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Communications 373 Midterm
Midterm study questions.
54
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Undergraduate 3
04/24/2009

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Term
1. Q: The extent to which group members are perceived as being a coherent social unit.
A:
Definition
“entativity”
Term
Q: To count as a group, a social entity must have:
Definition
A: Regular interaction among its members
Term
Q: Lawrence Frey’s study of a residential AIDS facility is an example of a:
Definition
A: Case study
Term
Q: A _______________ approach to understanding a group assumes that the group has a goal and progress toward that goal can be measured.
Definition
A: Functional
Term
. Q: The _______________ approach views the group as a collection of conflicting aims, emotions, and desires.
Definition
A: Psychodynamic
Term
Q: The two most fundamental requirements for a sound theory are:
Definition
A: Clarity and logical coherence
Term
7. Q: The degree to which a theory bears some clear correspondence to reality, researchers conclude that the theory is:
Definition
A: Valid.
Term
Q: The simplicity of the theory’s statements refers to:
Definition
A: Parsimony
Term
Q: A theory that is able to be tested is said to be:
Definition
A: Falsifiable
Term
1. Q: A group member’s age, cultural identity, and the rate of interruption in a discussion are measurable entities that likely fluctuate from one group to another. Age, cultural identity, and rate of interruption are:
Definition
A: Variables
Term
2. Q: Output variables, such as the quality of a group decision, are considered dependent variables because:
Definition
A: Their values rely on the inputs and the group process.
Term
3. Q: The process variables, which include the group’s discussions and its members’ thoughts and feelings, _______________ the relationship between inputs and processes; they serve as the conduit between inputs and outputs.
Definition
A: Mediate
Term
Q: _______________ lies at the center of the input-process-output model.
Definition
A: Interaction among group members
Term
Q: The _______________ perspective assumes that the different facets of groups interrelate in such a way that changes in one variable reshape others in complex ways.
Definition
systems
Term
Q: The _______________ framework stresses the ability of individuals to make their own choices even in the midst of powerful social pressures.
Definition
structuration
Term
Q: The fact that speed limits on highways not only prevent us from driving faster but also enable us to travel safely by making the speed of the other cars on the highways more predictable is an example of:
Definition
A: Duality of structure
Term
Q: Larger systems often depend on the groups within them—such as organizations, communities, and cultures—because the group’s behavior can shape the character of the larger system. This statement illustrates:
Definition
A: The Embedded System Theory
Term
Q: While a group visibly interacts, group members might interpret what is said, take offense or feel encouraged, rethink the group’s task, or daydream. This illustrates:
Definition
A: Cognitive and emotional processing
Term
Q: Group members’ satisfaction with the group’s discussion, sense of group cohesion, and commitment to the group often serve as:
Definition
A: Subjective assessments
Term
Q: If members of a group are collectively able to self-determine the group’s actions, the group is said to have a(an):
Definition
A: Democratic structure
Term
Q: Groups that accomplishing particular tasks and plan and monitor their group performance are:
Definition
A: Self-managed work teams
Term
13. Q: Hirokawa and his colleagues found that a key predictor of effective group process is a combination of:
Definition
A: Group structure and member characteristics
Term
. Q: A methodological convention that estimates the strength of the association between two variables:
Definition
A: Effect size
Term
Q: The O.J. Simpson case is a primary example of:
Definition
A: How the jury can shape society
Term
Q: In the model of juries, the absence of two feedback loops—from group processing and group outcomes back to inputs—emphasizes that:
Definition
A: A jury exists once and then dissolves
Term
Q: Many paths in the model of juries underscore that:
Definition
A: The jury exists within a larger social context
Term
Q: The most widely-recognized archetypical decision-making group is the:
Definition
A: Jury
Term
Q: Based on his research, Isenberg concluded that _______________ can shift group member attitudes more powerfully than _______________ when group’s deliberate on “matter of fact”
Definition
issues.
A: Persuasive arguments; conformity pressure
Term
Q: Based on his research, Isenberg concluded that _______________ can shift group member attitudes more powerfully than _______________ when group’s deliberate on highly ego-involved issues.
Definition
A: Conformity pressure; persuasive arguments
Term
Q: Minorities have the best hope of success in ________________ groups.
Definition
A: Smaller
Term
Q: The key dependent variable in the functional theory of group decision-making is:
Definition
A: The effectiveness of the discussion
Term
Q: Small group researcher Marshall Scott Poole closely examined the _______________ in which groups make a decision.
Definition
A: Sequence
Term
Q: As many of half of most group discussions follow the _______________ sequence.
Definition
A: Unitary
Term
Q: Groups that have low cohesion, a larger size, the potential for sustained conflict, and a problem requiring detailed analysis are most likely to follow the _______________ sequence.
Definition
A: Unitary
Term
Q: A _______________ sequence often results when a group is open to considering many different perspectives on an issue.
Definition
A: Problem-oriented
Term
Q: A _______________ path often results in smaller groups assuming novel tasks while experiencing considerable interpersonal conflict.
Definition
A: Complex
Term
Q: The model of group decision-making does not consider:
Definition
A: Stronger roles for society
Term
1. Q: Applying direct pressure on dissenters, stereotyped views of an opposing group’s motivations, and group members think there is complete agreement among members are all symptoms of:
Definition
A: Groupthink
Term
Q: Janis’ original theory of groupthink contended that several features had to come together perfectly for groupthink to occur. At a minimum, Janis argued, a group must be:
Definition
A: Highly cohesive, structurally flawed, and in a challenging situational context
Term
Q: According to the simplified model of groupthink, the trouble begins with:
Definition
A: The potential of an external threat to the group
Term
Q: The Chain, Wheel, Circle, and Comcon are types of:
Definition
A: Communication networks
Term
Q: Which communication network pattern constitutes the most centralized network?
Definition
A: The Wheel
Term
Q: Which communication network pattern represents the most decentralized arrangement?
Definition
A: The Comcon
Term
Q: Which communication network form is most sufficient for accomplishing relatively simple tasks?
Definition
A: The Wheel
Term
Q: Robert’s Rules provides a guide for:
Definition
A: Structuring group discussion
Term
Q: The five stage process of convening, assigning responsibilities, problem solving, building agreement before a final vote, and holding people accountable accurately depicts:
Definition
A: A consensus building approach
Term
Q: A hallmark of the consensus process is:
Definition
A: Careful listening
Term
Q: Critics of the consensus approach often fear that consensus:
Definition
A: Leads to a mild form of groupthink
Term
Q: Groups that are split into smaller subgroups to separately develop alternatives and then reconvene as a whole to analyze and compare ideas before making a decision is best characterized as:
Definition
A: Dialectical inquiry
Term
Q: _______________ refers to a subgroup (or a single group member) critiquing another subgroup’s plan.
Definition
A: The d advocate procedure
Term
Q: _______________ often outperforms other methods at generating conflict and challenging assumptions.
Definition
d advocate
Term
Q: _______________ frequently makes group members more satisfied with the decision and the decision-making process itself.
Definition
A: The consensus approach
Term
Q: When a group anticipates a premature consensus forming, it is best to engage in:
Definition
d advocate
Term
Q: When a group has two or three plausible solutions, it is best to engage in:
Definition
A: Dialectical inquiry
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