Term
(Exam 3 Practice Questions)
One of your servers, located in New York City, contains a Sales database that needs to be replicated to your branch offices in Berlin, London, and Moscow. The branch offices are connected via a T1 connection that consistently runs at 80% capacity. your sales associates in New York City make changes to the database regularly throughout the day, but the users in the branch offices do not need to see the changes immediately. Which type of replication should you use?
a. merge replication
b. transactional replication
c. snapshot replication
d. transaction with updating subscribers
e snapshot with updating subscribers |
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Definition
a. merge replication - INCORRECT - not updating in two directions
b. transactional replication - CORRECT - one way transactional, per transaction
c. snapshot replication - INCORRECT - you're making changes throughout the day and you're running at 80% cpacity
d. transaction with updating subscribers - INCORRECT - the subscribers are not updating
e snapshot with updating subscribers - INCORRECT - no such thing.
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Term
(Exam 3 Practice Questions)
(True or False)
A witness server is required in order to have automatic failover when using database mirroring. |
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Definition
True (The witness decides if the mirror is to be upgraded to principal) |
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Term
(Exam 3 Practice Questions)
Each branch office of your company has its own accounting department. The network connections between the branch offices are realiable, but they are consistently at 80% usage during the day. each of your branch office accounting departments needs a copy of the main accounting database that they can update locally, and they need it to be as current as possible. Which type of replication best meets these needs?
a. merge replication
b. transactional replication
c. snapshot repllcation
d. transactional replication with immediate updating subscribers
e. snapshot with updating subscribers
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Definition
a. merge replication - INCORRECT- they do not need to see the other department's info
b. transactional replication - INCORRECT- subscribers cannot update with this method
c. snapshot repllcation - INCORRECT- this is not writable
d. transactional replication with immediate updating subscribers - CORRECT- the subscribers are updating
e. snapshot with updating subscribers - INCORRECT- does not exist
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Term
(Exam 3 Practice Questions)
What is SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) used for? |
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Definition
It is used for extracting and transforming data from multiple sources and moving it to one or more destination data sources for data warehouses, data
marts, etc. |
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Term
(Exam 3 Practice Questions)
What are Reporting Services? |
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Definition
Report Manager and Report Server for creating, managing, and distributing reports; built on IIS and
.NET Framework technology |
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Term
(Exam 3 Practice Questions)
What does a Service Broker do? |
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Definition
It provides reliable queuing and messaging as a
central part of the database; allows queries to be stacked and performed as resources allow; delivers notification messages |
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Term
(Exam 3 Practice Questions)
What does Sync Framework do? |
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Definition
It enables data synchronization for
collaboration and offline use |
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Term
(Exam 3 Practice Questions)
SQL Server 2008 is not simply a database – it is what? |
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Definition
a complete database platform with numerous services |
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What 3 factors should be considered when determining how the SQL Server computer will be used |
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Definition
- SQL Server Features required
- Number of concurrent users
- Amount of data to be managed
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What are the minimum hardware requirements for a 32-bit system? |
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Definition
- Processor: Pentium III or higher
- Processor speed: 1.0 GHz or higher
- Memory: 512 MB or higher
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What are the minimum hardware requirements for a 64-bit system? |
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Definition
- Processor: Itanium, Opterion, Athelon, or Xeon/Pentium with EM64T support
- Processor speed: 1.6 GHz or higher
- Memory: 512 MB or higher
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What's the recommended memory? |
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Definition
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
SQL Server 208 supports ___ and can process complex
___ queries |
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Definition
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
For clustering, you will need space for the ___ disk |
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Definition
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
___ ___ is the recommended choice for high end
storage needs |
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Definition
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
Use ___ to configure fault-tolerant data storage |
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Definition
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is RAID 0? |
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Definition
disk striping without parity. SQL Server cannot continue until the drive is replaced |
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is RAID 1? |
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Definition
disk mirroring. a drive can
be rebuilt while the mirror allows processing to continue |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is RAID 5? |
|
Definition
disk striping with parity. Good protection against single drive failure but poor read/write performance |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
When protecting data, which RAID should you use? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
When protecting logs, which RAID should you use? |
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Definition
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
Which Windows Server does NOT support SQL Server? |
|
Definition
Windows Server 2008 Server Core. Does not have the .NET Framework required for FILESTREAM, SPATIAL, and DATE data types |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is a Domain Account? |
|
Definition
service uses a standard domain account
with privileges that you configure |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is a Local System Account? |
|
Definition
provides admin privileges to the SQL Server on the local system but no privileges on a network |
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Term
(Chapter1)
What is a Network Service Account? |
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Definition
provides same level of access to resources as is granted members of the Users group; can access the network and communicate with other servers |
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Object Explorer? |
|
Definition
view & connect to SQL Server, Analysis Services, Integration Services, Reporting Services, and Compact edition |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What are registered Servers? |
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Definition
shows currently registered servers;
allow you to switch between servers of a particular type |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is template explorer?
|
|
Definition
access to the default Query Editor
templates and custom templates |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Solutions Explorer?
|
|
Definition
access to SQL Server, Analysis Server,
and Compact edition projects |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is SQL Server Configuration Manager?
|
|
Definition
perform essential
service, setup, and network configuration tasks |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Analysis Services Deployment Wizard:
|
|
Definition
to deploy the
output from an Analysis Services project to a target server |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Business Intelligence Development Studio
|
|
Definition
develop &
manage business intelligence objects |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is
Database Engine Tuning Advisor:
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Import & Export Data Wizard?
|
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Definition
fine SSIS packages for
import and export |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is SQL Server Installation Center:
|
|
Definition
central interface for
upgrading to 2008 from earlier versions |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is SQL Server Profiler:
|
|
Definition
analyze user activities and generate
audit trails (the GUI to SQL Trace) |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Extraction, transformation, and loading |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Pipeline parallelism? |
|
Definition
takes full advantage of multiple processors
or processor cores by using shared thread pools |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Partitioned table parallelism? |
|
Definition
takes full advantage of multiple
processors or processor cores when processing queries across
multiple partitions |
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Partition-aligned indexed views? |
|
Definition
brings along the indexed views
for the partition when you switch partitions |
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Merge operations: |
|
Definition
performs multiple insert, update, and delete
operations on the results of joining the target table or view with
a data source; merge operation requires only a single pass over
the data |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Change data capture |
|
Definition
normally must use triggers, time-stamp
columns, or queries to determine what changed; this feature
tracks changes made to user tables |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Minimally logged inserts? |
|
Definition
normally, an insert writes to the log
and to the database (to allow recovery and reprocessing); this
feature writes only the info required for roll-back, while
writing all data to the database |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Unified Dimension Model (UDM), |
|
Definition
serves to
blur the lines between traditional relational databases and
multidimensional OLAP databases |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Scalable shared database (SSD)? |
|
Definition
allows you to mark a database
as read-only and share it across multiple server instances
from a storage area network (SAN); no longer need to
replicate between servers for this purpose |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Log shipping? |
|
Definition
establish a standby server: manually bring
it online if the primary server fails |
|
|
Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Cluster service |
|
Definition
create a failover server; automatically
comes online if the primary server fails |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Database mirroring |
|
Definition
continuously streams transactions
from a source server to a destination server; applications can
reconnect to the secondary server in seconds if the primary
fails |
|
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Term
(Chapter 1)
What is Multiple active result sets (MARS): |
|
Definition
improved
connectivity for users; provides the programming interfaces
necessary to handle multiple result sets in a single session;
allows multiple requests under ODBC and spawning of
connections under OLE DB |
|
|
Term
(Chapter 1)
What is the only edition that supports the installation of multiple instances on a single machine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Chapter 1)
What does Database Mail require to be running? |
|
Definition
|
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