Term
Which of the following is the key to service with distinction?
Honor and Courag
Customer Service
Professional ethics
Stellar performance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The importance of having medical care onboard naval vessels was reinforced on ____.
1.
June 16, 1776
2.
March 2, 1799
3.
October 13, 1975
4.
November 13, 1984 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The area called the sick bay today was originally referred to as what?
1.
Cockpit
2.
Sickcall
3.
MTF
4.
Ward |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The first member of the Hospital Corps to be awarded the Medal of Honor was?
1.
Hospital Apprentice Eugene Soucy
2.
Hospital Apprentice Robert Stanley
3.
Loblolly Boy Russ
4.
Pharmacist Mate Carl C. Moore |
|
Definition
2.
Hospital Apprentice Robert Stanley |
|
|
Term
The foundation for the current system of rank structure came in what year?
1.
1924
2.
1935
3.
1920
4.
1916 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The first Hospital Corps School for Women Accepted for Volunteer Emergency Service was commissioned where?
1.
Hospital Corps School, Great Lakes, IL
2.
U. S. Naval Hospital Pensacola, FL
3.
National Naval Medical Center, Bethesda, MD
4.
U. S. Naval Hospital , San Diego, CA |
|
Definition
3.
National Naval Medical Center, Bethesda, MD |
|
|
Term
The Honorable James Forrestal was serving in what position when he publically thanked the Hospital Corps for its service and contributions during World War II?
1.
Secretary of Defense
2.
Secretary of War
3.
Secretary of the Navy
4.
Secretary of State |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What was the original rating insignia of the Hospital Corps?
1.
Caduceus
2.
Red Cross
3.
Gold Oak Leaf
4.
Blue Cross |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Shock Trauma Platoons (STP) were first deployed during the Afghanistan phase of the War on Terror.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Soft Power was first articulated as a possible military policy in 1911 by President Theodore Roosevelt.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Dental Technician rating was established ___________.
1.
12 January 1944
2.
02 April 1948
3.
07 December 1941
4.
12 December 1947 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most of the Navy’s medical enlisted training will be relocated to ________ along with the Army and Air Force as of 2011.
1.
Wichita Falls, TX
2.
San Diego, CA
3.
San Antonio, TX
4.
Ft. Bragg, NC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What percentage of all Department of the Navy Medals of Honor has been earned by Hospital Corpsmen?
1.
50%
2.
20%
3.
40%
4.
65% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following should be reported to the OOD for inclusion into the duty log.
1.
Bacteria in the potable water
2.
Functioning equipment
3.
Service member with a broken leg
4.
Hygiene class for food service personnel
5.
Answers 1 and 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
SAMS is an administrative management tool that tracks:
1.
Sick Call Log
2.
Potable Water Testing Results
3.
Medical Training
4.
All of the above
5.
Answers 1 and 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What specific 3-M system regulates scheduled equipment maintenance?
1.
Planned Maintenance Schedule
2.
Preventative Maintenance System
3.
Navy Maintenance and Material Management System
4.
Planned Maintenance System |
|
Definition
4.
Planned Maintenance System |
|
|
Term
Which type of directive regulates policy?
1.
Permanent
2.
Notice
3.
Instruction
4.
Temporary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Change transmittals should be filed with ________ on top?
1.
Change 3
2.
Most current change
3.
Original instruction
4.
Change 1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Department of the Navy Information Security Program gives direction on how to prepare naval correspondence.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The 5000 series of correspondence relates to ________.
1.
Military Personnel
2.
General Administration and Management
3.
General Material
4.
Financial Material |
|
Definition
2.
General Administration and Management |
|
|
Term
What is the process called that is used to determine the correct subject group under which documents should be filed?
1.
Classifying
2.
Grouping
3.
Coding
4.
Cross-referencing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
HMs should use their best judgment to dispose of questionable directives.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Medical and dental personnel must be aware of planned operations so they can ____.
1.
Plan for supplies
2.
Plan for possible injuries
3.
Plan for extended work hours
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which element of medical readiness is used to correct individual medical readiness deficiencies?
1.
Dental Readiness
2.
Immunizations
3.
Deployment Limiting Conditions
4.
Periodic Health Assessment |
|
Definition
4.
Periodic Health Assessment |
|
|
Term
Personnel in these dental classifications go to the head of the line for treatment prior to deployment.
1.
Class 1 and 2
2.
Class 1 and 4
3.
Class 3 and 4
4.
Class 2 and 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient in Class 2 dental status means?
1.
Return for evaluation in one year
2.
Service member is deployable
3.
Oral conditions are unknown
4.
Conditions exist requiring immediate treatment |
|
Definition
1.
Return for evaluation in one year |
|
|
Term
The primary mission of the FMF medical battalion is to provide:
1.
Specialized surgery
2.
Triage
3.
Long term hospitalization
4.
Preventive medicine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
FMF dental units maintain dental readiness during all of the following EXCEPT:
1.
Deployments
2.
Exercises
3.
Emergency Environments
4.
Combat Operations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fleet Hospital mission and personnel requirements are set by _______________.
1.
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
2.
Combatant Commander (COCOM)
3.
Type Commander (TYCOM)
4.
Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) |
|
Definition
2.
Combatant Commander (COCOM) |
|
|
Term
Fleet hospitals are used in operations that are less than 60 days in duration.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who directs the actions of the Naval Mobile Construction Battalion when responding to a natural disaster, i.e. Hurricane Katrina?
1.
Cognizant Authority
2.
Senior Naval Officer on scene
3.
Commanding Officer
4.
FEMA Coordinator on site |
|
Definition
4.
FEMA Coordinator on site |
|
|
Term
A warfare qualification signifies _______.
1.
The HM is competent
2.
The command has confidence in the individual wearing it
3.
The HM is an integral part of the unit
4.
The HM understands the unit’s specific mission |
|
Definition
3.
The HM is an integral part of the unit |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a HM administrative responsibility during the operations of a medical clinic?
1.
Greeting the patient entering the clinic or inpatient floor
2.
Opening the clinic and making coffee
3.
Providing initial clinical documentation
4.
Assisting with the referral process |
|
Definition
2.
Opening the clinic and making coffee |
|
|
Term
Which system was implemented to assist in the projection and allocation of cost for healthcare programs?
1.
DEERS
2.
DIRS
3.
ALHTA
4.
DENCAS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Instances where the beneficiary has a valid ID card and DEERS shows the individual ineligible, or not in the database, eligibility verification by ID Card overrides DEERS.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In cases where a patient presents without a valid ID card and does not appear in DEERS, non-emergent care will still be rendered.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many days after receiving treatment does a patient have to present a valid ID card before being billed as a Civilian Humanitarian Non-indigent?
1.
15
2.
30
3.
45
4.
60 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who may delay billing on a patient not presenting with a valid ID?
1.
Commanding Officer
2.
Personnel Officer
3.
Third Party Collections
4.
Patient Billing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the length of time a newborn can be treated without presenting a valid ID card?
1.
60 days
2.
90 days
3.
6 months
4.
1 year |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following Foreign Military Personnel are not eligible for care at Naval MTF’s?
1.
NATO personnel stationed in the U.S.
2.
Crew of visiting aircraft
3.
Crew of NATO ships in port
4.
Foreign military on vacation in the U.S. |
|
Definition
| Foreign military on vacation in the U.S. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a type of dental care?
1.
Routine
2.
Special
3.
Emergency
4.
Elective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment that is necessary to relieve pain, control bleeding, and manage septic conditions falls under Special Types of dental care.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Of the following, who will be the first to receive dental care?
1.
Active duty - routine
2.
Member of Senior Training Corp - special
3.
Civilian - elective
4.
Family member of active duty - emergency |
|
Definition
| Family member of active duty - emergency |
|
|
Term
What program is used to evaluate the degree of excellence in care delivered and its results for future improvement?
1.
Quality Issuance
2.
Quality Improvement
3.
Quality Assurance
4.
Quality Result |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Medical care rendered by healthcare providers to Navy beneficiaries is sometimes considered subpar due to what fact?
1.
Lack of medical skills
2.
Lack of interpersonal relationship skills
3.
Lack of access to care
4.
Lack of healthcare providers |
|
Definition
| Lack of interpersonal relationship skills |
|
|
Term
The Patient Relations Program is the only program that strives to enhance channels of communication between the hospital, staff, and patient populations.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which program allows patients to voice their satisfactory or unsatisfactory complaints, including those concerning treatment?
1.
Health Care Relations Program
2.
Patient Relations Program
3.
Quality Assurance Program
4.
Patient Contact Point Program |
|
Definition
| Patient Contact Point Program |
|
|
Term
Where would the HM look to find more information in the area of Medical Treatment Records?
1.
MANMED Chapter 16
2.
BUMEDINST 5210.8
3.
MANMED Chapter 6
4.
MANMED Chapter 17 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Family Advocacy Program identifies, treats, and monitors Navy personnel engaging in which types of behavior?
1.
Spousal abuse
2.
Child abuse
3.
Sexual abuse
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Physical readiness testing is required to be conducted by subordinate commands, who’s medical departments are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT?
1.
Providing technical assistance to BUPERS
2.
Conducting lifestyle, fitness, and obesity research
3.
Assisting in the development of exercise prescriptions
4.
Process waivers for completing the PRT |
|
Definition
| Process waivers for completing the PRT |
|
|
Term
Failure to obtain consent prior to initiation of medical treatment may result in medical malpractice and/or assault and battery.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is obligated to provide the patient with all necessary information to make a knowledgeable decision on a proposed medical procedure?
1.
Hospital Corpsman
2.
Medical Provider
3.
Patient Administration Officer
4.
Nurse Corps Officer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Consent prior to initiation of medical treatment is required in all routine, emergency, and elective procedures.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What legal doctrine serves as the final authority over and determines the control of substitute consent?
1.
Hospital Rules
2.
Federal Law
3.
State Law
4.
The Joint Commission |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is recommended to act as a witness when the patient is consenting to a medical procedure?
1.
Family Member
2.
Staff member not involved in the procedure
3.
Staff member involved in the procedure
4.
Another medical provider |
|
Definition
| Staff member not involved in the procedure |
|
|
Term
Under the Freedom of Information Act the Navy must make all documents available EXCEPT those that are exempt.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which policy was established to provide a balance between the public and the privacy of an individual?
1.
Privacy Act of 1974
2.
Freedom of Information Act
3.
HIPPA Privacy Rule
4.
DODINST 6025.18 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The HIPAA Privacy Rule allows for disclosure of what information?
1.
Name and Social
2.
Medical Treatment Rendered
3.
Protected Health Information
4.
Dental Treatment Rendered |
|
Definition
| Protected Health Information |
|
|
Term
Personal Health Information is required to be disclosed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT?
1.
Treatment
2.
Security
3. Payment
4. Health Care Operations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Under what act is it unlawful for the United States military to be used as an enforcer or to assist in the enforcement of federal or state law?
1.
Privacy Act
2.
HIPPA Security Act
3.
Freedom of Information Act
4.
Posse Comitatus Act |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is authorized to deliver an Active Duty member to federal law enforcement authorities and based upon what actions?
1.
Commanding Officer, presentation of a federal warrant
2.
Medical Officer, presentation of a federal warrant
3.
Executive Officer, presentation of a federal warrant
4.
Commanding Officer, presentation of an accusation |
|
Definition
| Commanding Officer, presentation of a federal warrant |
|
|
Term
Prisoners as patients categorized under all of the following categories EXCEPT?
1.
Family member prisoners
2.
Enemy POW and other detained personnel
3.
Non-military federal prisoners
4.
Military prisoners |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following types of prisoners are only allowed emergency medical treatment?
1.
Family member prisoners
2.
Enemy POW and other detained personnel
3.
Non-military federal prisoners
4.
Military prisoners |
|
Definition
| Non-military federal prisoners |
|
|
Term
All military prisoners with active sentences are allowed to receive medical care.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where can the HM locate guidance on care, evaluation, and medico-legal documentation for a victim alleged of rape or sexual assault?
1.
NCIS
2.
OPNAVINST 1752.1
3.
SECNAVINST 5800.11
4.
NAVMEDCOMINST 6310.3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the reason many legal battles are lost?
1.
Victim refuses to speak out
2.
Improper documentation of medical treatment
3.
Failure to adhere to proper administrative procedures
4.
The many mistakes made by Hospital Corpsman, nurses, and medical providers |
|
Definition
| Failure to adhere to proper administrative procedures |
|
|
Term
Custody of health records is generally vested in the medical department. On ships without a medical department representative, an individual retains custody of the record until which of the following times, if any?
1.
Transfer
2.
Transfer with verification every 6 months
3.
Transfer with annual verification
4.
Never |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a member is hospitalized in a foreign nation and the ship departs port, the health record is?
1.
Retained on board
2.
Turned over to the hospital
3.
Forwarded to the nearest U.S. consulate or embassy
4.
Turned over to another U.S. vessel in port |
|
Definition
| Forwarded to the nearest U.S. consulate or embassy |
|
|
Term
The health record jacket of PO3 Walter T. Door, 333-44-5555, would be what color?
1.
Blue
2.
Almond
3.
Orange
4.
Pink |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The health jackets of flag or general officers should be annotated to reflect their rank.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a HREC is opened on a service member, the member should be directed to read and sign the Privacy Act Statement inside the back cover of the HREC.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Entries to the Chronological Record of Medical Care, SF 600, when not typewritten, should be made in which color(s) of ink?
1.
Blue
2.
Black or blue-black
3.
Red
4.
Ink color is irrelevant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the preferred form on which to record admission to the hospital?
1.
SF 509, Medical Record-Progress Report
2.
SF 600, Chronological Record of Medical Care
3.
NAVMED 6150/4, Abstract of Service and Medical History
4.
NAVMED 6150/20, Summary of Care |
|
Definition
| SF 509, Medical Record-Progress Report |
|
|
Term
A health record is opened in which of the following cases?
1.
When a member returns to active duty from the retired list
2.
When the original record has been lost
3.
When first becoming a member of the naval service
4.
In all the above cases |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A well known research group requests medical information to use as part of the basis of a study it is performing. What action, if any, should be taken prior to release?
1.
None; an individual’s medical information may not be released
2.
Commanding officer of the MTF should release information immediately
3.
Commanding officer of the MTF should check with the Judge Advocate General for advice
4.
Commanding officer of the MTF should forward the request to BUMED for guidance |
|
Definition
| Commanding officer of the MTF should forward the request to BUMED for guidance |
|
|
Term
In which of the following circumstance should the health record be verified?
1.
Reporting to a new command
2.
When transferring
3.
Annually
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Under which of the following circumstances would a member’s health record NOT be closed?
1.
Transfers to a new duty station
2.
Transfers to the Fleet Reserve
3.
Placed on the retired list
4.
Declared missing in action |
|
Definition
| Transfers to a new duty station |
|
|
Term
On which of the following documents would a notation be made concerning a member’s status as a deserter?
1.
SF600
2.
NAVMED 6100/1
3.
NAVMED 6150/2
4.
Both 1 and 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A member separated for disability should receive a copy of the HREC to present to the VA so that the member’s claim can be processed expeditiously.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following FMP codes will be placed in the two diamonds preceding the SSN for an active duty member?
1.
01
2.
20
3.
30
4.
60 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following phrases is written in the lower portion of the patient’s identification box for retired 0-7 and above personnel?
1.
“VIP”
2.
“ADMIRAL”
3.
“FLAG/GENERAL OFFICER”
4.
“ATTENTION ON DECK” |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following symbols and which color of felt-tip pen is used in the alert box if the patient has an allergy or sensitivity?
1.
“A/S” Black
2.
"X” Red
3.
“A/S” Red
4.
“X” Black |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which, if any, of the following color felt-tip pens is used to mark the annual verification section on the right-hand side of the dental record jacket?
1.
Red
2.
Blue
3.
Black
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The form printed on the inside of the front jacket cover should be completed in what type of writing utensil?
1.
Pen
2.
Pencil
3.
Crayon
4.
Felt tip pen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the DD 2005, Privacy Act Statement located in the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
1.
Back cover
2.
Back of front page (Part I)
3.
Back of center page (Part III)
4.
Front of center page (Part II) |
|
Definition
| Front of center page (Part II) |
|
|
Term
Where is the Disclosure Accounting Record located in the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
1.
Back cover
2.
Back of front page (Part I)
3.
Back of center page (Part III)
4.
Front of center page (Part II) |
|
Definition
| Back of center page (Part III) |
|
|
Term
Dental Exam Forms should be filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
1.
Back of center page (Part III)
2.
Front of center page (Part II)
3.
Inside back cover (Part IV)
4.
Inside front cover (Part I) |
|
Definition
| Inside back cover (Part IV) |
|
|
Term
Where is the Forensic Examination form located in the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
1.
Inside back cover (Part IV)
2.
Back of front page (Part I)
3.
Back of center page (Part III)
4.
Front of center page (Part II) |
|
Definition
| Back of center page (Part III) |
|
|
Term
The most current Dental Treatment Form, EZ603A is filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21?
1.
Back cover
2.
Front cover
3.
Inside back cover (Part IV)
4.
Inside front cover (Part I) |
|
Definition
| Inside back cover (Part IV) |
|
|
Term
When using the terminal digit filing system, how many equal sections are the central files divided into?
1.
100
2.
200
3.
300
4.
50 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All forms documenting patient care placed in the NAVMED 6150-21/30 will contain which of the following patient information?
1.
FMP and sponsor’s SSN
2.
Name- last, first, middle initial
3.
Sponsor’s branch of service and status
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following NAVMED Forms is the Health Record Receipt?
1.
NAVMED 6150/1
2.
NAVMED 6150/6
3.
NAVMED 6150/7
4.
NAVMED 6150/8 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sequential bitewing radiographs should be filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
1.
Back of center page (Part III)
2.
Front of center pager (Part II)
3.
Inside back cover (Part IV)
4.
Inside front cover (Part I) |
|
Definition
| Inside front cover (Part I) |
|
|
Term
What is the maximum time allowed for the retention of loose treatment forms?
1.
3 months
2.
6 months
3.
1 year
4.
2 years |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where would the HM locate the policies and guidance for operating and managing procedures of supply departments and activities?
1.
NAVSUP 485
2.
OPNAVINST P-485
3.
NAVMEDCOMINST 4850
4.
NAVSUP P-485 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The agreement to a contract with a vendor without the appropriate level of authority is also known as?
1.
Commitment
2.
Obligation
3.
Unauthorized commitment
4.
Ratification |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a requisition exceeds the current competitive threshold, the HM must receive quotes from how many additional vendors?
1.
1
2.
2
3.
3
4.
4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Any item that has an application and appears on APL, SNSL, ISL, or Naval Ship Systems Command is known as what?
1.
Consumable
2.
Non-consumable
3.
Repair part
4.
Standard stock item |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many digits are included in the Federal Supply Classification?
1.
4
2.
3
3.
2
4.
1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The sum total of the operating level and safety level is also known as what?
1.
Requisitioning objective
2.
Supply Level
3.
Stockage objective
4.
Operating level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A Controlled Substance Inventory is conducted how often?
1.
Weekly
2.
Monthly
3.
Annually
4.
Bi-annually |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The end user must complete all of the following EXCEPT upon receipt of items?
1.
Sign
2.
Date
3.
Circle Amount
4.
Place a check by each item received |
|
Definition
| Place a check by each item received |
|
|
Term
What is the most common receipt document that is encountered?
1.
DD 200
2.
DD 1348
3.
DD 1348-1
4.
DD 1200 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the HM encounters a shipping or packaging discrepancy on behalf of the shipper, the HM should submit a?
1.
Discrepancy report
2.
DD 365
3.
Report of Discrepancy
4.
DD 374 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A ROD is submitted on what form?
1.
DD 364
2.
NAVMED 3640
3.
NAVSUP 364
4.
SF 364 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The first in, first out method is the process of issuing items to the first person that arrives.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The first in, first out method is most important when dealing with items that have a shelf life or expiration code.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the body is in the anatomical position, the thumbs point?
1.
Medially
2.
Laterally
3.
Anteriorly
4.
Posteriorly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A person lying on his/her back is in what position?
1.
Prone
2.
Erect
3.
Supine
4.
Lateral recumbent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The physical and chemical breakdown of the food we eat is called?
1.
Metabolism
2.
Digestion
3.
Anabolism
4.
Catabolism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The transfer of fluids across the plasma membrane of a cell from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is a process known as?
1.
Infusion
2.
Diffusion
3.
Perfusion
4.
Osmosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Homeostasis is defined as?
1.
Control of bleeding
2.
Absorption, storage, and use of food products
3.
Self-regulated control of the body’s internal environment
4.
The power of voluntary movement |
|
Definition
| Self-regulated control of the body’s internal environment |
|
|
Term
That portion of a cell containing all the genetic material important in the cell’s reproduction is called the?
1.
Plasma membrane
2.
Nucleus
3.
Cytoplasm
4.
Reticulated endothelium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The secretion of digestive fluids and the absorption of digested foods and liquids is the chief function of which tissue?
1.
Columnar
2.
Osseus
3.
Sercus
4.
Squamous |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The body’s primary thermo-regulatory action is a function of dilating and contracting blood vessels and the?
1.
Stratum germinativum
2.
Sweat glands
3.
Sebacceous glands
4.
Melanin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are the two most prominent mineral elements of bone?
1.
Ossein and calcium
2.
Phosphorus and calcium
3.
Sodium and phosphorus
4.
Periostium and ossein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bones of the wrist are classified as which of the following bones?
1.
Long
2.
Short
3.
Flat
4.
Irregular |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bones of the cranium include which of the following?
1.
Maxilla
2.
Occipital
3.
Atlas and Axis
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The axial skeleton is composed of which two regions of the skeletal system?
1.
Skull and vertebral column
2.
Thorax and upper extremities
3.
Pelvis and thorax
4.
Upper and lower extremities |
|
Definition
| Skull and vertebral column |
|
|
Term
The upper three ribs on each side are known as which of the following types?
Floating
Sternal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The concavity into which the head of the humerus articulates is called the?
1.
Scapula
2.
Acetabulum
3.
Glenoid fossa
4.
Epicondyle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The innominate bone is composed of three parts that are united in adults to form a cuplike structure called the?
1.
Glenoid fossa
2.
Acetabelum
3.
Symphysis pubis
4.
Obturator Foramen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The prominence easily felt on the inner and outer aspects of the ankle are called?
1.
Medial and lateral malleolus
2.
Medial and lateral condyle
3.
Greater and lesser turberosities
4.
Greater and lesser trochanters |
|
Definition
| Medial and lateral malleolus |
|
|
Term
Bones that develop within a tendon are known as which of the following?
1.
Condyloid
2.
Sesamoid
3.
Veriform
4.
Fasliform |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Moving an extremity away from the body is called?
1.
Flexion
2.
Extension
3.
Abduction
4.
Adduction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The act of straightening a limb in known as?
1.
Flexion
2.
Extension
3.
Abduction
4.
Adduction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary function of the muscles includes all of the following EXCEPT?
1.
Providing heat during activity
2.
Maintaining body posture
3.
Producing red blood cells
4.
Providing movement |
|
Definition
| Producing red blood cells |
|
|
Term
Which of the following properties describes the ability of muscles to respond to a stimulus?
1.
Contractility
2.
Irritability
3.
Extensibility
4.
Tonicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ability of muscles to regain their original form when stretched is known as?
1.
Contractility
2.
Elasticity
3.
Extensibility
4.
Tonicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Actin and myosin are two protein substances involved in?
1.
Muscle recovery
2.
Muscle nourishment
3.
Muscle contraction
4.
Rigor mortis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a generally sedentary person in less than good physical health enters a marathon with the intent to complete the race, which of the following outcomes can he/she be expected to encounter?
1.
If the day is cool, there will be no significant risk
2.
Any physical deficiency can be overcome with a carbohydrate-rich diet before the race
3.
If stretching exercises are performed before the race, he/she will be ok
4.
He/she runs the risk of muscle damage |
|
Definition
| He/she runs the risk of muscle damage |
|
|
Term
Intramuscular injections are frequently given in which of the following muscles?
1.
Trapezius
2.
Pectoralis majoris
3.
Deltoid
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Intramuscluar injections are usually given in which of the following muscles?
1.
Quadriceps
2.
Sartorius
3.
Gastrocnemius
4.
Gluteus maximus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The total blood volume in the average adult is in what range?
1.
3 to 4 liters
2.
4 to 5 liters
3.
5 to 6 liters
4.
6 to 7 liters |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A decreased red blood cell (RBC) count could be the result of a medical condition affecting the?
1.
Compact bone
2.
Perioteum
3.
Yellow marrow
4.
Red marrow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A white blood cell (WBC) count of 18,000 may indicate what condition?
1.
Leukocytosis
2.
Normalcy
3.
Infection
4.
Vetiligo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In an accident victim suffering from a fibrinogen deficiency, the rescuer may have difficulty performing which of the actions listed below?
1.
Controlling hemorrhage
2.
Immobilizing a fracture
3.
Supporting respiratory function
4.
Reducing a dislocation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In addition to preventing excessive blood loss, the formation of a blood clot serves which, if any, of the following purposes?
1.
To convert fibrinogen into blood serum to aid healing
2.
To form the foundation for new tissue growth
3.
To manufacture leukocytes
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
| To form the foundation for new tissue growth |
|
|
Term
The valves of the heart include all of the following EXCEPT?
1.
Atrial
2.
Mitral
3.
Vagus
4.
Pulmonary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenated blood is carried by which of the following vein(s)?
1.
Inferior vena cava
2.
Superior vena cava
3.
Portal
4.
Pulmonary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The contraction phase of the heart is?
1.
Systole
2.
Tension
3.
Diastole
4.
Active |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pulse pressure is the difference between which of the following measurement?
1.
Venous and arterial pressure
2.
Resting and active pulse rate
3.
Arterial and ventricle pressure
4.
Systole and diastole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The venous system that carries digested materials from the intestinal tract is called the?
1.
Portal
2.
Pulmonary
3.
Abdominal
4.
Pelvic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lymph nodes participate in all of the following functions EXCEPT?
1.
Manufacture of the white blood cells
2.
Filtration of bacterial debris
3.
Production of hormones
4.
Collection of large protein molecules |
|
Definition
| Manufacture of the white blood cells |
|
|
Term
Windpipe is another term for?
1.
Nares
2.
Larynx
3.
Trachea
4.
Pharynx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary muscle of respiration is known as the?
1.
Pleura
2.
Alveolus
3.
Diaphragm
4.
Mediastinum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Of the following nerves, which, if any, controls the larynx during the process of breathing?
1.
Phrenic
2.
Intercostal
3.
Vagus
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A nerve, cell, or neuron is composed of all of the following EXCEPT a/an?
1.
Synapse
2.
Axon
3.
Perikaryon
4.
Dendrite |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The impulse receptors of a nerve are called?
1.
Dendrites
2.
Schwann cells
3.
Ganglia
4.
Neurons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The space through which a nerve impulse passes from one neuron to another is called a/an?
1.
Myelin sheath
2.
Synapse
3.
Axon
4.
Ganglion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Balance, coordination or movement, and harmony of motion are functions of what part of the brain?
1.
Cerebral cortex
2.
Cerebellum
3.
Pons
4.
Temporal lobe |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Circulation and respiration are controlled primarily from what area of the brain?
1.
Medulla
2.
Pons
3.
Cerebral cortex
4.
Cerebellum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The meninges, which cover the outer portion of the brain and spinal cord are composed of all the following EXCEPT?
1.
Dura mater
2.
Pia mater
3.
Arachnoid membrane
4.
Foramen magnum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what part of the body is cerebral spinal fluid produced?
1.
Central Ventricles
2.
Spinal cord
3.
Meninges
4.
Medulla Oblongota |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The 12 pairs of cranial and 31 pairs spinal nerves form what nervous system?
1.
Peripheral
2.
Central
3.
Autonomic
4.
Sympathetic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The autonomic nervous system is composed of two main divisions.
1.
Pons and medulla oblongata
2.
Voluntary and involuntary systems
3.
Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
4.
Central and peripheral systems |
|
Definition
| Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems |
|
|
Term
Conservation and restoration of energy are the result of nerve impulses arising from which, if any, of the following nervous systems?
1.
Sympathetic
2.
Parasympathetic
3.
Voluntary
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hormones secreted by the endocrine system are?
1.
Secreted directly into the gland, tissue, or organ it influences
2.
Directed to the gland, tissue, or organ by a duct system
3.
Secreted into the circulatory system
4.
Typically produced in large quantities |
|
Definition
| Secreted into the circulatory system |
|
|
Term
The overproduction of which hormone leads to acromegaly?
1.
Somatotropin
2.
Oxytocin
3.
Gonadotropin
4.
Thyroxin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following diseases is characterized by a deficiency of the antidiuretic hormone?
1.
Myxedema
2.
Diabetes insipidus
3.
Hyperthyroidism
4.
Addison’s disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An insufficient secretion of thyroxin is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT?
1.
Weight gain
2.
Fatigue
3.
Profuse sweating
4.
Slowed heart rate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Calcium levels in the blood are controlled by which of the following hormones?
1.
Thyroxin
2.
Vasopressin
3.
Oxytocin
4.
Parathormone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Electrolyte balance is a function of the hormone produced by the?
1.
Posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
2.
Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
3.
Cortex of the adrenal gland
4.
Medulla of the adrenal gland |
|
Definition
| Cortex of the adrenal gland |
|
|
Term
A metabolic response to epinephrine includes which, if any, of the symptoms listed below?
1.
Decreased heart rate
2.
Increased blood pressure
3.
Respiratory distress
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What hormone is produced by the alpha cells of the islands of Langerhans in the pancreas?
1.
Glucagon
2.
Insulin
3.
Norepinepherine
4.
Androgens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cornea is part of the protective outer layer of the eye called the?
1.
Sclera
2.
Conjunctiva
3.
Choroid
4.
Crystalline body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The inner part of the eye derives its dimensional nourishment primarily from what vascular tissue?
1.
Conjunctiva
2.
Sclera
3.
Vitreous humor
4.
Choroid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dilation of the pupil, a muscular response of the iris, normally occurs as a result of what?
1.
Increased intensity of light
2.
Decreased intensity of light
3.
Irritation to the sclera
4.
Irritation to the conjunctiva |
|
Definition
| Decreased intensity of light |
|
|
Term
Of the elements listed below, which makes seeing in the dark possible?
1.
Rods
2.
Cones
3.
Iris
4.
Choroid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
By what process is three-dimensional vision produced?
1.
Accommodation
2.
Convergence
3.
Refraction
4.
Stimulation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The mechanical transmission of sound from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear is a function of which of the following?
1.
Auditory ossicles
2.
Eustachian tubes
3.
Bony labyrinth
4.
Organ of corti |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What structure(s) of the inner ear provide(s) neural stimuli used to maintain equilibrium?
1.
Fenestra rotunda
2.
Fenestra ovalis
3.
Semicircular canals
4.
Organ of corti |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The conversion of mechanical impulses (sound waves) to neural impulses that can be interpreted by the brain is a function of the ______?
1.
Endolymph
2.
Semicircular canals
3.
Organ of Corti
4.
Fenestra ovalis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The enzymatic action of amylase results in the chemical breakdown of ______?
1.
fats to fatty acids
2.
starches to fats
3.
starches to complex sugars
4.
proteins to complex sugars |
|
Definition
| starches to complex sugars |
|
|
Term
Absorption of food occurs predominantly in which of the following areas of the intestines?
1.
Small intestines
2.
Large intestines
3.
Mouth
4.
Stomach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Of these listed below, which function as the accessory organs of digestion for the small intestines?
1.
Pancreas, liver, and villae
2.
Spleen, liver, and gallbladder
3.
Pancreas, pylorus, and spleen
4.
Pancreas, liver, and gallbladder |
|
Definition
| Pancreas, liver, and gallbladder |
|
|
Term
The gallbladder performs which of the following purposes?
1.
Stimulates the production of insulin
2.
Stores bile
3.
Metabolizes sugars
4.
Produces antibodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The functional unit of the kidney is called the?
1.
Nephron
2.
Malpighian body
3.
Glomerulus
4.
Loop of Henle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is/are (a) function(s) of the kidneys?
1.
To maintain acid-base balance
2.
To remove excess waste from the blood
3.
Formation of urine
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the approximate total capacity of the adult bladder?
1.
250 ml
2.
300 ml
3.
600 ml
4.
750 ml |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Testosterone production is a function of which of the following glands?
1.
Cowper’s
2.
Prostate
3.
Testes
4.
Bulbourethral |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is/are considered the primary female reproductive organs?
1.
Ovaries
2.
Fallopian tubes
3.
Uterus
4.
Endometrium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fertilization of an ovum normally takes place in the?
1.
Ovaries
2.
Fallopian tubes
3.
Uterus
4.
Vagina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The limitations imposed upon a healthcare provider are based on local regulations and which of the following elements?
1.
The rating’s occupational standards
2.
The rate training manual
3.
The provider’s training and experience
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
| The provider’s training and experience |
|
|
Term
Dental development usually begins in which week of prenatal life?
1.
Fourth
2.
Fifth
3.
Sixth
4.
Either 2 or 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many total tooth buds are present in the prenatal maxillary and mandibullar arch?
1.
32
2.
20
3.
15
4.
10 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the last period of tooth growth?
1.
Histodifferentiation
2.
Morphodifferentiationy
3.
Eruptodifferentiation
4.
Both 2 and 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many years does it take permanent teeth to emerge after crown completion?
1.
One
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When primary teeth get ready to fall out and make way for the eruption of permanent teeth, what is the name of this process?
1.
Exposure
2.
Histology
3.
Infoliation
4.
Exfoliation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The part of the crown that is visible in the mouth is known by which of the following terms?
1.
Clinical crown
2.
Clinical tooth
3.
Clinical enamel
4.
Clinical exposure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the region where the roots separate?
1.
Apex
2.
Furcation
3.
Bifurcated
4.
Trifurcated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The tip of each root is known by which of the following terms?
1.
End
2.
Arch
3.
Angle
4.
Apex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When there is a slight indentation that encircles the tooth and marks the junction of the crown with the root, it is known by which of the following terms?
1.
Bifurcation
2.
Cervical line
3.
Clinical line
4.
Junction line |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Enamel is formed by what type of epithelial cells?
1.
Ameloblasts
2.
Dentinoenamel
3.
Petticoat
4.
Enamel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the chief function of the pulp?
1.
Provides feeling to the tooth
2.
Formation of cementum
3.
Formation of dentin
4.
Formation of enamel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What portion of the maxilla and mandible are teeth embedded?
1.
Alveolar process
2.
Alveolus
3.
Socket
4.
Root |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When viewed by a radiograph, the trabecular bone will have what type of an appearance?
1.
Spongy-like
2.
Wavy-like
3.
Plate-like
4.
Web-like |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A tooth is suspended in its socket by what ligament?
1.
Lamina dura
2.
Masticatory
3.
Periodontal
4.
Alveolar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The oral mucosa consists of how many total types of mucosa?
1.
One
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hard palate is covered with what type of mucosa?
1.
Masticatory
2.
Specialized
3.
Lining
4.
Rugae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term given to the portion of gingiva that extends from the gingival crest to the crest of the bone?
1.
Gingival margin
2.
Unattached gingiva
3.
Attached gingiva
4.
Gingival sulcus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What area is the first to show symptoms of gingivitis?
1.
Interdental papilla
2.
Muco-gingival junction
3.
Epithelial attachment
4.
Gingival margin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What area prevents food from packing between the teeth?
1.
Interdental papilla
2.
Muco-gingival junction
3.
Epithelial attachment
4.
Gingival margin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of tissue is found on the inside of the lips, cheeks, vestibule, soft palate, and under the tongue?
1.
Lining mucosa
2.
Inter mucosa
3.
Soft mucosa
4.
Gingiva |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many dental quadrants are in the mouth?
1.
One
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many primary teeth are there in a normal deciduous mouth?
1.
30
2.
20
3.
16
4.
12 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following reasons affect how teeth are formed?
1.
Cutting
2.
Tearing
3.
Grinding
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of shape does the lingual surface of an incisor have?
1.
Axe
2.
Rake
3.
Shovel
4.
Angled |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cuspids are designed to perform what type of function?
1.
Cutting and tearing
2.
Cutting and grinding
3.
Crushing and holding
4.
Chewing and grinding |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the system that is used by the armed forces to identify teeth?
1.
Universal location
2.
Universal positioning
3.
Universal numbering
4.
Universal selection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Primary teeth are identified by which letters of the alphabet?
1.
A to W
2.
A to V
3.
A to U
4.
A to T |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The mesial surface of a tooth is located in which area?
1.
Closest to midline of the arch
2.
Toward the cheeks
3.
Toward the tongue
4.
Away from the midline of the arch |
|
Definition
| Closest to midline of the arch |
|
|
Term
The distal surface of a tooth is located in which area?
1.
Closest to the midline of the arch
2.
Toward the cheeks
3.
Toward the tongue
4.
Away from the midline of the arch |
|
Definition
| Away from the midline of the arch |
|
|
Term
A tooth has how many proximal surfaces?
1.
One
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The inter-proximal space is occupied by what type of anatomy?
1.
Embrane
2.
Interdental klingons
3.
Interdental papilla
4.
Interdental contact |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The anteroposterior curve is referred to by what term?
1.
Curve of Koffax
2.
Curve of Wilson
3.
Curve of Splee
4.
Curve of Spee |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a patient’s profile is characterized as “normal,” it is a class ___ Angle.
1.
I
2.
II
3.
III
4.
IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The mesial margin of a maxillary central incisor meets the incisal edge at almost what degree angle?
1.
30
2.
90
3.
110
4.
180 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the first permanent teeth to erupt?
1.
Maxillary lateral incisor
2.
Maxillary central incisor
3.
Mandibular lateral incisor
4.
Mandibular central incisor |
|
Definition
| Mandibular central incisor |
|
|
Term
What is the term used to describe the appearance of a mandibular first bicuspid?
1.
Bell-ringer
2.
Bell-crowned
3.
Bell-cusp
4.
Bell-shaped |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What tooth will have a fifth cusp on it?
1.
Maxillary first molar
2.
Maxillary second molar
3.
Mandibular first molar
4.
Mandibular second molar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What dental anatomy has a rounded or angular depression of varying sizes found on the surface of a tooth?
1.
Groove
2.
Fossa
3.
Cusp
4.
Pit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the dental anatomy that has small, rounded projections of enamel from the incisal edges of newly erupted anterior teeth?
1.
Oblique ridge
2.
Cusp ridge
3.
Groove
4.
Mamelons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following conditions does the science of Oral Pathology NOT treat?
1.
Nature of the disease
2.
Surgical procedures
3.
Causes of the disease
4.
Development of the disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for informing a patient when an oral disease is found?
1.
Dental Technician
2.
Advanced Dental Technician
3.
Dental Officer
4.
Both 2 and 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
About how many milliliters (ml) of saliva do the salivary glands secrete on a daily basis?
1.
150 ml
2.
750 ml
3.
1500 ml
4.
1750 ml |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An enclosed pouch or sac that contains fluid or semi-solid material. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| May be caused by biting, denture irritation, toothbrush injury, viruses, or other irritants. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A round pinpoint non-raised, lesion with purplish-red spots. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A local collection of blood that escaped from blood vessels because of trauma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A small elevation that contains fluid. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Large, purplish-red areas caused by blood under the skin or mucosa. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Commonly caused by a bacterial infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When dental caries first appear on enamel, what is that appearance?
1.
A chalky white spot
2.
A small brown spot
3.
A hollowed out hole
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of bacteria has been linked to tooth decay?
1.
Staphylococcus
2.
Proteus
3.
Streptococci
4.
Micrococcus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Recurrent caries will occur in a tooth in which of the following circumstances?
1.
Trapped air pockets
2.
Sealed margins
3.
Leaky margins
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pit and fissure caries develop in what area of a tooth?
1.
Depressions
2.
Pulp chamber
3.
Smooth surfaces
4.
Proximal surfaces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Smooth surface caries develop in what area of a tooth?
1.
Depressions
2.
Pulp chamber
3.
Incisal third
4.
Proximal surfaces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pulpalgia commonly occurs after which of the following procedures has been performed on a tooth?
1.
Extraction
2.
After a restoration
3.
Before a restoration
4.
After placement of gutta-percha |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following definitions best describes pulpitis?
1.
Restoration of the dental pulp
2.
Inflammation of the restoration
3.
Inflammation of the dental pulp
4.
Periapical abscess of the dental pulp |
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the dental pulp |
|
|
Term
If a periapical abscess is left untreated, in what area of a tooth will bone loss occur?
1.
Apex
2.
Pulp
3.
Crown
4.
Both 2 and 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dead pulpal tissue will decompose and produce which of the following results?
1.
Secondary dentin
2.
Secondary pulp tissue
3.
Toxins
4.
Fistula |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What chronic disease is the most prevalent in mankind?
1.
Periapical
2.
Periodontal
3.
AIDS
4.
HIV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Marginal gingivitis usually starts in which of the following areas?
1.
Sulcus
2.
Front teeth
3.
Periodontal pockets
4.
Tips of the papillae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ulceration of the gingival crest in NUG results in what type of an appearance?
1.
Punched-out
2.
Stippling
3.
Swollen
4.
Torn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When periodontitis progresses, the gingival tissues will appear as what color?
1.
Dark red
2.
Bluish red
3.
Bluish yellow
4.
Grayish white |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During pocket formation, what type of projections of calculus form between the teeth?
1.
Shelf-like
2.
Bone-like
3.
Crystal-like
4.
Smooth-like |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The gingiva surrounding a periodontal abscess will have which of the following appearances?
1.
Red and hard
2.
Hollow and swollen
3.
Bleeding and swollen
4.
Inflamed and swollen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Recurrent aphthous stomatitis are lesions of what type?
1.
Ulcers
2.
Abscesses
3.
Blisters
4.
Neoplasms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of herpes simplex virus is most commonly diagnosed in oral pathology?
1.
HSV-1
2.
HSV-2
3.
HSV-3
4.
HSV-4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Recurrent herpes simplex lesions that affect routine dental treatment should be rescheduled for what period of time?
1.
2-3 days
2.
3-6 days
3.
After the active phase
4.
Before the active phase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following oral manifestations are a sign of HIV infection?
1.
Candidiasis
2.
Hairy leukoplakia
3.
Kaposi’s sarcoma
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the two types of neoplasms that can be diagnosed in oral cancer?
1.
Neo-carcinoma and malignant
2.
Benign and malignant
3.
Benign and neo-carcinoma
4.
HSV-1 and HSV-2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The growth or spread of malignant tumors from one area to another is known by which of the following conditions?
1.
Transdermal
2.
Transfusion
3.
Transferism
4.
Metastasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The area where the user of smokeless tobacco develops an oral precancerous lesion, is defined as what type of pathology?
1.
Sportsman’s dipper keratosis
2.
Snuff-dipper’s keratosis
3.
Farmers lesions
4.
Leuko-keratosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When does a congenital disorder occur?
1.
At death
2.
After birth
3.
At birth
4.
Before birth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What condition must exist for an impaction to occur?
1.
Missing deciduous teeth
2.
Abnormal position
3.
Physical barrier
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following conditions causes attrition?
1.
Breakdown of enamel, dentin, and cementum
2.
Wear involving teeth against teeth
3.
Large tooth crowns
4.
Bulimia |
|
Definition
| Wear involving teeth against teeth |
|
|
Term
Which disorder affects patients with Bulimia?
1.
Erosion
2.
Attrition
3.
Abrasion
4.
Impaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A _____ is any animal capable of transmitting pathogens or producing human or animal discomfort or injury.
1.
Pest
2.
Pathogen
3.
Vector
4.
Virus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The findings of food-service inspections are documented on what form?
1.
NAVMED P-5010
2.
NAVMED 6240/1
3.
SECNAVINST 4060.1
4.
NAVMED P-5038 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What instruction sets the standard for drinking water for U.S. Naval establishments both ashore and afloat?
1.
NAVMED P-5010
2.
BUMEDINST 6280.A
3.
NAVMED P-117
4.
BUMEDINST 6240.1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The medical departments aboard ships are not required to include ice samples in any bacteriological analyses performed on water.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
______are instruments that frequently contact mucous membranes, but cannot be sterilized because of their design or inability to withstand heat.
1.
Semicritical items
2.
Unit Dose
3.
Pre Vacuum Sterilizer
4.
Critical items |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Spray-Wipe-Spray is ____.
1.
A way to sterilize instruments
2.
Proper dinner etiquette
3.
An acceptable method of cleaning and disinfecting
4.
How to apply insect repellant |
|
Definition
| An acceptable method of cleaning and disinfecting |
|
|
Term
When should the HM wash his/her hands?
1.
At the beginning of the day
2.
Before handling food
3.
Between patients
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is NOT a characteristic of resident flora?
1.
Can survive and multiply on the skin
2.
Can be cultured repeatedly from the skin
3.
Are not firmly attached to the skin
4.
Are usually of low virulence |
|
Definition
| Are not firmly attached to the skin |
|
|
Term
What type of hand washing agent usually has 4 percent isopropyl alcohol in a sudsy base?
1.
Idophors
2.
Bleach
3.
Chlorhexidine Gluconate
4.
Chlorine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the HM is preparing for a surgical case, what is the maximum length of the fingernail?
1.
¼ inch
2.
1 ½ inches
3.
No longer than the tips of the fingers
4.
The cuticle |
|
Definition
| No longer than the tips of the fingers |
|
|
Term
What type of gloves are the highest quality and best fitting?
1.
Examination gloves
2.
Nitrile gloves
3.
Procedural gloves
4.
Sterile gloves |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where can clinical apparel be worn?
1.
In the MTF/DTF only
2.
Can go into stores for gas and emergency situations
3.
Only on base
4.
Can be worn home only if they are washed every night |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Protective eyewear must have slotted splash shields to provide maximum protection.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name a Transmission-based Precaution.
1.
Airborne
2.
Droplet
3.
Contact
4.
All the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of mask should be worn when in contact with a patient diagnosed with Tuberculosis?
1.
Surgical mask
2.
Cone mask
3.
N95 respirator
4.
M-15 Gas mask w/ canister |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Transmission-based Precaution requires a negative air pressure room?
1.
Airborne
2.
Droplet
3.
Contact
4.
All the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the acronym MRSA stand for?
1.
Methaline Resilient Sterilizer Antiseptic
2.
Methicilin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
3.
Myopic Rutherford’s Sanitation Amalgam
4.
Medical Really Sounds Awesome |
|
Definition
| Methicilin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus |
|
|
Term
What personal protective equipment item is not necessarily worn while treating a patient under Contact Precautions?
1.
Gloves
2.
Disposable gown
3.
Mask
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Transmission-based Precaution requires limited transport EXCEPT for essential purposes?
1.
Airborne
2.
Droplet
3.
Contact
4.
All the Above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are daily measures taken to control the spread of pathogenic organisms?
1.
Portal of exit
2.
Concurrent Disinfection
3.
Reservoir of infectious agents
4.
Susceptible host |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a DTR, at the beginning of the day, the unit water lines and hoses should be flushed for how long?
1.
5 minutes
2.
1 hour
3.
1 minute
4.
30 seconds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For equipment that is difficult to clean, what should be done before using it on a patient?
1.
Spray-Wipe Spray
2.
A sterile or clean drape
3.
Sterilize
4.
Wet-vac |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To perform hand piece maintenance on dental hand pieces the HM should remove hand pieces, lubricate, and then run them for how long?
1.
3 minutes
2.
1 minute
3.
30 seconds
4.
5 minutes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of these choices should be placed in a Biohazardous waste receptacle?
1.
Wet towel
2.
Urine soaked sheets
3.
Used I.V. catheter
4.
Sterile gear wrapper |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
While in the process of doing a minor procedure the HM’s glove is punctured by a suture and it breaks the skin, should the HM report it to occupational health?
1.
No, because it’s a minor procedure
2.
Yes, any puncture injury with possible contaminated fluid should be reported
3.
No, because the patient says he doesn’t have anything
4.
Maybe, if I bleed a lot |
|
Definition
| Yes, any puncture injury with possible contaminated fluid should be reported |
|
|
Term
Needles, scalpels and sutures should be disposed of in what container?
1.
Thick red bag with Biohazard symbol
2.
Cardboard box
3.
Linen bag
4.
Rigid, puncture resistant, red container with a biohazard symbol |
|
Definition
| Rigid, puncture resistant, red container with a biohazard symbol |
|
|
Term
Bed linens, towels, smocks, trousers, and other protective attire are classified as what?
1.
Biohazards
2.
Ordinary laundry
3.
Contaminated laundry
4.
OPIM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term used to describe the sterilization, storage and handling of articles to keep them free of pathogenic organisms?
1.
Surgical aseptic technique
2.
Spray-wipe-spray
3.
Medical asepsis
4.
Isolation technique |
|
Definition
| Surgical aseptic technique |
|
|
Term
What gear must be worn to enter a surgical suite?
1.
Scrubs
2.
Hair cover
3.
Mask
4.
All the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a sterile item’s sterility is in question the HM should_____.
1.
Keep it if the packages looks undamaged
2.
Not use it if there is any question about the sterility
3.
Use it on the next patient if the sterility indicator has changed
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
| Not use it if there is any question about the sterility |
|
|
Term
If the surgeon asks for a specific kind of suture in the middle of a surgical case, who should retrieve it?
1.
The scrub tech
2.
The most junior corpsman
3.
The surgeon
4.
The circulator |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
While gowning the surgeon who is responsible for tying the gown?
1.
Scrub tech
2.
Circulator
3.
Surgeon
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Disinfection is a more lethal process than sterilization.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following levels of disinfectants are classified by the EPA?
1.
Low, middle, and high
2.
Low, high, and medium
3.
Maximum, low, and high
4.
Intermediate, high, and low |
|
Definition
| Intermediate, high, and low |
|
|
Term
What two types of micro-organisms are killed by all three levels of disinfection?
1.
Bacterial spores and nonlipid viruses
2.
Tubercle bacillus and lipid viruses
3.
Lipid viruses and vegetative spores
4.
Lipid viruses and vegetative bacteria |
|
Definition
| Lipid viruses and vegetative bacteria |
|
|
Term
What are the three factors that influence germicidal procedures?
1.
Bioburden, nature of the material, and organic debris present
2.
Organic debris present, type of sterilizer, and bioburden
3.
Nature of the material, bioburden, and packaging
4.
Bioburden, packaging, and type of sterilizer |
|
Definition
| Bioburden, nature of the material, and organic debris present |
|
|
Term
What levels of a glutaraldehyde-based solution are FDA registered?
1.
2.0-3.2
2.
2.3-2.0
3.
1.0-2.0
4.
2.5-2.6 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What level of a disinfectant and sterilant are glutaraldehyde-based solutions classified?
1.
Medium
2.
High
3.
Low
4.
Both 2 and 3 above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a disadvantage when using chlorine dioxide-based solutions?
1.
Has a 24-day use life as a sterilant
2.
Does not readily penetrate inorganic debris
3.
Must be discarded daily
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Protective eyewear and gloves are not required when using chemical agents.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The biocidal activity of iodophors is accomplished with how many minutes of exposure?
1.
1 to 25
2.
10 to 25
3.
15 to 25
4.
20 to 25 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What level of disinfection are iodophors and phenolics classified?
1.
Intermediate
2.
High
3.
Middle
4.
Low |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All semi-critical category items should receive what level of disinfection?
1.
Intermediate
2.
High
3.
Middle
4.
Low |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All noncritical category items require at least what level of disinfection?
1.
Intermediate
2.
Middle
3.
High
4.
Low |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What area of the treatment facility is designed for receiving, cleaning, processing, sterilizing, storing, and issuing instruments and equipment?
1.
CRS
2.
SRC
3.
CSR
4.
CPR |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which chart tells CSR personnel the specific order equipment, instruments, and materials are to be processed?
1.
Figure eight
2.
Functional area
3.
Functional flow
4.
Functional system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what area of the CSR will the disinfection, cleaning, and lubrication of dental handpieces take place?
1.
Receiving and cleaning
2.
Sterilization
3.
Processing
4.
Issue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what area of the CSR will the HM take contaminated instruments after completion of a patient’s treatment?
1.
Issue
2.
Receiving
3.
Processing
4.
Sterile storage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cleaning process is safer and more effective than manual scrubbing?
1.
Dip tank only
2.
Ultrasonic only
3.
Automated processor
4.
Both 2 and 3 above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many sinks are needed to allow personnel to perform the manual scrubbing method?
1.
One
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of cleaning effect does an ultrasonic cleaner provide?
1.
Cavitation
2.
Positive
3.
Gravity
4.
Ion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For proper operation, the ultrasonic reservoir should be filled to what level with an ultrasonic solution?
1.
2” from the bottom
2.
2” from the top
3.
1/4 to 3/4’s full
4.
1/2 to 3/4’s full |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How often must ultrasonic solutions be changed?
1.
Daily only
2.
When visibly contaminated only
3.
Both 1 or 2 above
4.
Monthly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You should remove instruments from the ultrasonic unit by which of the following means?
1.
Your hands
2.
Mesh basket
3.
Instrument tongs
4.
Ultrasonic retriever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After drying the instrument, what is the next step in the sterilization process?
1.
Inspection
2.
Packaging
3.
Wrapping
4.
Storing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are hinged instruments arranged during packaging?
1.
Top to bottom
2.
Open
3.
Closed
4.
Sideways |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To allow steam to circulate freely, how should packs be wrapped?
1.
Open
2.
Tight
3.
Loosely
4.
Together |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The period during which sterilized items are considered safe for use is known by which of the following terms?
1.
Safe zone
2.
Event-rotated shelf life
3.
Expiration date only
4.
Both 2 and 3 above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of related shelf life presumes continued sterility until the package is damaged, wet, or torn?
1.
Pack
2.
Time
3.
Event
4.
Damaged |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of related shelf life presumes that after the expiration date the item is considered outdated and should not be used?
1.
Pack
2.
Time
3.
Event
4.
Damaged |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the shelf life for nonwoven blue wrap using the time-related method?
1.
Indefinite
2.
635 days
3.
365 days
4.
30 days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What occurs when freshly sterilized items are placed on metal or cold surfaces?
1.
Contamination
2.
Become oily
3.
Nothing
4.
Stick |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When storing sterilized items, how should they be arranged?
1.
Alphabetically
2.
Expiration, with later dates toward the front
3.
Expiration, with later dates toward the rear
4.
Contents only, with later dates toward the front |
|
Definition
| Expiration, with later dates toward the rear |
|
|
Term
At what temperature are all known organisms killed?
1.
150°F
2.
121°F
3.
220°F
4.
250°F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A steam sterilizer may be referred to by what other name?
1.
Old rusty
2.
Autoclave
3.
Autosteam
4.
Dry heat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When placing packages in a sterilizer, how are they placed?
1.
On the edges
2.
On the top
3.
In middle
4.
On the bottom |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of sterilizer was designed to overcome the trapping of air in the chamber?
1.
Air-free
2.
Dry heat
3.
Chemical vapor
4.
Prevacuum steam |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the least expensive form of heat sterilization?
1.
Air free
2.
Dry heat
3.
Chemical
4.
Gravity displacement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All Navy prevacuum sterilizers will be tested how often using a Bowie- Dick type test?
1.
Quarterly
2.
Monthly
3.
Weekly
4.
Daily |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How often is the interior of a steam sterilizer cleaned before heating?
1.
After each use
2.
Daily
3.
Monthly
4.
After every 5 cycles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the typical standard dry heat cycle?
1.
90 minutes at 320 - 345°F
2.
90 minutes at 345°C
3.
90 minutes at 300°F
4.
90 minutes at 375°F |
|
Definition
| 90 minutes at 320 - 345°F |
|
|
Term
What percent of water content, if any, occurs with chemical vapor sterilization?
1.
10
2.
15
3.
30
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Instruments being sterilized in the STERRAD do not need to be completely dry.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of sterilization is STERRAD?
1.
Prevacuum
2.
Gravity
3.
Sterris
4.
Plasma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of sterilization indicator will change color upon short exposure to sterilizing conditions such as steam, dry heat, or chemical vapor?
1.
Internal
2.
Incubator type
3.
Biological
4.
Both 1 and 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of sterilization monitor will assess whether sterilization actually occurred?
1.
Internal
2.
External
3.
Universal
4.
Biological |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the first step to be performed when positive biological monitoring occurs?
1.
Notify biomedical repair personnel
2.
Notify commanding officer
3.
Notify ICO
4.
Notify CO |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The concepts of health include?
1.
The absence of disease or disability
2.
Soundness of mind, body, and spirit
3.
Both 1 and 2 above
4.
A feeling of euphoria |
|
Definition
| The absence of disease or disability |
|
|
Term
Patient rights and responsibilities are standards addressed by what organization?
1.
Commander, Navy Medical Command (formerly Bureau of Medicine and Surgery)
2.
American Medical Association (AMA)
3.
The Joint Commission (TJC)
4.
National League of Nursing (NLN) |
|
Definition
| The Joint Commission (TJC) |
|
|
Term
The standard of practice limitations imposed upon a healthcare provider are based on local regulations and which of the following elements?
1.
The rating’s occupational standards
2.
The rate training manual
3.
The provider’s training and experience
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
| The provider’s training and experience |
|
|
Term
In the healthcare field, accountability means that providers ______ .
1.
Are held responsible for their actions
2.
Must continue their education in the healthcare field
3.
Provide the best healthcare possible
4.
All the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient requests the HM’s advice concerning the care they are undergoing. Which, if any, of the following is the appropriate response?
1.
Answer honestly, to the best ability possible
2.
Refer the patient to the nurse or physician responsible for the care
3.
Say, “I will ask the supervisor”
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
| Refer the patient to the nurse or physician responsible for the care |
|
|
Term
Personal and medical information learned about a patient as the result of the HM position is privileged and must not be shared with unauthorized individuals.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient who is a professed atheist is placed on the Very Serious List (VSL) with a poor prognosis for recovery. All of the following actions by the staff are considered appropriate and ethical EXCEPT?
1.
Informing the rest of the staff of th patient’s nonreligious beliefs
e
2.
Informing the rest of the staff of the patient’s condition
3.
Informing pastoral services (chaplain) of the patient’s condition and nonreligious beliefs
4.
Attempting to convince the patient to accept a religious belief |
|
Definition
| Attempting to convince the patient to accept a religious belief |
|
|
Term
The communication process takes place only through the written or spoken word.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Communication barriers inhibit the flow of information and may consist of which of the following factors?
1.
Hearing impairment
2.
Age
3.
Education
4.
All the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common cause of ineffective communication and the most difficult obstacle to identify is which of the following barriers?
1.
Psychological
2.
Physical
3.
Psychosocial
4.
Spiritual or religious |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the communication process, listening is a critical skill and can be improved by developing which, if any, of the following attitudes and behaviors?
1.
Anticipating what the patient will say
2.
Managing distractions
3.
Taking notes
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The purpose of therapeutic communication includes all of the following EXCEPT?
1.
Assessing behavior and modifying if appropriate
2.
Educating a patient regarding health and health care
3.
Providing information on the appropriate clinic for treatment
4.
Obtaining information to determine a patient’s illness |
|
Definition
| Providing information on the appropriate clinic for treatment |
|
|
Term
Which of the following are goals of patient health education?
1.
Promoting patient self-care
2.
Promoting behavior modification
3.
Influencing a patient’s attitude toward health and disease
4.
All the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patient education is the responsibility of ______.
1.
The members of the command education and training department
2.
Only the physician and nurses for the patient
3.
All members of the healthcare team
4.
The outpatient staff and clinic supervisor only |
|
Definition
| All members of the healthcare team |
|
|
Term
A medical patient is prescribed therapeutic bed rest primarily for what reason?
1. To inhibit the development of circulatory problems
2. To prevent depression and apathy
3. To prevent further damage to body systems
4. To inhibit the development of respiratory problems |
|
Definition
| To prevent further damage to body systems |
|
|
Term
A health care provider can reasonably expect that all patients admitted for surgical procedures will exhibit which of the following characteristics?
1. Be very demanding
2. Be apathetic and passive
3. Exhibit violent behavior
4. Be fearful and anxious |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
SF 522, Request for Administration of Anesthesia and for Performance of Operations and other Procedures, is normally signed by a parent, legal guardian, or spouse EXCEPT when?
1. The patient is able to do so
2. Over 16 years of age but under 18
3. Over 18 years of age but under 21
4. A member of the Armed Forces |
|
Definition
| The patient is able to do so |
|
|
Term
When a regional anesthetic is administered, the patient can expect what effect?
1. Motor, but not sensory perception will diminish
2. Pain will be reduced or eliminated in the body part injected or swabbed
3. Level of consciousness will decline
4. The entire body will become numb |
|
Definition
| Pain will be reduced or eliminated in the body part injected or swabbed |
|
|
Term
In general anesthesia, a stimulation of vital signs is evidence of what level of anesthesia induction?
1. Stage 1
2. Stage 2
3. Stage 3
4. Stage 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the immediate postoperative recovery phase, a patient’s skin color may be indicative of all of the following EXCEPT what?
1. The patient’s ability to recover from the anesthetic agent
2. Postoperative hemorrhage
3. Degradation of respiratory function
4. The development of shock |
|
Definition
| The patient’s ability to recover from the anesthetic agent |
|
|
Term
When permitted, postoperative patients should be encouraged to ambulate to improve the functions of which of the following physiologic systems?
1. Renal system
2. Digestive system
3. Lymphatic system
4. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When caring for a young, otherwise healthy orthopedic patient requiring immobilization, the HM can anticipate all of the following EXCEPT what?
1. Symptoms of emotional stress
2. Frequent complaints of sore or aching pain
3. Periods of dizziness associated with disorientation
4. Elevated levels of pain |
|
Definition
| Periods of dizziness associated with disorientation |
|
|
Term
Unless otherwise directed by the physician, when one is applying a cast to an arm, the patient’s wrists is generally in which of the following positions?
1. Extended about 10 degrees
2. In the neutral position
3. Flexed about 30 degrees
4. In any of the above; specific position is immaterial |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cane height is measured from the floor to the ______ .
1. Hand
2. Hip
3. Top of the femur
4. Wrist |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cane is used on the unaffected side of the body.
1. True
2. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Auxiliary crutches should be fitted so that the patient’s elbows are maintained with a ______ to _____ degree bend.
1. 15 to 30
2. 20 to 30
3. 15 to 25
4. 30 to 45 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When climbing stairs the patient should be taught to go “up with the bad and down with the good.”
1. True
2. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are safe to walk on with crutches without much thought to safety?
1. Uneven sidewalk
2. Thick carpet
3. Hardwood floor with throw rugs
4. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which ambulatory device provides the most stability?
1. Walkers
2. Canes
3. Quad Cane
4. Crutches |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient who has been fitted with a cast should be instructed to return to the medical treatment facility as soon as possible under which of the following circumstances?
1. The cast becomes soiled
2. The extremity affected by the cast is numb
3. The itching becomes unbearable
4. The cast gets wet |
|
Definition
| The extremity affected by the cast is numb |
|
|
Term
In the theory of death and dying, it is suggested that most people exhibit five stages. The stage where the terminal patient becomes concerned about the state of his or her affairs and family members is known as the stage of ______ .
1. Denial
2. Acceptance
3. Bargaining
4. Depression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patient falls may be avoided by taking which of the following preventive measures?
1. Proper use of bed/gurney side rails
2. Keeping floors dry and uncluttered
3. Instructing patients on the proper use of walking aids (crutches, canes, etc.)
4. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Electrical and electronic equipment poses significant injury hazards. Of the following, which is the authorized means of reducing this hazard?
1. Repairing frayed cords with electrical tape to prevent shock
2. Using personal electronics if the look in good repair
3. Having medical repair perform electrical safety checks on all new equipment
4. Using only two-prong, non-grounded electrical plugs |
|
Definition
| Having medical repair perform electrical safety checks on all new equipment |
|
|
Term
Skin contact burns can be caused by ice bags or hypothermia blankets.
1. True
2. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During a fire evacuation, which of the following procedures is NOT considered appropriate?
1. Immediately remove patients to safety without obtaining proper authority
2. Close all windows and doors
3. Turn off all oxygen equipment not necessary to sustain life
4. Clear all possible exits |
|
Definition
| Immediately remove patients to safety without obtaining proper authority |
|
|
Term
Environmental hygiene is directed toward producing a healthy environment and includes such practices as maintaining unit cleanliness and ________ .
1. Providing for adequate ventilation
2. Limiting noise levels
3. Proper disposal of soiled articles
4. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the leading cause of nutrition related diseases in the environment in which humans live?
1.
Energy balance
2.
Weight gain
3.
Excess calories
4.
Weight loss |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT one of the six essential nutrients needed for the growth and maintenance of the body?
1.
Water
2.
Protein
3.
Niacin
4.
Fat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three nutrients used by the body that contain calories?
1.
Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
2.
Vitamins, fats, and vitamins
3.
Water, vitamins, and protein
4.
Protein, minerals, and fats |
|
Definition
| Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats |
|
|
Term
Water is the medium in which all chemical reactions in the body take place.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is total amount of water that a male needs to consume on a daily basis?
1.
3 liters
2.
3.7 liters
3.
2 liters
4.
2.7 liters |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is total amount of water that a female needs to consume on a daily basis?
1.
3 liters
2.
3.7 liters
3.
2 liters
4.
2.7 liters |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After consuming food a male needs to consume an average of how much free water?
1.
3 liters
2.
3.7 liters
3.
2 liters
4.
2.7 liters |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What percentage loss of body water will cause heat injury or death?
1.
60%
2.
1 to 2%
3.
3 to 5%
4.
5 to 7% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mono saccharides contain how many carbon molecules?
1
2
3
4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Disaccharides contain how many carbon molecules?
1
2
3
4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Some polysaccharides are known to contain up to how many carbon molecules?
1.
10
2.
Hundreds
3.
Thousands
4.
Trillions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the simplest type of sugar?
1.
Sucrose
2.
Glucose
3.
Powdered
4.
Starch |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What carbohydrate class does sucrose belong to?
A.
Monosaccharide
B.
Disaccharide
C.
Polysaccharide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What carbohydrate class does fructose belong to?
Monosaccharide
Disaccharide
Polysaccharide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What carbohydrate class does galactose belong to?
Monosaccharide
Disaccharide
Polysaccharide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What carbohydrate class does glucose belong to?
Monosaccharide
Disaccharide
Polysaccharide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What carbohydrate class does lactose belong to?
Monosaccharide
Disaccharide
Polysaccharide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Glycogen is the storage form of glucose for humans.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The recommended fiber intake for women is?
1.
17 grams
2.
25 grams
3.
27 grams
4.
35 grams |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The recommended fiber intake for males is?
1.
17 grams
2.
25 grams
3.
27 grams
4.
37 grams |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dextrose, which is a commonly used carbohydrate, is normally used in what form?
1.
Intravenous
2.
Oral
3.
Subcutaneous
4.
Intramuscular |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Proteins contain what amount of calories per gram?
2
3
4
5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
There are 20 amino acids that make up all the proteins the body needs, how many of those are considered essential amino acids not made by the body?
8
9
10
11 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For a person who weighs 185 lbs, what is the recommended amount of protein that should be consumed daily?
1.
67 grams
2.
68 grams
3.
69 grams
4.
70 grams |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Infants and children require a greater daily protein intake then adults.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The main role of fats is to?
1.
Aid in the absorption of carbohydrates
2.
Collect unused salts
3.
Supply energy to the body
4.
Fats have no role |
|
Definition
| Supply energy to the body |
|
|
Term
What vitamins are fat soluble?
1.
A, B, C, and E
2.
A, D, E, and K
3.
B6, B12, A, and D
4.
D, E, K, and B6 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Trans fats are naturally occurring fats and are generally not considered a healthy fat.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Omega-3 fatty acids have been linked to lessening the risk of heart disease.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common phospholipids is bile; where is it produced?
1.
Liver
2.
Stomach
3.
Spleen
4.
Pancreas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a water soluble vitamin?
1.
C
2.
B6
3.
A
4.
B12 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which vitamin interferes with anti-clotting medications such as warfarin?
1.
K
2.
A
3.
B6
4.
Niacin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Surgical patients should eat cantaloupe and strawberries containing Vitamin ____ in order to support wound healing.
1.
Folic Acid
2.
B12
3.
Riboflavin
4.
C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not considered a major mineral?
1.
Fluoride
2.
Sodium
3.
Chloride
4.
Potassium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not considered a trace mineral?
1.
Manganese
2.
Fluoride
3.
Iron
4.
Calcium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Infusing too much ______ in an intravenous line can cause death.
1.
Potassium
2.
Magnesium
3.
Selenium
4.
Sodium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Surgical patients who do not consume enough of _____ mineral found in shellfish could have poor wound healing.
1.
Iodine
2.
Zinc
3.
Copper
4.
Iron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of diet is normally ordered for an individual who has not eaten for a few days or recovering from surgery?
1.
Cardiac diet
2.
Dental liquid diet
3.
Clear liquid diet
4.
Regular diet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following diets is NOT nutritionally complete?
1.
Cardiac diet
2.
Soft diet
3.
Regular diet
4.
Clear liquid diet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A dental liquid diet is usually indicated for a patient who?
1.
Had oral surgery
2.
Recently had a filling placed
3.
Has mouth wired shut
4.
Has oral cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following diets is usually lower in fiber?
1.
Pureed diet
2.
Calorie restricted diet
3.
Cardiac diet
4.
Protein restricted diet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Calorie restricted diets should be at least how many calories per day?
1.
1000
2.
1100
3.
1200
4.
1300
4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of diet is in indicative of renal or hepatic disease?
1.
Calorie restricted diet
2.
Cardiac diet
3.
Protein restricted diet
4.
Fiber restricted diet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A person on a cholesterol restriction of 300 mg per day should have no more than how many whole eggs per day?
None
Half
1
2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most aggressive type of nutritional therapy?
1.
Enteral
2.
Parenteral
3.
Oral
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following provides an way for enteral nutritional therapy?
1.
NG Tube
2.
J Tube
3.
Both 1 and 2
4.
ET Tube |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The base of a good healthy diet always begins with?
1.
Breakfast
2.
Lunch
3.
Dinner
4.
Food Pyramid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What two agencies have established uniform physical standards for entry into military service?
1.
SECNAV and BUMED
2.
DoD and DON
3.
SECDEF and BUPERS
4.
DoD and BUMED |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After a physical exam has been performed and documented by an IDC, who is required to countersign the exam?
1.
Physician Assistant
2.
Accredited General Medical Officer
3.
Nurse Practitioner
4.
Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist |
|
Definition
| Accredited General Medical Officer |
|
|
Term
Where is the original documentation from a completed physical examination permanently filed?
1.
Service Record
2.
Dental Record
3.
Health Record
4.
Clinical Record |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
According to SECNAVINST 6120.3 series a Periodic Health Assessment (PHA) shall be conducted ____ on each service member.
1.
Twice a year
2.
Not less than every 2 years
3.
As needed
4.
Annually |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A member separating after serving 30 or less consecutive days on active duty, being found unfit for continued service, which of following may be appropriate?
1.
Memorandum for Understanding
2.
Notice of Eligibility
3.
Letter of Intent
4.
Cited MEBR |
|
Definition
| Memorandum for Understanding |
|
|
Term
Who is given the authority to perform special duty examinations?
1.
Licensed General Medical Officer
2.
DoD Civilians
3.
Both 1 and 2
4.
Hospital Corpsman |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In accordance with BUMEDINST 1300.2 series, after receipt of orders an overseas/operation suitability screening must be completed within how many days?
1.
30
2.
45
3.
60
4.
90 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following publications contains further guidance on the Medical Surveillance Program?
1.
BUMEDINST 1300.2
2.
NAVMEDCOMINST 6260.5
3.
OPNAVINST 5100.23
4.
BUMEDINST 5100.23 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for reviewing the Abbreviated Medical Board Report for accuracy in content and processing time?
1.
Patient Administration Officer
2.
Service Member
3.
MTF
4.
LIMDU Coordinator |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What medical forms are used as documentation of a routine physical examination?
1.
DD 2808 and DD 2807
2.
DD 2697 and DD 2808
3.
NAVMED 1300/1 and DD 2808
4.
NAVMED 6100/5 and DD 2707 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What form is used in the submission of a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)?
1.
DD 2808
2.
NAVMED 6100/5
3.
NAVMED 1300/1
4.
DD 2697 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patients should be instructed to do all of the following when they return for a visual acuity examination EXCEPT?
1.
Arrive 15 minutes early
2.
Don’t wear contact lenses
3.
Bring in contact lenses
4.
Bring in glasses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the preferred method for the testing of distant visual acuity?
1.
Snellen Chart
2.
Jaeger Cards
3.
Farnsworth Lantern
4.
Armed Forces Vision Tester |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Armed Forces Vision Tester, is used to for which type of vision test?
1.
Distant
2.
Near
3.
Binocular
4.
Both 1 and 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the preferred method when testing color discrimination of an active duty service member?
1.
Pseudoisochromatic Plates (PIP)
2.
AFVT
3.
Snellen Chart
4.
FALANT |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Personnel who have received a color vision discrimination test on PIP must be retested as soon as a FALANT is available.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Audiometric testing may be performed by any uncertified healthcare provider (i.e. Hospital Corpsman, Nurse) that is available to perform the test.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many leads are used in a 12-lead EKG?
1.
12
2.
8
3.
10
4.
14 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Along what plane do the precordial leads record the heart’s electrical conduction?
1.
Vertical
2.
Transverse
3.
Saggital
4.
Horizontal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Along what intercostals space are leads V4, V5, and V6 placed?
1.
5th
2.
3rd
3.
4th
4.
7th |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following procedures is one of the basic professional services provided on an annual basis to Sailors by the Navy dental team?
1.
Dental examination
2.
Medical screening
3.
Prosthetic treatment
4.
Orthodontic treatment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When seating the patient for a dental exam, where should the dental light be positioned to avoid shining the light in the patient’s eye?
1.
Above the patient’s mouth
2.
Beneath the patient’s chin
3.
Above the patient’s forehead
4.
Beneath the patient’s chest |
|
Definition
| Beneath the patient’s chin |
|
|
Term
What is the primary purpose for conducting annual dental examinations?
1.
To qualify personnel for special pay
2.
To qualify personnel for special duty
3.
To qualify personnel for special programs
4.
To access the readiness status of active duty personnel |
|
Definition
| To access the readiness status of active duty personnel |
|
|
Term
Dental examinations are classified by what total number of examination types?
1.
One
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of examination is a comprehensive hard and soft tissue examination routinely done with study models?
1.
Type 1
2.
Type 2
3.
Type 3
4.
Type 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following personnel may perform a Type 4 dental screening evaluation?
1.
A dental officer
2.
A dental hygienist
3.
A qualified dental assistant
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What form should be used to document the findings of a dental examination for overseas screening?
1.
NAVMED 1050/3
2.
NAVMED 1300/1
3.
NAVMED 6000/2
4.
NAVMED 6600/10 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A member’s commanding officer can approve a member for overseas assignment even when the dental officer recommends disapproval.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What dental classification indicates that the patient’s dental condition, if not treated or followed up, could have the potential, but is not expected to, result in dental emergencies within the next 12 months?
1.
Class 1
2.
Class 2
3.
Class 3
4.
Class 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When recording the use of copal varnish in the dental treatment record, which of the following abbreviations should be used?
1.
CV
2.
Cop
3.
Copal
4.
Cop Var |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What abbreviation should be used when recording the patient was informed of examination findings and treatment plan?
1.
PTINF
2.
PTINFTX
3.
PTINFTXPL
4.
Pt info tx plan |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When identifying and locating caries or existing restorations, how should an 8-MID designation be written out?
1.
Distal, incisal, mesial aspects of a left maxillary central incisor
2.
Distal, incisal, mesial aspects of a left mandibular incisor
3.
Mesial, incisal, distal aspects of a right maxillary central incisor
4.
Mesial, incisal, distal aspects of a right mandibular incisor |
|
Definition
| Mesial, incisal, distal aspects of a right maxillary central incisor |
|
|
Term
When charting the top section of the Forensic Examination form, what symbol should be used to indicate missing teeth or teeth not visible in the patient’s mouth?
1.
O
2.
//
3.
X
4.
= |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following terms is often used when referring to a double occlusal restoration?
1.
Ace
2.
Duce
3.
Snake eyes
4.
Double ace |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Drawing an arcing line through the long axis of the tooth is an example of a partially erupted tooth.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nonmetallic restorations are made of which of the following types of materials?
1.
Acrylic resin
2.
Glass ionomer
3.
Fissure sealant
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A nonmetallic restoration is annotated by drawing an outline of the restoration showing size, location, shape, and inscribing vertical lines within the outline.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When charting a Forensic Examination, what method, if any, should be used to describe the differences between gold and other alloy restorations?
1.
Indicate in the “Remarks” section the specific restoration alloy
2.
Inscribe horizontal lines in the chrome alloy
3.
Black
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
| Indicate in the “Remarks” section the specific restoration alloy |
|
|
Term
When charting, how should it be indicated that gold material was used in a fixed partial denture?
1.
Inscribe vertical lines
2.
Inscribe horizontal lines
3.
Inscribe diagonal parallel lines
4.
Outline each aspect of the FPD |
|
Definition
| Inscribe diagonal parallel lines |
|
|
Term
What procedure should be used to chart the presence of supernumerary teeth?
1.
Insert a “D” in the location on the tooth number line
2.
Insert a “S” in the location on the tooth number line
3.
Draw an outline of the tooth in its approximate location
4.
Both 2 and 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The remarks section of the Forensic Dental Examination is used to differentiate between which of the following types of dental materials?
1.
Sealants
2.
Temporaries
3.
Composites
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What number of Angle classifications could be used on the Forensic Examination form?
1.
One
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On the Forensic Examination, what method should be used to indicate that a patient does NOT have a soft tissue condition?
1.
Write “none” in the Soft Tissue Remarks section
2.
Write “none” in the Hard Tissue Remarks section
3.
Write “no existing conditions” in the Soft Tissue Remarks section
4.
Leave blank if a condition does not exist |
|
Definition
| Leave blank if a condition does not exist |
|
|
Term
Where in the occlusion section of the Forensic Examination should the HM document and record any other occlusal conditions not listed?
1.
Section A
2.
Section B
3.
Remarks
4.
Hard Tissue Remarks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following non-pathologic findings should be annotated in the “Hard Tissue Remarks” section on the Forensic Examination form?
1.
Tori
2.
Rotated teeth
3.
Intrinsic staining
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What procedure should be used when a patient requires the completion of a new Current Status form?
1.
Complete Box 1 of the Current Status form
2.
Complete Boxes 1 and 2 of the Current Status form
3.
Transfer the information from the previous forms to the new form
4.
A patient’s Current Status form should not need to be replaced |
|
Definition
| Transfer the information from the previous forms to the new form |
|
|
Term
Which of the following conditions should be annotated in pencil in Box 1 of the Current Status form?
1.
Carious lesions
2.
Periridicular lesions
3.
Indications for root canal treatment
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does an even line drawn on the root of the tooth indicate?
1.
Fractured tooth
2.
Underfilled root canal
3.
Resoprtion of the root
4.
Periapical radiolucency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pencil entries are authorized for the use in Box 2 of the Current Status form.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a medical alert exists, the word “ALERT” is written or stamped in Box 3 of the Current Status form in large red letters with a brief explanation.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which dental form provides a record of initial accession exam and all subsequent periodic, annual, recall, and separation exams?
1.
SF 87
2.
SF 603
3.
EZ 603
4.
EZ 600 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What part of the S.O.A.P includes the reason for the visit and a statement of the chief complaint?
1.
Subjective
2.
Objective
3.
Assessment
4.
Plan |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What part of the S.O.A.P is generally used by the examiner to make a diagnosis?
1.
Subjective
2.
Objective
3.
Assessment
4.
Plan |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which part of the S.O.A.P includes the patient’s treatment needs?
1.
Subjective
2.
Objective
3.
Assessment
4.
Plan |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following references should be used to complete the Dental Examination form?
1.
MANMED, Chapter 6
2.
MANMED, Chapter 16
3.
BUMEDINST 6100.1
4.
NAVMEDCOM 6600.1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The back of the EZ 603 may be overprinted with a command specific format.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following forms should be used to document dental treatment completed from the treatment plan, dental emergencies, and any other narrative dental findings?
1.
DD 2808
2.
SF 513
3.
EZ600
4.
EZ603A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What color ink should be used for the medical alert entry on the EZ603A?
1.
Red
2.
Blue
3.
Black
4.
Green |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which form should be used to record the dental examination completed in conjunction with a medical physical?
1.
DD 2808
2.
SF 513
3.
SF 600
4.
EZ 603 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following entries should be annotated in Box 44 on the report of the Medical Examination form?
1.
Dental Classification
2.
Type of dental exam
3.
Qualified “YES” or “NO”
4.
Patient’s dental defects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which form should be used to refer a patient to another specialist or to medical for further evaluation or treatment?
1.
SF 2808
2.
SF 513
3.
SF 515
4.
EZ603 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which section of the Consultation Sheet should be left blank for the person receiving the form to document his or her findings?
1.
Reason for request
2.
Provisional diagnosis
3.
Consultation report
4.
Place of consultation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The dental chair should be placed in which of the following positions to dismiss the patient?
1.
Arm raised, lowest, down right position
2.
Arm raised, lowest, upright position
3.
Arm, lowered, lowest, down right position
4.
Arm lowered, lowest, upright position |
|
Definition
| Arm raised, lowest, upright position |
|
|
Term
When patients complete their dental examination, they should be directed to make future dental appointments at which of the following departments?
1.
Front desk
2.
Operative
3.
Oral surgery
4.
Oral diagnosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following procedures is one of the basic professional services provided on an annual basis to Sailors by the Navy dental team?
1.
Dental examination
2.
Medical screening
3.
Prosthetic treatment
4.
Orthodontic treatment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When seating the patient for a dental exam, where should the dental light be positioned to avoid shining the light in the patient’s eye?
1.
Above the patient’s mouth
2.
Beneath the patient’s chin
3.
Above the patient’s forehead
4.
Beneath the patient’s chest |
|
Definition
| Beneath the patient’s chin |
|
|
Term
What is the primary purpose for conducting annual dental examinations?
1.
To qualify personnel for special pay
2.
To qualify personnel for special duty
3.
To qualify personnel for special programs
4.
To access the readiness status of active duty personnel |
|
Definition
| To access the readiness status of active duty personnel |
|
|
Term
Dental examinations are classified by what total number of examination types?
1.
One
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of examination is a comprehensive hard and soft tissue examination routinely done with study models?
1.
Type 1
2.
Type 2
3.
Type 3
4.
Type 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following personnel may perform a Type 4 dental screening evaluation?
1.
A dental officer
2.
A dental hygienist
3.
A qualified dental assistant
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What form should be used to document the findings of a dental examination for overseas screening?
1.
NAVMED 1050/3
2.
NAVMED 1300/1
3.
NAVMED 6000/2
4.
NAVMED 6600/10 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A member’s commanding officer can approve a member for overseas assignment even when the dental officer recommends disapproval.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Operative dentistry is concerned with the prevention and treatment of defects of what tooth surfaces?
1.
Enamel and cementum
2.
Enamel and dentin
3.
Dentin and cementum
4.
Cementum only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following instruments is used primarily to remove debris from tooth cavities?
1.
Hoes
2.
Chisels
3.
Hatches
4.
Spoon excavators |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An even-numbered gingival margin trimmer is designed for use on which of the following tooth surfaces?
1.
Mesial
2.
Distal
3.
Facial
4.
Lingual |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An odd-numbered gingival margin trimmer is designated for use on which of the following tooth surfaces?
1.
Mesial
2.
Distal
3.
Facial
4.
Lingual |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of working end does an amalgam carrier have for transportation?
1.
Solid
2.
Layered
3.
Pointed
4.
Hollow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An amalgam condenser is often referred to as which of the following instruments?
1.
Carvers
2.
Burnishers
3.
Pluggers
4.
Carriers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following instruments is designed for carving all interproximal tooth surfaces?
1.
Tanner #5
2.
Hollenback #1/2
3.
Frahm 2/3
4.
Cleoid-discoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an advantage of using a plastic instrument for placing composite restorations?
1.
Will not discolor
2.
Will not bend
3.
Will not melt
4.
Will not break |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What number spatula is used to mix small quantities of cement?
1.
#313
2.
#322
3.
#324
4.
#324A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What length needle, measured in inches, is normally used for mandibular injections?
1.
1-1/4
2.
1-3/4
3.
1-7/8
4.
1-13/16 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The working end of a rubber dam punch is designed with which of the following mechanisms?
1.
Plunger and spindle
2.
Plunger and wheel
3.
Wheel and spindle
4.
Spindle and clamp |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A “W” prefix on a rubber dam clamp indicates which of the following designs?
1.
Without clamp
2.
Without wrapper
3.
Without slipping
4.
Without wings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following rubber dam frames is the most popular?
1.
“A” Frame
2.
Young
3.
Wizard
4.
Woodbury |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of material is always tied around a rubber dam clamp before placement in the mouth?
1.
Dental floss
2.
Dental ligature
3.
Rubber latex
4.
Clamp retriever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following types of matrix bands is most commonly used in restorative dentistry?
1.
Wide #2
2.
Junior #13
3.
Precontoured
4.
Straight #1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Extensions on the wide #2 matrix bands are known by which term?
1.
Bumps
2.
Aprons
3.
Wings
4.
Circles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the most commonly used matrix retainer?
1.
Universal #1
2.
Universal adult
3.
Universal straight
4.
Universal contra-angled |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Wood or clear plastic wedges measure about how long in length?
1.
1 inch
2.
½ inch
3.
¾ inch
4.
¼ inch |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The operator’s zone for a right handed dentist is located between which positions?
1.
1 and 3 o’clock
2.
2 and 4 o’clock
3.
5 and 8 o’clock
4.
8 and 11 o’clock |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The assistant’s zone for a right handed dentist is located between which positions?
1.
1 and 3 o’clock
2.
2 and 4 o’clock
3.
5 and 8 o’clock
4.
8 and 11 o’clock |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The transfer zone is located between which positions?
1.
8 and 11 o’clock
2.
2 and 4 o’clock
3.
3 and 6 o’clock
4.
4 and 8 o’clock |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The static zone is located between which positions?
1.
8 and 11 o’clock
2.
11 and 1 o’clock
3.
11 and 2 o’clock
4.
4 and 8 o’clock |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many inches should the dentist’s eye be away from the treatment site if the patient is properly positioned?
1.
5 to 12
2.
14 to 16
3.
18 to 36
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what zone will the instrument exchange between the dentist and the assistant take place?
1.
Operator
2.
Assistant
3.
Transfer
4.
Static |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dental material is exchanged between the dentist and the assistant in what zone?
1.
Operator
2.
Assistant
3.
Transfer
4.
Static |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The needle end of a carpule is sealed with a rubber membrane held in place by what type of material?
1.
Metal band
2.
Rubber band
3.
Copper band
4.
Plastic band |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you must recap a needle, what technique should be used?
1.
One handed scoop
2.
Two handed scoop
3.
Twist and turn scoop
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What device is used to remove blood, pus, saliva, and debris from the oral cavity?
1.
Low volume ejector
2.
High volume ejector
3.
High volume evacuator
4.
Low volume aspirator |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of cavity is present when three or more surfaces are involved?
1.
Large
2.
Small
3.
Medium
4.
Complex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the dentist has finished removing the tooth structure in a cavity preparation, what type of feeling will the dentin have when felt by an explorer?
1.
Firm
2.
Loose
3.
Brittle
4.
Semi-hard |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the last cutting step in the preparation of a cavity?
1.
Finishing the tooth walls
2.
Finishing the dentin walls
3.
Finishing the enamel walls
4.
Finishing the occlusal walls |
|
Definition
| Finishing the enamel walls |
|
|
Term
Stubborn particles of debris may be removed from a cavity preparation by which of the following materials dampened with water or hydrogen peroxide?
1.
Alcohol
2.
2x2 gauze
3.
4x4 gauze
4.
Small cotton pellet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What two materials are used in a cavity preparation to protect the pulp?
1.
Bases and resin
2.
Fluoride and amalgam
3.
Bases and cavity liners
4.
Cavity liners and amalgam |
|
Definition
| Cavity liners and amalgam |
|
|
Term
What material is used to seal the dentinal tubules to help prevent microleakage in a cavity preparation?
1.
Bases
2.
Cements
3.
Amalgam
4.
Cavity Varnish |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What instrument will the dentist use to bring any excess mercury from the amalgam to the top of the restoration?
1.
Carver
2.
Hatchet
3.
Burnisher
4.
Mouth mirror |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What BUMED instruction contains information of the Mercury Control Program (MCP)?
1.
6260.30
2.
6260.20
3.
6360.30
4.
6360.20 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following materials may be used to remove roughness or overhanging amalgam in the proximal area?
1.
Dental tape
2.
Dental floss
3.
Metal filing strip
4.
Plastic filing strip |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following composite resins is available for use in operative dentistry?
1.
Hybrid
2.
Microfilled
3.
Macrofilled
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What composite shade will appear if the tooth becomes dehydrated?
1.
Darker
2.
Lighter
3.
Transparent
4.
Chalky white |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of matrix may be placed on the tooth before the acid procedure begins?
1.
Wood
2.
Metal
3.
Rubber
4.
Celluoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Glass ionomer cement will bond directly with which of the following tooth surfaces?
1.
Enamel
2.
Dentin
3.
Cementum
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which scientist first discovered X-Rays?
1.
Wilhelm Konrad Roentgen
2.
Doctor H. G. Gama
3.
Doctor Otto Proton
4.
Raymond Cathode |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the tube that was discovered in 1895?
1.
Crooke’s tube
2.
Roentgen’s tube
3.
Walkoff tube
4.
Evacuating tube |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic property of X-Rays?
1.
They travel in straight lines
2.
They travel at the speed of sound
3.
They cause irritation to living cells
4.
They cause certain substances to fluoresce |
|
Definition
| They travel at the speed of sound |
|
|
Term
The rule that applies to the principle of radiation safety is?
1.
ALARA
2.
SAMS
3.
CORPS
4.
SAFETY |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When taking radiographs, always drape the patient with a lead apron.
1. True
2. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The time setting on the X-Ray machine is measured by using which of the following methods?
1.
Minutes or impulses
2.
Minutes or milliamperes
3.
Fractions of a second or milliamperes
4.
Fractions of a second or impulses |
|
Definition
| Fractions of a second or milliamperes |
|
|
Term
Which of the following instruction is most important when ordering radiographs for female patients?
1.
Have the patient remove her eyeglasses
2.
Have the patient remove her earrings
3.
Ask the patient is she has any type of denture
4.
Ask the patient if she is pregnant |
|
Definition
| Ask the patient if she is pregnant |
|
|
Term
The film badge should be placed behind the lead-lined barrier at least what number of feet from the tube head?
1.
10
2.
6
3.
8
4.
4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a safety precaution for taking radiographs?
1.
Always stand behind a lead screen during an exposure
2.
Never stand in the path of the central X-Ray beam during exposure
3.
Never hold the tube head or the tube head cylinder of the X-Ray machine during exposure
4.
Hold the film packet in the patient’s mouth during exposure if necessary |
|
Definition
| Hold the film packet in the patient’s mouth during exposure if necessary |
|
|
Term
Which of the following personnel are authorized to order and diagnostically interpret dental radiographs?
1.
Dental X-Ray technician
2.
Front desk personnel
3.
Dental officers
4. Dental technicians |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How often should the surfaces in the dark room be disinfected?
1.
Daily
2.
Weekly
3.
Bi-weekly
4. Monthly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Of the following personnel who is NOT allowed to order radiographs?
1.
IDC
2.
HM
3.
PA
4. MO |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are indications for a PA of the chest, EXCEPT?
1.
Pain with respiration
2.
Chronic cough
3.
Asbestos
4. Rash and streaking |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following oragns will not be seen in a KUB radiograph?
1.
Kidney
2.
Liver
3.
Ureters
4. Bladder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following structures will be seen in the AP projection of the cervical spine?
1.
C1-T3
2.
C2-T4
3.
C3-T1
4. C4-T2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient presenting with chronic cervical spine pain should be ordered what type of radiograph?
1.
KUB
2.
AP Cervical Spine
3.
Pelvic
4. Chest PA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At approximately what angle should the ankle be when taking an oblique radiograph?
1.
30
2.
45
3.
60
4. 90 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What should be shielded when you are taking an X-ray?
1.
Hypothalamus
2.
Heart
3.
Reproductive organs
4. Scrotum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The paralleling device consists of which of the following parts?
1.
A locator ring
2.
An indicator rod
3.
A bite-block
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bisecting angle technique is the preferred method and recommended for routine use when taking periapical radiographs.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When taking radiographs, which of the following factors should you consider before using the bisecting-angle technique?
1.
There are no paralleling devices available
2.
The patient cannot close mouth on bite-block
3.
The patient has a rubber dam in place
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What landmark is used when exposing the maxillary bicuspid area?
1.
Tip of the nose
2.
Beside the ala of the nose
3.
Below the pupil of the eye
4.
Below the out angle of the eye and below the zygomatic bone |
|
Definition
| Beside the ala of the nose |
|
|
Term
The position of the patient’s mid-sagittal plane must be perpendicular to the floor when exposing a periapical radiograph using the bisecting-angle technique.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The occlusal film packet contains two X-Ray films.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What X-Ray machine settings should you use when exposing a maxillary occlusal radiograph on an adult?
1.
10 mA, 87kVp, and 60 impulses
2.
12 mA, 90kVp, and 60 impulses
3.
10 mA, 90kVp, and 60 impulses
4.
12 mA, 87kVp, and 40 impulses |
|
Definition
| 10 mA, 90kVp, and 60 impulses |
|
|
Term
What vertical angulation setting should you use when exposing a maxillary anterior occlusal radiograph?
1.
+50 degrees
2.
+55 degrees
3.
+60 degrees
4.
+65 degrees |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When exposing a maxillary posterior occlusal radiograph, you should use what vertical angulation setting?
1.
+75 degrees
2.
+70 degrees
3.
+65 degrees
4.
+60 degrees |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When exposing a mandibular anterior occlusal radiograph, what vertical angulation should you use?
1.
-10 degrees
2.
5 degrees
3.
0 degrees
4.
+5 degrees |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A safe light is the only safe source of illumination used in the darkroom when processing radiographs.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When checking for light leaks in the darkroom, you should leave the penny on the X-Ray film for at least what number of minutes?
1.
One
2.
Five
3.
Three
4.
Seven |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following methods is most commonly used to process dental radiographs in the Navy?
1.
Laser processing
2.
Manual processing
3.
Computer processing
4.
Automatic processing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following procedures should be included in the daily maintenance of the X-Ray machine?
1.
Dusting
2.
Cleaning with a cloth moistened with water
3.
Both 1 and 2
4.
Cleaning with a cloth moistened with solvent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You should wait what number of seconds between films before inserting another film into the automatic processor?
1.
10
2.
12
3.
15
4.
30 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The developer and fixer solutions in the automatic processor should be changed at what minimum frequencies?
1.
Daily
2.
Weekly
3.
Biweekly
4.
Every 3 to 4 weeks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The processing solutions used in the automatic processor are the same as those used in the manual processing procedure.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cleaning of the roller transports and the solutions in the automatic processor are accomplished at what minimum intervals?
1.
Twice a day
2.
Daily
3.
Weekly
4.
Monthly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which teeth can be identified radiographically by a large white region caused by the bone of the nasal septum?
1.
Mandibular incisors
2.
Mandibular cuspids/bicuspids
3.
Maxillary incisors
4.
Maxillary incisors and bicuspids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When mounting radiographs, the raised dimple should be facing you.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You should attempt to complete all X-Ray repairs yourself.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You should attempt to complete all X-Ray repairs yourself.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pharmacology is a basic medical science that deals with the study of which specialty?
1.
Drugs
2.
Diseases
3.
Compounds
4.
Pharmacy operations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The branch of pharmacology that deals with the preparation, dispensing, and proper use of medications is?
1.
Toxicology
2.
Pharmacy
3.
Pharmacognosy
4.
Therapeutics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The actual title of the “blue bible” of pharmacology is?
1.
The Physicians’ Desk Reference
2.
The United States Pharmacopoeia and National Formulary (USP-NF
3.
The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics
4.
Remington’s The Science and Practice of Pharmacy |
|
Definition
| Remington’s The Science and Practice of Pharmacy |
|
|
Term
The amount of medication administered is referred to as which of the following?
1.
Pill
2.
Dose
3.
Unit amount
4.
Average amount |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The minimum and maximum amount of a drug required to produce the desired effect is referred to by what term?
1.
Dosage factor
2.
Dosage range
3.
Dosage drug
4.
Dosage age |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What dose refers to the least amount of a drug that can cause death?
1.
Toxic
2.
Minimum toxic
3.
Minimum lethal
4.
Maximum lethal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common factor influencing the amount of drug given to a patient is?
1.
Weight
2.
Gender
3.
Age
4.
Route of administration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What two primary factors, if any, determine a dose?
1.
Sex and age
2.
Age and weight
3.
Weight and sex
4.
None |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the proper dose in milliliters of ampicillin for an 8-year old child if the adult dose is 15 ml?
1.
2
2.
6
3.
9
4.
15 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the rule used to determine appropriate dosage of medication based on a child’s weight?
1.
Clark’s Rule
2.
Young’s Rule
3.
Rule of Nines
4.
Fried’s Rule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Determine the appropriate dose in milligrams of medication for a child weighing 30 pounds if the average dose for an adult is 600 mg.
1.
50
2.
100
3.
120
4.
150 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In computing the amount of drug to be given to an underweight female, what adjustments to the normal dosage would ordinarily be made?
1.
Increase the dosage because of her weight and further increase because of her sex
2.
Increase of dosage because of her weight but decrease because of her sex
3.
Decrease of dosage because of her sex and further decrease because of her weight
4.
Decrease of dosage because of her sex but an increase because of her weight |
|
Definition
| Decrease of dosage because of her sex and further decrease because of her weight |
|
|
Term
A drug given continuously to a patient often has to be increased in dosage to maintain the desired effect. The need for a larger dose is probably caused by?
1.
An acquired tolerance from habitual use
2.
An abnormal sensitivity
3.
A cumulative effect from habitual use
4.
An individual idiosyncrasy |
|
Definition
| An acquired tolerance from habitual use |
|
|
Term
The most common method of administering medications is ________.
1.
Orally
2.
Parentally
3.
Topically
4.
Intravenously |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What term is used to define a medication that is placed under the tongue?
1.
Suboral
2.
Submandibular
3.
Subcavity
4.
Sublingual |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an example of a drug injected intradermally?
1.
Insulin
2.
Procaine hydrochloride
3.
Purified protein derivative
4.
2 or 3 above |
|
Definition
| Purified protein derivative |
|
|
Term
What technique introduces a drug directly into a vein?
1.
Intravenous
2.
Infiltration
3.
Intramuscular
4.
Intradermal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what form are medications introduced into the body through inhalation?
1.
Gas
2.
Oral
3.
Topical
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normally, how many names do medications have?
1.
One
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pharmacology is a basic medical science that deals with the study of which specialty?
1.
Drugs
2.
Diseases
3.
Compounds
4.
Pharmacy operations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The branch of pharmacology that deals with the preparation, dispensing, and proper use of medications is?
1.
Toxicology
2.
Pharmacy
3.
Pharmacognosy
4.
Therapeutics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The actual title of the “blue bible” of pharmacology is?
1.
The Physicians’ Desk Reference
2.
The United States Pharmacopoeia and National Formulary (USP-NF
3.
The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics
4.
Remington’s The Science and Practice of Pharmacy |
|
Definition
| Remington’s The Science and Practice of Pharmacy |
|
|
Term
The amount of medication administered is referred to as which of the following?
1.
Pill
2.
Dose
3.
Unit amount
4.
Average amount |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The minimum and maximum amount of a drug required to produce the desired effect is referred to by what term?
1.
Dosage factor
2.
Dosage range
3.
Dosage drug
4.
Dosage age |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What dose refers to the least amount of a drug that can cause death?
1.
Toxic
2.
Minimum toxic
3.
Minimum lethal
4.
Maximum lethal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common factor influencing the amount of drug given to a patient is?
1.
Weight
2.
Gender
3.
Age
4.
Route of administration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What two primary factors, if any, determine a dose?
1.
Sex and age
2.
Age and weight
3.
Weight and sex
4.
None |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the proper dose in milliliters of ampicillin for an 8-year old child if the adult dose is 15 ml?
1.
2
2.
6
3.
9
4.
15 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the rule used to determine appropriate dosage of medication based on a child’s weight?
1.
Clark’s Rule
2.
Young’s Rule
3.
Rule of Nines
4.
Fried’s Rule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Determine the appropriate dose in milligrams of medication for a child weighing 30 pounds if the average dose for an adult is 600 mg.
1.
50
2.
100
3.
120
4.
150 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In computing the amount of drug to be given to an underweight female, what adjustments to the normal dosage would ordinarily be made?
1.
Increase the dosage because of her weight and further increase because of her sex
2.
Increase of dosage because of her weight but decrease because of her sex
3.
Decrease of dosage because of her sex and further decrease because of her weight
4.
Decrease of dosage because of her sex but an increase because of her weight |
|
Definition
| Decrease of dosage because of her sex and further decrease because of her weight |
|
|
Term
A drug given continuously to a patient often has to be increased in dosage to maintain the desired effect. The need for a larger dose is probably caused by?
1.
An acquired tolerance from habitual use
2.
An abnormal sensitivity
3.
A cumulative effect from habitual use
4.
An individual idiosyncrasy |
|
Definition
| An acquired tolerance from habitual use |
|
|
Term
The most common method of administering medications is ________.
1.
Orally
2.
Parentally
3.
Topically
4.
Intravenously |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What term is used to define a medication that is placed under the tongue?
1.
Suboral
2.
Submandibular
3.
Subcavity
4.
Sublingual |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an example of a drug injected intradermally?
1.
Insulin
2.
Procaine hydrochloride
3.
Purified protein derivative
4.
2 or 3 above |
|
Definition
| Purified protein derivative |
|
|
Term
What technique introduces a drug directly into a vein?
1.
Intravenous
2.
Infiltration
3.
Intramuscular
4.
Intradermal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what form are medications introduced into the body through inhalation?
1.
Gas
2.
Oral
3.
Topical
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normally, how many names do medications have?
1.
One
2.
Two
3.
Three
4.
Four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a way in which drugs are grouped?
1.
By chemical characteristics
2.
By their brand names
3.
By their source
4.
By their action on the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Aluminum acetate, an astringent, is often used to treat which of the following conditions?
1.
Athlete’s foot
2.
External otitis
3.
Poison ivy
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a bronchomutropic agent?
1.
Petrolatum
2.
Guaifenesin
3.
Benzoate
4.
Phenol |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a characteristic side effect of antihistamines?
1.
Nausea
2.
Drowsiness
3.
Uricaria
4.
Tinnitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following medications is administered to control motion sickness?
1.
Cimetidine
2.
Meclizine hydrochloride
3.
Chlorpheniramine maleate
4.
Diphenyhdramine hydrochloride |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In conjunction with antacids, which of the following is used to treat duodenal ulcers?
1.
Dimenhydrinate
2.
Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
3.
Ranitidine
4.
Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The drug group most often used to treat dyspepsia is?
1.
Emollients
2.
Astringents
3.
Antacids
4.
Adsorbents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In addition to being an antacid, magnesium hydroxide may be used as a/an?
1.
Emollient
2.
Laxative
3.
Demulcent
4.
Astringent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The standard by which all other antiseptics are measured is?
1.
Povidine-iodine
2.
Phenol
3.
Isopropyl alcohol
4.
Hexachlorophene |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary pharmacological action of sulfonamides is?
1.
Viricidal
2.
Parasiticidal
3.
Bacteriostatic
4.
Fungistatic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common use for systemic sulfonamides is in the treatment of which of the conditions listed below?
1.
Respiratory infections
2.
Urinary tract infections
3.
Viral infections
4.
Furunculosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Silver sulfadiazine is used almost exclusively in the treatment of?
1.
Surgical wounds
2.
Burns
3.
Prostatitis
4.
Furunculosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The drug of choice for uncomplicated group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis is?
1.
Penicillin V Potassium
2.
Nafcillin
3.
Ampicillin
4.
Dicloxicillin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patients sensitive to penicillin may also exhibit sensitivity to cephalosporins.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Milk or milk products may interfere with the absorption of which of the following drugs?
1.
Cephalexin (Keflex)
2.
Tetracycline hydrochloride
3.
Streptomycin sulfate
4.
Erthromycin |
|
Definition
| Tetracycline hydrochloride |
|
|
Term
Macrolides are effective against which of the following organisms?
1.
Gram-positive cocci
2.
Dermatophytes
3.
Parasites
4.
Gram-negative |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an appropriate substitute for penicillin when penicillin is contraindicated?
1.
Doxycycline
2.
Cephalexin
3.
Erythromycin
4.
Streptomycin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Undeclyenic acid is used as a/an?
1.
Disinfectant
2.
Antipyretic
3.
Analgesic
4.
Antifungal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Supplemental potassium may be required with which of the following categories of drugs?
1.
Anti-inflammatories
2.
Antidiahrreals
3.
Antipyretics
4.
Diuretics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The drug of choice for the treatment and management of grand mal seizures is?
1.
Methylphenidate hydrochloride
2.
Phenobarbital
3.
Phenytoin sodium
4.
Any psychotropic agent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Prochlorperizine is used mainly to?
1.
Treat symptoms of nausea and vomiting
2.
Alleviate symptoms of tension, agitation, and psychosis
3.
Counteract the effects of alcohol withdrawal
4.
Relieve respiratory distress |
|
Definition
| Treat symptoms of nausea and vomiting |
|
|
Term
Muscle relaxants include all of the following EXCEPT?
1.
Methocarbamol
2.
Diazepam
3.
Cyclobenzaprine
4.
Methylphenidate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Water-soluble vitamins are not excreted in the urine and are stored in the body in moderate amounts.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The vitamin deficiency associated with night blindness is?
1.
Vitamin A
2.
Vitamin B6
3.
Vitamin Bl2
4.
Vitamin K |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The agent used to treat pernicious anemia is?
1.
Cyanocobalamin
2.
Ascorbic acid
3.
Vitamin D
4.
Vitamin K |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the vitamin involved in absorption and use of calcium and phosphorus?
1.
Vitamin A
2.
Vitamin B1
3.
Vitamin C
4.
Vitamin D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The correct abbreviations for the metric systems of primary units of measure for weight, volume, and linear dimensions are?
1.
gr, l, cm
2.
gr, ml, m
3.
g, l, m
4.
g, l, cm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is equal to one one-hundredth of a liter?
1.
Dekaliter
2.
Deciliter
3.
Centiliter
4.
Milliliter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A prescription requires two ounces of a substance supplied in liters. How many milliliters are required to fill the prescription?
1.
0.03 ml
2.
0.06 ml
3.
30 ml
4.
60 ml |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You have 360 grams of a compound. If 54 grams of the compound is silver nitrate, what is the percentage strength of silver nitrate?
1.
12.5%
2.
15%
3.
17.5%
4.
20% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All pharmacies that dispense prescriptions are required to have what Class balance?
1.
A
2.
B
3.
C
4.
D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug incompatibility occurs when agents antagonistic to one another are prescribed together?
1.
Therapeutic
2.
Physical
3.
Chemical
4.
1 and 3 above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Eutexia is an example of what type of drug incompatibility manifestation?
1.
Chemical
2.
Physical
3.
Therapeutic
4.
2 and 3 above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A properly administered drug dosage that has an unintended or harmful effect on the patient is the definition of which of the following terms?
1.
Contraindication
2.
Drug interaction
3.
Adverse reaction
4.
Therapeutic incompatibility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What chapter of The Manual of the Medical Department gives guidance on pharmacy operations and drug control?
1.
6
2.
9
3.
15
4.
21 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What DD form is used to prescribe controlled and noncontrolled medications?
1.
6710
2.
1289
3.
1210
4.
1209 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the prescription block of DD Form 1289, what part lists the name and quantity of the ingredient prescribed?
1.
Superscription
2.
Inscription
3.
Subscription
4.
Signa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If, in the course of filling a prescription, the HM feels that there may be a discrepancy or incompatibility, the HM should take which of the following actions?
1.
Let the patient know that you discovered an error and will be checking with the prescriber before filling the prescription
2.
Consult the prescriber to verify the prescription before filling
3.
Both 1 and 2
4.
Fill the prescription as written |
|
Definition
| Consult the prescriber to verify the prescription before filling |
|
|
Term
What types of prescription medications have the potential for abuse?
1.
Noncontrolled
2.
Controlled
3.
Schedule VI
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a Schedule III medication?
1.
Marijuana
2.
An antitussive
3.
Amphetamines
4.
Nonbarbiturate sedative |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What schedule of medications can never be ordered with refills?
1.
II
2.
III
3.
IV
4.
V |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many board members are on the Controlled Substance Inventory Board?
1.
One
2.
Three
3.
Four
4.
Six |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Controlled substances must be inventoried at least?
1.
Annually
2.
Bi-annually
3.
Quarterly
4.
Daily |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is considered the preferred source for blood specimens obtained for clinical examination?
1.
Venipuncture
2.
Finger puncture
3.
Arterial puncture
4.
Antecubital puncture |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When performing a finger puncture, the first drop should be wiped away to avoid which of the following conditions?
1.
Bacterial contamination
2.
Clotting at the puncture site
3.
Dilution of the specimen with alcohol
4.
Dilution of the specimen with tissue fluids |
|
Definition
| Dilution of the specimen with tissue fluids |
|
|
Term
How far above the intended phlebotomy site should the tourniquet be placed?
1.
Directly above site
2.
1-2 inches above the site
3.
2-3 inches above the site
4.
3-4 inches above the site |
|
Definition
| 3-4 inches above the site |
|
|
Term
The correct needle position for venipuncture is (a) what degree angle and (b) with the bevel in what position?
1.
(a) 15-30 (b) up
2.
(a) 20-40 (b) down
3.
(a) 15-30 (b) down
4.
(a) 20-40 (b) up |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A tourniquet is normally applied before to aid in the process of venipuncture. At what point in the venipuncture procedure should the tourniquet be removed?
1.
Just before needle insertion
2.
Just after needle insertion
3.
Once blood flows freely into tubes
4.
No longer than two minutes |
|
Definition
| Once blood flows freely into tubes |
|
|
Term
When should specimens be labeled?
1.
Before collecting samples
2.
Before submitting samples to laboratory
3.
Before leaving patient
4.
Any time after collecting samples |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which color tube is the best choice for routine chemistry tests?
1.
Red top
2.
Lavender top
3.
Gray top
4.
Yellow top |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which color tube is the best choice for a CBC?
1.
Red top
2.
Lavender top
3.
Gray top
4.
Yellow top |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The part of the microscope on which the prepared specimen is placed for examination is called the ________ .
1.
Arm
2.
Base
3.
Frame
4.
Mechanical stage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What objective should be used for a detailed study of stained bacterial smears?
1.
Low power
2.
Oil immersion
3.
High power
4.
Either 2 or 3 above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A Complete Blood Count includes which of the following?
1.
Total RBC count
2.
Hematocrit
3.
Differential WBC count
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The function of hemoglobin in the body is to?
1.
Fight infection
2.
Transport oxygen to the tissues
3.
Aid in blood clotting
4.
Regulate blood chemistry |
|
Definition
| Transport oxygen to the tissues |
|
|
Term
Which of the following factors affect the hemoglobin values?
1.
Age
2.
Sex
3.
Altitude
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A low RBC count may indicate that the patient has which of the following listed conditions?
1.
Leukopenia
2.
Anemia
3.
Dehydration
4.
Uremia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The normal value for male hemoglobin is?
1.
10-16
2.
12-18
3.
14-18
4.
15-20 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term used for the volume of erythrocytes expressed as a percentage of the volume of whole blood in a sample?
1.
Hematocrit
2.
Hemoglobin
3.
Red Blood Count
4.
Complete Blood Count |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hematocrit for a normal, healthy female is within what range?
1.
30-40 percent
2.
37-47 percent
3.
42-50 percent
4.
44-52 percent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the term used to describe an abnormally high WBC count.
1.
Leukocytosis
2.
Erythrocytosis
3.
Leukopenia
4.
Pancytopenia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following conditions may cause leukopenia?
1.
Radiation
2.
Psittacosis
3.
Anaphylactic shock
4.
Each of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which study within a CBC often provides the most helpful information in determining the severity and type of infection?
1.
Red Cell count
2.
White Cell count
3.
Hemoglobin
4.
WBC differential |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of leukocytes?
1.
To carry oxygen through the blood
2.
To control various disease conditions
3.
To aid in clotting blood
4.
Each of the above |
|
Definition
| To control various disease conditions |
|
|
Term
What type of leukocyte compromises the largest percentage of cells in the circulating blood?
1.
Lymphocyte
2.
Neutrophil
3.
Erythrocyte
4.
Thrombocyte |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which leukocyte functions by ingesting invading bacteria?
1.
Neutrophil
2.
Eosinophil
3.
Lymphocyte
4.
Monocyte |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which leukocyte helps respond to parasitic infections?
1.
Neutrophil
2.
Eosinophil
3.
Lymphocyte
4.
Monocyte |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When performing a WBC differential, which cell has the large, scattered dark blue granules that are darker than the nucleus?
1.
Lymphoctes
2.
Monocytes
3.
Basophils
4.
Neutrophils |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which leukocyte fights viral infection?
1.
Neutrophil
2.
Eosinophil
3.
Lymphocyte
4.
Monocyte |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The largest of the normal WBCs is the?
1.
Monocyte
2.
Lymphocyte
3.
Eosinophil
4.
Basophil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term used for bacteria that cause disease?
1.
Pathogen
2.
Virus
3.
Non-pathogen
4.
Flora |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The difference between anaerobes and aerobes is that anaerobes need oxygen to reproduce.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term used to define bacteria that are round in shape?
1.
Strep
2.
Cocci
3.
Rods
4.
Bacillus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the Gram’s stain, what is the primary stain?
1.
Crystal violet
2.
Gram’s Iodine
3.
Acetone
4.
Safranin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gram positive bacteria stain what color?
1.
Green
2.
Pink
3.
Red
4.
Deep blue or purple |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which bacteria causes strep throat?
1.
Staphylococcus aureus
2.
Streptococcus pyogenes
3.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
4.
Clostridium tetani |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which bacteria causes gonorrhea?
1.
Staphylococcus aureus
2.
Streptococcus pyogenes
3.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
4.
Clostridium tetani |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which bacteria causes tetanus?
1.
Staphylococcus aureus
2.
Streptococcus pyogenes
3.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
4.
Clostridium tetani |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term used for a substance that, when introduced into an individual’s body, is recognized as foreign to the body, and causes a detectable reaction?
1.
Pathogen
2.
Antigen
3.
Reagin
4.
Antibody |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The RPR is a specific test to diagnose syphilis.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The RPR test to screen for syphilis is best used with what type of specimen?
1.
Serum
2.
Plasma
3.
Whole blood
4.
Either serum or plasma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the monospot is negative, the patient does not have infectious mononucleosis.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following chemical preparations is frequently used to detect fungi?
1.
Hydrogen sulfoxide
2.
Hydrogen peroxide
3.
Potassium hydroxide
4.
Potassium sulfate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The best urine specimen for screening purposes is that taken during which of the following times?
1.
First morning
2.
Random
3.
Fasting
4.
24 hour |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the desired urine sample volume for routine testing?
1.
10 ml
2.
20 ml
3.
15 ml
4.
12 ml |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following colors would be considered abnormal in a urine sample?
1.
Colorless
2.
Amber
3.
Straw
4.
Red |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which urine color is most related with the presence of blood?
1.
Dark orange
2.
Red
3.
Yellow
4.
Olive green |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which urine color is most related with the presence of bile?
1.
Dark orange
2.
Red
3.
Yellow or brown
4.
Olive green |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which urine color is most related with a patient being treated with Pyridium®?
1.
Dark orange
2.
Red
3.
Yellow
4.
Olive green |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A report on urine clarity is valid regardless of standing time.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The specific gravity of a liquid is the weight of the substance as compared to an equal volume of ______ .
1.
Ethanol
2.
Methanol
3.
Distilled water
4.
Saline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal specific gravity for routine urinalysis is within what range?
1.
1.010 - 1.030
2.
1.001 - 1.015
3.
1.020 - 1.030
4.
1.015 - 1.030 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The addition of one drop of 2 percent acetic acid to urine sediment will disintegrate which cell?
1.
White blood cells
2.
Mucous threads
3.
Casts
4.
Red blood cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cell is not normally found in urine?
1.
White Blood Cell
2.
Red Blood Cell
3.
Epithelial Cell
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which critical result is indicative of uncontrolled diabetes?
1.
Hemoglobin below 7
2.
Hematocrit below 20
3.
White blood cells in urine
4.
Glucose and ketones both present in urine |
|
Definition
| Glucose and ketones both present in urine |
|
|
Term
What operational program may be used on some operational platforms to treat critical patients in a mass casualty situation when delay of blood products would cause a critical delay?
1.
MEDEVAC
2.
WBB
3.
CASEVAC
4.
Frozen Blood program |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is the spica or figure eight bandage used around the elbow?
1.
Allows for movement while holding a compress
2.
Hard to apply
3.
Best for controlling bleeding
4.
Can be only applied by using a 6 inch roller bandage |
|
Definition
| Allows for movement while holding a compress |
|
|
Term
What size bandage is used for applying a roller bandage to the ankle or foot?
1.
2 inch
2.
3 inch
3.
4 inch
4.
6 inch |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a Barton Bandage used for?
1.
Head fractures
2.
Auricular fractures
3.
Fractures of the lower jaw
4.
Holding compress on the head |
|
Definition
| Fractures of the lower jaw |
|
|
Term
The Automated External Defibrillator analyzes cardiac rhythm and selects the appropriate strength of electrical therapy which stops an arrhythmia, allowing the heart to re-establish a normal rhythm.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement is false concerning Normal Saline?
1.
Is used in patients that are in danger of developing dehydration or hypovolemia and cannot take fluid orally.
2.
The amount of normal saline infused largely depends on the needs of the patient.
3.
There are no dangers in giving “too much” normal saline.
4.
Normal saline is typically the first fluid used when hypovolemia is severe enough to threaten the adequacy of blood circulation. |
|
Definition
| There are no dangers in giving “too much” normal saline. |
|
|
Term
Hetastarch is a substitute for blood plasma and has oxygen carrying capabilities.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the United States, oxygen bottles are colored green. What is the international color code of oxygen bottles?
3.
White
4.
Green
5.
Blue
6.
Green with a white band |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a true statement concerning oropharyngeal airways?
1.
Can only be used on a conscious patient
2.
An airway of proper size is measured from the tip of the earlobe to the corner of the mouth
3.
Insert the airway into the mouth and rotate 90° as it slides into to pharynx
4.
Only comes in one size |
|
Definition
| An airway of proper size is measured from the tip of the earlobe to the corner of the mouth |
|
|
Term
The oropharyngeal airway is the airway of choice for patients with a gag reflex.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The effective life of an oxygen breathing apparatus (OBA) is?
1.
45-60 minutes
2.
15-30 minutes
3.
20-45 minutes
4.
The canister never needs changing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many stages of extrication are there?
1.
4
2.
3
3.
5
4.
There is only one stage; the actual rescue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is a true statement when treating a patient that is radioactively contaminated?
1.
Ensure you have a dosimeter prior to entering the area.
2.
Be ready to fill out training forms prior to entering the scene of the incident.
3.
Good judgment is confirmed when stopping medical personnel from performing their duties.
4.
Treatment of life threatening injuries takes precedence over decontamination procedures. |
|
Definition
| Treatment of life threatening injuries takes precedence over decontamination procedures. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a concern about the distance a casualty can be carried?
1.
Weight of the casualty
2.
Strength and endurance of the stretcher bearers
3.
Nature of the casualty’s injuries
4.
The amount of radiation with which the victim is contaminated. |
|
Definition
| The amount of radiation with which the victim is contaminated. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a phase of Care of Patient en Route?
1.
Medical Evacuation Care
2.
Tactical Field Care
3.
Care under Fire
4.
Tactical Evacuation Care |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Line #3 in the MEDEVAC Request is?
1.
Radio frequency
2.
Number of patients by precedence
3.
Security at pick up site
4.
Special equipment required |
|
Definition
| Number of patients by precedence |
|
|
Term
When establishing a helicopter landing site, the ground slope can be no more than ____ degrees.
1.
7
2.
15
3.
10
4.
Helicopters cannot land on a slope. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In HAZMAT management situations, site control is divided into 3 zones. In which zone does personnel decontamination happen?
1.
Hot Zone
2.
Warm Zone
3.
Support Zone
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When decontaminating personnel contaminated from a HAZMAT situation, the most frequently appropriate method of decontamination is?
1.
Dilution
2.
Absorption
3.
Chemical Washes
4.
Disposal and Isolation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are measures first aid is intended to address EXCEPT?
1.
Save Life
2.
Prevent further injury
3.
Replace proper medical diagnosis and treatment
4.
Preserve resistance and vitality |
|
Definition
| Replace proper medical diagnosis and treatment |
|
|
Term
All of the following are rules to follow when providing first aid EXCEPT?
1.
Maintain breathing
2.
Prevent or treat for shock
3.
Stop bleeding
4.
Panic at the first site of blood |
|
Definition
| Panic at the first site of blood |
|
|
Term
Which one is NOT recommended when preparing for emergency situations?
1.
Practicing skills in scenarios
2.
Keeping current on current emergency medical procedures and equipment
3.
Knowing your surroundings and resources available to you
4.
Familiarizing yourself with your equipment while responding to an emergency scene |
|
Definition
| Familiarizing yourself with your equipment while responding to an emergency scene |
|
|
Term
Casualties in a non-tactical environment whose injuries are critical but who will require only minimal time or equipment are?
1.
Priority I
2.
Priority II
3.
Priority III
4.
Priority V |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the method for sorting casualties in a multiple casualty incident (MCI)?
1.
F.I.N.I.S.H
2.
S.T.O.P
3.
Stop at the first patient I come to and provide for all their needs
4.
S.T.A.R.T |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient in a tactical setting with an upper airway obstruction and life threatening bleeding would fall into which category?
1.
Delayed
2.
Expectant
3.
Minimal
4.
Immediate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the maximum amount of time allowed for continuous suctioning of an infant’s airway?
1.
5 seconds
2.
10 seconds
3.
15 seconds
4.
2 seconds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When inserting the Combitube® and after the device is sitting between the teeth and properly aligned between the printed black rings, what is the next step?
1.
Inflate the white cuff
2.
Inflate the blue cuff
3.
Confirm tube placement
4.
Assess for spontaneous respirations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Casualties with a total upper airway obstruction, inhalation burns, or massive maxillofacial trauma who cannot be ventilated by other means are candidates for a King LT® airway.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When performing a needle chest decompression, what is the preferred size of the needle required to adequately decompress the chest?
1.
14 gage
2.
16 gage
3.
18 gage
4.
20 gage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Distributive shock is a loss of intravascular volume, which may occur from blood, plasma, or fluid loss.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are stages of shock EXCEPT?
1.
Early
2.
Irreversible
3.
Compensated
4.
Decompensated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normally, a loss of approximately _____of the person’s blood volume will create a life-threatening condition.
1.
0.5 liters
2.
2 ounces
3.
1 gallon
4.
1 liter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient with a skin assessment of pale and cool and whose blood pressure dropped briefly would be consider to be in what type of shock?
1.
Neurogenic
2.
Psychogenic
3.
Hypovolemic
4.
Cardiogenic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Approximately how long does it take for death to occur from massive hemorrhage?
1.
4-6 minutes
2.
3-5 minutes
3.
10 minutes
4.
2 minutes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of shock the HM will encounter?
1.
Uncontrolled hemorrhage
2.
Syncope
3.
Dehydration
4.
Sepsis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are components of the scene size up EXCEPT?
1.
Safety
2.
Mechanism of Injury
3.
Number of Patients
4.
Types of injury |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The index of suspicion is derived directly from which of the following?
1.
Mechanism of Injury
2.
Number of patients
3.
Scene assessment
4.
Triage category |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The general impression is crucial to identifying which of the following?
1.
Transport decision
2.
Patient’s overall systemic condition
3.
Obvious significant external problems
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An interruption of arterial blood flow to the brain is best described as a/an ______ .
1.
Convulsion
2.
Cerebrovascular Accident
3.
Syncopial episode
4.
Epileptic episode |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are steps in treating Syncope EXCEPT?
1.
Lying patient down in shock position
2.
Placing a cool cloth on the patients forehead
3.
Loosening their clothing
4.
Giving the patient something to eat |
|
Definition
| Giving the patient something to eat |
|
|
Term
What does the acronym AVPU stand for?
1.
Airway, Vital signs, and Pulses are Uniform
2.
Alert, Verbal, Painful, Unresponsive
3.
Analyze, Verify, Process, Uniformity
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
| Alert, Verbal, Painful, Unresponsive |
|
|
Term
What is the acronym used when assessing a patient during a rapid physical exam?
1.
PASTHAM
2.
ABCDE
3.
SAMPLE
4.
DCAP-BTLS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient experiencing respiratory distress can rapidly progress to full arrest. Always be prepared to utilize ______ .
1.
AED
2.
Advanced Airway procedures
3.
CPR
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
| Advanced Airway procedures |
|
|
Term
A patient experiencing respiratory difficulty should be forced to lie down in order to ease their breathing and reduce the workload on the body.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The HM can administer a nebulizer treatment without a medical officer’s order.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a contraindication for using Activated Charcoal for patients suffering from poison ingestion?
1.
Altered mental status
2.
Unable to swallow
3.
Patient is suspected of having swallowed acids or alkalis
4.
Unable to speak |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a patient is hypotensive, then the systolic blood pressure is below what?
1.
110
2.
100
3.
90
4.
80 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In cases of airway obstruction from severe glottic edema, what procedure may be necessary?
1.
Needle chest decompression
2.
Mouth to mouth ventilations
3.
Cricothyroidotomy
4.
Endotracheal intubation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During a patient assessment the HM notices that the patient seems to have a fruity breath odor, the HM suspects the patient is suffering from ______ .
1.
Hypoglycemia
2.
Hyperglycemia
3.
Alcohol poisoning
4.
Drug Overdose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The HM suspects a patient is suffering from a brain injury. Upon assessment the HM discovers the patient has asymmetrical pupils, headache, nausea, and vomiting. The HM suspects the patient is suffering from _____ .
1.
A mild concussion
2.
A migraine
3.
A stroke
4.
Increased intracranial pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following signs and symptoms is considered a late sign of a hemothorax?
1.
Deviated trachea
2.
Cyanosis
3.
Shock
4.
Coughing up frothy red blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When treating a patient with an abdominal evisceration, it is acceptable to place the organs back inside the abdominal cavity in order to keep the organs warm and moist as well as prevent infection.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After the baby has delivered and the cord has been cut, which of the following steps is correct when delivering the placenta?
1.
Pull on the umbilical cord until the placenta delivers
2.
Push the cord back inside the mother
3.
Start an IV
4.
Wait approx 10-20 minutes for the placenta to deliver spontaneously |
|
Definition
| Wait approx 10-20 minutes for the placenta to deliver spontaneously |
|
|
Term
What is the first step in the management plan for care under fire?
1.
Direct casualty to move to cover / apply self-aid if able
2.
Protect casualty from sustaining further injury
3.
Use a tourniquet for hemorrhage that is anatomically amendable to tourniquet application
4.
Return fire / take cover |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During Tactical Field Care, what is the best way to control compressible hemorrhage when a tourniquet is not amendable?
1.
Use combat gauze as the hemostatic agent of choice with at least 3 minutes of direct pressure
2.
Make the tourniquet work
3.
Use a large battle dressing
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
| Use combat gauze as the hemostatic agent of choice with at least 3 minutes of direct pressure |
|
|
Term
What is the usual dose of morphine for adult patients in severe pain?
1.
2-5 mg
2.
5-10 mg
3.
10-15 mg
4.
10-20 mg |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Morphine can be given to patients who have suffered a head injury.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following steps in bleeding control are no longer utilized?
1.
Apply Tourniquet
2.
Elevate the extremity
3.
Use of pressure points
4.
Both 1 and 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After bleeding has been controlled by a tourniquet, how is the patient marked?
1.
A large “T” on the affected limb
2.
A “T” marked somewhere on the body
3.
A “T” with the time marked on the forehead
4.
A patient care tag strapped to the patients clothing |
|
Definition
| A “T” with the time marked on the forehead |
|
|
Term
What is the first step in treating for hypovolemic shock?
1.
Maintain the Airway
2.
Start an IV
3.
Elevate the patients feet and keep warm
4.
Take BSI precautions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of suture material is best used for surface closures and cause very little tissue reaction?
1.
Silk
2.
Cotton
3.
Catgut
4.
Dermalon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common method of anesthesia used by the HM is the infiltration of the anesthetizing agent into the nerve trunks that innervate the fingers or toes.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For a large, gaping, soft-tissue wound, a primary closure is acceptable.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When cutting sutures, what is the maximum acceptable length for the tails to be?
1.
1/16 inch
2.
¼ inch
3.
As short as practical for removal on the face and lip
4.
As long as necessary for convenience |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Any person who has an acute pain in the back or neck as well as a significant mechanism of injury, should be treated as though there is a fractured spine, even if there are no other symptoms.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is it acceptable to move a patient with a suspected pelvic fracture?
1.
Never
2.
When absolutely necessary regardless of stabilization steps taken
3.
When absolutely necessary after MAST garments have been applied to stabilize the pelvic region
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What method should be utilized when opening the airway of a patient who is suspected of having a spinal cord injury?
1.
Head tilt, chin lift
2.
Jaw Thrust
3.
Tongue in cheek
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Never attempt to remove a foreign body stuck to or penetrating an eyeball.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When bandaging an eye with an impaled foreign object, what should be done?
1.
Bandage the injured eye only
2.
Bandage both eyes
3.
Bandage neither eye
4.
Remove the foreign object then bandage the eye |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When applying First Aid for removing foreign objects, which statement below is NOT correct?
1.
Remove bullets to aid in stopping bleeding
2.
Do not attempt to remove powdered Glass
3.
Do not attempt to remove widely scattered foreign objects or materials from the skin
4.
Do not remove deeply embedded objects |
|
Definition
| Remove bullets to aid in stopping bleeding |
|
|
Term
When applying aid for animal bites, what should you NEVER do?
1.
Wash the wound and surrounding area
2.
Cover the wound with a clean sterile dressing
3.
Cauterize areas that are bleeding to aid in transport
4.
Transfer to nearest treatment facility for evaluation |
|
Definition
| Cauterize areas that are bleeding to aid in transport |
|
|
Term
What degree of thermal burns to the skin is characterized by epidermal blisters, mottled appearance, and a red base? Damage extends into but not through the dermis. Recovery usually takes 2 to 3 weeks.
1.
Second degree burn
2.
First degree burn
3.
Third Degree burn
4.
Fourth degree burn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The rule of nines assigns what percentage value for burns of the anterior chest and anterior neck?
1.
13
2.
14
3.
26
4.
28 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Under normal conditions, heat exposure injuries are preventable injuries.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common condition caused by working or exercising in hot environments?
1.
Heat Cramps
2.
Heat Stroke
3.
Heat Exhaustion
4.
Death |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cold injury is a mild cold injury that happens from prolonged exposure in temperatures above freezing to as high as 60 degrees F?
1.
Immersion Foot
2.
Frostbite
3.
Chilblain
4.
No injury results |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A diluted solution of which of the listed substances will neutralize alkali burns to the skin?
1.
Alcohol
2.
Phenol
3.
Vinegar
4.
Baking soda |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The usual treatment for chemical burns is to flush with copious amounts of water. The two exceptions to this rule are in the case of which of the following chemicals?
1.
Phosphoric acid and lye
2.
White phosphorus and carbolic acid
3.
Dry lime and carbolic acid
4.
Sulfuric acid and carbolic acid |
|
Definition
| Dry lime and carbolic acid |
|
|
Term
What is the most effective method of re-warming a victim of hypothermia?
1.
“Buddy warming”
2.
Covering the victim with blankets or a sleeping bag
3.
Hot water bottles at the neck, armpits, groin, and the chest
4.
Immersion in a tub of warm water |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many additional atmospheres of pressure are applied at a depth of 33 feet in sea water?
1.
3
2.
14.7
3.
1
4.
.445 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is NOT one of the three principle categories for injuries when discussing diving related disorders?
1.
Decompression Sickness
2.
Toxicities
3.
Barotrauma
4.
Trauma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A middle ear squeeze is classified under which type of diving injury?
1.
Arterial Gas Embolism
2.
Barotrauma
3.
Dalton’s Law
4.
DCS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The treatment for a middle ear squeeze consists of all the following EXCEPT?
1.
Decongestants
2.
NSAIDS for pain and inflammation
3.
Administer ear drops for ruptured ear drum
4.
No diving chit |
|
Definition
| NSAIDS for pain and inflammation |
|
|
Term
Which law deals with Decompression Sickness (DCS)?
1.
Dalton’s Law
2.
Henry’s Law
3.
Boyle’s Law
4.
Nature’s Law |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement below is NOT applicable for treatment of Decompression Sickness?
1.
100% oxygen by mask
2.
Obtain a dive history
3.
Contact the closest Recompression Facility, Dive Medical Officer, or Dive Medical Technician.
4.
Do not pressurize the cabin of aircraft when transporting to treatment facility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Poisoning is defined as contact with or exposure to a toxic substance.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Toxicology is defined as the science of poisons.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient presents with dilated pupils, fever, dry skin, urinary retention, decreased bowel sounds, and increased heart rate. What toxidrome does this set of symptoms suggest?
1.
Narcotic
2.
Anticholinergic
3.
Withdrawal
4.
Non-syndrome syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient presents with salivation, lacrimation, urination, and muscle weakness. What toxic syndrome does this set of symptoms suggest?
1.
Anticholinergic
2.
Cholinergic
3.
Narcotics
4.
Sympathominetic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common route of exposure to toxic chemicals in the home?
1.
Absorbed
2.
Injected
3.
Ingested
4.
Inhaled |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the method of choice for the HM to use to induce vomiting?
1.
15-30 cc of syrup of Ipecac
2.
2 teaspoonfuls of dry mustard in water
3.
2 teaspoonfuls of an active charcoal slurry
4.
To tickle the back of the victim’s throat |
|
Definition
| 15-30 cc of syrup of Ipecac |
|
|
Term
When a patient ingests an acid or base treatment is to give a neutralizing agent orally.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the HM is unable to reach the poison control center or a physician for specific instructions, how should the HM treat a victim who has ingested turpentine?
1.
Induce vomiting and observe
2.
Give 1 to 2 ounces of vegetable oil orally
3.
Neutralize the poison with vinegar and water
4.
Give 1 to 2 tablespoonfuls of milk of magnesia |
|
Definition
| Give 1 to 2 ounces of vegetable oil orally |
|
|
Term
Of the following, which is considered the most common agent in inhalation poisoning?
1.
Carbon dioxide
2.
Carbon monoxide
3.
Freon
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment for an inhalation poisoning victim includes all of the following EXCEPT?
1.
Removal from the contaminated atmosphere
2.
Administration of oxygen
3.
Administration of stimulants
4.
Treatment for shock |
|
Definition
| Admistration of stimulants |
|
|
Term
A patient presents exhibiting signs of anaphylactic reaction to a bee or wasp sting. Of the following, which is NOT considered appropriate treatment?
1.
Removal of patient’s jewelry
2.
Subcutaneous injection of epinephrine
3.
Warm packs over the sting site
4.
Removal of the stinger by scraping with a dull knife |
|
Definition
| Warm packs over the sting site |
|
|
Term
The victim of a scorpion sting may safely be given any of the following pharmaceuticals EXCEPT?
1.
Demerol or morphine
2.
Calcium gluconate
3.
Valium
4.
All the above are acceptable |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Symptoms of a black widow spider bite may include severe pain, dyspnea, and ______ .
1.
Obvious swelling
2.
Abdominal rigidity
3.
A necrotizing lesion
4.
Fever and chills |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Crotalids are identified by ______ .
1.
Slit-like pupils of the eyes
2.
Flat, triangular heads
3.
Semi curved bite marks
4.
Both 1 and 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the key identifying feature of the North American coral snake that distinguishes it from other snakes with similar markings?
1.
The yellow band is always next to the red band
2.
The red band is always next to the black band
3.
It has a distinctive bite pattern
4.
It has deep pits below the eyes |
|
Definition
| The yellow band is always next to the red band |
|
|
Term
On patrol, a member of the unit receives a rattlesnake bite just below the elbow. What first aid treatment should be performed?
1.
Place a tourniquet 1 inch proximal to the bite site
2.
Place a constricting band 2 inches proximal to the bite site
3.
Place a constricting band 2 inches distal to the bite site below the elbow
4.
Both 2 and 3 above |
|
Definition
| Place a constricting band 2 inches proximal to the bite site |
|
|
Term
Valuable information on the antivenom is found in the package inserts.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Puffer, Surgeon, Trigger, and Parrot fish are known to be_________.
1.
Poisonous at all times
2.
Poisonous to the touch
3.
Not poisonous
4.
Poisonous during red tide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A person suffering from a Venomous Fish sting should?
1.
Soak the wound in hot water for 30 to 90 minutes
2.
Apply Ice packs to the wound
3.
Urinate on the wound
4.
Apply a tourniquet |
|
Definition
| Soak the wound in hot water for 30 to 90 minutes |
|
|
Term
Identify the fish with which there is antivenom available.
1.
Stonefish
2.
Scorpionfish
3.
Zebrafish
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antivenin is available to neutralize the effects of the following types of Coelenterates?
1.
Portuguiez man o war, sea blubber
2.
Sea anemone, rosy anemone
3.
Box jellyfish, sea nettle
4.
Sea wasp, box jellyfish |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many hours after the last dose does narcotic withdraw normally peak?
1.
2 hours
2.
24 hours
3.
48 hours
4.
72 hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most widely abused drug(s) is/are?
1.
Ethanol
2.
Opiates
3.
Barbiturates
4.
Amphetamines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a symptom of alcohol abuse?
1.
Nausea
2.
Vomiting
3.
Confusion
4.
Increased level of consciousness |
|
Definition
| Increased level of consciousness |
|
|
Term
Withdrawal from barbiturates is less life threatening than narcotic withdrawal.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Central nervous system stimulants are used for all of the following EXCEPT?
1.
Decrease mental alertness
2.
Combat drowsiness
3.
Fatigue
4.
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) |
|
Definition
| Decrease mental alertness |
|
|
Term
Signs and symptoms of stimulant intoxication include all of the following EXCEPT?
1.
Hypertension
2.
Increased appetite
3.
Dilated pupils
4.
Increased body temperature |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A person may display which of the following sign(s) after using a hallucinogenic drug?
1.
Pin-pointed pupils
2.
Decreased heartbeat
3.
Flushed face
4.
Both 2 and 3 above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Marijuana falls into which of the following categories of drugs?
1.
Barbiturate
2.
Physically addicting
3.
Cannabis
4.
Harmless |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Persons who regularly abuse inhalants risk which of the following injuries?
1.
Severe brain damage
2.
Damaged internal organs
3.
Death
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In caring for drug-intoxicated persons, the HM should perform what actions as the first priority?
1.
Check for an adequate airway
2.
Keep the victim awake
3.
Induce vomiting if the victim is awake
4.
Transport to a medical facility |
|
Definition
| Check for an adequate airway |
|
|
Term
When was the first large scale use of chemical agents?
1.
WW I
2.
WW II
3.
Iraq War
4.
Vietnam |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Terrorists will not use chemical agents because they are difficult to make.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
M9 Chemical Agent Detection Paper turns what color if a nerve agent is present?
1.
Gold
2.
Green
3.
Red
4.
Yellow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
M8 Chemical Detection Paper turns what color when it comes into contact with VX?
1.
Yellow
2.
Red
3.
Purple
4.
Green |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
M8 Chemical Detection Paper turns what color when it comes into contact with G class nerve agents?
1.
Yellow
2.
Red
3.
Purple
4.
Green |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What MOPP Level affords the most protection?
1.
1
2.
2
3.
3
4.
4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nerve Agents enhance the nerve impulses.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nerve agents enter the body through what area.
1.
Eyes
2.
Skin
3.
Respiratory Tract
4.
All the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A MARK 1 Kit consists of?
1.
Atropine
2.
2-PAM CL
3.
CANA
4.
Both 1 and 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For severe nerve agent symptoms give how many MARK 1 kits in a row?
1.
1
2.
2
3.
3
4.
4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many MARK 1 kits can a non-medical person give?
1.
1
2.
2
3.
3
4.
None |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long do you wait after giving the first MARK 1 kit before giving another in a patient with moderate symptoms?
1.
1 to 2 minutes
2.
3 to 5 minutes
3.
10 to 15 minutes
4.
Only one can be given |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To decontaminate a patient with nerve agent you use?
1.
Soap and Water
2.
0.5% hypochlorite solution
3.
M291
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chemical agents H, HD, and HN are all what type of agents?
1.
Nerve
2.
Blister
3.
Riot
4.
Pulmonary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Symptoms of mustard agent contact are?
1.
Miosis
2.
Paralysis
3.
Blisters
4.
Dizziness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What antidote is used for lewisite?
1.
Atropine
2.
BAL
3.
2-PAM CL
4.
CANA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Decontamination of blister agents within two minutes will reduce the toxic effects by?
1.
10%
2.
25%
3.
50%
4.
75% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a blood agent?
1.
AC
2.
HD
3.
CS
4.
CG |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the initial treatment for cyanides?
1.
Atropine 10mg IM
2.
BAL
3.
Sodium Nitrate, IV
4.
CANA 10mg IM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which agent smells like new mown hay?
1.
CG
2.
Cl
3.
DP
4.
AC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CS is a highly toxic substance.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CS is a highly toxic substance.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lacrimators are also known as?
1.
Tear Gas
2.
Nerve Gas
3.
Blood Agents
4.
Chocking Agents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Decontamination for harassment agents generally consists of?
1.
Use of M291
2.
0.5% Bleach Solution
3.
Washing with baby shampoo
4.
Exposure to wind |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The first priority for first aid for a chemical agent patient is?
1.
Control massive hemorrhage
2.
Decontaminate exposed skin
3.
Treat for shock
4.
Adjust patients mask |
|
Definition
| Control massive hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
Initial management of a chemical agent casualty is?
1.
Removal of MOPP gear
2.
Decontamination with 0.5% hypochlorite solution
3.
Both 1 & 2
4.
None of these |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What class of Biological Agent does Anthrax belong to?
Bacteria
Virus
Toxin
Fungus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What class of Biological Agent does Plague belong to?
Bacteria
Virus
Toxin
Fungus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What class of Biological Agent does Smallpox belong to?
Bacteria
Virus
Toxin
Fungus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What class of Biological Agent does Ricin belong to?
Bacteria
Virus
Toxin
Fungus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What class of Biological Agent does Marburg belong to?
Bacteria
Virus
Toxin
Fungus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What class of Biological Agent does Botulism belong to?
Bacteria
Virus
Toxin
Fungus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What class of Biological Agent does Ebola belong to?
Bacteria
Virus
Toxin
Fungus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Biological outbreaks that occur in multiple geographical locations are classified as?
1.
Natural Occurrence
2.
Intentional Release
3.
Both 1 and 2
4.
Small scale |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT an indicator of biological agent release?
1.
Unusual disease for geographic area
2.
Absence of competent natural vector
3.
Restricted geographical distribution, epidemiological grouping or clustering
4.
Low morbidity and mortality compared with a normal occurrence of the disease |
|
Definition
| Low morbidity and mortality compared with a normal occurrence of the disease |
|
|
Term
Viruses can be treated with the use of antibiotics.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers are susceptible to?
1.
Air
2.
Phenolic Disinfectants
3.
1% Bleach Solution
4.
Both 2 & 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A dirty bomb could be used by a terrorist organization.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of radiation is sometimes called penetrating radiation?
1.
Alpha
2.
Beta
3.
Gamma
4.
None of these |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A lethal full body dose of radiation is?
1.
4 to 5 rem
2.
4 to 5 Sv
3.
400 to 500 mrem
4.
40 to 50 mSv |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most effective sheilding?
1.
MOPP Suit
2.
Wood
3.
Aluminum
4.
Lead |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The time of onset of which symptoms will give you an estimate of radiation dose/exposure?
1.
Diarrhea
2.
Nausea and Vomiting
3.
Seizures
4.
Ataxia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Once a patient is removed from a radiation source, Chronic Radiation Syndrome symptoms will resolve.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Injuries resulting from a nuclear explosion are treated differently.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient can be certified decontaminated from a radiological incident with?
1.
M256A1
2.
M291
3.
AN/PQS 2A
4.
AN/VDR 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The HM may provide temporary emergency dental treatment under which of the following conditions?
1.
To combat infection
2.
To provide relief from pain
3.
To prevent further damage to oral structures
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a patient reports to the dental clinic after hours with a toothache, which of the following steps should the duty HM first take?
1.
Give the patient 2 aspirins and schedule a sick call appointment for the next day
2.
Notify the duty dental officer
3.
Notify the duty medical officer
4.
Place a temporary filling, check the occlusion, and make an appointment for the patient |
|
Definition
| Notify the duty dental officer |
|
|
Term
Which of the following choices best describes a symptom?
1.
HM observes bleeding gums
2.
HM observes a fractured tooth
3.
The patient informs the HM of a toothache
4.
All of the above |
|
Definition
| The patient informs the HM of a toothache |
|
|
Term
Which of the following choices best describes a sign?
1.
HM observes a large hole in a patient’s tooth
2.
Patient tells the HM that he/she chewed a piece of ice
3.
Patient tells the HM that he/she has the filling in a pocket
4.
Patient tells the HM that he/she has been in pain for 2 weeks |
|
Definition
| HM observes a large hole in a patient’s tooth |
|
|
Term
When pain from an affected tooth manifests to a healthy, non-involved tooth, what is the condition called?
1.
Referral symptom
2.
Referred pain
3.
Pain manifesto
4.
TMJ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following conditions exists if a patient is experiencing pain caused by the pressure of fluid building up inside the pulp chamber?
1.
Periapical abscess
2.
Periodontitis
3.
Acute pulpitis
4.
Pericoronitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which condition exists when swelling is confined to a small area at the site of a sinus tract?
1.
Sinus abscess
2.
Grape abscess
3.
Cellulitis
4.
Gumboil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When performing an emergency treatment for a periapical abscess, what instrument will be used to drain the abscess?
1.
Bard Parker and #15 blade
2.
Explorer
3.
Syringe
4.
None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient with a periapical abscess may complain of which of the following symptoms?
1.
Teeth are loose
2.
The tooth “feels longer” than the others
3.
A “deep, gnawing pain” in the affected area
4.
Excessive bleeding |
|
Definition
| The tooth “feels longer” than the others |
|
|
Term
What type of inflammation is present in marginal gingivitis?
1.
Cratered
2.
Severe
3.
Oozing
4.
Mild |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) is commonly referred to by what term?
1.
Trenchcoat
2.
Trenchmouth
3.
Foul mouth syndrome
4.
Glowing gums syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What colored membrane will be covering the gingiva if a patient has NUG?
1.
Bluish-grey
2.
Reddish-white
3.
Bluish-white
4.
Gray-white |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Periodontitis usually results from what untreated condition?
1.
Marginal gingivitis
2.
Congenital birth defect
3.
Juvenile periodontitis
4.
Periodontal syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following conditions exist if a patient complains that their gums are “itching”?
1.
Periodontal abscess
2.
Periodontitis
3.
Acute pulpitis
4.
Pericoronitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the correct emergency treatment for a periodontal abscess?
1.
Irrigate affected area with a 3-way syringe
2.
Use a soft-bristled toothbrush and angle the bristles on the affected area using the “Bass Technique”
3.
Gently probe the affected area with a scaler to establish drainage
4.
Use an explorer and puncture the most raised portion of the abscess to express the pus |
|
Definition
| Gently probe the affected area with a scaler to establish drainage |
|
|
Term
Which of the following solutions should be used to irrigate the tissue flap if a patient has pericoronitis?
1.
Glycerite of iodine
2.
Warm saline solution
3.
Hydrogen peroxide
4.
Flap conditioner |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the two common types of stomatitis found in the oral mucosa?
1.
Genital herpes and aphthous stomatitis
2.
HIV and aphthous stomatitis
3.
Herpetic and cold sores
4.
Herpetic and aphthous stomatitis |
|
Definition
| Herpetic and aphthous stomatitis |
|
|
Term
Bleeding from an extraction site is referred to by which of the following terms?
1.
Postextraction alveolar osteitis
2.
Postextraction hemorrhage
3.
Postbledding hemorrhage
4.
Dry socket hemorrhage |
|
Definition
| Postextraction hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
Postextraction alveolar osteitis is a condition commonly referred to by what term?
1.
Dry socket
2.
Dry tooth
3.
Dry clot
4.
Dry hole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To treat post extraction alveolar osteitis, what type of dental material is placed in a tooth socket?
1.
2 x 2 gauze pad with eugenol
2.
Penrose drain with eugenol
3.
Iodoform gauze with eugenol
4.
Cottonballs with eugenol |
|
Definition
| Iodoform gauze with eugenol |
|
|
Term
Tooth fractures are classified into how many different types?
1.
1
2.
2
3.
3
4.
4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fractured teeth can involve which of the following areas of a tooth?
1.
Enamel and dentin only
2.
Enamel, dentin, and pulp only
3.
Enamel, dentin, pulp, and root
4.
Enamel, dentin, and cementum only |
|
Definition
| Enamel, dentin, pulp, and root |
|
|
Term
Which of the following dental materials will be used to treat a Type I fracture?
1.
Cavity varnish
2.
Temporary splint
3.
Temporary crown form
4.
Zinc oxide and eugenol |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A Type II fracture involves an exposure of the pulp.
1.
True
2.
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
HMs who provide emergency treatment of a fractured mandible will use which of the following materials?
1.
Arch bars and wires only
2.
Dental splints only
3.
Both 1 and 2 above
4.
Elastic bandage |
|
Definition
|
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