possible live attenuated HIV vaccine |
|
|
Term
What type(s) of eukaryotic RNA polymerase are inhibited by a-amanitin, a toxin found in the poisonous mushroom Amanita phalloides? Where is each polymerase located?
A. RNA pol I
B. RNA pol II
C. RNA pol III |
|
Definition
A. RNA pol I - Nucleolus
B. RNA pol II - Nucleoplasm
C. RNA pol III - Nucleoplasm
RNA polymerases II and III are inhibited by a-amanitin - II is strongly inhibited, III in high concentrations, and I not at all. |
|
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Term
Rubenstein-Taybi syndrome is caused by mutation of what gene expression-related protein? |
|
Definition
CBP
(CREB binding protein) |
|
|
Term
Each human cell has __ meters of DNA packaged into ___ chromosomes. |
|
Definition
2 meters
23 pairs of chromosomes |
|
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Term
N-linked oligosaccharides, characteristic of plasma and membrane proteins, are always attached by a glycosylamine linkage of N-acetylglucosamine to what? |
|
Definition
the amide nitrogen of an asparagine residue |
|
|
Term
What channels open during repolarization?
|
|
Definition
Voltage-gated postassium channels |
|
|
Term
Which channels open during depolarization? |
|
Definition
Voltage-gated sodium channels |
|
|
Term
Which voltage gated ion channels do the cocaine class of drugs block? |
|
Definition
Voltage-gated Na+ channels
ex. lidocaine used as local anaesthetic - inhibits Na+ channel opening and depolarization of cell
- cocaine also inhibits dopamine and norEpi reuptake |
|
|
Term
What are the 5 classes of Neurotransmitters?
Examples of each? |
|
Definition
Amines: ACh, dopamine, serotonin
Amino Acids: Glutamate, glycine, GABA
Purines: ATP, adenosine
Gases: NO
Peptides: opioid peptides, somatostatin |
|
|
Term
How is ACh made?
How is it broken down? |
|
Definition
Acetyl group is combined with choline by choline acetyltransferase --> ACh
ACh is broken down into choline and acetate by acetylcholinesterase |
|
|
Term
What happens in Myasthenia Gravis? |
|
Definition
- antibodies are made against nicotinic ACh receptors in muscle
- treated with drugs that inhibit acetylcholinesterase
- characterized by muscle weakness - ptosis
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Term
How does the vagus nerve slow down the heart? |
|
Definition
ACh binds to muscarinic G-protein coupled receptors in the heart --> causes opening of K+ channels --> hyperpolarization --> decreases force and rate of contraction |
|
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Term
Where and how in the Muscarinic ACh G-protein coupled receptor does cholera toxin exert its effect? |
|
Definition
Cholera binds to the alpha subunit of the Gs protein and inhibits the intrinsic GTPase activity.
This causes constituitively active G protein --> elevated cAMP levels in intestinal epithelium and resulting diarrhea. |
|
|
Term
What is the rate-limiting step for catecholamine biosynthesis? |
|
Definition
The conversion of tyrosine to DOPA by
Tyrosine Hydroxylase
- first step in the reaction |
|
|
Term
What step in catecholamine metabolism is a target for inhibition by anti-psychotic drugs? |
|
Definition
The inactivation of catecholamines by monoamine oxidase (MAO)
Dopamine --> DOPAL
Norepi & Epi --> DOPEGAL |
|
|
Term
The degeneration of dopamine neurons in what part of the brain leads to Parkinsons? |
|
Definition
substantia nigra
- etiology of degeneration unknown |
|
|
Term
What do the following genes all share in common?
DJ-1
a-synuclein
UCHL1
Parkin
PINK1 |
|
Definition
mutations in these genes causes rare inherited form of Parkinson's disease
-associated with oxidative stress & oxidative damage |
|
|
Term
What is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain?
The major inhibitory one? |
|
Definition
excitatory - glutamate
inhibitory - GABA
- GABA synthesized from glutamate via decarboxylation |
|
|
Term
What amino acid is serotonin synthesized from? |
|
Definition
Tryptophan
Trp ---> 5-Hydroxy-tryptophan ---> Serotonin
hydroxylase Decarboxylase |
|
|
Term
Cleavage of amyloid precsursor proteins (APPs) by which secretase enzyme(s) generates toxic Ab peptide accumulations? |
|
Definition
b-secretase and g-secretase generate Ab peptide
- thought to cause Alzheimer Disease
- cleavage by a-secretase does not produce Ab peptide
|
|
|
Term
What blood clotting factors makeup the intrinsic pathway? What is the order of their cleavage? Which one(s) are cleaved by kininogen and kallikrein? |
|
Definition
XII ---> XIIa (cleaved by kininogen & kallikrein)
XI ---> XIa
IX ---> IXa
X ---> Xa
(note order: 12, 11, 9, 10) |
|
|
Term
What factors make up the Extrinsinc blood clotting pathway? |
|
Definition
VIIa and X (tissue factor) |
|
|
Term
What role does Vitamin K play in blood clotting?
What drug inhibits it? |
|
Definition
Vitamin K allows Prothrombin ----> Thrombin
By adding g-carboxy group to a glutamate in Prothrombin, Ca++ can bind.
Vit K also adds a g-carboxy group to factors IX, X, and VII.
Coumadin (Warfarin, Dicoumarol) inhibits Vit K. |
|
|
Term
Thrombin is homologous to Trypsin. How does it change fibrinogen to fibrin? |
|
Definition
Thrombin hydrolyzes Fibrinogen at its arginine/glycine residues. The A and B parts of the 3 chains are released, enabling the a, b, g parts to aggregate (x2) = fibrin. |
|
|
Term
Why would heparin be given to a heart attack patient?
What type of heterpolysaccharide+protein molecule is heparin? |
|
Definition
Heparin enhances Antithrombin III activity, preventing blood clot formation.
It is a glycosaminoglycan. |
|
|
Term
What part of TPA (tissue type plasminogen activator) is responsible for activation of plasminogen into plasmin? |
|
Definition
Serine Protease
- activates plasmin which lyses blood clot |
|
|
Term
Would acetylation of chromatin histones allow for more or less transcription? |
|
Definition
Acetylation = decompacted = more transcription
deacetylation = tightly wound = less transcription |
|
|
Term
For transcription of nuclear DNA which nucleic acid sequence(s) correspond to "start"? To "stop"?
Which corresponds to "stop" for mtDNA? |
|
Definition
Nuclear: Start codon: AUG
Stop codons: UAA, UGA, UAG
mtDNA: Stop: AGA |
|
|
Term
What codon codes for methionine in nuclear DNA?
In mtDNA? |
|
Definition
Nuclear DNA Met: AUG
mtDNA Met: AUA |
|
|
Term
Which type of point mutation in an mRNA chain can result in synthesis of the same protein as the non-mutated sequence? |
|
Definition
A Silent Mutation
ex. if UCA (serine) was mutated to UCU (also serine)
- depends on the redundancy (degeneracy) of the code
- lengths of mutant proteins are unchanged |
|
|
Term
Which type of mRNA point mutation always results in a shorter mutant protein?
Which type always results in a longer protein? |
|
Definition
Shorter: Nonsense mutation
- mutation results in termination codon
(UAA, UGA, UAG)
Longer: Supressor mutation
- mutation results in suppression of termination |
|
|
Term
What type of point mutation is responsible for sickle cell anemia? |
|
Definition
a Missense Mutation
GAG --> GUG
(Glu --> Val)
- affects the Hemoglobin Beta chain |
|
|
Term
What sized subunits are in Prokaryotic ribosomes?
Eukaryotic ribosomes? |
|
Definition
Prokaryotic: 30, 50, 70
Eukaryotic: 40, 60, 80 |
|
|
Term
True or False:
Eukaryotic mRNA is polycistronic, has a poly A tail, and a 7-methyl G noncoding cap. |
|
Definition
False
- eukaryotic mRNA is monocistronic |
|
|
Term
What is the rate limiting reaction in porphyrin synthesis? |
|
Definition
the first reaction, catalyzed by
5-aminolevulinate synthase:
Glycine + Succinyl CoA --> ALA + CO2 + CoA
- pyridoxal phosphate is required coenzyme |
|
|
Term
What 2 enzymes of heme/porphyrin synthesis are sensitive to lead poisoning? |
|
Definition
Ferrochelatase
- the last step, leading to the formation of heme, where Fe2+ is added to Protoporphyrin IX
ALA dehydrase
- the second step, resulting in formation of porphobilinogen |
|
|
Term
What enzyme in porphyrin synthesis does hemin inhibit? |
|
Definition
5-aminolevulinate synthase
aka
ALA synthase
- this enzyme is catalyzes the first and rate-limitng reaction: formation of ALA from Succinyl CoA and Glycine in the mitochondria |
|
|
Term
What enzyme deficiency leads to Acute Intermittent Porphyria? |
|
Definition
deficiency of Uroporphyrinogen I synthetase
- AIP patients are not light-sensitive (does not affect skin)
- can result in urine that turns blue/black on standing |
|
|
Term
What common feature of porphyrias leads to an increase in porphyrin/heme synthesis intermediates? |
|
Definition
Decreased production of heme = increased ALA Synthase
(since hemin product is feedback inhibitor of this enzyme, its absence causes increased ALA synthase and enzyme activity, leading to buildup of intermediates) |
|
|
Term
What is the most common Porphyria?
What enzyme deficiency causes it? |
|
Definition
Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
-lack of Uroporphyrinogen Decarboxylase
-patients are photosensitive |
|
|
Term
In addition to inhibitive feedback to ALA synthase, how does hemin control the Heme/globin balance? |
|
Definition
Hemin activates the synthesis of globin peptide
- increses globin while decreasing heme |
|
|
Term
What is Hemolytic (prehepatic) jaundice?
|
|
Definition
Hemolytic (prehepatic) jaundice: production of bilirubin exceeds liver's capacity to conjugate it w/ glucuronic acid for excretion --> unconjugated bilirubin is elevated in the blood.
Hemolytic anemia (caused by massive lysis of red blood cells, as in Sickle Cell), can lead to buildup of bilirubin, causing jaundice. |
|
|
Term
What hepatic enzyme catalyzes the conjugation of UDP-glucuronic acid with bilirubin to make Bilirubin digluconuride? |
|
Definition
Bilirubin glucuronyl-transferase
-increases solubility of bilirubin |
|
|
Term
What reactions of heme degradation require NAPDH? |
|
Definition
Heme (+ 02, NADPH + H+) -----------> Biliverdin
Heme oxygenase
Biliverdin (+ NADPH + H+) -----------> Bilirubin
Biliverdin reductase |
|
|
Term
Name two factors that decrease hemoglobin's affinity for Oxygen. |
|
Definition
decrease in blood pH (Bohr effect)
increase in blood levels of 2,3 BPG (high altitude) |
|
|
Term
True or False:
O2, CO2, CO, and glucose can all bind to hemoglobin |
|
Definition
True
O2: higher affinity when Hb in relaxed state
CO2: binds at tissues, transported as NHCOO-
CO: poison, 200x higher affinity than O2
& prevents O2 release
glucose: HbA1c levels diagnostic for diabetics |
|
|
Term
What part(s) of the hemoglobin molecule are affected by thalassemias? |
|
Definition
Hereditary defects in synthesis of either a or b chains
- common in Mediterraneans
- b defects more common in U.S. |
|
|
Term
What structure variation characterizes fetal vs. adult hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
g chain in fetal Hb replaced after birth by b chain |
|
|
Term
Which usually contains more protein than carbohydrate: proteoglycans or glycoproteins?
Which contains more carbohydrate? |
|
Definition
Glycoproteins: usually more protein
Proteoglycans: more carbohydrate |
|
|
Term
List 3 properties of Glycosaminoglycans (mucopolysaccharides).
|
|
Definition
1. N-containing
2. Polyanionic
(due to carboxyl-containing sugars [except Keratan sulfate] and/or sulfate groups)
3. Repeating disaccharide motif on long polysaccharide chain |
|
|
Term
List 6 glycosaminoglycans |
|
Definition
Hyaluronic acid
Heparin
Heparin sulfate
Keratan sulfate
Chondroitin sulfate
Dermatan sulfate |
|
|
Term
The slipperiness of mucous, as well as the resilience of both synovial fluid and vitreous humor of the eye, are all due to their common component of polyanionic heteropolysaccharide chains. These chains have the ability to bind large amounts of water, and are known as ____________. |
|
Definition
glycosaminoglycans
(GAGS)
- all glycosaminoglycans except hyaluronic acid are found covalently attached to protein, forming a "bottle brush" proteoglycan monomer. |
|
|
Term
Scurvy is a collagen disorder relating to diet. Characterize 2 genetically-based collagen disorders. |
|
Definition
Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) aka "brittle bone disease"
- point mutation in COL1A1 or COL1A2 results in switching of Gly --> prevent folding to triple helix
- severity: II>III>IV>I
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS)
- a collection of defects including skin and joint hypermobility, bruising, scoliosis |
|
|
Term
Which amino acids make up collagen's primary structure?
|
|
Definition
Gly-X-Y
Glycine at every 3rd position,
X is often proline and
Y is usually hydroxyproline or hydroxylysine |
|
|
Term
What type of collagen is found in intervertebral discs, cartilage, and vitreous body?
Which type is found in fetal skin?
Which type is found in skin and bone, tendon, blood vessels, and cornea? |
|
Definition
Type II - cartilage, etc.
Type III - fetal skin
Type I - skin and bone, etc.
(Type IV in basement membrane) |
|
|
Term
How may collagen genes are there and where are they located? |
|
Definition
I don't know exactly- but there are a lot and they're scattered all over the genome! |
|
|
Term
Vitamin C is required to prevent Scurvy, a defective collagen disease. What is Vitamin C's normal role in collagen synthesis? |
|
Definition
Vitamin C is a reducing agent that, along with Fe2+ as a cofactor and O2, is required for the hydroxylation of pro-a-chain proline and lysine residues, forming hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine. These hydroxylations occur in the RER, and are catalyzed by prolyl hydroxylase and lysyl hydroxylase. Withough hydroxylation, collagen fibers cannot be cross-linked, decreasing tensile strength. |
|
|
Term
True or False:
Like collagen, elastin is rich in hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine residues. |
|
Definition
False
Elastin contains proline and lysine, but little hydroxyproline and no hydroxylysine. Also rich in nonpolar aa's Gly, Ala, and Val. |
|
|
Term
In what fibrous protein are desmosine cross-links found?
What are they?
What do they do for the macro-stucture of the protein? |
|
Definition
-Desmosine cross-links found in elastin.
-Consist of 3 allysine chains + 1 lysyl side chain
-Gives elastin its elasticity - makes it an interconnected rubber network |
|
|
Term
Mutations in FBN1 on chromosome 15 are linked to what autosomal dominant disease? |
|
Definition
Marfan syndrome
- FBN1 codes for fibrillin
|
|
|
Term
A person with which of the following oncogenes is most likely to develop cancer?
A. myc
B. ras
C. myc + ras |
|
Definition
C. myc + ras
-there is cooperativity of oncogenes - a single mutation will not likely cause cancer |
|
|
Term
c-src is a proto-oncogene. Most proto-oncogene products participate in cellular growth-controlling pathways. What is the normal cellular product of c-src? |
|
Definition
A protein tyrosine kinase
v-src (v=viral) is a constituitively active mutant of c-src |
|
|
Term
What do chromosomes look like during mitosis?
During G1?
during interphase? |
|
Definition
mitosis - condensed "X"
G1 - threadlike
Interphase - occupy "territories" only visible by staining |
|
|
Term
The opposite charges of DNA and histone proteins allow them to be tightly bound together into chromatin. What gives each one its specific charge? |
|
Definition
- DNA is highly acidic (has a - charge) due to the phosphodiester bonds linking the nucleotides (PO4-)
- Histone proteins are basic (have a + charge) due to their basic residues of histidine, lysine, and arginine |
|
|
Term
What effect does methylation of DNA have on transcription? |
|
Definition
Methylation of DNA represses transcription |
|
|
Term
What effects do acetylatioin and phosphorylation of histones have on transcription? |
|
Definition
Both acetylation and phosphorylation of histones activate transcription. |
|
|
Term
What are three ways that immune cell chromosomes differ from those of other cells?
(Characteristics that ultimately make them great for producing antibodies, but bad for cloning) |
|
Definition
-Combinatorial joining of gene segments
-Imprecise joining of segments (junctional diversification)
-Somatic hypermutation |
|
|
Term
True or False:
Telomerase activity is often deactivated in cancer. |
|
Definition
False
It is often activated in cancers.
Telomerase is required to keep telomeres large and robust. |
|
|
Term
What structure in the chromosome holds sister chromatids together and allows for attachment of the mitotic spindle during mitosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the anatomy of a nucleosome. |
|
Definition
A nucleosome consists of double-stranded helical DNA wound around a core of 8 histone proteins (H2A, H2B, H3, H4 x 2), forming "beads on a string". The beads are linked together by H1 histone linker proteins. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
HATs: Histone acetylases
HDACs: Histone deacytylases
-these are major chemotherapeutic targets |
|
|
Term
Are most of the proteins found in mitochondria encoded by nuclear DNA or mitochondrial DNA? |
|
Definition
95% of the proteins found in the mitochondria are encoded by nDNA.
mtDNA codes for 13 proteins, which are synthesized in the mitochondrial matrix and function in electron transport. |
|
|
Term
List 4 ways that mtDNA inheritance varies from Mendelian inheritance. |
|
Definition
1. maternal inheritance
2. heteroplasmy (wild type mixed with mutant)
3. stochastic (random) segregation of mtDNA
4. threshold effect (of mutations) |
|
|
Term
What 3 required proteins form the machinery for mtDNA replication ? |
|
Definition
POLG - mtDNA polymerase g
mtSSB - mtDNA single stranded binding protein
Twinkle - mtDNA helicase |
|
|
Term
What cells are the primary target of HIV? |
|
Definition
CD4+ T-lymphocytes
- CD4 receptors bind HIV gp120 |
|
|
Term
AZT, 3TC, d4T, ddc, and ddl are all used to treat HIV by what mechanism? |
|
Definition
They are all reverse transcriptase inhibitors. They bind competitively and inhibit chain elongation. |
|
|
Term
A Western Blot test positive for p24 protein would indicate what? |
|
Definition
HIV virus
(p24 is part of the virus capsule) |
|
|
Term
What type of polymerase transcribes HIV proviral DNA? |
|
Definition
Host Polymerase II transcribes proviral DNA in the nucleus. |
|
|
Term
Where in the HIV RNA are the LTR regions located?
What do these regions do? |
|
Definition
LTR (long terminal repeat) regions located at 5' and 3' ends.
-they are invariant, conserved domains
-serve as binding site for host transcription factors and allow for integration into host DNA
|
|
|
Term
Alpers' syndrome, Spinocerebellarataxia with epilepsy, and autosomal recessive Progressive external opthalmoplegia are all believed to be caused by mutations in which gene? |
|
Definition
POLG
- coding for mitochondrial DNA polymerase |
|
|
Term
Mutations in CCR2 and CCR5 wouldl likely have what effect on someone exposed to HIV virus? |
|
Definition
Mutations in these CD4 co-receptors would likely decrease their chances of infection and/or increase their chances of survival. |
|
|
Term
How are nascent polypeptides protected during translation? |
|
Definition
40 to 50 residues of nascent chain are buried in the ribosome as they stretch out from the Peptidyl Transferase center during translation. |
|
|
Term
Which part of tRNA accepts amino acids?
Which part talks to mRNA? |
|
Definition
The 3' CCA end is where amino acids are esterified and attached to the growing protein.
The Anticodon portion of Loop 2 talks to mRNA. |
|
|
Term
AUG can code for a start Methionine or an internal chain Methionine. What specialized tRNAs can tell the difference in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, respectively? |
|
Definition
prokaryotes: FMet recognized by tRNA as START Met
eukaryotes: IMet recognized by tRNA as START Met
MetM is for internal Met in both euk & prok |
|
|
Term
There are about 50 tRNAs and 61 codons. How is 50 tRNAs enough to recognize all 61 codons? |
|
Definition
- there is redundancy in the code such that 61 codons only codes for 20 amino acids
- also, there is WOBBLE pairing in the 3rd position which allows 1 tRNA to recognize more than one amino acid |
|
|
Term
What has to happen to an amino acid before it can be transferred to tRNA? |
|
Definition
Aminacyl-tRNA synthetase catalyzes the reaction of the amino acid with ATP, which activates it for transfer to tRNA.
These steps allow for proofreading and ultimately ensure the fidelity of protein synthesis. |
|
|
Term
What do Streptomycin, Tetracycline, Chloramphenicol, and Erythromycin all have in common?
How are they different? |
|
Definition
-they are all antibiotics that target prokaryotic ribosomal subunits to inhibit protein synthesis
-Strep. and Tetra. target 30S, while Chlora. and Erythro. target 50S
-Strep. is Aminoglycoside,interferes w/ Initiation
-Tetracycline inhibits binding of AA-tRNA to A site
-Chlor. inhibits peptidyl transferase
-Erythro. is a Macrolide, inhibits translocation |
|
|
Term
What is Puromycin? What does it do? |
|
Definition
Puromycin is a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
It imitates AA-tRNA and causes premature release of nascent polypeptides. |
|
|
Term
How does a protein destined for secretion get targeted to the ER? |
|
Definition
Protein secretion is cotranslational!
secretion sequence (60-70 residues) is recognized by SRP (signal recognition peptide) in the cytosol during translation. SRP controls elongation and targets protein for maturation in ER. |
|
|
Term
When is trancription of lac operon mRNA high?
A. -lactose, -cAMP, +glucose
B. +lactose, -cAMP, +glucose
C. +lactose, +cAMP, -glucose |
|
Definition
C. +lactose, +cAMP, -glucose
Lactose derepresses the constituitive repressor, allowing the polymerase to bind to the promotor region. cAMP needed for transcription. |
|
|
Term
Which Eukaryotic RNA polymerase transcribes tRNA and 5S rRNA? Where is it found? |
|
Definition
RNA Polymerase III
in the nucleoplasm |
|
|
Term
What protein is used as a diagnostic predictor of atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
CRP
(c-reactive protein)
-produce by liver in response to disease, trauma
-marker of systemic inflammation |
|
|
Term
Blue sclera is a sign of what disease? |
|
Definition
OI
(osteogenesis imperfecta) |
|
|
Term
Which enzyme is essential for cross-linking of collagen fibers? |
|
Definition
lysyl oxidase oxidatively deaminates some of the lysyl and hydroxylysyl residues so they can cross-link |
|
|
Term
Which residue(s) are selectively glycosylated in procollagen? |
|
Definition
Lysine , with glucose and galactose |
|
|