Term
What is the goal for acute antibiotic treatment? prophylactic? |
|
Definition
Acute - bacterial eradication
Prophylactic - reduced progression |
|
|
Term
What are the two "prongs" for prevention of pulomary disease progression? |
|
Definition
1. reducing/eradicating inflammation (decreases cellular and tissue alterations)
2. reducing bacterial burden on pulmonary tree (decrease acute exacerbations and alter disease course) |
|
|
Term
What genes are involved in CF? |
|
Definition
gene on the long arm of chromosome 7 that encodes for the cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator (CFTR) protein
delta-F508 allele (3 base-pair deletion = absence of phenylalanine) |
|
|
Term
What are the four classes of mutations? |
|
Definition
1. defective protein production
2. defective protein processing
3. defective channel regulation
4. defective channel conductance |
|
|
Term
What organ systems are affected in CF? |
|
Definition
GI:
Pancreas - digestive enzyme & insulin deficiency
Intestines - viscous secretions (obstruction)
Liver - biliary cirrhosis/fatty infiltration (portal HTN/esophageal varices)
Pulmonary - viscous secretions, infection
Sweat glands - failure to reabsorb sodium (hypoNa)
Reproductive - obstruction of epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles (aspermia) or viscous cervical mucus (decreased fertility)
Hematologic - anemia
Bone and Joint - arthritis, osteopenia
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
loss of functional CFTR →
defective 3-5-monophosphate stim Cl transport→
decreased Cl secretion and increased Na absorption |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
small bowel obstruction (10-16% of pt) = bowel that cannot be evacuated |
|
|
Term
What is distal intestinal obstruction syndrome or meconium ileus equivalent? |
|
Definition
When meconium ileus occurs in older pt |
|
|
Term
What are the affected enzymes? |
|
Definition
trypsin
chymotrypsin
carboxypeptidase
amylase
lipase |
|
|
Term
What kind of cloride receptor is the CFTR? |
|
Definition
cyclic-3-5-AMP (cAMP)-dependent chloride channel |
|
|
Term
What vitamin deficiencies would you worry about with a CF pt? |
|
Definition
Fat soluble (ADEK) - from lipase deficiency
Vitamin B12 + Zinc - pancreatic enzyme def |
|
|
Term
What is the pathology of carbohydrate intolerance in CF pts? |
|
Definition
low insulin concentrations &
enhanced peripheral sensitivity
without islet cell or antiinsulin antibodies
not usually associated with ketosis
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common laboratory abnormality associated with hepatic involvement? |
|
Definition
hepatic isoenzymes:
gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase (GGP)
alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
alkaline phosphatase (ALP) |
|
|
Term
What are the defective innate host defenses at the airway surface that result in pulmonary manifestations of CF? |
|
Definition
1. exaggerated inflammatory response
2. bactericidal activity
3. altered mucus clearance |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 factors that influence endobronchitis? |
|
Definition
1. airway infection
2. inflammation
3. obstruction |
|
|
Term
What is the result of defective anion-mediated fluid secretion in mucus glands?
hyposecretion or hyperabsorption |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three most common bacterial pathogens isolated from the respiratory secretions (sputum) of CF pts? |
|
Definition
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Haemophilus influenzae
P. aeruginosa - predominates throughout life |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of P. aeruginosa that are associated with particularly high resistance to antibiotics? |
|
Definition
mucoid strands (alginate producers) |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 distinct syndromes associated with Burkholderia cepacia (contageous)? |
|
Definition
1. asymptomatic colonization
2. chronic deterioration with fever/weight loss
3. rapid, usually fatal deterioration |
|
|
Term
Which organisms have prognostic significance in pt <2? |
|
Definition
P. aeruginosa or P. aeruginosa plus S. aureus |
|
|
Term
P. aeruginosa produces:
extracellular toxins
proteases
hemolysins
exopolysaccharides
that may be associated with what 3 problems? |
|
Definition
1. direct airway damage
2. increased mucin production by epithelium
3. production of immune complexes (immunoglobins G and M) |
|
|
Term
What inflammatory mediators are seen in CF pts? |
|
Definition
1. granulocyte elastase
2. TNF-alpha
3. IL-1
4. IL-2
5. neutrophil elastase |
|
|
Term
Which inflammatory mediator clearly contributes to pulmonary patho?
How? |
|
Definition
neutrophil elastase
1. overwhelms and neutralizes native antiproteases (a1-antitrypsin and secretory leukocyte protease inh)
2. destroys structural fibers
3. inh complement-mediated phagocytosis and antipseudomonal antibodies |
|
|
Term
Which fungus may induce steroid-responsive allergic reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why do CF pt get a barrel chest? |
|
Definition
they are having to use accessory muscles to move the air through the obstructed muscles
increased anterior-posterior chest diameter |
|
|
Term
What are some of the respiratory complications of CF? |
|
Definition
1. relative exercise intolerance
2. increased resting energy expenditure
3. hemoptysis
4. gastroesophageal reflux
5. pneumothorax (collapsed lung)
6. right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale) secondary to pulmonary hypertension
7. digital clubbing (related to chronic hypoxia) |
|
|
Term
Why do CF pts have high concentrations of Na and Cl in their sweat? |
|
Definition
defective chloride absorption across the water-impermeable sweat duct epithelium
the levels are normal in the gland lumen because chloride is secreted through other channels too, but as the sweat progresses through the duct towards the skin's surface, absorption is reduced |
|
|
Term
What 3 obstructions cause 95% of males with CF sterile? |
|
Definition
1. epidydymis
2. vas deferens
3. seminal vesicles |
|
|
Term
Anemia can occur in pts with CF despite chronic hypoxia because of what 2 disturbances? |
|
Definition
1. iron availability (decreased GI absorption)
2. erythropoietin regulation (nl to low levels) |
|
|
Term
What are you concerns for CF pt's bones and joints? |
|
Definition
1. Arthritis - usually nondestructive and episodic from immune complexes secondary to chronic pulmonary infections
2. Hypertrophic osetoarthropathy - occurs in association with pulmonary diseases
3. Osteopenia/osteoporosis - from bone demineralization |
|
|
Term
What are some reasons that bone demineralization would occur in CF pts? |
|
Definition
1. vitD malabsorption
2. decreased vitD conversion (via sunlight)
3. deayed puberty and endocrine development
4. poor nutrition
5. limited physical activity
6. chronic acidosis |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of a CF poop? |
|
Definition
foul odorous
bulky
greasy
more frequent in #
steatorrhea |
|
|
Term
What pattern of respiratory status is seen? |
|
Definition
cyclical
relative well-being to acute pulmonary deterioration
|
|
|
Term
Sweat test:
1. how many samples do you need?
2. how are they collected?
3. what level is diagnostic? |
|
Definition
1. 2 samples
2. collected using pilocarpine iontophoresis
3. chloride concentrations >60mEq/L |
|
|
Term
What is the life expenctacy for CF patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What FEV1 level, PaO2 level, or PCO2 level is associated with 2-year motality rate >50%? |
|
Definition
FEV1 <30% predicted
PaO2 <50mmHg
PCO2 >55mmHg
|
|
|
Term
What is the chief variable in enzyme replacement products?
What are the ingredients? |
|
Definition
lipase content
lipase/protease/amylase |
|
|
Term
What are the ADE of pancreatic supplementation? |
|
Definition
Perianal irritation resembling diaper rash (excess powder)
Hyperuricosuria - high purine content of products
Proximal colonic stricture (fibrosing colonopathy) if dose >24000u/kg/day |
|
|
Term
How do you treat meconium ileus and distal intestinal obstruction syndrome? |
|
Definition
enemas with isoosmolar contrast
often surgery is required |
|
|
Term
What can be used for prevention and treatment of cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Ursodeoxycholic acid (a bile acid with choleretic properties) at doses of 15-20mg/kg/day
sometimes used in combo with taurine supplementation
|
|
|
Term
What are the three areas of pulmonary therapy? |
|
Definition
1. antiobstructive
2. antiinflammatory
3. antiinfective |
|
|
Term
What are the antiobstructive therapies? |
|
Definition
percussion and postural drainage (1-2x/day healthy, ~6x/day in exacerbation)
Flutter devices - produces vibrations in airways when exhaled through
Nebulizer therapy - sterile water of 0.9% sodium chloride, might use bronchodialators and mucolytics too (N-acetylcysteine, Mucomyst)
RhDNAse - inhalation QD-BID
hypertonic saline inhalation - 7% solution generally (must be compounded) - do not mix with other nebulizer solutions
systemic bronchodilators (theophylline + B-ag)
Theophylline clearance and BA may be decreased so use larger dose (2nd line) |
|
|
Term
What immunizations should CF get? |
|
Definition
1. yearly influenza (amantadine prophylaxisis or treatment if indicated)
2. pneumococcal
3. H. influenzae |
|
|
Term
What are the possible antiinflammatory therapies? |
|
Definition
corticosteroid therapy - but problems with glucose and growth
ibuprofen - beneficial but therapeutic drug monitoring is required |
|
|
Term
When are AB indicated in acute exacerbations? |
|
Definition
1. finding known pathogens at high density in airways
2. increased cough
3. increased sputum production (thicker, darker)
4. decrease in lung function
5. loss of appetite
6. reduced exercise tolerance |
|
|
Term
What AB can generally be used as suppressive therapy? |
|
Definition
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
any of the oral cephalosporins |
|
|
Term
What AB should be used for specific therapy if P. aeruginosa and S.aureus are proven or likely? |
|
Definition
AG and an extended-spectrum PCN (ticarcillin, piperacillin) |
|
|
Term
Which agents can be used as single-agent therapies on an outpatient basis in areas where there is no significant resistance? |
|
Definition
ceftazidime
aztreonam
ciprofloxacin |
|
|
Term
Can you achieve complete eradication of S.aureus and H. influenzae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What AB can be used with B. cepacia? |
|
Definition
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
chloramphenicol
ceftazidime |
|
|
Term
What AB can be used with S.maltophilia? |
|
Definition
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
chloramphenicol
doxycycline
piperacillin |
|
|
Term
How are many CF pts different in regards to kinetics? |
|
Definition
1. increased total body clearence for many ABs (AG, some BL, TPM/SMZ)
2. variations in hepatic metabolic activity |
|
|
Term
Table 32-3: Which drug has an increased elimination half-life in some CF pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drugs have a decreased elimination half-life in some CF pts? |
|
Definition
cloxacillin, azlocillin, piperacillin, ticarcillin, aztreonam, ceftazidime, tmp/smz, fleroxacin, theophylline |
|
|
Term
In general, the apparent Vd of the AB and theophylline are increased or decreased? |
|
Definition
increased
fleroxacin is decreased
dicloxacillin, ticarcillin, tmp-smz are not affected |
|
|
Term
Which AB have an increased renal clearance in many CF patients? |
|
Definition
methicillin, cloxacillin, dicloxacillin, ticarcillin, aztreonam, ceftazidime, tmp, amikacin
theophylline is increased too
fleroxacin is decreased |
|
|
Term
Table 32-4:Oral AB
1. what AB are listed?
2. which oral ABs can be used BID?
3. which oral ABs have an adult max dose?
4. what is the adult max dose?
|
|
Definition
1. Amoxicillin, Amox/Clav, Cipro, Cephalexin, Dicloxacillin, TMP/SMZ
2. Ciprofloxacin and TMP/SMZ
3/4. TMP/SMZ - 0.64g/day (of TMP)
Cipro - 1.5g/day
Cephalexin - 6g/day
Dicloxacillin - 6g/day |
|
|
Term
T32-4: Parenteral ABs
1. which drugs are listed?
2. which drugs can be given q8h?
3. q6-8?
4. q6?
5. q4-6?
6. which have adult max doses? what are the doses |
|
Definition
1. tobramycin, gentamicin, netilmicin, amikacin, azlocillin, aztreonam, ceftazidime, colistin, imipenem, nafcillin, ticarcillin, ticarcillin/clav, piperacillin
2. tobra, gent, netilmicin, amikacin, ceftazidime
3. colistin
4. aztreonam, imipenem
5. azlocillin, nafcillin, ticarcillin, ticarcillin/clav, piperacillin
6. imipenem - 4g/day
ceftazidime - 6g/day
nafcillin - 6g/day
aztreonam - 8g/day
ticarcillin - 18g/day
piperacillin - 18g/day
azlocillin - 24g/day |
|
|
Term
P. aeruginosa is resistant to what drugs? by what mechanism? |
|
Definition
quinolones (altered DNAgyrase target site)
B-lactams (prod.of Bush group 1 B-lactamase)
AG (dec. permeability and modifying enzymes)
carbapenems (decreased permeability)
|
|
|
Term
What drugs should be given with AGs? why? |
|
Definition
extended-spectrum PCNs
ticarcillin, azlocillin, piperacillin (dose of at least 350mg/kg/day divided into 4-6doses)
they have synergy and prevent emergence of resistance |
|
|
Term
Since there is a possible increased incidence of fever and exanthema with the newer PCNs, what B-lactam can be used safely in pt experiencing these serum sickness-like reactions? |
|
Definition
aztreonam (azactam, cayson inh) |
|
|
Term
What can be used to predict total lenght of therapy necessary for intravenous antibiotics? |
|
Definition
FEV1 at the end of 1 week of treatment
recovered >40% = 2 weeks of therapy
|
|
|
Term
What are some of the potential/experimental treatments? |
|
Definition
1. growth hormone
2. protease inh - for inflammation
(a1-antitrypsin aerosol, secretory leukocyte PInh)
3. pentoxifylline - inh TNF-a and stim PMN
4. amiloride - diuretic may block Na reabsorption
5. adenosine and uridine triphosphate - increase chloride excretion in epithelial cells
6. phenylbutyrate - increases amt of functional protein that reactes the cell surface
7. 8-cyclopentyl-1,3-dipropylxanthine (CPX)
8. milrinone (PDEI)
9. genistein (tyrosine-kinase inh)
- all activate mutant CFTR
10. gentamicin - suppresses certain premature stop mutations in CFTR
|
|
|
Term
Tobramycin
1. Brand?
2. BBW?
3. Dosing?
4. Age minimum?
5. Admin?
6. Storage
7. prego?
8. serum levels |
|
Definition
1. TOBI (R)
2. nephrotoxicity/neurotoxicity
3. 300mg q12h (NOT<6h apart), 28d on/28d off
4. 6yo
5. inh ~15m using PARI-LC PLUS hh neb
6. refrigerate, at RT in foil pouch for 28d
7. pregD, AG cause fetal harm, breast milk +
8. ~1mcg/mL 1h post 300mg dose |
|
|
Term
if using multiple nebulizer treatments what order should you administer the drugs? |
|
Definition
bronchodilator
hypertonic saline
pulmozyme
airway clearance technique (vest, flutter, chest pt, ipv)
antibiotics
steroids |
|
|
Term
What is tobramycin's
1. drug class?
2. MOA?
3. spectrum
4. ADE |
|
Definition
1. aminoglycoside
2. binds to 30S and 50S ribosomal subunits
3. gram-negative bacilli (including Pseudomonas aeruginosa), Burkholderia cepacia
4. can cause voice alterations |
|
|
Term
Aztreonam:
1. Brand
2. Dosing
3. Min age
4. Admin
5. Storage
|
|
Definition
1. Cayston (inh), Azactam (IM/IV)
2. inhalation - 75mg TID (at least 4h apart) for 28 days, do not repeat for 28 days
3. >7 years old
4. only use Altera(R) neb system, admin over 2-3min, doses > 4h apart; if used with a SA bronchodilator use 15m-4h before, LA use 30m-12h before)
5. refrigerate, store aztreonam and diluent at room temp for up to 28days |
|
|
Term
Aztreonam:
1. class
2. MOA
3. spectrum
4. prego
5. ADEs
|
|
Definition
1. synthetic monocyclic beta-lactam AB
2. binds to PBPs to inh trspep in pep-gly synth
3.pseudomonas aeruginosa, acinetobacter, alcaligenes, klebsiella, serratia (almost pure aerobic g- activity)
4. PregB, milk+
5. fever, cough, congestion, pharyngeal p, wheezing |
|
|
Term
Colistimethate
1. Brand
2. Dosing
3. Storage
4. ADEs
5. Prego |
|
Definition
1. Coly-Mycin M
2. 50-75mg in NS via neb 2-3x/day
3. intact vials at RM temp, reconstit 24rt or frige
4. paresthesia, slurred speech, renal toxicity, respiratory arrest, superinfection
5. pregC, unknown if in milk |
|
|
Term
Colistimethate/Coly-Mycin(R) M
1. Class
2. MOA
3. Spectrum
4. DDI |
|
Definition
1. Misc, polymixin B
2. PRODRUG: hydrolyzed to colistin that acts as a cationic detergent damaging the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane = leakage
3. pseudomonas aeruginosa, gram-neg bacilli resistant to other AB
4. AG, AmphB, Capreomycin, Polymyxin B, Typhoid Vaccin, Vanc, NMBlk |
|
|
Term
Dornase Alfa
1. Brand
2. Min Age
3. Dosing
4. Storage
5. Prego
6. ADE |
|
Definition
1. Pulmozyme
2. > 3mo (Pari-Baby nebulizer)
3. 2.5mg once daily for pt with FVC>40%
4. Refrigerate and protect from light
5. PregB, unknown lactation
6. chest p, fever, rash, pharyngitis, rhinitis, voice |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dornase alfa is a DNAenzyme that selectively cleaves DNA to reduce viscosity of lung secretions
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pancreatic elastase test:
what is it?
what do your results mean?
|
|
Definition
fecal test
severe <100
nl >200 (200-500) |
|
|
Term
What are Hi-Vegi-LipTablets?
|
|
Definition
pancreatin
gluten, lactose, and sugar free
4800/60,000/60,000 L/P/A
OTC |
|
|
Term
What are the different pancrelipase formulation names? |
|
Definition
Pancreaze
Zenpep
Creon
Tri-Pase |
|
|
Term
What are the different dosages of Pancreaze DR Capsules? |
|
Definition
4200/10,000/17,500
10,500/25,000/43,750
enteric-coated microtablets
|
|
|
Term
What are the different Creon DR capsule dosages? |
|
Definition
6,000/19,000/30,000
12,000/38,000/60,000
24,000/76,000/120,000
enteric-coated spheres |
|
|
Term
What are the different Zenpep DR capsule formulations? |
|
Definition
5,000/17,000/27,000
10,000/34,000/55,000
15,000/51,000/82,000
20,000/68,000/109,000
enteric-coated beads |
|
|
Term
What are the different Tri-Pase dosages? |
|
Definition
Tri-Pase 8: 8t/30t/30t
Tri-Pase 16: 12t/60t/60t |
|
|
Term
What is Mucomyst?
MOA:
ADE: |
|
Definition
N-acetylcysteine
mucolytic agent
unpleasant taste and odor, may cause bronchospasm |
|
|
Term
Which 2 AG antibiotics have similar kinetics? |
|
Definition
Amikacin and Kanamycin
Therapeutic peaks: 16-32, 15-40
Toxic P/T: >35, >10
Dose mg/kg/d: 15
Gentamicin and Tobramycin
Therapeutic peaks: 4-8mcg/mL
Toxic P/T: >12, >2
Dose: 3-5mg/kg/day |
|
|
Term
What is the relative nephrotoxicity of the AGs? |
|
Definition
kana=amikacin=gent > tobra> strepto |
|
|
Term
What is the relative OTOXICITY of AGs?
vestibular toxicity?
auditory? |
|
Definition
kana=strepto>amikacin=gent=tobra
vestibular: streptomycin and gentamicin
auditory: kanamycin and amikacin |
|
|
Term
Which nebulizer can be used wirelessly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which nebulizable drug should be mixed with an ampule of saline before use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements best describes the pathophysiology of diarrhea in CF pts?
A. GI system is unabe to absorb water in foods consumed
B. bowel bc fibrotic + unable to absorb nutr.
C. liver promotes enh metabolism of nut.
D. pancreas doesn't produce enough enzymes for digestion
E. stomach doesn't produce enough acid to digest food |
|
Definition
D. Pancrease doesn't produce enzymes |
|
|
Term
Suppressive antibiotic therapy is aimed at which of the following?
A. bacterial proliferation
B. normalizing pulmonary fx tests
C. reducing sputum viscosity
D. suppressing airway inflammation
E. increasing biofilm production |
|
Definition
A. bacterial proliferation |
|
|
Term
Which of the following best describes the abnormality observed by the sweat test?
A. increased Na, decreased Cl
B. increased Na, normal Cl
C. normal Na, decreased Cl
D. decreased Na, increased Cl
E. increased Na, increased Cl |
|
Definition
E. increased Na and increased Cl |
|
|
Term
Ursodeoxycholic acid can be use if the pt is experiencing which of the following situations?
A. serum liver function enzymes increased
B. pulmonary exacerbation with P. aeruginosa
C. frequent, watery, foul-smelling stools
D dehydration from sweat loss
E. hospitalization for any pulm or pancreatic reason |
|
Definition
A. serum liver function enzyme increases |
|
|