Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. Public and private are the two broad classes of owners.
b. A contractor with a contract with the prime contractor to do some phase of the work onsite is subcontractor.
c. Administration of the project is the principal job of an A/E.
d. All Owner contracts are considered prime. |
|
Definition
| c. Administration of the project is the principal job of an A/E. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. “Fast-tracking” refers to the overlapping of design and construction
b. Competitive bidding and Negotiated are the two basic ways an owner may use to select a contractor.
c. Residential, commercial (building), Heavy/highway (Engineering), and Industrial are the four broad categories of construction.
d. Long-term financing is to pay the construction cost. |
|
Definition
| d. Long-term financing is to pay the construction cost. |
|
|
Term
Who determines the percentage in a Cost Plus a Percentage of Cost contract?
Select one:
a. The architect-engineer
b. Construction manager
c. Engineering consultants
d. Owner |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is a type of most negotiated contract?
Select one:
a. Lump –Sum
b. Unit Price
c. Cost-plus-a-fee or Cost-Reimbursable
d. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. A general partner is an agent of the partnership.
b. A commercial lender gets paid last in a partnership dissolution.
c. A partnership contract does not have to be in writing in most states.
d. Proprietorship is the simplest form of business entity. |
|
Definition
| b. A commercial lender gets paid last in a partnership dissolution. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. Directors of a corporation considered to be agents of the company.
b. ESOP stands for “Employee Stock Ownership Plan.
c. C corporation pays taxes at its level, and then passes through money (or not) via dividends that are not deductible to the corporation.
d. A foreign corporation is a corporation chartered in another state or country. |
|
Definition
| a. Directors of a corporation considered to be agents of the company. |
|
|
Term
“An agreement of a general partner with an outsider whereby the outsider will share in some designated way that general partner’s profits or losses derived from partnership activities.” Is:
Select one:
a. The corporation
b. General partnership
c. Sub-partnership
d. Limited partnership |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an advantages of using a corporation business form?
Select one:
a. Limited liability of its shareholders
b. Perpetual duration
c. Ease of raising capital
d. Multiple ownership
e. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT an alternative traditional business forms used by construction contractors?
Select one:
a. Corporation
b. Partnership
c. Proprietorship
d. Cost-plus-a-fee or Cost-Reimbursable
e. Limited Liability Company (LLC) |
|
Definition
| d. Cost-plus-a-fee or Cost-Reimbursable |
|
|
Term
Which of the following can be a consideration that company ownership should establish?
Select one:
a. Establishing a general plan of action
b. Setting long-term objectives
c. Establishing the fundamental purpose of the enterprise
d. All of above
e. Defining the overall scope of operations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Every position of responsibility and all lines of supervision and authority are shown in:
Select one:
a. Staffing
b. Job description
c. Organization charts
d. List of duties |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one is NOT a relevant concept that assist in fostering a positive environment and a favorable work atmosphere?
Select one:
a. Motivation
b. Decision making
c. Competetion
d. Personal development
e. Training of replacements |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
“The ability to act or make a decision without the necessity of obtaining approval from a superior” is:
Select one:
a. Responsibility
b. Authority
c. Supervision
d. Duty |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. Building codes are enforced only by the use of permits.
b. “Permanent license surety bond” is a permanent guarantee while licensed as a contractor.
c.
The two main reasons for licensing are: To protect public health and safety.
d. The owner is the “prime contractor” in a force account (day labor) construction project. |
|
Definition
| a. Building codes are enforced only by the use of permits. |
|
|
Term
Why is a construction project unique?
Select one:
a. Because each project is tailored to suit its environment.
b. Because each project is arranged to perform its own particular function.
c. Because each project is designed to reflect personal tastes and preferences.
d. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A single prime contractor may only use sub-contractors limited and approved by the owner.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Phased construction is also known as "fast-tracking."
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Competitive bidding is used to encourage efficiency and innovation.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Two broad classes of construction owners are federal and state.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A corporation is an entity created by federal law.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a partnership dissolution, a partner who has loaned money to the partnership gets paid after all other creditors of the partnership except for loans from a commercial lender.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A joint venture is a partnership formed for more than one project.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Staffing is the assignment of responsibility to an employment position.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Delegation is the process of assigning specific responsibilities and authorities to employees commensurate with their training and experience.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Periodic meetings are important to exchange ideas, resolve misunderstandings, and decide on future courses of action for the company.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Time extensions are owed to the contractor for excusable delays, but not for owner-caused delays.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A "claim" and a "lien" are the same thing.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) has ruled that drug or alcohol testing is a mandatory subject of collective bargaining and is not a management prerogative.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most negotiated contracts use a cost-plus-fee arrangement.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Approximately, one million dollars of equipment theft occurs each year nationwide.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cash method of accounting recognizes income when it is received and expenses when they are actually expended.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Subject to the contractual requirements and limitations in the contract, the contractor is free to (1) subcontract portions of the contract, (2) purchase materials where it chooses, and (3) process the work in any way and in any order it pleases.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Miller Act affects all public jobs and requires a payment bond on those jobs.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It is standard practice for a construction contract to give the owner the right to make changes in the work within the general scope of the contract.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Subcontracts is one of the principal procurement functions.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following limited the federal courts power to issue injunctions against union activities in labor disputes:
Select one:
a. Labor Management Relations Act (Taft-Hartley) of 1947
b. National Labor Relations Act (the Wagner Act) of 1935
c. Norris-Laguardia Act of 1932
d. Sherman Anti-Trust Act of 1890 |
|
Definition
| c. Norris-Laguardia Act of 1932 |
|
|
Term
What is the limit of fringe benefits an employer can pay to its employees?
Select one:
a. 50% of an employee’s annual compensation
b. 75% of an employee’s annual compensation
c. 25% of an employee’s annual compensation
d. 15% of an employee’s annual compensation |
|
Definition
| c. 25% of an employee’s annual compensation |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is affected by the Fair Labor Standards Act (the Wage and Hour Law) of 1939?
Select one:
a. Minimum wages
b. Maximum hours
c. Overtime pay
d. Child-labor standards
e. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
______________ is a skilled worker, who is fully qualified in a given craft or trade.
Select one:
a. Journeyman
b. Pre-apprentice
c. Helper
d. Apprentice |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is age discrimination not applicable?
Select one:
a. When age is a bona fide occupational qualification
b. When differentiation is based on reasonable factors other than age, or is caused by the terms of a bona fide seniority system or employee benefit plan
c. When the discharge or discipline of the individual is for good cause
d. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What did the Labor Management Relations Act (the Taft-Hartley Act) of 1947 do?
Select one:
a. Imposed comprehensive controls on organized labor activities, and established the basic right of every worker to participate in union activities or to refrain from them
b. State the recognized rights of employees, employers, and labor unions in their relations with one another and with the public
c. Protect union-organizing activities and to foster collective bargaining
d. Established a code of conduct for unions, union officers, employers, and labor relations consultants |
|
Definition
| a. Imposed comprehensive controls on organized labor activities, and established the basic right of every worker to participate in union activities or to refrain from them |
|
|
Term
Within what time period must a charge of unfair labor practice be brought to the NLRB regional office?
Select one:
a. Within nine months of the alleged unfair activity
b. Within one year of the alleged unfair activity
c. Within six months of the alleged unfair activity
d. Within one months of the alleged unfair activity |
|
Definition
| c. Within six months of the alleged unfair activity |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an activity in which an employer could be involved that are unfair labor practices under the NLRA?
Select one:
a. Interfering with, restraint of, or coercion of employees in the exercise of rights protected by the Act
b. Interference with any labor organization
c. Discrimination against an employee in order to encourage or discourage union membership
d. Discharging or otherwise discriminating against an employee because he filed charges or gave testimony under the Act
e. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. A state right-to-work law prohibits discrimination in employment on the basis of membership or non-membership in a labor union.
b. A secondary boycott is when a union exhorts the firms’ customers and the public to refrain from dealing with that firm.
c. A provision in a labor agreement requires the contractor to acquire its workers only through a designated local union.
d. A typical labor subcontractor agreement requires the general contractor to award work only to those subcontractors who are signatory to a specific union labor contract, or who agree to the provisions of the union contract for the specific project. |
|
Definition
| b. A secondary boycott is when a union exhorts the firms’ customers and the public to refrain from dealing with that firm. |
|
|
Term
When more than one union claims jurisdiction on a project, the ______________ decides which union is correct subject to a NLRB jurisdiction hearing.
Select one:
a. Law
b. Union
c. Contractor
d. Owner |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT an activity in which a union could be involved that are unfair union labor practices under the NLRA?
Select one:
a. Causing an employer to discriminate against an employee
b. Restraining or coercing employees in the exercise of their rights, or in selection of a union representative
c. Refusing to bargain in good faith about wages, hours, and other conditions of employment
d. This choice was deleted after the attempt was started.
e. Engaging in a strike or boycott activities, or to threaten or coerce any person |
|
Definition
| c. Refusing to bargain in good faith about wages, hours, and other conditions of employment |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a way that the construction industry is using to improve its image in an effort to attract additional workers?
Select one:
a. By improving retention
b. By bringing skilled worker form abroad
c. By improving the industry’s image
d. By actively recruiting young workers
e. By establishing better training programs |
|
Definition
| b. By bringing skilled worker form abroad |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a principal contributions unions make to the construction industry?
Select one:
a. Pool of skilled and experienced workers
b. Stabilizing influence
c. Periodic trainings
d. Fixed wage rates |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following statements is NOT true? Select one:
a. Mainly large industrial contractors sign national union agreements.
b. A union worker’s wage scale 50% higher than a non-union worker’s.
c. Project union agreement applies only to a specific large construction job.
d. Once a union agreement is signed the emphasis changes from negotiation to interpretation and administration. |
|
Definition
| b. A union worker’s wage scale 50% higher than a non-union worker’s. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the reasons for the shift in the construction industry from union-shop to open-shop?
Select one:
a. Decline in worker productivity
b. Increased wage rates
c. Restrictions on the use of apprentices and helpers
d. Jurisdictional disputes
e. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pre-hire agreements are primarily in the construction industry.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The "separate gate" doctrine says that union picketing must be limited to the primary contractor involved in the dispute and a gate separate from the main gate may be specified for such picketing.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The construction industry is exempt from the hot-cargo provisions, which otherwise would be an unfair labor practice.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Collective bargaining is intended to stablish a labor contract.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A contractor, union, or individual worker must bring charges of unfair labor practices within three months of the date of the alleged unfair activity.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The AFL-CIO has more than ten construction unions affiliated with it.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An industrial union includes workers in a single craft working in the same industry.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When more than one union claim jurisdiction (usually at a prejob conference), the contractor cannot make the final assignment without resorting to the NLRB.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Associated General Contractors of America (AGC) is one of the organizations that may be a referral source for non-union labor.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Hobbs Act of 1946 permitted extortion by unions, but only in the construction industry.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. Insurance protects a party from risk of loss and guarantees the performance of a defined contractual duty.
b. Insurance protects a party from risk of loss, whereas suretyship guarantees the performance of a defined contractual duty.
c. Suretyship protects a party from risk of loss, whereas insurance guarantees the performance of a defined contractual duty.
d. Suretyship protects a party from risk of loss and guarantees the performance of a defined contractual duty. |
|
Definition
| b. Insurance protects a party from risk of loss, whereas suretyship guarantees the performance of a defined contractual duty. |
|
|
Term
What does a performance bond guarantee?
Select one:
a. Guarantees payment for labor and materials (and equipment rentals).
b. Guarantees that the amount of the contract will match the bid amount.
c. Guarantees that the contract will be performed and that the owner will receive its structure.
d. Guarantees that the contractor will provide the other bonds required (and insurances required). |
|
Definition
| c. Guarantees that the contract will be performed and that the owner will receive its structure. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a component of the “three C’s” requirement for a bond? Select one:
a. Capacity
b. Contractor
c. Character
d. Capital |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. Common-law bonds stand entirely on the provisions contained in the bond itself.
b. Bond premiums are not payable in advance.
c. Statutory bonds contain the provisions of the statute that makes a bond a requirement.
d. On a large contract, a surety may seek protection for itself by enlisting other sureties to underwrite a portion. |
|
Definition
| b. Bond premiums are not payable in advance. |
|
|
Term
Local representative of the bonding company is called:
Select one:
a. Surety agent
b. Insurance agent
c. Bonding agent
d. Subcontractor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a typical insurance policies that construction contracts require of a contractor?
Select one:
a. Workers’ Compensation
b. Employer’s Liability
c. Comprehensive General Liability
d. Indemnification from the contractor |
|
Definition
| d. Indemnification from the contractor |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. Overlaps cost more than gaps with insurance, if there is an uninsured loss.
b. Overlaps and gaps cost the same with insurance, if there is no uninsured loss.
c. Gaps cost more than overlaps with insurance, if there is no uninsured loss.
d. Gaps cost more than overlaps with insurance, if there is an uninsured loss. |
|
Definition
| d. Gaps cost more than overlaps with insurance, if there is an uninsured loss. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. The greatest risk facing a highway contractor is acts of Mother Nature.
b. A builder’s risk policy provides project property damage only including temporary buildings and materials stored therein.
c. “all-risk” builder’s risk insurance policy cover any problem unless excluded.
d. “named-peril” builder’s risk insurance policy covers any risk named in the policy.
e. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What coverage does a public liability insurance policy provide?
Select one:
a. Protects the contractor from its contingent liability imposed by law because of injuries to persons or damage to property others arising from the acts or omissions of independent contractors.
b. Protects the contractor against its legal liability to third persons for bodily injury and property damage arising from its own operations.
c. Protects the contractor from liabilities arising out of projects that have been completed or abandoned.
d. Covers liabilities of others assumed by the contractor in the contract. |
|
Definition
| b. Protects the contractor against its legal liability to third persons for bodily injury and property damage arising from its own operations. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following in a basic types of benefits provided by social security?
Select one:
a. Retirement benefits
b. Hospitalization benefits
c. Survivor benefits
d. Disability benefits
e. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A contractor does not need professional liability coverage if he is a design-construct contractor.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A typical automobile insurance policy provides liability and collision coverage.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Suretyship guarantees the performance of a defined contractual duty.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A maintenance bond guarantees the warranty issued by the contractor.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Highway contractors often carry no project insurance.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Giving written notice to the surety of changes in the work is never a good idea. Select one: True False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a project has multiple prime contractors, it lends itself to having the owner provide the Builder's Risk insurance.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A certificate of insurance is a form executed by an insurance company certifying that the specified insurance is in force.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
There may be some duplication of coverage when the owner purchases its own liability policies and the contractor indemnifies the owner and purchases a protective liability policy.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Major medical, workers' compensation, and life insurances are three of the many types of insurance that a contractor may provide for its employees as a voluntary fringe benefit.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. Accurate estimates are needed for negotiated bidding to provide the owner with reliable advance cost information.
b. The primary purpose of reporting services is the central source of bidding information.
c. Approximate price estimates are based on Gross unit costs.
d. Lump-sum estimates are applicable when quantities of work items may not be precisely determinable but the nature of the work is well defined. |
|
Definition
| d. Lump-sum estimates are applicable when quantities of work items may not be precisely determinable but the nature of the work is well defined. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. Public bid procedures are developed by the owner, and can be changed by the owner.
b. A proposal is the offer which is open for acceptance during the bid review period.
c. A unit-price recap sheet differ from a lump-sum recap based on units of work in the contract rather than work items.
d. The purpose of a change sheet is to incorporate last-minute price revisions. |
|
Definition
| c. A unit-price recap sheet differ from a lump-sum recap based on units of work in the contract rather than work items. |
|
|
Term
The amount of money between the lowest bid and the second-lowest bid is called:
Select one:
a. Bid spread
b. Acceptance period
c. Responsive bid
d. Out of the money |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is “bid rigging”?
Select one:
a. It involves an arrangement between contractors to control the bid prices of a construction project or to divide up customers or market areas.
b. None of above
c. One submitted timely and in the format and manner consistent with the Instructions to Bidders, without exception or qualification.
d. One that a contractor submits to the owner that the contractor did not prepare but obtained from another contractor. |
|
Definition
| a. It involves an arrangement between contractors to control the bid prices of a construction project or to divide up customers or market areas. |
|
|
Term
The number of sets of bidding documents needed by a contractor depends on what?
Select one:
a. The size and complexity of the project
b. The time available for preparation of the bid
c. The number of subcontractors, material suppliers, and plan services
d. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
“Projects, or a portion of a project, reserved for DBE’s” is called:
Select one:
a. Unit-price
b. Reporting service
c. Set asides
d. Lump-sum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. Bonding capacity considerations and location of the project are two of the factors included in the “bidding climate”.
b. Pre-qualification establishes which contractors will be allowed to bid.
c. Post-qualification involves submitting qualification information with or after the bid.
d. All of the statements are true |
|
Definition
| d. All of the statements are true |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a problem caused by an insufficient bidding period?
Select one:
a. Many of the best prices may not have been received by the bidder
b. Guesswork may be involved
c. Errors in the bid documents may not get discovered
d. The best contractors may decide not to bid
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. The contractor estimates self-performed work.
b. A quantity survey is a takeoff of the quantity of each work item called for on the project.
c. A materials price summary is a document to show all of the material prices for each work unit.
d. Wage and production rates are the two rates that must be considered in calculating direct labor costs.
e. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three principal items included in indirect labor costs?
Select one:
a. Material costs, insurance costs, and fringe benefits
b. Payroll taxes, insurance costs, and fringe benefits
c. Payroll taxes, insurance costs, and Equipment costs
d. Payroll taxes, insurance costs, and material costs |
|
Definition
| b. Payroll taxes, insurance costs, and fringe benefits |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. Equipment cost equals the sum of rental cost plus operating cost, if the equipment is rented.
b. Equipment cost equals the sum of ownership cost plus financing cost, if the equipment is owned by the contractor.
c. Equipment production rates is obtained by measuring the amount of work done in a certain amount of time for each piece of equipment.
d. Equipment ownership cost includes: Depreciation, financing cost, taxes, insurance, and storage. |
|
Definition
| b. Equipment cost equals the sum of ownership cost plus financing cost, if the equipment is owned by the contractor. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an item included in “markup?”
Select one:
a. Profit
b. General overhead
c. Contingency
d. All of above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Subcontractors perform less than 50% of the dollar value of building construction. Select one: True False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A unit-price recap sheet contains a bid amount for each unit that is determined by multiplying the direct cost for each unit by a ratio of the total cost to the direct cost.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Unit-price estimates are usually used when the quantities of work items is precisely known.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Range estimating is usually used on small, simple projects.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Materials are defined as everything used at the construction site.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The principal difference between a lump-sum cost survey and a unit-price cost survey is the designer provides estimated quantities for a unit-price project and doesn't for a lump-sum project.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An alternate quote must be complete within itself.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A pre-bid meeting is often held to explore alternative construction procedures that might be followed.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bid filing involves a subcontractor filing its bid with the awarding authority, after which the authority furnishes the contractor with a list of subcontractors and the amount of their bids.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The legitimate reason for an unbalanced bid is to provide payment early in a project when there is no provision for mobilization.
Select one:
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Information generated for company estimating purposes can be in terms of what?
Select one:
a. Labor and equipment rates
b. Unit cost
c. Materials
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A procedure developed for time management of construction projects is _______________
Select one:
a. The “critical path method”
b. The “project planning”
c. The “scheduling phase”
d. None of above |
|
Definition
| a. The “critical path method” |
|
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Term
What is the optimum period of time for cost reports?
Select one:
a. Monthly
b. Daily
c. Yearly
d. Weekly |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is an element of TQM?
Select one:
a. Top level management commitment to quality
b. Company-wide dedication to continuous improvement
c. Company-wide participation
d. Use of tools and techniques to base actions on facts, data, and analysis
e. Training and education of the entire project team
f. All of above |
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Definition
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Term
Project cost control systems, compare projects ---------------- to ----------------?
Select one:
a. Estimations to budget
b. Estimations to expenses
c. Expenses to budget
d. None of above |
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Definition
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Term
How can the true effects of project delays be demonstrated?
Select one:
a. By use of a detailed planning network
b. By use of fast-tracking
c. By use of resource scheduling
d. By use of schedule updating |
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Definition
| a. By use of a detailed planning network |
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Term
What are the responsibilities of the project engineer?
Select one:
a. Project scheduling
b. Progress measurement and reporting
c. Progress billing, keeping job records and reports, cost studies
d. Surveys, safety and first aid
e. All of above |
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Definition
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Term
What are the responsibilities of the project manager?
Select one:
a. To organize, plan, schedule, and control the fieldwork
b. To get the project completed within the time and cost limitations
c. To handle the day-to-day operations in the field
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C |
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Definition
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Term
Who is responsible for scheduling subcontractors?
Select one:
a. The project manager
b. The project superintendent
c. The project engineer
d. The Contracto |
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Definition
| b. The project superintendent |
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Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. Project overhead is project expenses associated with specific work items.
b. The master list of project cost accounts for identifying code designation.
c. Labor time cards are the source document for payroll purposes and labor cost accounting.
d. The required cost breakdown is achieved by maintaining a detailed set of separate cost records for each project. |
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Definition
| a. Project overhead is project expenses associated with specific work items. |
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Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Select one:
a. Weekly measurement of work quantities includes work items accomplished only by labor.
b. Weekly labor reports can be prepared on bases of labor-hour or cost.
c. Time cards should be done Daily.
d. Weekly equipment costs are matched with corresponding quantities of work produced. |
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Definition
| a. Weekly measurement of work quantities includes work items accomplished only by labor. |
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Term
Who runs the regular job site meetings?
Select one:
a. The Contractor
b. The Owner
c. The project manager
d. The project enginee |
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Definition
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Term
"No pay without signed Change Order" intends to prevent:
Select one:
a. It intends to prevent contractors for implementing changes without the owner(s) consent
b. This type of clause intends to prevent owners from constantly creating changes to the project
c. This type of clause is intended to prevent change work from starting until an order signed by the owner and the owner's representative has been delivered to the contractor.
d. It intends to delay work until the change order has been signed by the contractor |
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Definition
| c. This type of clause is intended to prevent change work from starting until an order signed by the owner and the owner's representative has been delivered to the contractor. |
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Term
What is Retrospective Pricing ?
Select one:
a. Pricing that considers previous laws that may affect production
b. Pricing that includes a fee for the contractor should the owner want to return to a previous plan
c. This method looks at the costs when the work is completed
d. This method looks at the cost of the project before completion but after all documents have been signed |
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Definition
| c. This method looks at the costs when the work is completed |
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Term
What is Cardinal Change?
Select one:
a. A cardinal change is one whose nature is such that it is clearly beyond the general scope of the work.
b. A cardinal change is a change made by the owner that the contractor must agree to complete
c. A cardinal change is a change to be completed within a given time period
d. A cardinal change is a change the contractor makes to save time and money |
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Definition
| a. A cardinal change is one whose nature is such that it is clearly beyond the general scope of the work. |
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Term
How does the AIA A201 define change order?
Select one:
a. The AIA A201 General Conditions defines "change order”as the changes made by the contractor to a project.
b. The AIA A201 General Conditions defines "change order” as a change agreed to and signed by the owner, the owner's representative, and the contractor and contains all adjustments for time and cost
c. The AIA A201 General Conditions defines "change order” as the changes to the cost of the project
d. The AIA A201 General Conditions defines "change order” as the changes made by the contractor as to the length of time the project will take to complete |
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Definition
| b. The AIA A201 General Conditions defines "change order” as a change agreed to and signed by the owner, the owner's representative, and the contractor and contains all adjustments for time and cost |
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Term
What are the three principal reasons owners deny DSC claims?
Select one:
a. Not enough information, Wrong language, Lack of Notice to begin project
b. Lack of notice by the contractor in accordance with the clause, Whether or not the difference is material, Lack of pre-bid inspection by the contractor
c. Whether or not the difference is material, Lack of notice to begin project, Contractor challenge
d. Lack of pre-bid inspection by the owner, Whether or not the difference is material, Contractor challenge |
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Definition
| b. Lack of notice by the contractor in accordance with the clause, Whether or not the difference is material, Lack of pre-bid inspection by the contractor |
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Term
What are the three methods available for lump-sum contracts?
Select one:
a. Forward Pricing, Lump Sum Pricing and Force Account
b. Forward Pricing, Retrospective Pricing and Force Account
c. Retrospective Pricing, Owner Pricing and Contract Pricing
d. Force Account, Contractor Pricing and Owner Pricing |
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Definition
| b. Forward Pricing, Retrospective Pricing and Force Account |
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Term
Notice begins the delay time for what two delays?
Select one:
a. Excusable and Compensable delays
b. Contractor and Owner delays
c. Governmental and Owner delays
d. Excusable and Governmental delays |
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Definition
| a. Excusable and Compensable delays |
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Term
What is a "Changes Clause"?
Select one:
a. A structured way for the owner to direct changes, for the contractor to perform them, and for additional compensation to be paid by the owner to the contractor for the change work
b. A clause that permits the contractor to make changes to the project without owner consent
c. A way for the owner to make changes and not pay the contractor
d. A clause that allows for the changing of the payment agreement |
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Definition
| a. A structured way for the owner to direct changes, for the contractor to perform them, and for additional compensation to be paid by the owner to the contractor for the change work |
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Term
What is the "most often reason” for convenience termination?
Select one:
a. The owner running out of money
b. The contractor running out of time
c. The owner choosing a different contractor
d. The contractor leaving mid project |
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Definition
| a. The owner running out of money |
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Term
Define Constructive Change
Select one:
a. A constructive change is a governmental change whereby the owner has 30 days to comply with the change or be forced to shut down production
b. A constructive change is a contractor mandated change
c. A constructive change is a owner ordered change
d. A constructive change is a change to the work not acknowledged by the owner, whose position is that the work ordered is within the scope of the contract work and is not a change. |
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Definition
| d. A constructive change is a change to the work not acknowledged by the owner, whose position is that the work ordered is within the scope of the contract work and is not a change. |
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Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a. Most negotiated contracts use “cost-plus” as the fee arrangement.
b. “Agreement” document formalizes the deal and brings together all of the contract documents by reference.
c. “Material breach of contract” is a main way which can terminate a contract.
d. A contractor is not free to Subcontract portions of the contract. |
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Definition
| d. A contractor is not free to Subcontract portions of the contract. |
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Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a. Occupancy and use by the owner constitutes final acceptance of the project.
b. “Notice to proceed” is the beginning of the contract time.
c. A contractor is responsible for improper workmanship and Inferior materials.
d. A contract may be terminated by Mutual agreement of the parties. |
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Definition
| a. Occupancy and use by the owner constitutes final acceptance of the project. |
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Term
An agreed upon amount, being a reasonable measure of expected actual damages, resulting from completing the project late (after the extended deadline).” is:
a. Liquidated damages
b. Notice to proceed
c. Letter of intent
d. Indemnification |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is a main “points of law” that an A/E has no authority to decide?
a. Time of completion
b. Extensions of time
c. Liquidated damages
d. Claims for extra payment
e. All of above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the followings is NOT a responsibility of an owner of a project?
Select one:
a. Making periodic payments to the contractor
b. Providing property surveys and granting access to the site,
c. Purchase materials and equipment
d. Providing and warranting the accuracy of construction plans
e. Coordinating separate prime contracts |
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Definition
| c. Purchase materials and equipment |
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Term
Which of the following in NOT an acceptable reasons for a time extension?
a. Caused by the owner or owner’s representative
b. Caused by Mother Nature
c. Caused by law
d. Caused by contractors |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a. The basis for a lump-sum periodic payment request is the measured or counted number of units in place.
b. On cash sale, when paid for and delivery made, title to a purchase change from the seller to the buyer.
c. Remaining amount owed, including retainage is included in a final payment to a contractor.
d. Accelerated depreciation gives a faster write-off of the cost of an asset during the first years of its life. |
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Definition
| The basis for a lump-sum periodic payment request is the measured or counted number of units in place. |
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Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a. Union shop workers and open shop workers are trained by the union via apprenticeship programs.
b. The National Labor Relations Board has ruled that drug testing is a mandatory subject of collective bargaining and is not a management prerogative.
c. Transfer of a right from one person to another is an assignment in regards to a construction contract.
d. Back charges apply to subcontractors through the deduction from payments owed to the subcontractor. |
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Definition
| a. Union shop workers and open shop workers are trained by the union via apprenticeship programs. |
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Term
“2/10 net 30” means?
a. If payment is made within 10 days of invoice date, 2 percent discount can be deducted from invoice.
b. 10 percent discount can be deducted from invoice if paid by the 2nd day of the next month.
c. 2 percent discount can be deducted from invoice if paid by the 10th day of the next month.
d. If payment is made within 2 days of invoice date, 10 percent discount can be deducted from invoice. |
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Definition
| a. If payment is made within 10 days of invoice date, 2 percent discount can be deducted from invoice. |
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Term
Which of the following is an advantage of equipment rental as opposed to equipment purchase?
a. For evaluation for later purchase
b. Coverage for an equipment breakdown
c. All of above
d. For low-percentage utilization and for short-term peak or seasonal use |
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Definition
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Term
11. ---------------------- Shows the nature and amount of the company’s income and expenses for a given time period (often a calendar year).
a. Income statement
b. Percentage of completion
c. Balance sheet
d. Management report |
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Definition
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Term
12. What is the percentage-of-completion capitalized cost method?
a. Where 90% of the revenue and expenses use the percentage-of-completion method and the remaining 10% use the completed-contract method.
b. Where 85% of the revenue and expenses use the percentage-of-completion method and the remaining 15% use the completed-contract method.
c. Where 80% of the revenue and expenses use the percentage-of-completion method and the remaining 20% use the completed-contract method.
d. Where 95% of the revenue and expenses use the percentage-of-completion method and the remaining 5% use the completed-contract method. |
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Definition
| a. Where 90% of the revenue and expenses use the percentage-of-completion method and the remaining 10% use the completed-contract method. |
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Term
What are the five principal procurement functions discussed in section 9.19?
a. Purchasing, Expediting and Receiving, Inspection, Shipping, Subcontracts
b. Materials, Expediting and Receiving, Inspection, Purchasing, contracts
c. Purchasing, Expediting and Receiving, Inspection, Materials, Subcontracts
d. Materials, Expediting and Receiving, Purchasing, Shipping, contracts |
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Definition
| a. Purchasing, Expediting and Receiving, Inspection, Shipping, Subcontracts |
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Term
What is meant by straight-line depreciation?
Select one:
a. Requires depreciation for each piece of equipment to begin midway through the quarter in which it was put in use.
b. An accelerated depreciation procedure for business income tax reporting.
c. Acting as a profit center to recover the cost of the equipment recovered on each project on which the equipment is used.
d. Writing off the depreciable value of an asset at a uniform rate throughout its service life. |
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Definition
| d. Writing off the depreciable value of an asset at a uniform rate throughout its service life. |
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