Term
What are a prosecutor's options at the filing stage? |
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Definition
1. File charges
2. Decline to file (DA reject)
3. Refer back for futher investigation |
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Term
What discretionary filing decisions does the prosecutor have at the filing stage? |
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Definition
1. File wobbler as misdemeanor versus felony
2. Number of counts
3. Types of charges (strikes, mandatory sentences, sex registration)
4. Which D's to charge (joinder), which D's to offer immunity (Bruton) |
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Term
What are the requirements to charge? |
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Definition
Prosecutor must have probable cause.
Some DA Offices will require a higher standard, akin to the burden at trial. |
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Term
What factors does the prosecutor consider when determining what charges to file? |
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Definition
1. D's prior criminal background
2. Statutory and administrative limits (jxn)
3. Ethical limits and obligations
4. Economic realities (LADA doesn't often prosecute stat rape, etc.) |
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Term
What are the limits on prosecutorial discretion? |
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Definition
1. Improper factors: race, ethnicity, national origin, gender
2. Selective prosecution: there's a general presumption that prosecutors will exercise discretion in good faith, howver, if D can prove a discriminatory motive, prosecution may be dismissed.
3. Vindictive prosecution: D must show actual vindictiveness, doesn't apply to pre-trial decisions. |
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Term
What factors influence a decision not to prosecute? |
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Definition
1. Lack of sufficient evidence or corpus
2. Inadmissible search or seizure
3. Vict is unavailable/declines to testify
4. Combined counts/cases
5. Interest of justice
6. Referred to another jxn
7. Deferred for probation/parole violation |
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Term
What other factors may influence a prosecutor's decision to prosecute? |
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Definition
1. Special interest groups: MADD, Police, Victims, Justice for Homicide, etc.
2. Political influences: media, campaign donors, politicians, etc.
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Term
What are the two formal charging mechanisms? |
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Definition
1. Complaint --> Prelim --> Information
2. Grand jury --> Indictment |
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Term
What are the speedy trial rights triggered by arrest? |
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Definition
1. Right to probable cause declaration within 48 hours
2. Right to arraignment within 2 court days (bail setting hearing, appointment of counsel)
3. Prelim within 10 court days of arraignment
4. Second arraignment on information within 10 court days of prelim
5. Trial within 60 court days of prelim |
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Term
What evidence can be presented to the Grand Jury? What evidence must be presented to the Grand Jury? |
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Definition
Hearsay is admissible at a grand jury proceeidng, however, California has mandated that only admissible evidence be presented.
The prosecutor is under no duty to disclose exculpatory information to the grand jury. |
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Term
When do Aranda/Bruton issues arise? |
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Definition
In the context of prejudicial joinder.
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Term
When is severance required? |
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Definition
Severance is proper only where there is a serious risk that a joint trial will compromise a specific trial right of one of the Ds or prevent the jury from making a reliable determination of D's guilt or innocence. A D must articulate specific instances of prejudice. |
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Term
What options are available for dealing with Bruton issues? |
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Definition
1. Separate trials
2. Try Ds together but forgo use of confessoin
3. Redact confession to remove all references to the very existence of a non-confessing co-defendant. |
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Term
What constitutional right does Bruton implicate? |
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Definition
D has a constitutional right to confront his accuser, and when co-defendant's confession is admitted and it implicated the D but co-defendant doesn't take the stand, D is deprived of his constitutional right to confront via cross-examination. |
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Term
What is the "right to bail?" |
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Definition
The "right to bail" means that excessive bail will not be required, however, under Stack v. Boyle there is no constitutional obligatoin to to allow for bail, especially in capital cases. |
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Term
When may a defendant request that bail be reviewed? |
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Definition
Defendants have the right to ask for bail adjustments at any point, but there must be a change in circumstances, such as a preliminary hearing, D commits a new crime, D violates a pretrial condition, D fails to show up for court proceeding |
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Term
What are the different types of bail? |
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Definition
1. OR (own recognizance) or PR (personal recognizance)
2. Financial bond (either secured on unsecured)-- Court can conduct Nebbia hearing to ensure that bond isn't paid out of illegally gotten funds. |
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Term
What are the purposes to bail? |
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Definition
Preventative detention:
1. Danger to the community/flight risk
2. Detain sexual predators
3. Detain material witnesses
4. Detain immigrants/non-citizens
5. Detain enemy combatants |
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Term
What is the standard for preventative detention where D is claimed to either be a danger to the community or a flight risk? |
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Definition
Gov't must demonstrate by clear and convincing evidence after an adversary proceeding that no release conditions will reasonably assure these goals. |
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Term
How is the detention of sexual predators after completion of their sentences justified? |
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Definition
Commitment is civil, not criminal and thus not punitive. The 8th Amendment does not apply to civil penalties. |
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Term
How is the detention of material witnesses justified? |
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Definition
In limited cases, material witnesses may be detained or required to post bail when there is evidence that their appearance at trial "may become intractable to secure . . . by subpoena." |
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Term
How is the detention of immigrants/non-citizens justified? |
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Definition
Civil confinement for regulatory needs does not violate due process so long as detention isn't indefinite. |
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Term
How is the detention of designated enemy combatants justified? |
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Definition
As long as the president designates a person to be an "enemy combatant" detention for some time period is justifed. The SCt has put limits on this, however. |
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Term
What rights and protections does a person designated to be an enemy combatant have? |
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Definition
1. Right to challenge designation as an enemy combatant.
2. Court has jxn to review designation as enemy combatant and the legality of that person's detention as an enemy combatant
3. Military commissions convened to try enemy combatants violate the UCMJ and the Geneva Convention |
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Term
What are the issues in preventative detention? |
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Definition
1. D is deemed guilty of all offenses charged for the purposes of setting bail, which goes against the presumption of innocence
2. Having a client in jail makes it harder to prepare for trial
3. Being incarcerated is difficult--there's a social stigma attached, jails are overcrowded and dangerous |
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Term
What factors are used in deciding bail? |
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Definition
1. Seriousness of the offense
2. Punishment that D is facing
3. D's prior record
4. D's ties to the community
5. D's financial status
6. D's character
7. Any other information that reflects a danger to the community or a flight risk. |
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Term
Which party bears the burden at a bail hearing? |
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Definition
Technically, the prosecution has the burden, which is initially met by filing the complaint. At that point the D is presumed guilty of the charges and bail is set at the presumptive level set by the bail schedule. Then, burden shifts to D to show why bail should be lower.
D has the burden to show why D should be released pending appeal. |
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Term
What is the legal purpose of a preliminary hearing? |
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Definition
Legal reason: gov't must produce sufficient evidence that D committed crime to hold D for trial
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Term
What are the practical purposes of a preliminary hearing? |
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Definition
Practical reasons:
1. Foster settlement/plea bargaining
2. Assist in testing the strengths and weaknesses of the case
3. Test out victims/witnesses
4. Stakes are low-- gov't can refile twice as a matter of right |
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Term
What rights does a defendant have at the preliminary hearing? |
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Definition
1. Right to PC hearing within 10 days of arraignment
2. No right to jury
3. Right to an atty
4. Right to confront/cross-exam wits
5. Right to remain silent
6. Right to public hearing
7. Hearsay is admissible
8. Discovery is limited |
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Term
What is the standard of proof at a preliminary hearing? |
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Definition
Probable cause, not beyond a reasonable doubt |
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Term
What are the major differences between a preliminary hearing and a grand jury proceeding? |
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Definition
Grand jury is secretive, D does not have:
1. The right to be present
2. Right to an attorney
3. Right to cross-exam wits
4. Right to testify
5. Right to appointed counsel
6. Right to present witnesses
7. Right to transcript
8. No judge is present |
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Term
What are the advantages of a grand jury? |
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Definition
1. It's secretive
2. No defense counsel present
3. No cross-examination of witnesses
4. No judge present
5. Prosecution may introduce inadmissible evidence |
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Term
When is it best to use a grand jury? |
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Definition
Multiple defendant-type cases like gang cases where there is a desire to protect the victim/witnesses from intimidation.
May also be used to expedite the process. |
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Term
What are the disadvantages to the grand jury? |
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Definition
Witness testimony isn't preserved for "prior testimony" evidentiary exception because testimony isn't preserved.
In CA, hearsay isn't permitted, so more witnesses must be called. |
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Term
What evidence may a grand jury consider? |
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Definition
There is no constitutional bar to presenting a grand jury with hearsay evidence.
States, however, are free to enact their own standards, and CA has decided to make hearsay inadmissible before a grand jury. |
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Term
What must a prosecutor disclose to a grand jury? |
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Definition
Nada. Zilch. Zippo.
There is no duty to disclose exculpatory information to a grand jury because a grand jury is not an adjudicative proceeding but rather an accusatory body. |
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Term
What are some proposals for grand jury reform? |
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Definition
1. Allow defense counsel to accompany witnesses.
2. Require prosecutors to present exculpatory evidence
3. Prevent prosecutors from using inadmissible evidence
4. Give the target the right to testify
5. Provide witnesses with transcripts of their testimony
6. Grand juries may not name persons as unindicted co-conspirators. |
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Term
What are the type of pleas? |
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Definition
1. Guilty
2. Nolo contendre
3. Not guilty |
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Term
What are the limitations on plea bargaining? |
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Definition
Plea bargains must be knowingly, voluntarily, and intelligently made. |
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Term
What are the "pros" to plea bargaining? |
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Definition
1. Facilitates the processing of a large number of cases
2. Reduces costs
3. Results in "tailored" dispositions
4. Doesn't require vict/wit testimony
5. Allows police/prosecutors to focus on bigger cases
6. Permits dispo of marginal cases |
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Term
What are the "cons" to plea bargaining? |
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Definition
1. Prosecutors may "coerce" guilty pleas to increase conviction rate
2. Pressures innocent people to plead guilty
3. May result in disparate treatment
4. Allows D to escape full punishment
5. Typically one-sided
6. No public oversight
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Term
What are the limitations on courts taking guilty pleas? |
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Definition
Courts cannot assume the voluntariness of pleas-- rather, need to have on the record evidence of knowing, voluntary, and intelligently-made plea. |
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Term
Where might a plea be found to be involuntary, unknowing, or unintelligently-made? |
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Definition
1. Direct consequences: plea may be found to be not voluntary where D was not advised of a specific element of the crime, wasn't advised of parole eligibility, wasn't advised of offer, etc.
2. Standard: D must show that, but for counsel's ineffectiveness, he would have taken the deal. |
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Term
What is the role of the court in supervising plea deals? |
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Definition
1. All guilty or nolo pleas must be accepted by the court.
2. Judge must determine that plea is knowing, voluntary, and intelligent.
3. Judges may enter a plea themselves, but in such cases, D must plead to the entire complaint because judge can't dismiss charges. |
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Term
What remedies does a defendant have for violations of a plea agreement? |
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Definition
If D can show that the plea agreement was violated, D is entitled to what he originally bargained for.
However, D has to stick to his end of the bargain, even if it requires testifying more than once. This doesn't violate double jeopardy. |
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Term
When may a defendant withdraw a guilty plea? |
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Definition
Once entered, a guilty plea may be withdrawn only for a "fair and just" reason. The D bears the burden to show that s/he wasn't properly advised of each and every element of the offense.
Judges have broad discretion in this arena.
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Term
What constitutes a "fair and just reason" sufficient to justify the withdrawal of a guilty plea? |
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Definition
Failure to advise on immigration consequences, coercion by attorney, felt threatened-- anything that D can use to argue that their ability to knowingly, voluntarily, and intelligently waive was adversely affected.
Collateral consequences to conviction (voting, job restrictions, handgun restrictions) don't have to be advised. |
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Term
Which amendment guarantees the right to a jury trial? |
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Definition
The 6th Amendment guarantees a right to a jury trial for all offenses which may be punished by imprisonment for more than six months. |
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Term
Is there a minimum number of jurors required by the constitution? |
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Definition
The 6th Amendment requires at least 6 jurors. |
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Term
Does the 6th Amendment require unanimity? |
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Definition
No, unless there is only six jurors, in which case unanimity is required. |
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Term
Is a particular standard of proof required in criminal cases? |
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Definition
Yes, in order to imprison someone, the state must prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the person committed the crime. This is required by the 5th Amendment's due process clause. |
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Term
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Definition
The venire is the entire jury pool. |
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Term
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Definition
The petit jury is the actual jury, drawn from the venire, that will hear the case. |
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Term
What is a for-cause challenge? |
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Definition
These are challenges to remove jurors from the venire, made for any reason related to the juror's bias. Each side has an unlimited number of for-cause challenges. |
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Term
What is a preemptory challenge? |
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Definition
Each side gets a limited number of preemptory challenges which may be used to remove jurors for reasons unrelated to the juror's bias, though may not be used in a discriminatory way. |
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Term
What are the constitutional limits to the venire? |
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Definition
The 6th Amendment provides a right to pick a petit jury from a fair cross-section of the community, so states cannot systematically exclude certain groups (like women) from jury pools. |
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Term
What are illegitmate reasons to strike jurors using preemptory challenges? |
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Definition
Batson: race is not a legitimate reason to exclude jurors
Batson has been applied to prohibit discriminatoin on the basis of race, gender, ethnicity, religion, and even sexual orientation. |
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Term
What is the procedure when a party makes a Batson/Wheeler motion? |
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Definition
1. D must make prima facie case of discrimination
2. Burden shifts to party exercising preemptory to provide neutral reason
3. Trial court determines if there was purposeful discrimination |
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Term
What does the court consider when ruling on a Batson/Wheeler motion? |
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Definition
The court should review the entire record of jury selection and determine the validity of the proffered neutral explanation.
There is no requirement for a specific statistical method to be used to determine systematic exclusion. |
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Term
What must the court do when ruling on a Batson/Wheeler motion? |
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Definition
The Court must articulate its findings. The Court cannot speculate on how jurors would act or rule. The explanation must be based on plausible facts. |
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Term
When does pretrial publicity interfere with a defendant's right to a fair trial? |
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Definition
The Constitution doesn't require that the jurors be totally ignorant of the facts and issues involved. All that is required is that the jurors be able to put aside their impressions and opinions in order to render a verdict that is based on the evidence. |
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Term
What remedies are available to limit the prejudicial effects of pretrial publicity? |
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Definition
1. Courtroom closures: these rights must be balanced on a case-by-case basis.
2. Change of venue
3. Sequestration
4. Gag order
5. Tighter judicial control of courtroom |
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Term
What ethical limitations exist on lawyers' extrajudicial comments? |
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Definition
Lawyers have a general first amendent right to free speech, however, that right is not absolute.
Where a lawyer's comments are reasonably likely to prejudice the proceedings, they are not protected by the first amendment. |
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Term
Is prior restraint an acceptable technique to manage pretrial publicity? |
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Definition
Generally, no. Prior restraint (order prohibiting publication of info re: trial proceedings) must be a last resort, and is only available if the court finds that alternative means would not have sufficiently mitigated the adverse effects of pre-trial publicity. |
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Term
When can D challenge the presence of cameras, etc. in the courtroom? |
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Definition
D can only challenge media coverage where D can show that such coverage compromised the ability of the jury to judge him fairly, or that broadcast coverage of his particular case had an adverse impact on the trial participants sufficient to constitute a denial of due process. |
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Term
What trial rights does a defendant possess? |
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Definition
1. Right to a speedy trial-- attaches when formal proceedings are initiated.
2. Right to confront and cross-exam wits
3. Right to be present at trial
4. Right against self-incrimination |
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Term
What are the limitations to the defendant's right to be present at trial? |
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Definition
The 6th Amendment guarantees the right to be present, but the defendant may waive this right through his conduct.
The visible shackling of the defendant during either the trial or the guilt phase violates his 5th Amendment due process rights. |
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Term
What are the Court's alternatives when a defendant is behaving in an unruly way during trial? |
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Definition
1. Remove D from courtroom
2. Bind and gag D
3. Hold D in contempt |
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Term
What does the right to confront witnesses entail? |
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Definition
1. States may not adopt "per se" rules allowing for closed-circuit TV examination of certain vulnerable witnesses, but the gov't is entitled to make a showing on a case-by-case basis.
2. Testimonial statements may not be admitted through hearsay exceptions against the defendant. (Crawford v. Washington) |
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Term
What does Crawford v. Washington hold? |
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Definition
The introduction of testimonial statements through various exceptions (like the spousal privilege) violates the defendant's confrontation clause right to cross-examine the witness. |
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Term
What is the major distinction drawn by Crawford and its progeny? |
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Definition
There is an important distinction drawn between tesimonial and non-testimonial statements. |
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Term
Under what circumstances is a statement deemed non-testimonial? |
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Definition
Where the purpose of the statement isn't accusatory but rather is to aid in an ongoing investigation, the statement is non-testimonial and thus may be admitted.
DNA evidence is deemed non-testimonial. |
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Term
What is the important takeaway of Bullcoming v. New Mexico and Melendez-Diaz? |
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Definition
Formal forensic laboratory reports are testimonial and require the ability to cross exmaine as to the technician's accuracy adn competency. |
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Term
What is the important takeaway of Williams v. Illinois? |
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Definition
DNA evidence is not considered testimonial--DNA doens't "accuse". |
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Term
What is the right against self-incrimination? |
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Definition
Griffin v. California: prohibits the prosecution from encouraging the jury to draw negative inferences from defendant's choice to exercise his constitutional right to remain silent. |
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Term
What discovery must a defense attorney provide the prosecutor? |
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Definition
The state may require a defenant to turn over the names of his alibi witnesses. This does not violate defendant's 5th amendment right against self-incrimination. |
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Term
What are the purposes of discovery? |
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Definition
Discovery allows the parties to prepare for trial, promotes the pre-trial settlement of cases, allows parties to challenge the use of certain evidence, and creates a level playing field under the 5th amendment. A trial is not a poker game but rather a search for the truth. |
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Term
What is the prosecution required to disclose? |
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Definition
The prosecution must disclose both inculpatory and exculpatory evidence. |
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Term
What inculpatory evidence must the prosecutor turn over? |
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Definition
1. Names of all witnesses
2. Police reports containing witness statements
3. All statements made by the defendant
4. The defendant's criminal record
5. Any physical evidence the gov't seeks to introduce
6. Any expert reports |
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Term
What reciprocal discovery obligations does the defense have? |
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Definition
1. Names of all witnesses to be called at trial, especially alibi witnesses
2. Any reports of witness statements
3. Any mental defenses, including expert reports
4. Defense is not required to state whether defendant will testify. |
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Term
What exculpatory information must the prosecutor disclose?
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Definition
Under Brady, the prosecution is required to disclose all exculpatory information that will be "material" to either guilt or punishment. This includes not only evidence required by the prosecution for its case-in-chief but also evidence that mitigates defendant's culpability, and impeachment evidence against gov't witnesses which affect credibility. |
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Term
When is a failure to disclose exclupatory information sufficient to require a new trial? |
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Definition
When the evidence is "material," regardless of the prosecution's good or bad faith. Evidence is "material" if there is a reasonable probability that, if disclosed, the result would have been different. If evidence undermines the confidence in the jury verdict, it's material. |
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Term
What are some examples of "material" Brady violations? |
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Definition
Prosecutor's failure to inform D that key witness was offered immunity in exchange for testimony.
Gov't informing D that no offers for leniency were made, when in fact, testifying witnesses had been offered leniency.
Prosecutor's failure to tell D that main witness had made a number of contradictory statements.
Prosecutor's failure to inform D that witness had been paid $200 for testimony. |
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Term
Who is part of the prosecution team for Brady purposes? |
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Definition
Duty to disclose extends to prosecutors, investigators, police, crime lab, and entire gov't team. |
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Term
What are the limits to the prosecutor's Brady obligations? |
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Definition
Doesn't extend to speculative or irrelevant information.
Doesn't include information already possessed byt he defense.
Doesn't include evidence that defense could obtain through subpoena or subpoena duces tecum (document request). |
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Term
What are the consequences of a Brady violation? |
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Definition
Conviction may be overturned and a new trial ordered. |
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Term
What discovery is required for guilty pleas? |
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Definition
Due process does not require the disclosure of any impeachment evidence prior to defendant's accepting a guilty plea. However, a prosecutor must turn over exculpatory evidence in order for guilty plea to be considered knowing and voluntary. |
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Term
What is the prosecutor's duty to preserve evidence? |
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Definition
Trombetta: no requirement to preserve breath samples.
Arizona v. Youngblood: a prosecutor's failure to preserve evidence requires evidence of bad faith in order to violate the due process clause. |
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Term
What are the prosecutor's Brady obligations post-conviction? |
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Definition
Prosecutors have a continuning Brady obligation even following defendant's conviction.
However, there is no post-conviction right to DNA testing by the state. If the defendant wants to conduct tests, he can ask the court for a court order for access to the DNA. |
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Term
What are the purposes behind sentencing? |
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Definition
1. Punishment
2. Deterrence
3. Retribution
4. Protection of society
5. Restitution for the victim
6. Rehabilitation of the defendant |
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Term
What are the different types of sentences? |
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Definition
1. Fines
2. Probation
3. CalTrans/Community Service
4. Rehab/Prop 36/Drug Court
5. Death (only for capital muder cases)
6. County jail
7. State prison |
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Term
What are the different types of jail sentences? |
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Definition
1. Determinate (fixed)
2. Indeterminate (open-ended) |
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Term
What type of sentence does California use? |
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Definition
Determinate sentences. The judge picks from the low, middle or high range of sentences.
Note: the judge must justify if imposing the high-end sentence. |
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Term
What are mandatory minimums? |
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Definition
These are a way of limiting judicial discretion at sentencing. |
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Term
What is the holding of Apprendi? |
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Definition
The Supreme Court held that sentencing schemes that required the sentencing judge to increase a defedant's sentence based on facts never pleaded or proved to a jury violates the defendant's right to due process.
Anything that increases punishment for a defendant must be submitted to the jury and proven beyond a reasonable doubt. |
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Term
When does Apprendi apply? |
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Definition
Apprendi applies whenever a factual finding triggers a sentence beyond the maximum range. The maximum range consists the applicable range based on facts proven to a jury beyond a reasonable doubt. The court cannot impose an additional sentence on the basis of anything else. |
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Term
What is the takeaway of US v. Booker? |
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Definition
The 6th Amendment jury trial right extends to all elements of a crime, and anything that can increase a defendant's sentence must be proven to a jury.
In Booker, the Supreme Court also recommends that the federal sentencing guidelines be advisory rather than mandatory. |
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Term
Under the Federal Sentencing Guidelines, what factors may a court base a defendant's sentence upon? |
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Definition
1. The nature of the crime(s), including D's role in the crime
2. The need to have the sentence reflect the seriousness of the crime, have a deterrent effect, protect the public, and/or rehabilitate the defendant
3. The kinds of sentences available
4. The applicable sentencing guidelines
5. Any pertinent policy statement
6. The desire to avoid unwanted sentencing disparities, and
7. The need to provide restitution to the victim |
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Term
What is the effect of Apprendi and its progeny? |
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Definition
Post-Booker, courts review federal sentences for "reasonableness" and tend to give sentencing judges a lot of deference so long as the judge complies with the guideline range. |
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Term
How far does Apprendi extent? |
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Definition
Apprendi doesn't interfere with the judge's traditional discretionary ability to determine whether sentences will run concurrently or consecutively. |
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Term
What does the 8th Amendment require? |
|
Definition
Proportionality and no excessive fines |
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Term
What may be considered a disproportionate punishment? |
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Definition
D punished to life in prison for passing a $100 "no account" check.
However, the Supreme Court effectively overruled this decision in Harmelin, finding that deference should be given to legislatures and the 8th amendment doesn't provide any strict mandates. |
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Term
Is three strikes legislation acceptable under the 8th Amendment? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What are the limits on the constiutionality of three-strikes legislation? |
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Definition
Juvenile offenders cannot be sentenced to life without possibility of parole. |
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Term
What may constitute an excessive fine? |
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Definition
Where D is required to forfeit $357,000 for failing to disclose it on a customs form. |
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Term
In what cases has the Supreme Court ruled that a death sentance may not be imposed? |
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Definition
1. No mandatory death sentence
2. No death sentence for rape
3. No death sentence for child rape
4. No death sentence without considering defendant's role in the crime
5. Death sentence must consider mitigating and aggravating factors |
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Term
What is the importance of Furhman? |
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Definition
Furhman indicates some concerns with the application of the death penalty, and suggests the use of bifurcated trials. |
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Term
What "special groups" may not be subjected to the death penalty? |
|
Definition
1. Juveniles
2. Mentally ill/challenged |
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Term
What are the constitutiona limitations on the method of execution? |
|
Definition
Must not be cruel and unusual.
The Supreme Court has upheld the use of the three-drug protocol lethal injection that is currently used by most states. |
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