Term
| Are pathogenic cocci typically gram positive or negative? |
|
Definition
| gram positive e.g. staphylococcus <--clusters, [streptococcus, peptostreptococcus or peptococcus] <-- chains |
|
|
Term
| Are most of the pathogenic small bacterial rods observed in cytology preparations gram positive or negative? |
|
Definition
| gram negative e.g. e coli and pasturella |
|
|
Term
| What cat and dogs breeds are predisposed to mycobacterial infections? |
|
Definition
siamese cats
basset hounds and miniature schnauzers |
|
|
Term
| What species of bacteria are most likely if large rods are observed in a cytology preparation? |
|
Definition
| clostridium and less commonly bacillus spp. |
|
|
Term
| How big are sporothrix schenckii yeast and how does the cytologic interpretation vary between dogs and cats |
|
Definition
round to oval to fusiform, 3-9 microns long, 1-3 microns wide
Normally only few organisms are observed in samples from affected dogs vs. cats in which organisms are typically abundant |
|
|
Term
| How big are histoplasma capsulatum yeast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which of the dermatophyte species can be observed within hair shafts vs on hair shaft surface? |
|
Definition
trichophyton spp. can be within hair shafts
microsporum spp. is observed on hair shaft surface |
|
|
Term
| With regards to melanoma in the dog, tumors arising from what locations are associated with a worse biologic behavior? |
|
Definition
| melanomas arising from the oral cavity, lip, and digit have a worse prognosis than those from other cutaneous sites |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common bacterial pathogen for superficial and deep pyoderma in dogs? |
|
Definition
Staph intermedius
**however, mixed infections are common, esp. if secondary to bite wound or penetrating injury |
|
|
Term
| How can nocardia and actinomyces be distinguished via staining characteristics? |
|
Definition
Nocardia stains red with acid fast but actinomyces is not acid fast
**both are thin, branching, filamentous rods |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a kerion is a solid, raised, nodular lesion, a manifestation of dermatophyte infection in dogs
*in addition to anular regions of progressive alopecia, scales, and crust. Causative agents are Microsporum canis, M. gypsum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes, must be cultured to distinguish |
|
|
Term
| In which species has only cutaneous protothecus infections been reported? |
|
Definition
cats
*dogs often have disseminated disease. Cutaneous lesions are typically P. Wickerhamii (dogs and cats), while disseminated is typically P. zopfi (dogs only) |
|
|
Term
| How does the presentation of epitheliotropic lymphoma typically differ from nonepitheliotropic lymphoma? |
|
Definition
Epitheliotropic lesions are highly pleomorphic, but may be nodular. Neoplastic lymphocytes may have more cytoplasm and more convoluted nuclei, giving a somewhat histolytic appearance.
Non-epitheliotropic typically form alopecic nodules/masses, and frequently have evidence of multicentric disease, lymphocytes may be small or large but are very uniform. |
|
|
Term
| What is dyskeratosis and what lesion can it be observed in? |
|
Definition
Dyskeratosis is nuclear to cytoplasmic maturation asynchrony in squamous cells (mature keratinizing cytoplasm with large immature nucleus) and is often observed in samples from squamous cell carcinoma
**some squamous cell carcinomas may lack significant atypia |
|
|
Term
| What type of soft tissue sarcoma is associated with striking accumulations of bright pink to blue hyalinized collagen in addition to spindle cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As the cytologic appearance of apocrine cysts, synovial cysts and hygromas are similar (low cellularity protinaceous fluid with few macrophages) what clues can be used to distinguish these lesions? |
|
Definition
Location-
apocrine cysts are typically superficial, within the skin
synovial cysts occur around joints
hygromas develop over bony prominences or areas of chronic trauma |
|
|
Term
| T/F Canine mammary tumors are more likely to be classified as falsely malignant (false +), than falsely benign (false -) |
|
Definition
False,
More likely to incorrectly diagnose a mammary tumor as benign when it's really malignant on the basis of cytology (higher rate of false negative)
**however, in certain lesions (esp. exfoliated tumor cells into dilated ducts) without tissue invasion (and therefore benign), epithelial cells may display prominent atypia, so either way histopathology should really be done on ALL mammary tumors |
|
|
Term
| Describe the cytologic characteristics of normal mammary secretions |
|
Definition
Low cellularity sample with protinaceous background and numerous lipid droplets. Predominant cell type is the foam cell, a highly vacuolated epithelial cell (resembles an active macrophages).
Few small lymphocytes and nondegenerate neutrophils may also be present. |
|
|
Term
| What are features of mixed mammary tumors? How are mixed mammary tumors different from complex mammary tumors? |
|
Definition
Mixed: Production of bone, cartilage or fat in addition to fibrous tissue and epithelial tissue
vs.
complex mammary tumors are epithelial and myoepithelial (fibrous tissue) |
|
|
Term
| What mammary lesion is associated pregnancy or treatment with progesterone compounds (either gender) in cats? |
|
Definition
Mammary fibroepithelial hyperplasia
*typically rapid enlargement of multiple glands, aspirates contain populations of uniform ductular epithelial cells (high N:C ratios), uniform to moderately pleomorphic spindloid cells, and frequently abundant pink extracellular matrix material. |
|
|
Term
| Are mammary tumors more often malignant in dogs or cats? |
|
Definition
Cats
Mammary tumors are more common in dogs than cats, but are more likely to be malignant in cats (80%), than dogs (40-50%)
*in both species adenocarcinomas are the most common malignant type diagnosed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the single most important prognostic factor in feline mammary tumors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the hallmark of inflammatory mammary carcinoma? |
|
Definition
dermal lymphatic involvement --> swelling and edema
*inflammatory cells may not be a prominent cytologic/histologic feature but the term inflammatory carcinoma refers to the gross appearance (red, swollen) in combination with clinical signs suggestive of systemic disease |
|
|
Term
| What type of mammary carcinoma may be infiltrated by inflammatory cells and abundant collagenous stroma? |
|
Definition
Anaplastic carcinomas
*highly malignant, frequently metastasize, poor prognosis
Squamous cell carcinomas in mammary glands may be ulcerated and also associated with secondary inflammation |
|
|
Term
| What is the most frequent type of sarcoma found in the mammary gland of dogs? |
|
Definition
| extraskeletal osteosarcoma |
|
|
Term
| What is a mammary carcinosarcoma? |
|
Definition
A mammary tumor composed of both malignant epithelial and malignant myoepithelial components
*uncommon |
|
|
Term
| What cytologic findings are expected with sampling a sialadenosis lesion? |
|
Definition
normal salivary epithelial cells (abundant vacuolated cytoplasm- acinar cells, or uniform with high N:C ratios- ductal epithelium)
*normal to hypertrophied salivary tissue on histopath. Lesions sometimes respond to phenobarbital, so may have a neurogenic origin. Has been reported in dogs and cats, associated with ptyalism |
|
|
Term
| What viruses can be associated with sialadenitis? |
|
Definition
canine distemper, rabies, paramyxovirus
*lesions may contain many lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| What are the two most common etiologies of sialadenitis? |
|
Definition
| associated with a sialocele (e.g. secondary to facial trauma, bite wounds, abscesses) or less often, associated with an infarct and hypoxic necrosis |
|
|
Term
| What salivary glands are most likely to be affected by salivary neoplasia? |
|
Definition
Parotid and mandibular salivary glands
*carcinomas are most common |
|
|
Term
| What should be a top differential for a mass in the region of a salivary gland that consists of both mucus producing cells and squamous cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunocytochemistry can be performed to help distinguish thyroid follicular carcinomas from thyroid medullary carcinomas (C-cell tumors)? |
|
Definition
follicular tumors express thyroglobulin
medullary tumors express calcitonin (they also tend to be well encapsulated and less likely to metastasize compared to thyroid follicular carcinomas) |
|
|
Term
| What biochemical test can be performed on cystic fluid to confirm thyroid origin? |
|
Definition
thyroid hormone levels
*both thyroid adenomas and carcinomas can be cystic |
|
|
Term
| What is more common in dogs and cats, parathyroid carcinoma or adenoma? |
|
Definition
Adenoma, however, carcinoma may lack significant cellular pleomorphism on cytology so histopath is necessary to r/o carcinoma
*both carcinomas and adenomas may be functional, producing excessive PTH (hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia), also, cannot morphologically distinguish between thyroid neoplasia (follicular or medullary) |
|
|
Term
| What virus may cause intranuclear inclusion in nasal epithelial cells? |
|
Definition
Herpes in cats
*inclusions are rare and if suspected should be confirmed with IFA, virus isolation, or PCR |
|
|
Term
| What parasites may infect the nasal cavity of dogs? |
|
Definition
Pneumonsysus caninum (canine nasal mite)- can be asymptomatic or associated with sneezing
Linguatula serrata (zoonotic worm like parasite that lives in the nasopharynx)- may induce sneezing, coughing and epistaxis. Larvated eggs can be found in nasal exudate.
Capillaria aerophila (helminth usually in the lower airways but can be found within the nasal sinuses, barrel shaped eggs with bi-pollar plugs can be observed in nasal exudate) |
|
|
Term
| Why do malignancies or inflammation in the oropharynx drain to mandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes rather than tonsils? |
|
Definition
| Tonsils don't have afferent lymphatics |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common palpebral neoplasms in dogs? |
|
Definition
benign sebacious gland tumors (e.g. meibomian gland, glands of Zeis and Moll are all located near the eyelid margin)
*cells have voluminous vacuolated cytoplasm and small rounded nuclei. Rarely malignant variants have been reported. |
|
|
Term
| What are the cytologic features of a hordeolum and a chalazion? |
|
Definition
There are non-neoplastic discrete eyelid masses (hordeolum localized purulent lesion of sebaceous glands on eyelid margin), chalazion (lipogranuloma of meibomian gland).
FNA yields numerous foamy macrophages, few multinucleated giant cells, few small lymphocytes. Variable numbers of sebaceous epithelial cells may be found. May also have granular inspissated secretory material +/- mineralization |
|
|
Term
| What disease can be associated with the development of perioccular granulomatous masses? |
|
Definition
Systemic (reactive) histiocytosis (e.g. Bernese mountain dogs)
*lesions may be bilateral |
|
|
Term
| What regions of the eye are associated with submucosal lymphoid tissue? |
|
Definition
the fornix (location where palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva meet AND the bulbar surface of the 3rd eyelid
*the presence of lymphocytes or plasma cells among epithelial cells in conjunctival scrapings can largely be ignored in the absence of clinical signs of conjunctivitis |
|
|
Term
| What topical ophthalmic ointment is most likely to result in the formation of dense, homogenous, basophilic inclusions in squamous epithelial cells? |
|
Definition
neomycin
*but other ointments can cause this artifact as well |
|
|
Term
| In what species is the presence of bacteria in neutrophilic conjunctival cytology samples always clinically significant? |
|
Definition
Cats
**in dogs frequently bacteria are associated with sampling or overgrowth of normal conjunctival flora |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important viral cause of neutrophilic conjunctivitis in dogs? |
|
Definition
Distemper
Viral inclusions (cytoplasmic) can rarely be observed within conjunctival squamous cells but IFA or PCR of conjunctival smears is more sensitive. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of feline neutrophilic conjunctivitis? |
|
Definition
herpes virus
*intranuclear inclusions are rarely if ever observed cytologically. Multinucleate epithelialial cells may be observed. Dx is best with PCR. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two most important agents implicated in bacterial conjunctivits of cats? |
|
Definition
Chlamidophila felis (3-5 micron, basophilic, granular structure (initial body) or aggregates of coccoid basophilic structures (elementary bodies), inclusions only seen in acute stages (<2wks). Confirm Dx with PCR.
Mycoplasma spp. (very small basophilic organisms found in clusters adherent to outer limits of plasma membrane or over flattened surface of squamous epithelial cells). Confirm with PCR or virus isolation.
*both are associated with suppurative conjunctivitis in cats |
|
|
Term
| What infectious agent may be associated with eosinophilic conjunctivitis in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the cytologic appearance of a Dacryops and what breed is predisposed? |
|
Definition
A dacryops is a lacrimal gland cyst, cytologically appears as low cellularity fluid +/- mucus component.
Young Basset hounds appear to be predisposed |
|
|
Term
| What differential should be considered with an aspirate of a lesion near the lateral canthus with a cytologic appearance of a salivary mucocele? |
|
Definition
Parotid transposition cyst
**develops as a complication of parotid ducts transposition if the orifice of the transposed duct becomes occluded |
|
|
Term
| Which organism can be associated with nodular scleral masses? |
|
Definition
Onchocerca sp.
*Lesions consists of granulomas with eosinophils |
|
|
Term
| What viral infection is associated with corneal ulceration in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are primary differentials for neutrophilic inflammation in aqueous humor? |
|
Definition
well most causes of anterior uveitis are associated with neutrophilic inflammation including:
lens induced uveitis, viral infections, bacterial infections (e.g. bartonella), blasto, prototheca, and leishmania. Organisms may or may not be observed. |
|
|
Term
| For what neoplasm is cytologic examination of aqueous humor most productive? |
|
Definition
| Lymphoma, other neoplasms don't tend to exfoliate into the aqueous humor |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common primary intraocular tumor? |
|
Definition
melanoma
*sometimes challenging to distinguish from an iris freckle and normal melanocytes present in all uveal aspirates, so nuclear criteria of malignancy must be observed to suggest melanoma on the basis of a cytologic specimen
**iris/ciliary body tumors are the second most common primary intraoccular neoplasm |
|
|
Term
| In what disease can lens fibers be observed in vitreous aspirates? |
|
Definition
Pars planitis*, trauma, and lens induced endopthalmitis
*Pars planitis is considered a subset of intermediate uveitis and is characterized by the presence of white exudates (snowbanks) over the pars plana or by aggregates of inflammatory cells in the vitreous (snowballs) in the absence of an infectious or a systemic disease |
|
|
Term
| What is the characteristic appearance of normal vitreous aspirate? |
|
Definition
| Low cellularity fluid with a prominent coarsely granular, eosinophilic precipitate and often few free melanin granules. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common orbital tumor in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the cytologic features of postenucleation orbital cysts? |
|
Definition
abuntant mucus, non-kornified squamous epithelial cells and large foamy macrophages
*post enucleation cysts can arise from implantation or incarceration of conjunctival epithelium or the gland of the 3rd eyelid at the time of enucleation. |
|
|
Term
| What species of ear mites causes otitis externa more commonly in cats? Which in dogs? |
|
Definition
cats (Otodectes cynotis) dogs (Otibius megnini)
Demodex may rarely cause otits external in dogs (D. canis) and cats (D. catii)
*mites are best evaluated on unstained slides as they are more likely to be washed away during the staining process |
|
|
Term
| What infectious diseases are associated with multicentric reactive lymphoid hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
| FeLV/FIV, Bartonella, rocky mountain spotted fever (Rickettsia rickettsii), ehrlichiosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common indolent lymphoma in dogs? |
|
Definition
| T zone lymphoma (61% of small cell indolent lymphoma in dogs) |
|
|
Term
| What are the predominant cells in the synovial intima? |
|
Definition
Type B synoviocytes (fibroblast-like, comprise 70-90% of intimal cells, produce collagen, fibronectin, hyaluronan, and lubricin)
*Type A synoviocytes are derived from blood borne mononuclear cells and act as resident tissue macrophages in the joint (CD18+) |
|
|
Term
| What immunohistochemical markers can be used to distinguish type A (macrophages) from type B (fibroblast) synoviocytes? |
|
Definition
Type A are CD18+
Type B are heat shock protein 25 (HSP25) + |
|
|
Term
| Describe how the mucin clot test is performed. What type of synovial fluid sample should be used? |
|
Definition
1 part synovial fluid is added to 4 parts 2.5% acetic acid, if adequate mucin is present a compact ropey clot should form
**cannot use synovial fluid that has been stored in EDTA because EDTA degrades hyaluronic acid. Samples stored in heparin or plain glass tubes can be used. |
|
|
Term
| What is the significance of clot formation in synovial fluid sample? |
|
Definition
Indicates intraarticular hemorrhage or inflammation with increased vascular permeability and protein exudation into the joint space
**fibrinogen and clotting factors are still too large to diffuse across the fenestrated synovial capillaries in health |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common manifestation of canine hemophilia A (factor 8 deficiency)? |
|
Definition
recurrent hemarthrosis
*intraarticular hemorrhage can interfere with cartilage matrix proteoglycan synthesis and content --> disrupted cartilage metabolism and repair ultimately can result in degenerative joint disease |
|
|
Term
| What metastatic carcinoma has a predisposition for joints? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most common bacteria cultured from canine joints? From feline joints? |
|
Definition
Dogs: staph intermedius, staph aureus, beta hemolytic strep
Cats: E coli and pasteurella multocida |
|
|
Term
| What virus has been associated with arthritis in cats? |
|
Definition
calicivirus
**in kittens, joint fluid may be normal or mildly to moderately increased in cellularity with a predominance of macrophages +/- leukophagia. The inflammation may be transient (could resolve within 48hrs) |
|
|
Term
| What type of immune mediated non-erosive polyarthritis is typically associated with tick borne diseases (e.g. ehrlichia, anaplasma, rocky mountain spotted fever, lyme)? |
|
Definition
Type II reactive polyarthritis
*aseptic inflammatory joint disease associated with extra-articular sites of infection (urogenital, respiratory, skin), OR by impaired clearance of bacterial antigens within the joint which induce immune mediated inflammation |
|
|
Term
| Inflammation of what two organ systems have rarely been associated with polyarthritis in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
GI (enteropathic arthropathy) - rarely associated with colitis or idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease in dogs and cats
Liver (hepatopathic arthropathy) - rarely observed in dogs with chronic active hepatitis and cirrhosis
*pathogenesis is unknown |
|
|
Term
| What non-articular tumors have been associated with polyarthritis in dogs? in cats? |
|
Definition
Dogs: mammary adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, chemodectoma, leiomyoma
cats: myeloproliferative disease |
|
|
Term
| What are the three differentials that must be excluded prior to a diagnosis of polyarthritis-polymyositis syndrome? |
|
Definition
systemic lupus erythematosus
rheumatoid arthritis
bacterial endocarditis
Dx: symmetrical nonerosive polyarthritis and myositis in >2 muscles, presumably immune mediated given response to immunosuppressive therapy
*CK activity may be increased in affected dogs, but not consistently |
|
|
Term
| What two findings are associated with a worse prognosis in animals with sulfonamide hypersensitity reactions? What breeds are predisposed? What other adverse reactions can occur? |
|
Definition
| thrombocytopenia or hepatopathy *Doperman pinchers, miniature schnauzers and samoyeds are especially prone to sulfonamide hypersensitivity reactions. Typically associated with polyarthritis but also KCS, hemolysis, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, and hepatopathy (necrosis and cholestasis) |
|
|
Term
| What vaccines have been implicated in vaccine-associated polyarthritis in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
Dogs: polyvalent modified live virus vaccine
cats: calicivirus *also if naturally infected can develop polyarthritis which i often transient and may resolve within 48hrs |
|
|
Term
| What is lymphoplasmacytic gonitis? |
|
Definition
lymphoplasmacytic synovitis (may or may not be observed in synovial fluid) associated with dogs that develop or are currently diagnosed with cranial cruciate ligament rupture.
Eitiology is unknown however a primary immune mediated disease is suspected |
|
|
Term
| What breed of dogs is associated with a juvenile onset of non-erosive immune mediated polyarthritis? |
|
Definition
Akita
*disease develops before 8 months, often associated with neutrophilia, NNN anemia, generalized lymphadenopathy, and less commonly concurrent meningitis and/or positive ANA and/or positive rheumatoid factor |
|
|
Term
| What joints are most commonly affected in polyarthritis-amyloidosis of Shar-pei dogs? |
|
Definition
tarsal joints are most typically affected, carpal joints less often. Lameness and arthritis may be monoarticular.
*lameness and fever precedes glomerular disease |
|
|
Term
| What is rheumatoid factor? |
|
Definition
| immunoglobulin (typically IgM, occasionally IgG or IgA) that reacts to the constant region of the heavy chain of autologous immunoglobulin. Immune complex deposition can result in polymyositis and erosive polyarthritis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most commonly diagnosed form of feline progress polyarthritis? |
|
Definition
periosteal proliferative form
*typically associated with feline foamy virus and FIV coinfections. Suppurative inflammation on synovial fluid
**there is also an erosive form in which synovial fluid may be normal, or there may be mononuclear inflammation |
|
|
Term
| What cytochemical stain can be used to detect ALP activity in osteoblasts? |
|
Definition
nitroblue tetrazolium chloride/ 5-bromo-4-chloro-3-indolyl phosphate toluidine salt (NBT/BCIP)
*both reactive and neoplastic osteoblasts are ALP positive |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common sites of chondrosarcoma in dogs? In cats? |
|
Definition
Ribs are common in both
dogs: nasal turbinates, pelvis
cats: scapulae, vertebrae |
|
|
Term
| What methodology is used to measure protein concentration in CSF samples? |
|
Definition
trichloroacetic acid
ponceau S red dye binding
coomassie brilliant blue method
**refractometry is too insensitive. IF other methods are not available urine dipsticks that detect albumin can be used but also have a relatively high detection limit (100 mg/dl) so can miss mildly increased protein concentrations (e.g. >30 <100) |
|
|
Term
| What screening tests are available to identify the presence of globulins in CSF? |
|
Definition
Nonne-Apelt (aka Ross-Jones) test, CSF is added to 1ml saturated ammonium sulfate and let stand for 3 min, a white gray ring forms at the interface of the fluids if positive
Pandy's reaction- few drops of CSF added to 1ml of 10% carbolic acid, turbidity can be graded 0-4, but any result above zero is significant and considered positive. False positive results possible with certain intrathecal contrast media
**both tests can only detect globulin concentrations >50mg/dl |
|
|
Term
| Elevations of which enzyme (measured in CSF) have been associated with a worse prognosis in dogs with neurologic disease and spinal cord injury? |
|
Definition
Creatine kinase
*CK is a dimer, there are 4 isoenzymes, CK-1 (brain), CK-2/3 (cardiac and skeletal muscle), CK-Mt (mitochondria of many tissues) |
|
|
Term
| What proteins may be elevated in the CSF of dogs with hypothyroidism? What is the clinical implication of this? |
|
Definition
VEGF and S-100 calcium binding protein
**this suggests endothelial (VEGF) and glial (S-100) contributions to increased blood brain barrier permeability in dogs with hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
| In what diseases has increased concentrations of myelin basic protein been reported in CSF? |
|
Definition
Degenerative myelopathy (a demyelinating disease)
IVDD (associated with a worse prognosis) |
|
|
Term
| What amino acids may be increased in the CSF of dogs with hepatic encephalopathy due to portosystemic shunt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the reported normal cell counts for CSF in dogs and cats? Protein? |
|
Definition
dogs <5 cells/ul
cats <8 cells/ul
**really, <3 cells/ul in both dogs and cats per UCD
Protein <25-30 mg/dl (cisternal), <45 mg/dl (lumbar) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A nonspecific term- refers to layers phospholipids exfoliated from damaged cell membranes |
|
|
Term
| CSF samples collected from which location are more likely to be associated with myelin? |
|
Definition
lumbar
*also small breed dogs (<10kg) are more likely to have CSF samples with myelin in them
The presence of myelin is not correlated with disease process or clinical outcome |
|
|
Term
| In which species is CSF more susceptible to blood-induced (iatrogenic hemorrhage) changes? |
|
Definition
Cats
*studies in dogs have shown that RBC up to 13,000/ul did not have a significant effect on TP or TNCC |
|
|
Term
| What diseases have been associated with an increased percentage of neutrophils in CSF, but without increased TNCC? |
|
Definition
| healthy dogs, iatrogenic blood contamination, IVDD, neoplasia, cerebrovascular accident, fracture, FCE, could also represent earlier stages of infectious and inflammatory diseases |
|
|
Term
| Abarrent spinal migration has been reported in dogs in association with what pathogen? |
|
Definition
Spircirca lupi
*marked neutrophilic, mixed, and/or eosinophilic pleocytosis |
|
|
Term
| Increases in what immunoglobulin have been reported in serum and CSF of dogs with steroid responsive meningitis arteritis? |
|
Definition
IgA (may remain increased throughout successful treatment, so not useful for monitoring response to therapy)
**linked to a TH2-dominated immune response driven by elevated IL-4 and decreased IL-2, and TNF-gamma. |
|
|
Term
| What serum proteins can be used to assess response to therapy and predict relapse in dogs with steroid responsive meningitis arteritis? |
|
Definition
CRP and SAA
*must have repeated measurements to assess trends |
|
|
Term
| What CSF findings are observed in cats with thiamine deficiency? |
|
Definition
increased percentage of neutrophils or mild neutrophilic pleocytosis
*presumably secondary to cerebrocortical necrosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of an eosinophilic pleocytosis (>20% eosinophils) in dogs? |
|
Definition
idiopathic eosinophilic meningoencephalitis
*Rotweillers and golden retrievers are overrepresented, peripheral eosinophilia may or may not be present
**eosinophilic pleocytosis has also been observed secondary to infectious disease (e.g. crypto, neospora, baylisascaris, toxoplasma, cuterebra, dirofilariasis and protothecosis) and IVDD |
|
|
Term
| What infectious diseases have been associated with a lymphocytic pleocytosis in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
toxoplasma (dogs), rabies, canine distemper, coccidioidomycosis
**although CSF findings can vary for all of the above diseases and a lymphocytic pleocytosis is not always present |
|
|
Term
| What are the testing recommendations for the antemortem diagnosis of CNS neosporosis in dogs? |
|
Definition
antibody detection in serum or CSF (titer > 1:64) + PCR of CSF or other affected tissues (e.g. muscle)
*CSF findings vary from a marked mixed to mononuclear to eosinophilic pleocytosis with moderately to markedly increased protein concentration. Tachyzoites may sometimes be observed in CSF (esp. if concurrent immunosuppression) |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect on CSF of intrathecal contrast administration? |
|
Definition
same day sampling following contrast administration in dogs revealed a mild to moderate mononuclear to mixed or a neutrophilic pleocytosis and less commonly concurrent mild protein elevation (but on average protein concentrations remained WRI). Metrizamide can also cause a false positive Pandy score (screening for the presence of immunoglobulin- few drops of CSF added to 1ml of 10% carbolic acid, turbidity can be graded 0-4, but any result above zero is significant and considered positive)
*changes resolve 5 days post injection |
|
|
Term
| How can CSF protein concentration be used to differentiate choroid plexus papilloma from choroid plexus carcinoma? |
|
Definition
Protein concentration >80mg/dl has 67% sensitivity and 100% specificity for detection of choroid plexus carcinoma
**although cases of carcinoma with lower protein concentrations have also been reported |
|
|
Term
| What FCoV antibody titers are suggestive of FIP (with appropriate clinical signs, signalment and history)? |
|
Definition
1:1600 is suggestive of FIP
*negative serology doesn't r/o FIP (10% of positive cats had negative serology results in one study) |
|
|
Term
| What cytologic findings in pleural effusion are suggestive of a thymoma? |
|
Definition
Predominantly small lymphocytes with moderate numbers of well differentiated mast cells and concurrent cranial mediastinal mass.
**neoplastic epithelial cells may rarely exfoliate into fluid and may be challenging to distinguish from mesothelial cells. |
|
|
Term
| What is the major difference in leukocyte differential for BAL from dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
Cats can have more eosinophils (up to 18%) than dogs (5%)
**also dogs may have more lymphocytes (but at UCD reference intervals for both species have relatively low lymphocytes <9%). |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum number of cells that should be counted for the most reproducible cell differentials on BAL samples? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The presence of what cell type is an indicator that a BAL has successfully sampled the alveoli? |
|
Definition
Macrophages
**if the sample consists predominantly of ciliated or non-cilliated epithelial cells then the bronchi and bronchioles have been predominantly sampled |
|
|
Term
| What major differentials should be considered with a finding of increased eosinophils in a BAL sample from dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
| allergic bronchitis/pneumonitis, feline asthma, lungworm/heartworm infestation, eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy |
|
|
Term
| What is a charcot-leyden crystal? |
|
Definition
| A large crystal formed from coalesced free eosinophil granules |
|
|
Term
| What is anthracotic pigment and what is its clinical significance? |
|
Definition
| dark or black granules within macrophages that may be present in clinically normal animals living in large cities or other areas with polluted air |
|
|
Term
| What are calcospherite-like bodies? |
|
Definition
| concentrically laminated crystalline structures that have been reported in as single case of canine tuberculosis |
|
|
Term
| What type of crystals have been reported in BAL samples with Aspergillus infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What differences in clinical manifestation can help to distinguish Oslerus osleri (Filaroides osleri) from Filaroides hirthi (since larvae and eggs look similar)? |
|
Definition
O. osleri forms nodules in the bronchi (esp. @ level of bifurcation)
F. hearth forms sub pleural nodules |
|
|
Term
| What laboratory abnormalities have been associated with angiostrongylus vasorum (lungworm) infection? |
|
Definition
hypercalcemia, coagulopathy
*both resolve following successful tx |
|
|
Term
| What species of pulmonary nematode can only infect cats? |
|
Definition
Aelerostrongylus abstrusus
*located in bronchioles and alveolar ducts, ova (thin shell, embryonated) and larvae (dorsal spine) can be observed in wash samples. |
|
|
Term
| What pulmonary parasites (worms) can infect both dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
nematode: Capillaria aerophilia (aka Eucoleus aerophilus), ova (bipolar plugs, thick wall) observed in washes
trematode: Paragonimus spp., ova (flattened on one side with a single operculum) observed in washes |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main differentials for tachyzoites observed in pulmonary specimen from dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
toxoplasma
neospora
**cannot distinguish cytologically |
|
|
Term
| In which species does the thymus have both a thoracic and cervical lobe? |
|
Definition
Cats
*dogs just have a thoracic thymus, the cervical lobe of the thymus in cats is usually small but may extend along the lateral surface of the cervical trachea |
|
|
Term
| What is the unique immunophenotype of thymic lymphocytes? How does this correspond to the phenotype of lymphocytes associated with thymoma? |
|
Definition
| Normal thymic lymphs and lymphs associated with thymoma are CD4+/CD8+ T lymphs |
|
|
Term
| What is Churukian-Schnek stain used for? |
|
Definition
| Identifying argyophilia (uptake silver) of cytoplasmic granules in neuroendocrine tissues |
|
|
Term
| What are typical morphologic features of tritrichomonas foetus? How should a specimen be prepared for the best likelihood of identification? |
|
Definition
oval, highly motile, flagellated (3 anterior, 1 posterior), undulating membrane, protruding axostyle from posterior
Best observed fresh smears/wet mounts (degrade quickly outside the body). Also can culture or do PCR. |
|
|
Term
| What is the significance of finding columnar epithelial cells from an esophageal sample (e.g. brushing)? |
|
Definition
Indicates metaplasia, suggestive of chronic esophagitis (e.g. secondary to gastric acid reflux, chronic vomiting, hiatal hernia)
*the gross appearance of this is highly variable, ranging from hyperemia to mass-like lesions. Termed Barret esophagus in humans, which may transform into distal esophageal adenocarcinoma. |
|
|
Term
| What esophageal neoplasms have been associated with spirocirca lupi infection in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most common primary neoplasms of the esophagus in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
Squamous cell carcinomaa
Leiomyoma (dogs, distal esophagus)
*rarely adenocarcinoma (from submucosal esophageal glands or regions of glandular metaplasia, as with reflux esophagitis |
|
|
Term
| Which of the gastric cells secrete pepsinogen and which secrete HCL? How does their appearance differ? |
|
Definition
Chief cells secrete pepsinogen (converted into pepsin by HCl--> protease), cuboidal and pale blue (H&E), many dark basophilic cytoplasmic granules (WG)
Parietal cells secrete HCL, roundish and bright pink (H&E), abundant granular eosinophilic to vacuolated cytoplasm (WG) |
|
|
Term
| What disorder is most commonly associated with neutrophilic gastritis? |
|
Definition
Ulcers
*can be secondary to mechanical or chemical irritation, drug administration (NSAIDS, corticosteroids, chemo, abx) or hormonal secretion (e.g. gastrin, histamine). Uremic ulcers are not typically inflamed on histopathology. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria has been associated with abomasal bloat in ruminants and acute gastric dilation in dogs? |
|
Definition
Sarcina ventriculi
Large gram + coccoid bacterium often present in packets or bundles. NOT a component of normal flora |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common gastric neoplasia in dogs? In cats? |
|
Definition
Dogs- gastric adenocarcinoma (may be mucus producing with signet ring forms, often seed the abdomen --> carcinomatosis), often extensive scirrhous response
Cats- Lymphoma (usually B cell) |
|
|
Term
| What breed of dog is predisposed to gastric neuroendocrine carcinoma? |
|
Definition
Norwegian Lundehund
*associated with a rare chronic atrophic gastritis that subsequently can result in development of neuroendocrine carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| What paraneoplastic syndromes have been associated with smooth muscle tumors and GIST in the stomach? |
|
Definition
hypoglycemia (tumor production of insulin-like growth factor II)
erythrocytosis (tumor production of erythropoietin) |
|
|
Term
| What immunophenotypic markers can be helpful to distinguish leiomyosarcoma from GIST? |
|
Definition
Leiomyosarcoma is negative for C-kit, positive for smooth muscle actin and +/- positive for desmin (most common in pylorus and small intestine)
GIST is positive for C-kit, +/- positive for smooth muscle actin, and negative for desmin. Also most common in large intestine. |
|
|
Term
| What parasite is associated with suppurative typhlocolitis in dogs? |
|
Definition
Trichuris vulpis (Whipworms)
*eggs with bipolar plugs in feces |
|
|
Term
| What histological features are characteristic of histocytic ulcerative colitis in boxers? |
|
Definition
Macrophages contain numerous PAS positive cytoplasmic granules
*granules may represent broken down cell membranes and bacterial organisms - adherent, invasive E. coli |
|
|
Term
| What infectious agents are associated with colitis in cats? |
|
Definition
Clostridium piliforme
Anaerobiospirillum (spirochetes)
Tritichomonas foetus (protozoa- oval, highly motile, flagellated (3 anterior, 1 posterior), undulating membrane, protruding axostyle from posterior |
|
|
Term
| What species of coccidiosis causes diarrhea in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F histopathology is necessary to distinguish a rectal polyp (aka papillary adenoma) from an adenocarcinoma |
|
Definition
True
*Cells from a papillary adenoma can display some cytologic atypia, so tissue architecture is necessary to r/o carcinoma (invasive) |
|
|
Term
| A marked scirrhous response can be associated with intestinal adenocarcinomas in both dogs and cats. In which species has osseous and/or chondroid metaplasia of the scirrhous response been reported? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common site of metastasis of intestinal neuroendocrine carcinomas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List, in order of most to least common, the locations within the gastrointestinal tract where lymphoma occurs in cats? What phenotype is most common in each location and what is the gross appearance? |
|
Definition
| Small intestine (T cell, diffuse thickening), stomach (B cell, one or more masses or transmural thickening), large intestine (B cell, one or more masses or transmural thickening) |
|
|
Term
| List, in order of most to least common, the locations within the gastrointestinal tract where lymphoma occurs in dogs? What phenotype is most common in general? |
|
Definition
small intestine, gastric, large intestine/colon
Most GI lymphoma in dogs is T cell, often epitheliotropic and frequently associated with paraneoplastic eosinophil infiltrate |
|
|
Term
| What are the cytologic features of feline sclerosis mast cell tumor? |
|
Definition
poorly granulated mast cell, abundant sclerotic collagen, plump spindle cells, many eosinophils
*poor prognosis, frequently metastasize to LN and liver |
|
|
Term
| What species of trichomonad can cause diarrhea in dogs? |
|
Definition
pentatrichomonas hominis
Flagellated with an undulating membrane (looks similar to tritrichomonas fetus in cats) |
|
|
Term
| What dog breeds may be at increased risk for pancreatic adenocarcinoma? |
|
Definition
Airedale, boxer, laborador, cocker spaniel
*85% of dogs and cats with pancreatic adenocarcinoma have metastasis at the time of initial diagnosis |
|
|
Term
| What clinicopathologic findings are most consistently observed in dogs and cats with pancreatic adenocarcinoma? |
|
Definition
| cholestasis due to infiltration or compression of the common bile duct (hyperbilirubinemia, increased ALP) and hepatocellular damage (increased ALT) +/- increased pancreatic enzyme activity (e.g. cPL/fPL, lipase, amylase) |
|
|
Term
| What paraneoplastic syndromes have been associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
| alopecia, EPI, cutaneous and visceral necrotizing panniculitis and steatitis |
|
|
Term
| T/F most neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas are multihormonal |
|
Definition
true - they often produce one or more neuroendocrine products including pancreatic hormones (e.g. insulin, glucagon) and hormones not normally expressed the mammalian pancreas (e.g. gastrin, ACTH, calcitonin)
**the degree of multihormonality does not correlate with biologic behavior |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
| insulinoma, followed by gastrinoma |
|
|
Term
| What substance can often be found in neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cystic pancreatic lesion observed in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
Pancreatic pseudocysts -lined by granulation tissue (not epithelium), contain pancreatic enzymes (higher lipase activity in cyst fluid compared to serum) and debris, may be preferentially located in the left limb of the pancreas
**suspected to arise from the release of pancreatic secretions into predicate connective tissue during episodes of acute pancreatitis |
|
|
Term
| What viruses can be associated with intranuclear inclusions in hepatocytes in dogs? |
|
Definition
canine herpes virus-1
adenovirus (infectious canine hepatitis) |
|
|
Term
| What stains can be used to identify lipofuscin? |
|
Definition
Modified Ziehl-Neelsen and Luxol Fast blue*
*stain lipofuscin red |
|
|
Term
| Mutations to what gene is associated with primary copper hepatopathy in Bedlington Terriers? |
|
Definition
COMM-D -mutation to COMM-D results in a defective copper transport protein --> excessive copper accumulation in the liver
**familial copper accumulation (pathogenesis not identified) also in West highland white terriers, Skye terriers, Doberman Pinschers, Labrador retrievers, and Dalmatians. Copper associated hepatopathy has also been reported in young siamese cats. |
|
|
Term
| What is microvesicular lipidosis in hepatocytes associated with? |
|
Definition
Microvesicular = lipid vacuoles smaller than the nucleus
Associated with lipid accumulation in mitochondria and severe hepatocellular dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| What biochemical changes are most often observed in cats with hepatic lipidosis? |
|
Definition
Marked hyperbilirubinemia and increased ALP activity with minimal to no increase in GGT
*hepatocytes often have both macro vesicular (larger than the nucleus) and microvesciular (smaller than the nucleus, lipid in mitochondria) lesions on cytology |
|
|
Term
| What toxin is associated with the development of hepatic lipidosis in dogs? |
|
Definition
Aflatoxin
**severe hepatic lipidosis can also occur in association with anorexia and hypoglycemia in toy breed puppies, mild hepatic lipidosis can be associated with metabolic diseases (e.g. diabetes mellitus) |
|
|
Term
| What are the most commonly reported bacterial pathogens of the liver in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
E coli, strep spp., staph spp., enterococcus spp., clostridium spp.
*infections are most often ascending form the biliary tree, but hematogenous is also a possible route |
|
|
Term
| What protozoal infections can cause chronic granulomatous/pyogranulomatous hepatic inflammation? |
|
Definition
| hepatazoon, leishmania, cytauxzoon, toxoplasma |
|
|
Term
| What conditions are associated with an eosinophilic infiltrate in a liver aspirate? |
|
Definition
pure eosinophilic inflammation has been reported secondary to liver fluke infestation in cats, otherwise generally a mixture of inflammatory cells with eosinophils can be seen with:
hypereosinophilic syndrome, eosinophilic leukemia, mast cell tumors and rarely idiosyncratic drug reactions |
|
|
Term
| In which species is extramedullary hematapoiesis in the liver a normal finding in older animals? |
|
Definition
Fish and rodents
*otherwise typically develops in concordance with accelerated bone marrow hematopoiesis (e.g. inflammation, anemia), or less commonly associated with nodular hyperplasia or chronic hepatitis in dogs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tumor-like nodular masses composed of lipid containing stromal cells and hematopoietic cells. Rarely observed in spleen and liver of dogs and cats.
**largely cytologically indistinguishable from normal bone marrow, however, can be distinguished from EMH in the liver and spleen by the concurrent presence of mature fat laden adipocytes |
|
|
Term
| Regarding liver masses, which is more common, primary or metastatic lesions, in dogs? In cats? |
|
Definition
dogs: liver masses are more likely to be metastatic than primary hepatocellular neoplasia
cats: liver masses are more likely to be primary hepatocelular neoplasia (and are most often benign) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the differences in distribution of massive, nodular, and diffuse hepatocellular carcinomas. |
|
Definition
Massive carcinomas produce a single markedly enlarged liver lobe (often left lobe)
Nodular carcinomas produce multiple discrete masses of different sizes distributed throughout the liver (may resemble multiple regenerative nodules or a cirrhotic liver) **
Diffuse carcinomas infiltrate large areas of the liver and are unencapsulated **
**more often associated with metastasis at the time of diagnosis |
|
|
Term
| What are the cells of origin of hepatic neuroendocrine tumors? |
|
Definition
Hepatic neuroendocrine tumors are derived from amine precursor uptake and dearboxylation (APUD) cells of the billiard system
*often present as multiple hepatic masses (e.g. intrahepatic metastasis) in dogs and cats |
|
|
Term
| What is the phenotype of lymphocytes in hepatosplenic lymphoma? What is a unique cytologic finding in some of these cases? |
|
Definition
| Gamma-delta T lymphocytes Lymphocytes are large and often have nuclear indentations, frequently granular, and may display prominent erythrophagia. Infrequently reported in dogs and cats. |
|
|
Term
| Cytoplasmic (lipid) vacuoles are normal in proximal renal tubular epithelial cells from which species? What disease conditions can be associated in vacuoles of renal tubular cells in the other species, where they are not normally observed? |
|
Definition
Normally observe lipid droplets in proximal renal tubular epithelial cells of cats.
In dogs cytoplasmic vacuoles can be observed in rental tubular epithelial cells in the context of diabetes mellitus (lipid), chronic corticosteroid administration (glycogen) and congenital or drug induced lysosomal storage diseases (lipid or glycogen). |
|
|
Term
| Cells associated with what region of the renal tubule can have dark blue cytoplasmic granular pigment? |
|
Definition
| cells of the distal convoluted tubules and ascending limb of the loop of henle can have dark intracytoplasmic pigment granules |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common feline renal neoplasm? |
|
Definition
Lymphoma
**also most likely to provide a diagnostic sample on renal FNA |
|
|
Term
| Antibodies against what antigen can be used to positively identify nephroblastoma via immunocytochemistry? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of crystals can be observed in renal aspirates from dogs and cats with oxalate nephrosis (often secondary to ethylene glycol intoxication)? |
|
Definition
calcium oxalate monohydrate
*flat, elongated crystals with pointed ends that may resemble a picket fence or sheaves of wheat when observed in larger groups. |
|
|
Term
| What types of crystals can be observed in renal aspirates from dogs and cats following ingestion of contaminated pet food? |
|
Definition
Melamine and cyanuric acid crystals
* Pale yellow to golden, round to oval, with distinctive radiating striations or globular dense green aggregates. Present in distal tubules and collecting ducts. |
|
|
Term
| What is the significance of finding squamous epithelial cells in urine sediment? |
|
Definition
Usually associated with distal urethra/vagina/prepuce from free catch or catheterized samples
Large numbers of squamous cells can be seen with squamous metaplasia of the bladder (secondary to transitional cell carcinoma or inflammation) or prostate. |
|
|
Term
| What is the significance of increased numbers of transitional epithelial cells in urine sediment? |
|
Definition
catheterized sample OR
urolithiasis, chemotherapy (e.g. cyclophosphamide), inflamed, hyperplasia, or neoplastic mucosa |
|
|
Term
| What is the significance of finding caudate transitional epithelial cells in urine? |
|
Definition
| These are smaller transitional cells that line the renal pelves, their presence in urine suggests pathology involving the pelves (e.g. pyelonephritis, renal pelvic calculi) |
|
|
Term
| What is an oval fat body? |
|
Definition
Refers to variably sized refractile lipid vacuoles within renal tubular epithelial cells
**may be normal in cats, can also be seen in animals with lipiduria (e.g. nephrotic syndrome, hepatic lipidosis, diabetes, hypothyroidism), or associated with lubricant if catheter-collected sample. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Leukocytes in urine sediment that contain refractive cytoplasmic granules which exhibit brownian motion |
|
|
Term
| What type of parasite ova can sometimes be observed in urine sediment in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
Trichuris vulips (Whipworm) if samples are contaminated by feces or enteric contents
Capillaria plica, cats only, may be incidental or associated with lower urinary tract signs
*both have bi-operculated eggs, but trichuris has a smooth shell and capillaria has a knobby (mammillated) shell and not perfectly matched operculae. |
|
|
Term
| How can amorphous phosphate crystals be distinguished from amorphous urate crystals? What is the clinical significance of finding these crystals in a urine sample? |
|
Definition
color and pH
phosphate crystals are colorless to pale yellow and form in alkaline urine (often an incidental finding)
urate crystals are yellow brown to black and form in acidic urine (uncommon and always abnormal, may be seen with portovascular abnormalities, severe hepatic disease and in dalmatians and english bulldogs with an inherited predisposition for urate urolithiasis) <-- can sometimes also be associated with uric acid crystals (flat, colorless, form blunt ovals and diamonds) and ammonium biurate crystals (thorn-apple) |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are most commonly implicated in canine prostatitis? |
|
Definition
E. coli
also, proteus spp, staph spp., brucella canis, mycoplasma spp, and strep spp.
*bacterial prostatitis is the most common prostatic disease diagnosed in intact male dogs, there may be concurrent epithelial hyperplasia and/or squamous metaplasia |
|
|
Term
| What hormone induces prostatic squamous metaplasia? |
|
Definition
Estrogen-like hormone activity (e.g. concurrent stroll cell tumor and rarely interstitial cell tumors, exogenous estrogens)
*squamous metaplasia of the prostate may also occur as a sequelae to chronic inflammation |
|
|
Term
| What cytologic findings are expected with aspiration of a normal testicle? |
|
Definition
Often abundant cellular and nuclear debris.
Spermatozoa and their precursors are often most abundant (and vary from round cells with high N:C ratios and coarsely granular chromatin (spermatocytes), to round cells with dark blue cytoplasm, prominent perinuclear clearing, and eccentric round, single to multiple nuclei with similar granular chromatin (spermatids)).
Few sertoli cells (large polygonal to oval cells with pale blue cytoplasm, large round nuclei with even homogenous chromatin and a single prominent nucleolus)
Rarely leydig (interstitial) cells, round with abundant, highly vacuolated, basophilic cytoplasm, eccentric round nucleus with coarsely clumped chromatin) |
|
|
Term
| What are the most likely infectious causes of epididyitis and/or orchitis in dogs? |
|
Definition
Brucella canis (organisms rarely observed cytologically)
Blastomyces
Distemper (intranuclear and intracytoplasmic viral inclusions can sometimes be seen)
Other less common agents include mycoplasma canis, and rocky mountain spotted fever |
|
|
Term
| What is a common clinical manifestation of sertoli cell tumors in dogs? |
|
Definition
feminization syndrome
*call also occur less commonly with interstitial (leydig cell) testicular tumors as well |
|
|
Term
| What is a Call-Exner body? |
|
Definition
Typically observed in ovarian granulosa cell tumors, and less commonly testicular sertoli cell tumors
Characterized by rows of neoplastic cells arranges in pseudo rosettes surrounding deeply eosinophilic hyaline material |
|
|
Term
| What are the most characteristic cytologic features of sertoli cell tumors? |
|
Definition
cells have abundant light cytoplasm with few irregular clear vacuoles
Histologically neoplastic sertoli cells are arranged in a palisading arrangement that can sometimes also be appreciated cytologically |
|
|
Term
| What type of testicular tumor is most likely to arise in undescended or cryptorchid testicles? |
|
Definition
Seminoma
*other testicular neoplasms may also be present concurrently |
|
|
Term
| What are some characteristic cytologic features of interstitial (leydig) cell tumors in dogs? |
|
Definition
| perivascular arrangement, cells are round to spindloid with abundant basophilic cytoplasm and numerous fine vacuoles. Fine blue to black cytoplasmic granules are occasionally observed. Nuclear pseudoinclusiosn are also sometimes noted. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common mixed gonadal tumor in dogs? |
|
Definition
| sertoli cell and seminoma |
|
|
Term
| What is the main differential for a testicular mass in which mostly macrophages and lymphocytes are observed on FNA? |
|
Definition
sperm granuloma
also look for infectious agents (e.g blasto) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important aspect of semen evaluation when evaluating the breeding potential of a male dog? |
|
Definition
number of spermatozoa per ejeculate (determine via hemocytometer)
also look at motility (should be >70% with forward motion) and morphology (assess 200 spermatozoa) |
|
|
Term
| What is the significance of finding large, polygonal cells with abundant highly vacuolated cytoplasm on a vaginal swab? |
|
Definition
| Suggestive of placental-trophoblasts, which can be observed several weeks after whelping in bitches with suspected subinvolution of placental sites |
|
|
Term
| What are the cytologic features of proestrus on vaginal smears? |
|
Definition
mixture of parabasal, intermediate and superficial squames and variable numbers of erythrocytes and neutrophils, often numerous bacteria (free and adherent to squames)
**as proestrus progresses towards estrus there are increasing numbers of superficial squames and less blood/WBC. This progression is associated with progressively increased estrogen concentrations and maturing ovarian follicles. |
|
|
Term
| What are the cytologic features of estrus on vaginal smears? Can vaginal smears be used to precisely identify the time of ovulation? |
|
Definition
majority of cells are superficial squames, may have numerous free or adherent bacteria, +/- RBC and no WBC
*vaginal cytology is an imprecise predictor of ovulation, maximal cornification of vaginal epithelium may occur as much as 6 days prior to 3 days after the luteinizing hormone surge (ovulation occurs predictably 2 days post LH surgery) |
|
|
Term
| What are the cytologic features of diestrus on vaginal smears? |
|
Definition
Abrupt shift from all superficial squares to a predominance of parabasilar to intermediate cells and variable numbers of neutrophils
*RBC and bacteria may or may not be observed |
|
|
Term
| What stages of the estrus cycle can be challenging to distinguish on the basis of cytology when collected as an isolated sample? |
|
Definition
Late estrus/early diestrus and early to mid proestrus
**All are associated with variable mixtures of parabasilar and superficial squames and variable numbers of RBC and WBC |
|
|
Term
| How does vaginal cytology collected in anestrus differ from proestrus? |
|
Definition
Anestrus- parabasilar and intermediate cells but no RBC/WBC
Proestrus- more mixed epis (including some superficial) + RBC and WBC |
|
|
Term
| What hormone assay is most helpful for guiding breeding in dogs? |
|
Definition
progesterone
progesterone levels rise from very low levels to >1 ng/ml just before LH surge, 2-4 ng/ml during LH surge, and typically >4 ng/ml at the time of ovulation (~48hrs after LH surge)
*LH can be measured but has a very short half life (only elevated for 12-24hrs) so it's less convenient and reliable than progesterone |
|
|
Term
| What is the most sensitive indicator of estrus on vaginal cytology in queens? |
|
Definition
| clearing of background mucus |
|
|
Term
| What non-renal tumors have been associated with erythropoietin production and secondary inappropriate erythrocytosis? |
|
Definition
| cecal leiomyoma, nasal fibrosarcoma, and extradural schwannoma |
|
|
Term
| What mechanism, in dogs with chronic anemia, promotes oxygen delivery to tissues? |
|
Definition
decreased levels of 2,3- DPG in RBC --> decreased O2 affinity for hemoglobin --> easier for RBC to transfer O2 to tissues
*mechanism is unknown in cats, but not the same |
|
|
Term
| What type of reticulocyte best corresponds to active regenerative response in cats? |
|
Definition
aggregate retics best correspond to regenerative response
*punctate reticulocytes may persist in circulation up to 2 weeks after resolution of the anemia in cats, and can be present in healthy cats. Increased punctate retics without concurrent increase in aggregate retics may represent mild acute or recently resolved anemia in cats, or may be normal (maturation of reticulocytes in cats is slower than in other species, so punctate reticulocytes are present in circulation for a longer period of time) |
|
|
Term
| What hematologic change associated with RBC has been reported in animals with persistent glucocorticoid tx or hyperadrenocorticism? |
|
Definition
rubricytosis in the absence of anemia or a regenerative response
*reduced splenic trapping of nRBC |
|
|
Term
| Although a nonspecific finding, what two conditions in particular have been associated with ovalocytes/eliptocytes +/- scalloped boarders in cats and dogs? |
|
Definition
hepatic lipidosis
myelofibrosis |
|
|
Term
| What condition in particular has been associated with many codocytes in dogs? |
|
Definition
| Hypothyroidism (with concurrent hypercholesterolemia) |
|
|
Term
| How many polychromataphilic erythrocytes can be present in the blood of healthy dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical significance of finding higher numbers of howell jolly bodies in a blood smear? |
|
Definition
regenerative anemia
splenic dysfunction
dyserythropoiesis |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference in clinical presentation between hemotropic mycoplasma infections in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
Dogs typically are asymptomatic and organisms are rarely observed on blood smears (more likely to be seen in immunosuppressed or asplenic dogs)
Cats are often anemic (varying severity) but may also be asymptomatic. Depending on the species organisms may be very challenging to find.
**Most likely to observe organisms in fresh, non-anticoagulated blood. |
|
|
Term
| What concurrent hematologic abnormalities are frequently observed in the terminal stages of cytauzoonosis in cats? |
|
Definition
leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.
Organisms (signet ring, matchstick, safety pin, maltese cross) may also be more numerous in terminal stages (usually <1% of RBC contain organisms)
*schizonts (giant macs filled with organisms) can be found in tissues (LN, BM, spleen, liver, lungs) and cause vascular obstruction and ultimately death in affected cats |
|
|
Term
| If you see signet ring shaped piroplasms in dogs what should be your differentials? In cats? |
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Definition
Dogs- babesia (gibsoni, conradae), may detect organisms best in capillary blood (e.g. ear vein), or directly below the buffy coat of a spun HCT tube)
Cats- cytauxzoon felis
**In both species mycoplasma can sometimes make ring forms and could be a reasonable differential |
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Term
| Which of the babesia organisms is associated with intravascular hemolysis? |
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Definition
B. canis
**extravascular hemolysis is also common, other babesia species (b. gibsoni, conradae) typically associated with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia in addition to extravascular hemolysis. |
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Term
| Describe the morphologic and clinical implications of Chediak higashi syndrome? In what domestic species has this disease been described? |
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Definition
Described in cats and cattle
Large irregular, pink granules in leukocytes and other tissue cells, due to lysosome fusion
associated with neutropenia and impaired neutrophil microbial killing, also coagulopathy due to platelet defects |
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Term
| Which of the inherited disorders have been associated with reddish-purple granules in neutrophil cytoplasm in dogs and cats? |
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Definition
MPS type VI (N-acetylglucosaminidase-4-sulfatase) and VII (beta-glucoronidase)
GM2 gangliosidosis (beta-hexosaminidase) |
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Term
| In general terms, how are hematopoietic cells distributed within the marrow cavity in mammals? |
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Definition
proliferative granulocytic cells are paratrabecular and perivascular (mast cells and plasma cells are also perivascular)
mature granulocytes are central/interstitial
erythroid cells and megakaryocytic are adjacent to vascular sinuses
Lymphocytes are distributed interstitially and in perivascular aggregates |
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Term
| Where does most active hematopoiesis occur in adult animals? |
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Definition
| flat bones and extremities of long bones |
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Term
| In normal feline and canine bone marrow, what percentage of all nucleated cells can be lymphocytes? plasma cells? macrophages? |
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Definition
Lymphs: < 5% (dogs), < 10% (cats)
plasma cells: < 2% (both)
macs: < 2% (both) |
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Term
| What are howship lacunae? |
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Definition
| scalloped indentations in areas of bony remodeling or reactivity that contain osteoclasts |
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Term
| How does the percentage of fat to hematopoietic cells / spicule change as animals age? |
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Definition
juvenile should be >75% cells
young adult should be ~50% cells
cellularity progressively decreases, in old animals may be ~25% cellular |
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Term
| What is the significance of finding adequate to increased iron stores in bone marrow aspirates from an animal with non-regenerative anemia? |
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Definition
adquate Fe= anemia of chronic disease
increased Fe + erythrophagia = extravascular hemolysis (e.g. IMHA, post blood transfusion) or ineffective erythropoiesis (e.g. MDS, leukemia)
vs. low Fe = nutritional or chronic blood loss Fe deficiency
**young dogs have little or no Fe, which increases with age. Cats never have visible Fe in health |
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Term
| What is a dyscrasia (with reference to bone marrow)? |
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Definition
| the presence of excessive number of one or more developmental stages of hemic cells, in comparison with other developmental stages of the series |
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Term
| What bone marrow dysplastic changes can be observed secondary to B12 or folic acid deficiency? |
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Definition
Megalocytosis/macrocytosis of the erythroid lineage
Multinucleated megakaryocytic |
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Term
| What are megaloblastic changes? |
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Definition
| large cell size, increased amount of cytoplasm, excessively coarse chromatin in immature cell, nucleus to cytoplasm maturation asynchrony |
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Term
| What conditions have been associated with bone marrow mast cell hyperplasia in dogs? |
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Definition
anemia (regenerative, nonregeneative, aplastic, Fe deficiency)
myelofibrosis
lymphoma
generalized hypocellularity (esp. w/ chronic ehrlichiosis)
**low cellularity of the marrow may emphasize the normal unaffected mast cells vs. true hyperplasia in some of these cases |
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Term
| What bone marrow findings are expected in hypothyroid dogs with non regenerative anemia? |
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Definition
| erythroid hypoplasia with variable iron stores (e.g. essentially anemia of chronic disease) |
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Term
| What percentage of plasma cells in the bone marrow is consistent with multiple myeloma? |
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Definition
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Term
| What cytochemical stains can be used to identify neutrophil precursors? Monocyte precursors? |
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Definition
Neutrophil precursors are typically positive for Sudan Black B, chloroacetate esterase (CAE), and myeloperoxoidase
Monocyte precursors are typically positive for nonspecific esterase (NSE) |
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Term
| How does distribution of lymphocytes in a bone marrow core biopsy relate to the likelihood of lymphoma vs. nonneoplastic lymphoid aggregates? |
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Definition
Lymphoma - more likely to be distributed in PARATRABECULAR interstitial patterns
non-neoplastic lymphoid aggregates- more likely to be perivascular
**interstitial patterns can be seen with both neoplastic and reactive |
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Term
| Describe the cytologic appearance of cells from the adrenal cortex (zona fasiculata/glomerulosa vs. zona reticularis) and those from the adrenal medulla? |
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Definition
cortex:
fasiculata/glomerulosa: abundant highly vacuolated cytoplasm
reticularis: eaosinophilic granular cytoplasm +/- lipofuscin
Medulla: neuroendocrine appearance |
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Term
| Although pheochromocytoma is the most common adrenal medullary tumor in dogs and cats, what other types of neoplasms may arise from the adrenal medulla? |
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Definition
neuroblastoma (young dogs, may be multifocal, small round blue cell tumor +/- pseudorosette formation)
ganglioneuromas (ganglion cells -aka large nerve cell bodies, admixed with spindle cells)
**both are exceedingly rare! |
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Term
| What test can be performed on a gross/surgical specimen of an adrenal mass to distinguish adrenal cortical neoplasia from pheochromocytoma? |
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Definition
| Application of Zener solution (potassium dichromate) to a freshly cut surface --> oxidation of catecholamines within 5 -20 minutes results in a brown pigment deposition in pheochromocytoma |
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Term
| What is the preferred antibody isotope for immunocytochemistry? |
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Definition
IgG
*most consistent generation and antigen binding |
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Term
| What regions of the antibody molecule are responsible for antigen binding? |
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Definition
| N-terminal portion of the light chain and variable region of the head chain |
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Term
| What is the difference between monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies? |
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Definition
Monoclonal antibodies only recognize a single epitope on an antigen (very specific). Generally produced in mice, sometimes also rabbits.
Polyclonal antibodies recognize multiple epitopes on an antigen (less specific more more sensitive). Generally produced in rabbits.
**if antibodies are produced against non-species targeted antigens (e.g. produced for use with human or murine tissues) then polyclonal Ab may be preferable to increase the sensitivity. |
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Term
| What are the advantages and disadvantages to using a secondary anti-body conjugates to a labeling mechanism vs. a directly conjugated primary antibody for ICC? |
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Definition
Increased staining intensity (multiple secondary antibodies can bind the the primary antibody)
Also increased risk of nonspecific secondary antibody binding and excessive background staining |
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Term
| What is the most common labeling method for ICC? |
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Definition
enzymatic method (enzyme is attached to the secondary Ab (or conjugated to the primary Ab) and the sample is incubated with a substrate resulting in production of a colored substrate. Main benefit is that this is permanent and can be stored.
Fluorescent labels fase over time and particulate labels (e.g. gold) are used mostly for electron microscopy |
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Term
| What is the ideal negative control for ICC? |
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Definition
| A secondary Ab control: the primary antibody is replace by serum (same as species being tested) and then the secondary antibody is applied to demonstrate that it is specific to the primary antibody |
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Term
| What is the function of propidium iodide and 7-amino-actinomycin D with regards to flow cytometry reagents? |
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Definition
| Propidium iodide and 7-amino-actinomycin D bind to DNA from lysed cells to ensure that there are adequate numbers of intact cells and eliminate nonspecific staining of cell fragments or debris |
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Term
| What is the most common immunophenotype of CLL in dogs? |
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Definition
CD3+, CD5+, CD8+ (usually contain fine azurophilic cytoplasmic granules)
**originates in the spleen |
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Term
| What is the most common immunophenotype of CLL in cats? |
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Definition
CD3+, CD4+
*lymphocytes may be more intermediate in size with less condensed chromatin and more abundant cytoplasm than typical small lymphocytes |
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Term
| What CD molecules can be used as markers of platelet lineage (e.g. M7) when classifying acute leukemias? |
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Definition
CD61and CD41
*components of platelet integrin receptors |
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Term
| What is the prognostic implications of loss of MHC-II expression in dogs with B cell lymphoma? |
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Definition
| Loss of MHC-II expression in dogs with B cell lymphoma is associated with a poorer prognosis |
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Term
| Expression of which genes can be evaluated to distinguish B cell tumors from T cell tumors? |
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Definition
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Term
| Expression of which genes can be evaluated to distinguish high grade T cell lymphoma (lymphoblastic and peripheral T cell lymphoma) from low grade T cell lymphoma (T zone lymphoma) in dogs? |
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Definition
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Term
| What microRNAs can be used to distinguish canine B cell lymphoma from T cell lymphoma? |
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Definition
miR-17-5p is overexposed in B cell LSA
miR-181a is overexposed and miR-29b is downregulated in T cell LSA
*no differentiation between high grade and low grade LSA |
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