Term
Combining form meaning white |
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Definition
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This prefix means between or among |
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Definition
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This term describes the time and events surrounding birth |
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Definition
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In the term otorhinolaryngology, which part means ear |
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Definition
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This word part means abnormal softening |
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Definition
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The medical term for surgical repair of a muscle |
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Definition
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Term
The abnormal narrowing of an artery or arteries is known as |
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Definition
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Term
This means an organ or body part that is not working properly |
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Definition
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What word part means plaque or fatty substance |
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Definition
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Term
This medical term means a surgical incision for removal of a stone |
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Definition
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Term
Inflammation of the appendix |
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Definition
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Term
The condition of unusual deposits of black pigment in body tissues or organs |
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Definition
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Term
The condition in which one or more body parts are not functioning normally |
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Definition
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Term
An adjective that means pertaining to the heart |
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Definition
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Term
A word part meaning large, abnormal size, or long |
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Definition
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Term
word part meaning bone marrow or spinal cord |
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Definition
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Term
The word part referring to the renal pelvis |
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Definition
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Term
The part of the word that contains the basic meaning of the word |
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Definition
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Term
The suffix that means the process of producing a picture or record |
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Definition
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Term
A word part meaning a surgical puncture to remove fluid for diagnostic purposes |
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Definition
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Term
Prefix meaning toward, or in the direction of |
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Definition
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Term
Word part meaning right side |
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Definition
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Term
Combining form meaning nerve |
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Definition
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Term
Surgical repair of a nerve |
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Definition
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Term
The resulting film created by angiography is known as an |
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Definition
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Term
A surgical procedure that does not have to be performed immediately or within a short period of time |
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Definition
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Term
The father of modern anatomy who changed the approach of traditional anatomical studies |
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Definition
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Term
Historical figure who developed the first x-ray machine |
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Definition
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Term
How many phases of surgical case management are there |
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Definition
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Term
The surgical team member primarily responsible for maintaining operative records and transport to PACU |
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Definition
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Term
The surgical team member responsible for separating instruments and disassembling the sterile field |
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Definition
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Term
This organization develops national certification exams for surgical technologists and surgical first assistants and confers the appropriate credential to eligible certificants |
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Definition
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Term
The symbol on the AST logo that represents the surgical technologist performing various roles in surgery |
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Definition
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Term
role defined by the ACS as providing aid in exposure, hemostasis, and other technical functions that help the surgeon carry out a safe operation with optimal results for the patient |
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Definition
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Term
A private surgical technologist is usually employed by which of the following |
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Definition
surgeon or physician group |
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Term
Type of professional that would have DO DPM after their name |
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Definition
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Term
A forceful physical or verbal action is known as _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Care that is usually "hands on" is |
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Definition
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Term
Comorbid disease is a disease or condition that exists simultaneously with another _____ in the same patient. |
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Definition
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Term
The terms entry-level, proficient, and expert practitioners are applied to what |
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Definition
AST recommended clinical ladder levels |
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Term
The term to describe the relationship between the CST and the other surgical team members |
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Definition
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Term
A therapeutic communication skill that urges patients to continue speaking or communicating their needs is _____ |
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Definition
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Term
An abnormal return to a former or an earlier state, particularly infantile patterns of thought or behavior, is known as _____ |
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Definition
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Term
The term that describes the relationship between the CST and the patient or the family |
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Definition
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Term
In or by which of the four components of communication would "decoding " take place |
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Definition
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Term
It is the responsibility of all surgical technologists to ensure that each patient is _____ |
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Definition
given the best possible care |
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Term
In patient-centered care, the surgical team bases assessment, planning and intervention on the unique needs of the _____ |
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Definition
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Term
When surgical technologists apply knowledge and experience gained in the past to solve a current problem, they are using a process known as _____ |
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Definition
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Term
An example of nonverbal body language that a patient might perceive as negative |
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Definition
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Term
An example of an action that is not workplace violence |
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Definition
yielding to other's viewpoint |
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Term
According to the AST, which type of environment contributes most to a safe and efficient surgical experience |
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Definition
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Term
The foundational commitment to professional honesty, confidentiality, fair treatment, cost containment, and attention to the highest level of surgical patient care |
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Definition
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Term
_____ includes activities that usually do not involve the hands-on care of the patient. |
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Definition
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Term
Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a model for meeting _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Physiological needs are ___ |
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Definition
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Term
Patient needs are not always defined by their _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Pain is demonstrated by _____ changes and by body language. |
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Definition
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Term
The _____ patient is one who requires surgery but has one or more comorbid diseases that endanger the outcome of the surgery. |
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Definition
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Term
The malnourished patient lacks the necessary _____ to support the process of healing. |
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Definition
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Term
Because many diabetic patients have compromised vascular systems, their risk of _____ is higher than in patients who are not diabetics. |
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Definition
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Term
A physician-group owned hospital |
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Definition
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Term
An organization that serves as both an insurer and provider of medical services |
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Definition
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Term
CSTs and other allied health professionals in perioperative services usually work under the direction of who |
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Definition
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Term
Which hospital department would a CSFA submit a request for privileges to work in the OR |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
the federal governmental insurance programs under the general heading of CMS including all except |
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Definition
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Term
Membership organization for surgical technology with a board of directors elected by a house of delegates |
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Definition
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Term
The patient whose _____ is/are compromised or suppressed is threatened with postoperative infection and delayed wound healing. |
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Definition
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Term
The patient with AIDS may have multiple _____. |
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Definition
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Term
Knowledge of the different _____ of children helps the surgical technologist understand the behaviors exhibited by these patients in the operating room. |
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Definition
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Term
Patients develop trust in the surgical technologist who is helping to care for them when she or he demonstrates care by using _____. |
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Definition
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Term
To whome does a ARC/STSA site visitor who verifies and clarifies records report to |
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Definition
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Term
The membership organization that a circulating RN in the operating room join as a member. |
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Definition
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Term
The CST and CSFA credentials are registered trademarks of which organization |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is an example of an intentional tort pertaining to surgical patient care. |
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Definition
Restraints are used on a patient who threatens to leave. |
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Term
Which of the following legal doctrines would MOST likely apply in the case of a wrong site surgery or retained foreign body? |
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Definition
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Term
The phrase "departure from the standard of care" BEST describes which of the following legal terms? |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following legal terms is BEST described as "professional misconduct that result in harm to another"? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the term that describes a method of pretrial discovery in which a surgical team member might answer question under oath? |
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Definition
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Term
The hospital's infection control nurse would report any suspicion of mysterious illnesses to who |
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Definition
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Term
Which organization would employees of the central sterile processing department likely join as members |
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Definition
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Term
Which federal regulatory agency is dedicated to enforcing workplace safety and preventing worker injuries |
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Definition
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Term
An independent, nonprofit national organization that develops standards for and accredits health care organizations in the United States |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following torts would be classified as unintentional? |
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Definition
foreign bodies left in patient |
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Term
Which type of consent applies when emergency circumstances exist when reasonable providers believe that a patient would agree to treatment, even if no form was signed or verbal permission given? |
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Definition
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Term
A special consent form would be required for which of the following situations during a hospital admission? |
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Definition
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Term
Which member of the surgical team is ultimately responsible for obtaining a written, informed surgical consent from patient? |
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Definition
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Term
All of the following are components of the surgical patient's medical record EXCEPT _____ |
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Definition
surgeon's preference cards |
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Term
A medical device or surgical instrument that has failed would be taken out of service and reported to who |
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Definition
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Term
Pioneer of medicine and surgery who first developed techniques for surgical antisepsis |
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Definition
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Term
In 2002, which of the following agencies created the "Do Not Use" abbreviation list? |
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Definition
the Joint Commission (JC) |
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Term
Which is the name of the type of report sent to risk management in an effort to decrease the chance of harm to patients or staff or damage to hospital equipment? |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following would be legally authorized to sign an informed surgical consent, based on medical practice acts and state law? |
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Definition
an emancipated 16 year-old minor |
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Term
What term pertains to a patient's wishes about medical treatment and self-determination in the event of incapacitation or inability to communicate? |
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Definition
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Term
Which specialist would have privileges to surgically treat disease of the breast, hepatobiliary, and gastrointestinal systems, and thyroid gland |
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Definition
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Term
After which war did the United States and Great Britain begin to train and employ allied health professionals predominantly in the scrub role |
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Definition
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Term
Which national membership organization's House of Delegates proposed the creation of the Association of Operating Room Technicians in 1969 |
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Definition
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Term
What do conscientiousness, problem solving skills competency, teamwork, and commitment to continuing education represent for a CST |
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Definition
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Term
The scrub person works from where to supply immediately necessary instrumentation to the surgeon |
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Definition
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Term
When not in use, the best practice regarding the electrosurgical hand piece is to place it where |
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Definition
in a holder attached to the field |
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Term
Raytec are banded in groups of how many |
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Definition
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Term
Laparotomy tapes/sponges are packaged in groups of how many |
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Definition
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Term
Peanuts and kitners are packaged in quantities of how many |
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Definition
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Term
Patties (cottonoids) are packaged in groups of how many |
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Definition
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Term
Which instrument is used to create a sponge stick |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following terms best describes the process of keeping thorough, accurate and legal records of a patient's medical care? |
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Definition
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Term
Which does not carry the force of state or national legal enforcement? |
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Definition
implementation of the neutral zone |
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Term
What did the American Hospital Association replace its "Patient's Bill of Rights" with? |
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Definition
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. |
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Term
The broad objectives of the HIPAA include the following: |
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Definition
protect patient privacy improve patient services reduce health care fraud |
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Term
Which term describes a civil wrong that may be intentional or unintentional? |
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Definition
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Term
The most common types of patient-care errors committed by operation room personnel, including negligence and malpractice, are categorized as: |
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Definition
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Term
In common adage, what is the "best medicine" in health care? |
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Definition
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Term
According to the Joint Commission's definition regarding consent to surgical interventions, which party has "autonomy"? |
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Definition
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Term
What term describes the system of principles that become standards of conduct for professionals? |
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Definition
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Term
Which term describes the principles such as benevolence, trustworthiness, and honesty for the care and well-being of others in society? |
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Definition
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Term
What is NOT an example of a potential ethical dilemma? |
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Definition
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Term
The legal term that identifies the knowledge and skills required for a profession and describes a health care provider's core accountability, based on education, experience, and credentialing is: |
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Definition
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Term
In medicine, the person who ___ the duty retains accountability for the action of the person to whom it is ___ |
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Definition
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Term
A set of rules or regulations that hospital employees are required to follow is called what |
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Definition
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Term
Negligence committed by a professional, which may also be committed when a surgical technologist deliberately acts outside of their scope of practice, or while impaired, is known as what |
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Definition
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Term
A circulator leaves a patient alone, then returns to the room to find the patient on the floor, what could they be charged with |
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Definition
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Term
A derogatory statement concerning other coworkers' skills, character, or reputation is unprofessional and known as what |
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Definition
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Term
Intentionally lying or falsifying information given during a court testimony after being sworn to tell the truth is known as what |
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Definition
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Term
A legal document stating the patient's wishes for refusing or limiting care if the patient becomes incompetent is known as what |
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Definition
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Term
What is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious psychological injury, or risk thereof |
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Definition
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Term
What are three forms of individual professional credentialing that protects the public from unqualified health care providers? |
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Definition
certification licensure registration |
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Term
Verification that educational programs meet minimum accreditation standards is done by: |
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Definition
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Term
Graduates of CAAHEP or ABHES programs are eligible to sit for the CST or CSFA examinations administered by: |
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Definition
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Term
The best assurance of safe and individual professional behavior by the CST or CFSA is a well-developed, unyielding: |
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Definition
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Term
A wrong, independent of contract law violations, perpetrated by one person against another person or person's property that can be compensable by money damages is known as what |
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Definition
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Term
What is described as personal standards and are adopted by persons to govern their personal conduct |
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Definition
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Term
What are defined as rules that regulate the conduct of specific groups of people |
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Definition
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Term
CSTs remain directly responsible and may be held ___ for any acts of ___ or criminal wrongdoing, even though they are unlicensed |
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Definition
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Term
Under the U.S. Constitution, each state has the power to regulate businesses and professions, including the practice of medicine and professional nursing. The laws differ from state to state and are called ___ and ___ |
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Definition
medical practice acts, nurse practice acts |
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Term
Which legal doctrine would be MOST applicable in a case involving injury to a patient as a result of a hospital employees lack of proper training or credentialing? |
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Definition
doctrine of corporate negligence |
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Term
Which type of legal action is MOST likely in cases involving tort law and operating room personnel? |
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Definition
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Term
If a patient suffered a burn a s a result of improper application of the ESU dispersive (grounding) pad, the individual team member responsible may be found guilty in a lawsuit of: |
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Definition
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Term
Specimen loss, mislabeling and improper preparations are legal examples of: |
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Definition
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Term
Which term means a voluntary and informed act in which one party gives permission to another party to "touch"? |
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Definition
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Term
What term is defined by the Joint Commission as "agreement or permission accompanied by full notice about what is being consented to"? |
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Definition
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Term
Surgical team members who fail to monitor and protect a medicated patient from falling could be charged with: |
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Definition
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Term
Which part of the patient's medical record documentation contains pre-op and post-op diagnoses, positioning, skin prep, start and stop times, counts, and dressings? |
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Definition
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Term
For what process is the identification and reporting of unsafe conditions and hazards MOST critical? |
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Definition
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Term
Which was identified in the late 90's as causing more deaths in the United States than car accidents, AIDS, and breast cancer combined? |
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Definition
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Term
What are performed by two people during any surgery in which an item can be lost inside of the patient |
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Definition
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Term
A summons differs from a subpoena in that a summons makes its recipient a party to the lawsuit. If a person receives a summons they are being what? |
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Definition
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Term
Because of the legal implications of this document, it is the physician's responsibility to explain the contents and to obtain the patient's signature on what |
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Definition
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Term
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, created by the U.S. Department of Human Services, outlines federal standards for the protection of what |
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Definition
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Term
What is the name of the organization whose focus is on patient and worker safety and is a unique coalition of surgeons (ACS), anesthesiologists (ASA), operating room (AORN), and perianesthesia(ASPN) nurses, CRNAs (AANA). surgical physician assistants (AASPA), and surgical technologists (AST)? |
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Definition
Council on Surgical and Perioperative Safety (CSPS) |
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Term
What is establishing a neutral zone designed to do? |
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Definition
Prevent sharps injuries during surgical procedures |
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Term
Which governmental agency has authority as outlined in the Safe Medical Device Act? |
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Definition
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Term
The first scrub surgical technologist performs intraoperative tasks under the broad delegatory authority of the: |
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Definition
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Term
_____ tissue has the specialized ability to contract and relax. |
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Definition
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Term
The term _____ describes the congenital absence of a normal body opening. |
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Definition
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Term
This condition is a genetic disorder that causes nerve degeneration with symptoms that most often appear in midlife. |
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Definition
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Term
A _____ specializes in the study of the organization of tissues at all levels. |
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Definition
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Term
A physician who specializes in the general medical care of hospitalized patients is known as a/an _____. |
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Definition
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Term
This type of condition is also known as a birth defect. |
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Definition
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Term
Diseases such as the flu are spread through contact with contaminated respiratory droplets in _____ transmission. |
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Definition
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Term
The study of the anatomy, physiology, pathology, and chemistry of the cell is known as_____. |
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Definition
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Term
The area of the abdomen around the belly button is known as the _____ region. |
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Definition
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Term
The _____ is the outer layer of the peritoneum that lines the interior of the abdominal wall. |
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Definition
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Term
A _____is the basic structural and functional unit of the body. |
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Definition
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Term
These types of cells are found among differentiated cells in a tissue or organ. |
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Definition
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Term
Tissues that form glands and a protective covering for all body surfaces are called _____ tissues. |
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Definition
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Term
When a _____ is inherited from either parent, the offspring will inherit the genetic characteristics. |
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Definition
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Term
The _____ cavity contains the body organs that sustain homeostasis. |
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Definition
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Term
This plane is known as the coronal plane. |
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Definition
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Term
A/an _____ is a somewhat independent part of the body that performs a specific function. |
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Definition
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Term
_____ means uppermost, above, or toward the head. |
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Definition
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Term
A specialist in the study of outbreaks of disease within a population group is known as a/an _____ |
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Definition
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Term
The _____ position describes a body standing in the standard position. |
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Definition
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Term
This cavity is also known as the chest cavity. |
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Definition
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Term
_____ is a genetic variation associated with characteristic facial appearance, learning disability, and physical abnormalities such as heart valve disease. |
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Definition
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Term
Specialized epithelial tissue that lines blood and lymph vessels is known as _____. |
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Definition
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Term
The medical term for abnormal hardening of a gland is _____. |
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Definition
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Term
This type of disease is also known as a contagious disease. |
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Definition
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Term
The process whereby a hospital is evaluated by a team of surveyors, based on national guidelines and standards set by healthcare professionals, is called _____. |
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Definition
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Term
_____ make up the hospital management and operational staff. |
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Definition
The board of directors, medical staff, and administration |
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Term
The responsibilities and functions of every member of the surgical department are clearly defined in the _____. |
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Definition
operating room policy and procedure manual |
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Term
The _____ is a specialist in perioperative medicine, responsible for the meticulous assessment, monitoring, and adjustment of the patient's physiologic status during surgery. |
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Definition
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Term
The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) is _____. |
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Definition
the accrediting organization for hospitals and healthcare facilities in the United States |
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Term
The _____directly assists the surgeon with the operation and is specially trained to handle tissue, to provide exposure using instruments and sutures, and to provide hemostasis. |
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Definition
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Term
A hospital that provides services to the community and allocates nontaxable profits to the maintenance or improvement of the facility is called a/an _____. |
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Definition
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Term
The _____ is responsible for providing intraoperative diagnostic procedures, such as cholangiograms. |
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Definition
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Term
The operating room depends heavily on the _____ department to provide instruments and equipment for each surgical procedure. |
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Definition
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Term
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration does what? |
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Definition
establishes rules and standards to protect employees in the workplace |
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Term
a public announcement that communicates the moral or ethical basis on which the hospital was created and its beliefs about how health care should be delivered is called a/an _____. |
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Definition
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Term
The process of tracking, evaluating and studying accidents and incidents to protect patients and employees is called |
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Definition
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Term
The surgeon usually dictates the _____ by telephone directly onto a transcription tape as soon as possible after the surgical procedure where it is then typed and placed in the patient's chart. |
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Definition
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Term
The _____ is responsible for orientation and assignments for new employees in the operating room and may also work directly with surgical technology programs assisting with student surgical technologists assigned to her or his facility as a clinical site. |
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Definition
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Term
Blood may be transfused only after _____. |
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Definition
two licensed personnel have together verified the identification number of the patient and confirmed information on the blood bag unit. |
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Term
Nuclear medicine procedures use _____ to diagnose and treat diseases. |
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Definition
radioactive materials or radiopharmaceuticals |
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Term
The _____ is responsible for overseeing all clinical and professional activities in the operating room. |
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Definition
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Term
A _____ is owned by shareholders who receive and pay taxes on the profits made by the institution. |
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Definition
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Term
A _____ is commonly assigned to help perform duties such as transferring the patient, cleaning and turning over the operating room, and restocking sterile supplies. |
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Definition
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Term
Showing _____ ensures that the operating room will maintain good interdepartmental relationships that are depended on for the successful care of the patient. |
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Definition
patience, respect, and professionalism |
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Term
Which physiological response to environmental temperature changes is missing or undeveloped in an infant of less than six months of age? |
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Definition
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Term
Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of which body system? |
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Definition
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Term
In what way cant he surgical technologist who is setting up his or her back table and Mayo stand reduce an 18-month-old's anxiety prior to induction of anesthesia? |
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Definition
Perform normal duties of preparation of the sterile field, keeping as quiet as possible for induction. |
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Term
What is the MOST common type of shock seen in infants and children? |
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Definition
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Term
An emergency laparotomy would be the indicated treatment for what postoperative bariatric surgery complications? |
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Definition
abdominal catastrophe gastric perforation bowel strangulation |
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Term
What is a common potential side effect of all forms of antibiotic therapy for major pediatric infections? |
|
Definition
Pseudomembranous enterocolitis |
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Term
Overgrowth of which microorganism is most likely responsible for pediatric cases of enterocolitis following antibiotic therapy? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the number one cause of death in children ages 1 to 15 in the United States? |
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Definition
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Term
A patient undergoing bariatric surgery may require extra time for general anesthetic reversal because anesthetic agents may be accumulated in and slowly eliminated from what type of tissue? |
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Definition
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Term
What is a coping mechanism often seen in children reacting to trauma? |
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Definition
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Term
What is a common response of pediatric patients in injury and may result in gastric dilation? |
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Definition
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Term
Which organ is responsible for the failure to produce insulin in patients with type I diabetes? |
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Definition
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Term
Which classification of antibiotics is contraindicated for use in neonates due to increased incidence of kernicterus? |
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Definition
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Term
Which position enhances a bariatric patient's total lung volume and aids in ventilation? |
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Definition
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Term
Bariatric patients undergoing surgery and in the immediate postoperative period should have sequential compression devices applied to the lower extremities to prevent: |
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Definition
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Term
What type of physiological measurement method is rarely done in a neonatal patient due to risk of anatomical trauma? |
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Definition
urethral catheterization for urinary output |
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Term
What other condition frequently suffered by obese patients and discovered intraoperatively may be treated surgically in conjunction with a bariatric procedure? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the name of the device used to test the blood of patients with diabetes for metabolic status?Wha |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following is the major cause of serious trauma suffered by pediatric patients? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the usual cause of a clavicular fracture of a neonate during a vaginal delivery? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the chemical and physiological classification of insulin? |
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Definition
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|
Term
During which part of pregnancy would an abdominal surgery be considered safest for both mother and fetus? |
|
Definition
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Term
Placement of a rolled sheet or pad to elevate a pregnant patients right hip, tilting the operating room table to the left with slight Trendelenburg, or both will shift the weight of the gravid uterus and relieve pressure from the ; |
|
Definition
abdominal aorta and vena cava |
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Term
Multiple sclerosis, lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis are examples of: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
which patient condition might be characterized by physical appearance of flat nasal bridge and short neck with some impairment of cognitive ability and growth, slower speech, and an affectionate to clingy personality |
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Definition
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|
Term
For which condition would a patient coming to the operating room likely need an interpreter? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
For which type of transmission-based disease would healthcare workers need to be fitted for an N-95 respirator mask? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which national agencies have regulations or protocols for healthcare workers who may be exposed to infectious diseases in their working environment? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
For which special patient population group would the help of a counselor or social worker who could communicate the current state of mind or mood of the patient to the OR staff be a benefit to all parties involved? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the term for the mechanism of injury in a trauma patient that takes into account velocity of the injuring force, flexibility of the tissue, and shape of the injuring force? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
which level of trauma center designation can meet all the needs required for treating patients on a 24 hour basis? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What activity would present no risk of contracting HIV from an infected individual? |
|
Definition
Conversation in close proximity. |
|
|
Term
Kaposi’s sarcoma sometimes seen in combination with which disease? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Because of the types of drugs used to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ, the recipient patient is considered to have which of the following? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which organ is most often injured in motor vehicle accidents? |
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Definition
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|
Term
The term “golden hour” refers to reduction of morbidity and mortality in which type of patient population? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Physical forces of deceleration, acceleration, compression, and shearing are factors in which type of injuries? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
High- or low- velocity projectiles are factors in which types of injury? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
During a surgical procedure on a pregnant patient, the surgical technologist in the scrub role may be asked to palpate what area to detect possible contractions? |
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Definition
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|
Term
A patient with acquired immunodeficiency virus may have complications of multiple infections from disease is considered to be: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In which pediatric age group would all of the craniofacial sinuses be fully developed? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which anesthetic method helps reduce anxiety and stress experienced by pediatric surgical patients? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Morbid obesity refers to patients whose body weight is greater than how many pounds over their ideal weight? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which body system is highly susceptible to injury during positioning of bariatric and geriatric patients? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Vomiting from preoperative narcotics can predispose patients with diabetes to fluid and electrolyte in balance is resulting in: |
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Definition
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|
Term
Name three potential risks from administration of general anesthesia to a pregnant patient. |
|
Definition
fetal death lower birthweight preterm labor |
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Term
Which diagnosis could create a social stigma and possible overdramatization of exposure risk my health care workers? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which special patient populations would likely require diagnostic biopsies for verification of cryptosporidiosis, candidiasis, or cytomegalovirus infections? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Conditions such as severe arthritis, contractures, and tremors are categorized under which type of challenge? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which broad category of routes of transmission of microorganisms include food, water, and medical devices and equipment? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Approximately 80% of which special patient population presents to surgery with one or more comorbid conditions? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which special patient population group has a 30% to 80% statistical likelihood of coexisting psychiatric illness in addition to the diagnosis for which they are coming to surgery? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
To preserve evidence in a criminal case, what might be done to the patient’s hands if the patient does not require surgery? |
|
Definition
Bags are placed around the hands and taped in place. |
|
|
Term
In a surgical procedure on a severely injured trauma patient, what measure is of utmost importance? |
|
Definition
Keeping the patient’s spine in alignment during changes in position |
|
|
Term
A surgical technologist working in a veterans administration (VA) facility might frequently encountered patients with which of the following conditions? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The point at which a muscle begins is known as the ____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
The term _____means to bend a limb at the joint. |
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Definition
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|
Term
The term _____ means to bendthe foot down word at the ankle. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which muscle is formed from three divisions? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which type of muscle tissue forms the muscular wall of the heart? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which term describes the act of raising the ribs when breathing in? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A _____ is the surgical repair of a fascia. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A _____ is a narrow band of nonelastic, dense, fibrous connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone |
|
Definition
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|
Term
_____ is the stimulation of a muscle by an impulse transmitted by a motor nerve |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A physician who specializes in treating the causes of paralysis and similar muscular disorders is known as a/an _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
A treatment that utilizes high-frequency sound waves to treat muscle injuries is known as _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
An injury to the body of a muscle or attachment of a tendon is a/an _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A syndrome involving the compression of nerves and blood vessels due to swelling within the enclosed space created by the fascia that separate groups of muscles is known as _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
This medication is also known as an anticholinergic. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A strain or tear on any of the muscles that straighten the hip and bend the knee is known as a/an _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A _____ is a sudden, involuntary contraction of one or more muscles |
|
Definition
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|
Term
_____ is inflammation of the tendons caused by excessive or unusual use of the joint |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The term _____ in a muscleman mean slanted or at an angle |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What condition is the paralysis of the heart muscle? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The overextension of a limb or body part beyond its normal limit is known as _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The state of balanced muscle tension that makes normal movement possible is known as _____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A _____ is a surgical incision through the fascia to relieve tension or pressure. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The removal of a plug of tissue for examination is called _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A _____ is a localized painful muscle spasm named for its cause |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A federal organization that is dedicated to protecting the health of workers by establishing standards that address issues related to safety in the workplace is known as _____. |
|
Definition
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) |
|
|
Term
What is a necessary component of fire? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When not in use, the best practice regarding the electrosurgical handpiece (Bovie pencil) is to place it _____. |
|
Definition
in a holder attached to the field |
|
|
Term
What are the three most important factors to remember concerning the safety of the team in the presence of ionizing radiation? |
|
Definition
Time, shielding, distance |
|
|
Term
Name three things to which Standard Precautions apply. |
|
Definition
Blood, mucous membranes and non-intact skin, or body fluids, secretions and excretion except sweat, regardless of whether or not they contain visible blood |
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|
Term
Genetic mutation, the environment, and stress are all sources of_____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Bacteria proliferation is referred to as_____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
_____ is the proliferation and growth of any microorganism or virus in any area of the body |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A/an _____ infection is an infection with a sudden onset, and it may be brief or prolonged for the duration of the infection |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Microbes enter the body through a location called the _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Not all infections cause disease; an infection is harmful only if it causes a/an _____ . |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When organisms of two different species live together, this is called _____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Bacteria that survive in physiologic balance are referred to as _____ . |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Bacteria and viruses cause most _____ that affect humans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ are single-celled organisms that have no nucleus or specific metabolic organelles |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The nature of the bacterial cell membrane determines a bacterium’s _____ and it’s response to antibiotics. |
|
Definition
Gram stain classification |
|
|
Term
_____ is/are responsible for bacteria motility. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Important environmental parameters for _____ include temperature, oxygen level, pH, moisture, and atmospheric pressure |
|
Definition
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|
Term
_____ are organisms that typically cause suppuration and tissue destruction and may lead to systemic involvement, resulting in death |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A harmless resident bacterium usually found on the hands is _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
_____ is/are referred to as “flesh-eating“bacteria. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Most _____ are spore forming and normally reside in the intestines of a healthy person |
|
Definition
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|
Term
_____ is a retrovirus that attacks and destroys the immune system T-helper leukocytes |
|
Definition
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|
Term
_____ is not a separate disease organism but a syndrome that occurs because of infection with the human immunodeficiency virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name three forms of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy. |
|
Definition
Creutzfeldt-Jakob mad cow scrapie |
|
|
Term
A bacterium reproduces through a process known as _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which term means the number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which chemical is a high-level disinfectant when items are immersed for 20 to 30 minutes and a sterilant if items remain immersed for 10 hours? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which part of the instrument reprocessing cycle is performed intraoperatively? |
|
Definition
Wiping with sterile water |
|
|
Term
What is the type of process the ultrasonic cleaner uses to dislodge minute particles of soil and organic debris? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of packaging system has filters and removable locking devices? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the weight that AAMI has recommended instrument sets should not exceed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the type of dating system that denotes the number of the calendar day in 1 through 365/366? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which sterilization method is most commonly used, safest, least expensive, and appropriate for the majority of surgical instruments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The biological indicator (BI) for the steam sterilization method is: |
|
Definition
geobacillus stearothermophilis |
|
|
Term
Contamination caused by passage of micro organisms through a sterilized package by way of moisture wicking is termed: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which sterilization method presents the greatest exposure risk to CSPD personnel, is expensive, and requires the longest total cycle time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cidex Is the tradename for which of the following methods of sterilization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When opening a wrapped items such as a gown on on a Mayo stand, the contents and wrapper are considered sterile up to what distance from the edge of the wrapper? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What term refers to a barrier, such as plastic-backed table cover, that does NOT allow for passage of liquid through it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of wrapper material is compatible with the hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization method? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How should air hoses of powered instruments or fiber-optic light cords be placed in rigid container trays for sterilization? |
|
Definition
coiled loosely in perforated or mesh basket |
|
|
Term
What is the relationship of steam pressure to temperature in a steam sterilizer? |
|
Definition
increased pressure increases temperature |
|
|
Term
The physical or chemical process by which all living microorganisms, including spores, are killed is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When nested base and sets are being sterilized, how should they be placed in the steam sterilizer |
|
Definition
fold side down with a towel used to separate them |
|
|
Term
Why are large steam sterilizers loaded with space between wrapped items or trays? |
|
Definition
It allows adequate circulation and penetration of steam to all surfaces |
|
|
Term
What is the term for in animate objects that harbor microorganisms that contribute to environmental contamination? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a classification of patient care items? critical hypercritical noncritical semicritical |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following would be appropriate for use on animate surfaces? antiseptic decontaminant disinfectant sterilant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following patient care items would be classified as noncritical?
colonoscopes hypodermic needles laryngoscopes pulse oximeters |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term for the condition of the surgical technologist’s skin after performing a surgical scrub? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of chemical solution is made of catalysts that aid in breaking down proteinaceous debris such as blood and fat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the common name for the high-level disinfectant sodium hypochlorite? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is another name for the intermediate-level disinfectant compound phenol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would be appropriate for soaking instruments covered with bioburden during a surgical procedure?
Isopropyl alcohol Peracetic acid Sterile saline Sterile water |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term used to describe the process of removing all soiled linen, waste, and instruments from the room and cleaning of furniture, floors, or other contaminated surfaces in preparation for opening new supplies for a subsequent case? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are environmental specifications for the decontamination room in CSPD except:
Air exchange rate, minimum of 10 per hour Humidity between 35% and 72% Temperature between 64°F and 70°F Positive air pressure maintained |
|
Definition
positive air pressure maintained |
|
|
Term
During manual cleaning of surgical instruments, what type of solution should be used? |
|
Definition
Lukewarm water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with a neutral pH |
|
|
Term
Which type of instruments must be cleaned with bristle-brushes on wires, pipe cleaners, or handheld pressure guns? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the potential risk of placing surgical instruments of dissimilar metallic type together in a washer sterilizer cycle? |
|
Definition
Electrolytic conduction reaction |
|
|
Term
What is the term for the process of lubricating stiffened stainless steel surgical instruments by immersion in a water-soluble solution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is the cleaning method for surgical instrumentation that relies on bubbles imploding, creating a vacuum that dislodges minute particles in crevices of instruments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of surgical instrument must never be immersed in any type of mechanical decontaminating equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why are items disinfected or sterilized in activated glutaraldehyde prior to submersion? |
|
Definition
Moisture will eventually dilute the concentration to ineffective levels |
|
|
Term
Before opening any steriley packed items, what is most important to verify about the package? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an acceptable position for placement of a scrubbed, gowned, and gloved surgical technologist’s hands? |
|
Definition
clasped together in front at waist level |
|
|
Term
Steriley attired surgical team member should pass one another in any of the following ways except:
back to back front to front front to back rotating 360° around |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A non-sterile person should approach a sterile area face forward while maintaining a distance of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a steriley attired surgical technologist drapes an unsterile table, he or she opens the drape: |
|
Definition
toward him- or herself first |
|
|
Term
What is the most important factor in a surgical technologist’s role in preventing surgical site infections? |
|
Definition
strict surgical conscience |
|
|
Term
Which concept has replaced the previous system of assessing storage conditions and package integrity-based on an arbitrary expiration designation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which method of sterilization uses gamma rays or beta particles and is chiefly used by large manufacturing companies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements regarding peracetic acid sterilized items is correct?
Paper filters in the top lid and bottom of container must be changed for each cycle Items must be wrapped with Tyvek wrappers instead of cellulose-based wrappers Cassettes are not sealed, due to liquid immersion during the process, so they cannot be stored. Aeration times will add hours to the total sterilization cycle time. |
|
Definition
Cassettes are not sealed, due to liquid immersion during the process, so they cannot be stored. |
|
|
Term
The recommended biological indicator (BI) for hydrogen peroxide gas plasma is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Bowie-Dick test is performed for which sterilization method? |
|
Definition
Prevacuum air removal steam |
|
|
Term
Which of the following should never be processed by immediate-use (flash) sterilization methods?
Ebonized laser instruments Implantable devices Stainless steel suction tips Titanium microinstrumentation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the outside area of an autoclave where steam is created before injection into the interior compartment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which kind of quality control device consists of a paper that has been impregnated with a dye that changes color in the presence of a specified temperature and sterilant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where should the biological test pack be placed on the steam sterilization cart for the first run of the day? |
|
Definition
bottom rack, front of sterilizer, over the drain |
|
|
Term
How long should the steam biological indicator be incubated before the reading is recorded? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Personnel in CSPD who must move instruments from the ethylene oxide sterilizer to an aeration room to do which of the following with the cart to reduce their exposure to vented gases?
pull it push it cover it with plastic open a window |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the advantage of using ethylene oxide gas sterilization? |
|
Definition
It is safe for heat-and moisture-sensitive items |
|
|
Term
Which method of chemical sterilization has limitations based on the challenge of diffusion into narrow lumens? |
|
Definition
hydrogen peroxide gas plasma |
|
|
Term
Why are instruments placed in perforated or mesh-bottom trays for sterilization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would be the exposure phase time for an unwrapped instrument set with some lumens in a pre-vacuum/dynamic air removal steam autoclave? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term describes the exchange of gases within the cells of the blood and tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which condition is the temporary absence of spontaneous respiration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A/an _____ is the excess accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which keeps the lungs from fully expanding. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ is also known as black lung disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A/an _____ is a mechanical device for artificial respiration that is used to replace or supplement the patients natural breathing function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of pneumonia occurs when a foreign substance is inhaled into the lungs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The _____ is the thin fluid-filled space also known as the pleural space. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which are the largest of the paranasal sinuses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The _____ is the portion of the pharynx used only for the transport of air. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which part of the respiratory system is commonly known as the windpipe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A/an _____ is a sudden blockage of a pulmonary artery by foreign matter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An inexpensive handheld device used to let patients with asthma measure air flowing out of the lungs is known as a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term is also known as a runny nose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term is also known as choking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A disease in which the airways have become inflamed due to recurrent exposure to an inhaled irritant is known as_____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term is also known as acute nasopharyngitis? |
|
Definition
upper respiratory infection |
|
|
Term
What term means bleeding from the lungs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term means the permanent dilation of the bronchi caused by chronic infection and inflammation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ is the act of taking air in as the diaphragm contracts and pulls downward. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A/an _____ is a surgery in which a wedge-shaped piece of cancerous lung tissue is removed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term, also known as abdominal breathing, is a relaxation technique used to relieve anxiety? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A _____ is the surgical repair of parts of the nasal septum. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ involves breathing pure oxygen in a special chamber that allows air pressure to be raised up to three times higher than normal to promote healing and fight infection. |
|
Definition
hyperbaric oxygen therapy |
|
|
Term
Which type of pneumonia is also known as mycoplasma pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ is the leading cause of cancer death in the United States. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ performs the surgical scrub before the rest of the team members to prepare the sterile field with instruments and supplies that have been opened for the case. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ cannot be sterilized, but can be rendered surgically clean. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When employed correctly, _____produce(s) high levels of destruction of both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
a. alcohol-based skin cleaner, foams and creams b. plain soap, liquid or bar form c. germicidal soap d. both a and c |
|
Definition
a. alcohol-based skin cleaner, foams, and creams |
|
|
Term
Hand washing is the simplest and most important preventive measure for reducing infection in the operating room. Hand washing is _____ related |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It is considered poor technique to pry the metal cap off of a medication vial and then to pour the liquid into a sterile container because _____. |
|
Definition
The lip of the vial is not considered sterile |
|
|
Term
When opening supplies and instruments for a case, for safety reasons _____ should be passed directly to the surgical technologist or placed in an area on the sterile field where they are clearly visible. |
|
Definition
scalpel blades and other sharps |
|
|
Term
Depending on the complexity of the surgery, the amount of equipment to be prepared, and the emergent nature of the procedure, the surgical technologist and circulator will begin to open the case _____. |
|
Definition
15 to 20 minutes before the start of surgery |
|
|
Term
Once the case is opened, the sterile field should be constantly protected. The best way to do this is by _____ |
|
Definition
having someone physically in the room watching it. |
|
|
Term
Preliminary preparations must occur before the patient is brought in to the room. The _____ must be checked, along with case-cart supplies, to ensure that all of the instruments, supplies and equipment necessary for the procedure are available. |
|
Definition
surgeon's preference card |
|
|
Term
To ensure patient safety, the surgical technologist _____ the aseptic technique practices of his or her coworkers, departments or institutions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It is not recommended that sterile supplies be left open prior to a case more than _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When water is exposed to a sterile drape or gown, it can cause _____, which occurs when moisture from either side of the drape serves as a vehicle for bacteria to infiltrate the drape from the nonsterile surface. |
|
Definition
strike-through contamination |
|
|
Term
Sterile personnel must pass other sterile personnel:
a. back to front b. back to back c. front to front d. both b and c |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sterile gowns are considered sterile _____ |
|
Definition
only in the front, from the nipple line to the waist |
|
|
Term
The amount of space that should be left between sterile and nonsterile surfaces is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All surgical personnel must wear impervious protective eyewear or face shields during all procedures; eyewear must cover the eye area from the brows to the tip of the surgical mask and must extend over the temples. Protective eyewear must be worn _____. |
|
Definition
To protect the eyes from bone chips, liquefied tissue, blood, bodily fluids and other debris. |
|
|
Term
Identify the correct statement about masks:
a. masks may be worn as long as they don't show visible signs of contamination b. wearing two masks doubles your protection c. masks are to be changed after every procedure d. when tying a mask, the ties should be crossed at the back of the head |
|
Definition
c. masks are to be changed after every procedure |
|
|
Term
Cloth caps that are reused day after day are considered to be _____. |
|
Definition
a source of gross contamination |
|
|
Term
The recommended standard for operating room personnel regarding jewelry is to _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Aseptic technique is closely associated with one's motivation to _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During which phase of general anesthesia would the risk of aspiration be the greatest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic monitoring device registers the brain wave activity of the patient and enables anesthetic titration for optimal level of consciousness during surgical intervention? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benzodiazepines are classified by the Controlled Substances Acts as which class? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of drug is used to treat possible postoperative nausea and vomiting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why would a neurosurgeon order mannitol for a patient during a craniotomy for excision of tumor? |
|
Definition
decrease intracranial pressure |
|
|
Term
How are most drugs absorbed by the body? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following is not a drug administration route:
a. biodegradable b. enteral c. parenteral d. topical |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the pharmacological agent administered specifically to treat malignant hyperthermia (MH)? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which drug is administered intravenously to treat live-threatening cardiac ventricular arrhythmias? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the name of the device used to support or modify the curvature of the endotracheal tube during intubation? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which anatomical structure regulates temperature by monitoring processes of heat production and loss in the human body? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What would be the scrubbed surgical technologists role in the general anesthesia induction phase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During which type of assessment would Korotkoff's sound be heard? |
|
Definition
using a stethoscope for manual blood pressure |
|
|
Term
Which type of anesthesia would be considered nontraditional in the United States? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which pharmacological agents provide muscle relaxation by preventing acetylcholine from stimulating muscle contraction? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What side effects after the use of the dissociative agent ketamine HCl make it contraindicated for use on adults? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Diminished cardiac and urinary output, hypotension and tachycardia are signs of _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The practice of applying cricoid pressure during intubation was named for a British anesthesiologist named _____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The anesthesia provider would assign which physical status classification rating to a patient with severe systemic disease, massive obesity, poorly controlled hypertension or status postmyocardial infarction ? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A bovine-derived enzyme used as a chemical method of hemostasis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Drugs used for ophthalmological procedures are similar to those for systemic use but must be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the topical agent used by peripheral vascular and neurosurgeons to dilate blood vessels intraoperatively? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of ophthalmic medication constricts the pupil? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which classification of drugs is used to induce uterine contractions and reduce bleeding after vaginal of cesarean section delivery? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which drug is an anticoagulant used to reverse the effects of heparin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of medication container would pose the highest risk of injury to the handler and contamination of medication with glass particles? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A widely accepted list of safety measures in entitled the Six _____ of Medication Administration. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Minums, drams and drops are volume measurements in which measurement system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The apothecary system of measurement based weight measurements on a grain of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following categories of drugs would not be used in a healthcare setting?
a. chemical b. generic c. street d. trade |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cough syrups containing codeine would be in which classification of controlled substances? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of drug preparation is sweetened and contains alcohol? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In which organ does biotransformation of drugs most often take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) are also known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term for the portion of the endotracheal tube that is inflated to create a closed airway system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the medical term for normal breathing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Moving the arms away from the body is called _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The _____ position is a type of prone position in which the patient lies on his or her abdomen with the hips flexed into an inverted "V" position. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Tissue injury or necrosis that results when two tissue planes are forcefully pulled in opposite directions is called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Injuries are reduced when healthcare providers use _____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To assist the patient when falling, _____. |
|
Definition
Ease the patient to the floor while protecting his or her head. |
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|
Term
_____ must be lower than the patient's body at all times. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
_____ must be higher than the patient's body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When transferring a patient from the operating room table to her or his stretcher, always _____. |
|
Definition
make sure the wheels are locked |
|
|
Term
Patients often want to "help" during transport. It is important for their safety that they are instructed to _____ when being transported |
|
Definition
keep hands and arms inside of stretcher rails |
|
|
Term
When passing through manually operated doors while transporting a patient, _____. |
|
Definition
open the doors first and secure them |
|
|
Term
While transporting a patient and an emergency occurs while you are in the elevator, you should _____. |
|
Definition
activate the emergency alarm |
|
|
Term
_____ is the best option to use during the transfer of an unconscious patient from the stretcher to the operating room table. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When moving a patient from the operating room table to a stretcher, _____ is responsible for remaining at the patient's head and protecting the airway. |
|
Definition
the anesthesia care provider |
|
|
Term
The developmental age of the _____ if critical for communication to be effective. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
An important element for the safety of the patient during positioning is _____. It is necessary to provide smooth step-by-step coordination. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When armboards are used on the operating room table for a patient in the supine position, they must be _____. |
|
Definition
abducted less than 90 degrees |
|
|
Term
Sequential compression devices are used on patients having surgery to prevent.
a. thrombus formation b. thromboembolus c. blood clot formation d. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When removing the patient's legs from stirrups postoperatively, the patient's legs are lowered _____> |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The use of a footboard for the patient in the reverse Trendelenburg position may prevent the patient from sliding downward, which can cause _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the technical name for a clamp? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which scalpel handle would accommodate a #20 disposable knife blade? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What term describes an instrument, such as a retractor or uterine probe, that can be bent or modified to accommodate for variances in anatomy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Weitlaner, O'Connor-O'Sullivan, and Balfour are all examples of : |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which type of instrument alloy is lightweight, durable and nonmagnetizing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term for the cut-in lines in the jaws or hemostatic clamps and tissue forceps? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which suction tip is indicated for use in the nasopharynx and often called "tonsil" or "oral" suction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The joint of a hemostat where one half of the instrument passes through the other is called the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which scissors are often called suture scissors and are typically straight an relatively blunt tipped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which procedure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which classification of instruments can be of a tweezer-like or ringed and ratcheted configuration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In medical terminology, which suffix indicates an instrument as a cutting device? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which type of endoscope would be appropriate for examination of the renal pelvis via a natural body orifice? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are examples of types of movement of powered surgical instruments EXCEPT:
a. operating b. oscillating c. reciprocating d. rotary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which part of the operating microscope is most proximal to the target tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of surgical device provides a bloodless surgical field by way of extremity compression? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of surgical drape is designed to expose small anatomical structures such as the eyes or ears? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which suction tip is designed with multiple rows of perforations to prevent occlusion by the intestines in a laparotomy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which device can be used sterilely by an ENT or neurosurgeon or unsterilely by and anesthesia provider to determine location, function or conduction of certain anatomical structures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fine, pointed-tip scalpel blade could be used to incise a blood vessel or create a stab wound for drain placement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What surgical specialty rooms would be most likely equipped with three or four overhead operating lights? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term for the opening in a surgical drape that is placed over the operative site? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The thin, compressed sponges used during neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate neural structures are called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Into which classification of dressings would body and Minerva jackets and walking and spica casts fall? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A drain dressing is cut into which letter shape to accommodate the drain tube exiting the patients' body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following drains works by passive action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of syringe has no calibrations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
By what action does a "cigarette" drain remove fluid from a wound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bougie, Heaney, Hegar and Van Buren are types of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of instrument often has a tungsten carbide insert and crosshatch serrations for stabilization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the paired parts of a hemostat that span between the box lock and the finger rings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Metzenbaum, tenotomy and Potts-Smith are examples of which type of instrument? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is not a source of power for surgical powered instruments?
a. alternating current b. direct current c. nitrogen d. solar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following types of surgical sponges are prepackaged in units of five?
a. Cottonoids b. dissectors c. laparotomy d. Ray-Tecs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Op-site, collodion, adhesive gels and Steri-strips are examples of which type of surgical dressing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Kerlix fluffs, ABD pads and plain 4x4 gauze sponges are examples of which part of a three-layer dressing? |
|
Definition
absorbent intermediate layer |
|
|
Term
A patient with a major abdominal wound requiring frequent dressing changes might have which type of binding layer to prevent excoriation of the skin by constant removal of adhesive tape? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal saline, antibiotic and Dakin's solution are used to facilitate mechanical debridement in which type of dressing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term for the tread or tape sewn into a countable sponge that makes it visible on x-rays to prevent a retained item? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the geometric shape usually achieved by the placement of the first layer of sterile surgical drapes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are draping materials EXCEPT:
a. aluminum coated b. latex sheeting c. plastic adhesive d. polyester bonded with cellulose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which device is used unsterilely in surgery for deep vein thrombosis? |
|
Definition
sequential compression device |
|
|
Term
The choice of wound dressing is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT:
a. location of the incision or wound b. type and amount of drainage expected c. ambulatory status of the patient post-op d. condition of the incision/wound upon closure |
|
Definition
c. ambulatory status of the patient post-op |
|
|
Term
Which type of surgical supply does NOT come with an option for being impregnated with iodine on other antimicrobial agent. |
|
Definition
radiopaque surgical sponges |
|
|
Term
Which of the following catheters is used to drain the kidney and is placed with the aid of a cystoscope. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The three lumens of a three-way Foley catheter are used for balloon inflation, urinary drainage and _____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of urinary drainage catheter requires an incision and anchoring to the skin to prevent dislodgement. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do Broviac and Hickman catheters do? |
|
Definition
monitor central venous pressure changes |
|
|
Term
Which of the following self-retaining retractors does NOT require attachment to the OR table?
a. Balfour b. Bookwalter c. Greenburg d. Thompson |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During laparoscopic procedures where carbon dioxide gas is used for insufflation, the intra-abdominal pressure in the average healthy adult patient is kept at _____ mm Hg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the minimum number of suction systems or units required in an operating room? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In general, after what length of continuous pneumatic tourniquet use should the extremity be allowed to reperfuse before reinflating the tourniquet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are Ray-Tec sponges used during laparotomy procedures when the peritoneum is open? |
|
Definition
They should be mounted n a ring forceps as "sponge sticks" |
|
|
Term
GI, chest and airway are types of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why must chest tubes be attached to a water-seal drainage system? |
|
Definition
to keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure for respiration |
|
|
Term
Which medication depresses the central nervous system to produce calm and diminished responsiveness without causing sleep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ is surgically suturing together the ends of a severed nerve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which part of the brain is responsible for the highest level of thought? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which nerves prepare the body for emergencies and stress as part of the fight-or-flight response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term refers to a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating chemical dependencies, emotional problems and mental illness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An unresponsive state from which a person can be aroused only briefly despite vigorous, repeated attempts is known as _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term refers to a temporary interruption in the blood supply to the brain> |
|
Definition
transient ischemic attack |
|
|
Term
Which term refers to the loss of ability to speak, write and/or comprehend the written or spoken word? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of seizure is also known as petit mal seizure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which condition was previously known as multiple personality disorder? |
|
Definition
dissociative identity disorder |
|
|
Term
A/An _____ is administered to temporarily relieve anxiety and to reduce tension. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term is characterized by the intentional creation of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms in order to gain incentives such as avoiding work? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A/An _____ is the accidental or intentional use of an illegal drug or prescription medicine in an amount higher than what is safe or normal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A/An _____ is a chronic pattern of inner experience and behavior that causes serious problems with relationships and work. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of therapy focuses on changing thoughts that are affecting a person's emotions and actions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A/An _____ works by increasing activity in certain areas of the brain to increase concentration and wakefulness. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of disorder is found in children of normal intelligence who have difficulties learning specific skills? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A type of radiation treatment for brain tumors performed without knife or incision is known as _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which disorder is characterized by chronic, excessive worrying? |
|
Definition
generalized anxiety disorder |
|
|
Term
Which condition is also known as a pinched nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
______ is a highly contagious viral infection of the brainstem and spinal cord that sometimes leads to paralysis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ is the prolonged or abnormal inability to sleep. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The 12 pairs of _____ originate from the undersurface of the brain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The two _____ are connected at the lower midpoint by the corpus callosum. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The _____ is a protective covering made up of glial cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ have the right to equal treatment, regardless of age, physical attributes, mental state, ethnicity or socioeconomic status. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
"Aeger primo" is defined as _____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The doctrine of "respondeat superior" means |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which bone is known as the kneecap? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which bone tissue functions as a fat-storage area and is located in the medullary cavity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is the only movable bone of the skull? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The opening of the bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is known as a _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term describes the surgical repair or replacement of a damaged joint? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which form of arthritis is characterized by deposits of uric acid in the joints? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which procedure is the surgical repair of cartilage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which bone tissue is hemopoietic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ is a relatively rare malignant tumor that originates in the bone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The attempted realignment of a bone involved in a fracture or joint dislocation is known as _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which diagnostic technique is most commonly used to visualize a bone fracture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An inflammation of the synovial membrane is known as _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Smooth rubbery connective tissue that makes up the tip of the nose is called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The lower part of the sternum is called the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The replacement of a worn or failed implant is known as _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This term means the surgical removal of bone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A _____ fracture occurs when a person tries to stop a fall by landing on his or her hands. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The surgical removal of a portion of the skull is known as _____> |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ is stiffness of the joints, especially in older adults. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This type of fracture is also known as a simple or complete fracture. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This medical terms is also known as clubfoot. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A transplant using healthy bone marrow cells from a compatible donor is a/an _____? |
|
Definition
allogenic bone marrow transplant |
|
|
Term
This terms refers to the posterior space behind the knee. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The medical term for inflexible joints, also known as sutures, is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The term for the larger bone in the lower leg, also known as the shin bone, is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term is currently used in most jurisdictions of the world to define a state of irreversible death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT one of the "Five Stages of Grief"?
a. acceptance b. bargaining c. denial d. repression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of procedure or care provides a terminal patient with symptom relief or avoidance and improves quality of the remaining life expectancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term represents a positive physical and psychological state of a patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Under what circumstances would many hospitals rescind (invalidate) a "Do Not Resuscitate/Do Not Intubate" order? |
|
Definition
A patient must undergo a therapeutic surgical procedure. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a form of advance directive?
a. do not resuscitate (DNR) b. durable power of attorney c. donation after cardiac death d. document of self-actualization |
|
Definition
d. document of self-actualization |
|
|
Term
Maslow's research produced a hierarchical structure of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For what type of research was Sister Callista Roy best known? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For what type of research was Elizabeth Kubler-Ross best known? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of general category of death would most likely generate high emotional trauma for family members and a need to follow protocols for preservation of evidence in the perioperative period? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which describes a set of therapies that preserve a patient's life when body systems are not functioning sufficiently? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which legislative ruling requires medical facilities to inform patients of their rights to choose the types and extent of medical care available and their legal right to advance directives? |
|
Definition
Patient Self-Determination Act |
|
|
Term
Who would be responsible for seeking consent from family members for organ donation after a patient is determined to have suffered whole-brain death? |
|
Definition
the facility's gift of life coordinator |
|
|
Term
Which of the following needs identified by Maslow would likely be MOST prominent in a surgical patients' mind?
a. esteem b. love and belonging c. safety d. self-actualization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is the pinnacle and can be accomplished only when all other needs are met?
a. esteem b. love and belonging c. physiological and safety d. self-actualization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following religions typically prohibits its followers from receiving blood transfusions?
a. Roman Catholic b. Jehovah's Witness c. Mormon d. Protestant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which organs or tissues can be recovered after death or after a patient has already been removed from life support? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A person in a persistent vegetative state (with only basic physiological functions of respiration, blood pressure and heartbeat intact) is categorized as having suffered which kind of death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which religion believes in reincarnation and that the rebirth is influenced by the previous death experience? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Denial, rationalization, regression and repression are common forms of what type of mechanism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following needs of the surgical patient is related to the identification and understanding of an individual's place in the universe and may include his or her views on theology, philosophy or mythology?
a. physical b. psychological c. social d. spiritual |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following needs of the surgical patient is related to anatomy and physiology, genetics and pathology?
a. physical b. psychological c. social d. spiritual |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following procedures would be a treatment for an elderly patient's psychological dissatisfaction with his or her appearance?
a. blepharoplasty and rhytidectomy b. laparoscopic cholecystectomy c. transurethral resection of prostate d. extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy |
|
Definition
a. blepharoplasty and rhytidectomy |
|
|
Term
What does Sister Callista Roy define as "all conditions, circumstances and influences that surround and affect the development and behavior of the person? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which area of concern or fear would most likely be the main focus for a toddler scheduled for surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which area of concern or fear would most likely be the main focus for a teenager scheduled for surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Denial, rationalization, regression and repression are all examples of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which condition was defined by the Harvard School of Medicine and include the following: flat EEG, unresponsiveness, lowered body temperature and absent pupil reflexes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
SIDS (also known as crib death) is categorized as which general category of cause of death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of life-support treatment would be considered ultimately futile and its benefits far outweighed by the financial and emotional burden suffered by the family and healthcare system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A terminally ill patient whose advance directive is to refuse any life-saving efforts by healthcare workers is choosing which type of euthanasia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a normal human emotion that surgical team members may feel for their patients, but must not interfere with their abilities to maintain focus on their jobs, particularly in hazardous situations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient may be considered a candidate for donation after cardiac death (DCD) if his or her heart is predicted to cease functioning within what period of time after removal from mechanical support? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In recognition of which religion's death rites would the operating room staff allow the deceased patient's son or other relative to close the eyes and mouth and wash the body after removal from the surgical suite? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The death of a patient from complications of COPD would be categorized as which general category of cause of death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is included in the restricted area?
a. storage areas for sterile supplies used in the operating room b. preoperative holding area c. operating room director's office d. dressing rooms |
|
Definition
a. storage areas for sterile supplies usedin the operating rooms |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a consideration for operating room design?
a. controlling traffic patterns b. located close to patient c. ability to quickly provide each operating room with the necessary supplies during a case d. a & c |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The scrub person may set up and work from the _____ to supply immediately necessary instrumentation to the surgeon and first assistant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is meant by positive-pressure air supply for each operating room? |
|
Definition
air pressure in the operating room is kept at a higher level than that of the surrounding corridors |
|
|
Term
How many air changes per hour do the guidelines recommend for the operating room? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Temperature and humidity are kept at what levels in the OR? |
|
Definition
68 and 75 degrees F, 50% humidity |
|
|
Term
What is a characteristic of the unrestricted area? |
|
Definition
often contains dressing rooms for physicians and support staff |
|
|
Term
The attire for the restricted area is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The scrub person establishes the sterile field by _____. |
|
Definition
gowning and gloving with the closed technique |
|
|
Term
Terminal cleaning refers to cleaning at which point in the surgical schedule? |
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Definition
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Term
Which vitamin is required for activation of the body's natural clotting mechanism?m |
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Definition
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Term
Avitene is the brand name for which type of chemical hemostatic agent? |
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Definition
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Term
Ancef, Kefzol and Keflex are brand names for which category of antibiotic/anti-infective agents? |
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Definition
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Term
Fentanyl citrate is the generic name for which of the following analgesics? |
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Definition
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Term
The ratio of a solution's solute to solvent is its: |
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Definition
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Term
By what name is the International Systems of Units more commonly known? |
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Definition
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Term
How would a patient prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for angina would take the medicine? |
|
Definition
placing it under the tongue |
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Term
Magnesium, calcium and zinc come from what drug source? |
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Definition
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Term
Which governmental regulatory agency has oversight of pharmaceutical companies? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the chemical name for a chemical or drug that causes birth defects? |
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Definition
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Term
Which category of drug is used to outline hollow or tubular anatomical structures for radiographic visualization? |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of reaction occurs when a drug potentiates or enhances the effect of another drug? |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of pharmaceutical agent bonds to another agent's receptor site, preventing the other agent from binding there and causing the desired effect? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of irrigating solution is used during placement of synthetic grafts in cardiovascular surgery to prevent clotting? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of anesthesia nerve block involves injecting local anesthetics with Wydase around the optic nerves? |
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Definition
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Term
Lidocaine, bupivacaine and ropivacaine are examples of what type of nerve conduction blocking agent? |
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Definition
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Term
Extreme caution should be exercised when using which of the following for localized anesthesia of fingers, toes or the penis, or in neonates? |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following topical anesthetics is used as a "freezing" method to block pain receptors in skin? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the term for a spinal anesthetic solution that has the same specific gravity as cerebrospinal fluid? |
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Definition
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Term
What is another term for spinal anesthesia? |
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Definition
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Term
What is done to an upper extremity with an Esmarch bandage prior to inflation of the double-cuffed tourniquet used in Bier block anesthesia? |
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Definition
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Term
When a patient undergoes induced hypothermia to a level of 68 degrees or below, it is termed to be _____? |
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Definition
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Term
_____ is an inflammation of both the renal pelvis and the kidney. |
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Definition
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Term
Which term is known as urge incontinence? |
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Definition
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Term
Which term describes the outer region of the kidney? |
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Definition
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Term
The term _____ describes difficult or painful urination? |
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Definition
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Term
Which radiographic study is also known as a flat-plate of the abdomen? |
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Definition
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Term
Which term is also known as an ileostomy? |
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Definition
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Term
Which term refers to excessive fluid collection in body tissues? |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of catheter is made of a flexible tube with a balloon filled with sterile water at the end to hold it in place in the bladder. |
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Definition
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Term
Urine drains from the ureters into the bladder through the _____ |
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Definition
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Term
_____ is difficulty in starting a urinary stream. |
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Definition
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Term
Which term refers to the opening of the urethra? |
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Definition
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Term
Which term refers to treatment for a nephrolith lodged in the ureter? |
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Definition
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Term
A _____ is a replacement for the missing bladder created by using about 20 inches of the small intestine. |
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Definition
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Term
Also known as a nephrorrhaphy, a _____ is the surgical fixation of a floating kidney. |
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Definition
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Term
What term refers to the examination of urine to determine the presence of abnormal elements? |
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Definition
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Term
The _____ returns filtered blood to the bloodstream after passing through the glomerulus. |
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Definition
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Term
Which condition can be caused by the kidneys not receiving enough blood to filter due to dehydration or a sudden drop in blood volume or blood pressure? |
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Definition
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Term
_____ is an acute pain in the kidney area that is caused by blockage during the passage of a nephrolith. |
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Definition
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Term
Which term is also known as ischuria? |
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Definition
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Term
Which term refers to behavioral therapy in which the patient learns to urinate on a schedule? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which type of incontinence usually occurs in older men with enlarged prostates? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which term refers to a radiographic examination of the bladder after a contrast medium in instilled via a urethral catheter? |
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Definition
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Term
_____ is a surgical incision made to enlarge the opening of the urinary meatus. |
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Definition
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Term
Each nephron contains a cluster of capillaries called a/an _____. |
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Definition
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Term
A/An _____ is the removal of excess tissue from an enlarged prostate with a resectoscope. |
|
Definition
transurethral prostatectomy |
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Term
A film that causes an abnormal attachment of two internal surfaces or structures is called _____. |
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Definition
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Term
The size of the suture is called _____. |
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Definition
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Term
Surgical silk and surgical cotton are characterized by _____. |
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Definition
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Term
Single strands of suture used as ligatures are _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Wound reinforcement sutures are called _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which is a suture with a commercially attached needle? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Plain surgical gut is which of the following?
a. natural absorbable b. synthetic absorbable c. synthetic nonabsorbable d. natural nonabsorbable |
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Definition
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|
Term
Surgical steel suture in which of the following?
a. nonreactive, inert b. corrosive, irritating c. both of these d. neither of theses |
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Definition
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Term
Sutures placed in tissues for an aesthetic closure are referred to as _____. |
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Definition
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Term
Contact with body fluids through cracks, sores or other lesions can transmit _____ in the healthcare setting. |
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Definition
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Term
All workers in the health-care setting should be vaccinated against _____. |
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Definition
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Term
Scalpel blades must be mounted and removed using a _____. |
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Definition
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Term
_____ is/are implemented to reduce the risk of infectious disease transmission by large, moist aerosol droplets. |
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Definition
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Term
To promote safety in the operating room, _____ used hypodermic needles |
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Definition
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Term
_____ is/are not considered safe or adequate eye protection since the sides of the eyes are not shielded. |
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Definition
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Term
The use of a dispersive electrode is required with _____.
a. a bipolar device b. an ESU (Bovie) hand piece c. a monopolar device d. both b and c |
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Definition
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Term
Electricity flows through a circuit. When using an ESU, the _____ serves to spread the flow of electricity over a large are to prevent burns to the patient where the electricity leaves the body. |
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Definition
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Term
All hospital personnel must know ______ and know how to turn off the electrical supply in the event of a life-threatening shock. |
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Definition
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Term
The characteristics of electricity are current, voltage, resistance and grounding. The discharge of electrical current from the source to ground, where it is dispersed and rendered harmless, is _____. |
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Definition
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Term
Always read the identification label of any _____ before administering it. |
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Definition
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Term
A plan that elaborates the exact duties of personnel and the actions to be taken to protect patients and staff in a structural fire is called _____. |
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Definition
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Term
_____ are the most common and frequent sources of fuel in surgical fires. |
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Definition
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Term
The words _____ and _____ are identical in meaning.
a. flammable and inflammable b. flame resistant and flame retardant c. inflammable and flame retardant d. both a and b |
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Definition
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Term
_____is/are the statistical probability of a harmful event. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Protective clothing or equipment that prevents the wearer from direct contact with hazardous chemicals or potentially infectious body fluids is called _____. |
|
Definition
personal protective equipment |
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|
Term
Many tragic accidents and deaths in the surgical setting could have been avoided had the individual _____.
a. known the risk b. accepted the real possibility of harm c. taken precautions to protect him/herself, coworkers and the patient d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
All fires require three components: fuel, source of ignition and oxygen. _____ makes the operating room a high risk environment.
a. combustible material b. high concentration of oxygen c. an energy source capable of producing heat to ignite the fuel d. both a and c |
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Definition
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Term
Protection of _____ is the primary concern of the operating room personnel. |
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Definition
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|
Term
_____ is created during the use of a laser or an electrosurgical unit. |
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Definition
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|
Term
HBV, HCV,and alcohol abuse are precursors to which disease? |
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Definition
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|
Term
During cholangiography, bubbles in the contrast medium would most likely _____. |
|
Definition
give the appearance of stones on the x-ray |
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|
Term
Whipple procedure is done for treatment of a tumor in which abdominal organ? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Another name for a thyroid tenaculum is a _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which potentially life-threatening disease or condition can result from untreated thyrotoxicosis? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Tetany is a serious potential post-op complication of which type of surgical intervention? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What term describes the benign condition of breast enlargement in men? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which stage of breast cancer is characterized by evidence of distal metastasis? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which anatomical structure is the largest mass of lymphatic tissue in the body? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a region of the pancreas?
a. body b. capsule c. head d. tail |
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Definition
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|
Term
The triangle of Calet is an anatomical space bounded by structures in which surgical procedure? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is achieved by insufflation of carbon dioxide into the abdominal cavity? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Where is the gallbladder located in relation to the liver? |
|
Definition
inferior surface of the right lobe |
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|
Term
For which procedure would the Buie pile forceps be used? |
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Definition
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|
Term
A typical end-to-end bowel anastomosis is accomplished with which suturing technique? |
|
Definition
two-layer, interrupted technique for seromuscular approximation with silk; continuous for mucosa with absorbable suture |
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|
Term
In which abdominal incision would the linea alba be opened down to the peritoneum? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which incision is traditionally used for an open appendectomy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A Maloney bougie dilator is used in which anatomical structure? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Doyen, Kocher, Dennis and Allen are all names of which type of instrument? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does TEP stand for in general surgery? |
|
Definition
totally extraperitoneal prolapse |
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|
Term
Wat term is used for surgical opening of the abdominal or peritoneal cavity? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which type of hernia occurs below the abdominocrural crease and more frequently in females? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is another way of saying "cephalad to caudad"? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which fascial sheet is attached to the iliac crest, linea alba and pubis? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is another name for an acquired ventral hernia through the linea semilunaris? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A gastrostomy can be created by all of the following methods EXCEPT:
a. open b. endovascular c. laparoscopic d. percutaneous |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which suturing technique is often used on the appendiceal stump? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Great care is taken to identify and preserve the long thoracic and thoracodorsal nerves in which surgical preocedure? |
|
Definition
modified radical mastectomy |
|
|
Term
Where are the parathyroid glands in relation to the thyroid? |
|
Definition
dorsal, superior and inferior |
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|
Term
What do the parathyroid glands regulate in the body? |
|
Definition
blood calcium concentration |
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|
Term
The skin incision for a thyroidectomy will follow which anatomical lines? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which handheld retractors are frequently used to retract tissues during thyroidectomy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the name of a gastric mass of indigestible vegetable fiber and hair that may require surgical excision? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of hernia protrudes through the transversalis fascia in the area of Hesselbach's triangle? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the type of hernia in which both direct and indirect defects are present? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of hernia results from a failure of the deep internal ring to close during fetal development and allows intestinal protrusion into the scrotum? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
For which type of hernia repair could a Penrose drain be used as a method of gentle retraction of the spermatic cord? |
|
Definition
McVay inguinal herniorrhaphy |
|
|
Term
A vagotomy is a surgical treatment option for_____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which type of intestinal obstruction involves a telescoping of a portion of the intestine into another portion? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which type of procedure is used to release abnormal tissue connections in the abdominal viscera and layers? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
End-to-end, end-to-side, side-to-side and Roux-en-Y are techniques for _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In a laparoscopic appendectomy, all of the following could be used for dissection of the appendix, EXCEPT:
a. endoscopic linear stapler b. ligating loop instrument c. intraluminal circular stapler d. intracorporeal suturing instrument |
|
Definition
c. intraluminal circular stapler |
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|
Term
Which statement is TRUE regarding polyps and diverticula in the colon?
a. Both protrude inward into the lumen of the intestine b. Both protrude outward from the lumen of the intestine c. Polyps protrude inward, and diverticula protrude outward from the intestine d. Diverticula protrude inward, and polyps protrude outward from the intestine. |
|
Definition
c. Polyps protrude inward, and diverticula protrude outward from the intestine |
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|
Term
The hepatic and splenic flexures are located proximally and distally in which part of the large intestine? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
"Bowel technique" refers to steps used by the surgical team to prevent postoperative _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
An intestinal stoma is created at a point below the costal margin, above the belt line and at the lateral edge of which muscle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the most common site of permanent colostomy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which surgical position is used exclusively for anorectal procedures? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which type of viewing instrument would be used for surgical treatment of hemorrhoids? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Due to the vascular and friable nature of the liver, a surgeon may choose to use suture on which type of needle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the incision routinely used for open cholecystectomy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which handheld retractor is specifically designed for use in open cholecystectomy to elevate the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the reason for injecting saline through the cholangiogram catheter prior to the contrast media? |
|
Definition
The saline will test patency of the cystic duct prior to injecting the contrast |
|
|
Term
A T-tube or wound drain left in place following laparoscopic cholecystectomy would MOST likely exit through _____? |
|
Definition
one of the 5 mm right port site incisions |
|
|
Term
Which of the following are endocrine-secreting glands of the pancreas that make up only 1% of the gland?
a. acini b. ampulla of Vater c. islets of Langerhans d. uncinate process |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Pancreaticoduodenectomy is also known as which procedure? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A needle-localization procedure may be performed in radiology for assistance in locating discrete masses in the _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of incision is made for excisional biopsy of a centrally located breast mass involving the lactiferous ducts. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the name for the first lymph node in the axillary chain that is frequently biopsied in conjunction with a breast biopsy, lumpectomy or mastectomy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The surgeon may request what for irrigation to aid in destroying any residual tumor cells after dissection? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Surgical removal of the entire breast without any lymph nodes is a(n) _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
If a mastectomy is scheduled to follow a breast biopsy and frozen section results indicate carcinoma, what is done?
a. Protect the field until the second procedure begins b. Bring up a Mayo stand with new instruments for the mastectomy c. Use same instruments, but change gloves d. Re-prep, redrape patient; team changes gowns and gloves; and use new instruments |
|
Definition
d. Re-prep, redrape patient; team changes gowns and gloves; and use new instruments |
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|
Term
Bifurcated drains and fluffy pressure dressings are used following mastectomy primarily to _____. |
|
Definition
prevent hematoma or seroma |
|
|
Term
Dilation of the submucosal and subcutaneous venous plexus that lines the anal canal is called _____> |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term describes the removal of a cone-shaped specimen of tissue from the cervix? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When the mature ovum leaves the ovary, it is caught by the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The _____ secretes the thick alkaline fluid that aids the motility of sperm during ejaculation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which sexually transmitted disease is caused by a virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is a developmental defect in which one testicle fails to descend into the scrotum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Inflammation of the fallopian tube is known as _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The _____ is the tough, membranous outer layer of the uterus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The condition _____ occurs when the ovaries stop functioning before age 40 due to disease, hormonal disorder or surgical removal. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A woman who has given birth two or more times is known as ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term for removal of the foreskin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is also know as menses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
From implantation through the 8th week of pregnancy, the developing child is known as a/an _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The first movements of the fetus that a mother can feel are called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Postpartum vaginal discharge that typically continues for 4 to 6 weeks after childbirth is called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which specialist would diagnose and treat diseases and disorders of the female reproductive system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A cosmetic procedure to increase breast size is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What term is also known as a complete hysterectomy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A _____is a measure taken to lessen the likelihood of pregnancy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The _____ is a temporary organ that forms in the uterus to allow the exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste between mother and infant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term also means colpitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What term refers to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before the birth of the fetus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term refers to pain during intercourse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term is also known as parturition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A narrowing of the opening of the foreskin so it cannot be retracted to expose the glans penis is known as ______? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term refers to a sperm count of less than 20 million/mL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The joint of the hemostat where on half of the instrument passes though the other is called the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which scissors are often called "suture scissors" and are typically straight with a relatively blunt tip? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which procedure? |
|
Definition
|
|